31-05-2026

2302CMD303001260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If and are parallel to each other then value of z and y will be :

(1) 10, 5
(2) 5, 10
(3) 5, 5
(4) 10, 10

2) The unit vector along a vector is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which is a vector quantity :-

(1) Angular acceleration

(2) Electric potential
(3) Electric current
(4) Refractive index

4) What happens when we multiply a vector by – 2 ?

(1) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled

(2) direction reverses and unit changes
(3) Direction remains unchanged but unit changes
(4) Neither direction reverses nor unit changes, only the magnitude is doubled

5) A vector points vertically upward and points towards north. The vector product is

(1) Zero
(2) along west
(3) along east
(4) vertically downward

6) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

7) The angles which a vector makes with x, y and z-axis respectively are :-

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45° 60°

8) The magnitude of pairs of displacement vectors are given. Which pairs of displacement vectors
cannot be added to give a resultant vector of magnitude 13 cm ?

(1) 4 cm, 16 cm
(2) 20 cm, 7 cm
(3) 1 cm, 15 cm
(4) 6 cm, 8 cm

9) The magnitude of is

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3)
(4) 4

10)

The dimensional formula of relative density is :

(1) [ML–3]
(2) [LT–1]
(3) [MLT–2]
(4) dimensionless

11) if find percentage error in x

(1) 1%
(2) 3%
(3) 6%
(4) 4.5%

12) Which of the following system of units is not based on units of mass, length and time alone ?
(1) SI
(2) MKS
(3) FPS
(4) CGS

13)

For 10(at+3), the dimension of a is (where t in second)

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M L T1
0 0
(3) M L T–1
(4) None of these

14)

The area of a rectangle of size 1.23 × 2.345 cm is

(1) 2.88 cm2

(2) 2.884 cm2
(3) 2.9 cm2
(4) 2.88435 cm2

15) Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error
in the estimates of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be –

(1) 8%
(2) 2%
(3) 12%
(4) 10%

16)

Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2 :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

17)

The formula relates power (P), distance (x) and time (t). The dimensional formula for 'a' is
:-

0
(1) [ML T2]
(2) [M–1LT–2]
(3) [ML–2T–2]
0
(4) [M–1L T2]

18) Which of the following has dimensions different from others :

(1) Work
(2) Energy
(3) Pressure
(4) Torque

19) A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with 18 divisions on the
main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. Then find out the value of main scale
division.

(1) 0.4 mm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 2 mm

20) Which of the following is unitless quantity ?

(1) Pressure gradient

(2) Displacement gradient
(3) Force gradient
(4) Velocity gradient

21) If u1 & u2 are the units selected in two systems of units and n1 and n2 are their numerical values,
then:

(1) n1u2 = n2u1

(2)

(3) n1n2 = u1u2

(4) n1 – u1 = n2 – u2

22) The number of significant figure in the 0.0006032 is:-

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

23) The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5.00 ± 0.05) kg and (1.00 ± 0.05) m3
respectively. Then the maximum possible percentage error in density :-
(1) 3%
(2) 10%
(3) 6%
(4) 5%

24) The least count of a stop watch is . The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured as
25s. The percentage error in the measurement of time will be :-

(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.8%
(3) 1.8%
(4) 8%

25) Convert density = 0.5 gm/cc into MKS system:

(1) 5 × 106
(2) 5 × 109
(3) 5 × 103
(4) 5 × 102

26) A dimensionless quantity:-

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

27)

If velocity (V), force (F) and energy (E) are taken as fundamental units, then dimensional formula for
mass will be

(1) 2

(2)
(3)
(4)

28) In the figure shown the angle between & is:

(1) 225°
(2) 60°
(3) 15°
(4) 135°

29) Find a vector having magnitude double of and direction same as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

30) What should be added to the sum of vectors and so that the resultant is a
unit vector along the x-axis ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Of the following quantities which one has dimensions different from the remaining three?

(1) Energy per unit volume

(2) Force per unit area
(3) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
(4) Angular momentum per unit mass

32) The percentage error in measurement of a physical quantity [m given by m = π tan θ] is

minimum when

(1) θ = 45°
(2) θ = 90°
(3) θ = 60°
(4) θ = 30°

33) Two resistance are measured in ohm and is given as:-

R1 = 3Ω ± 1%
R2 = 6Ω ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, the percentage error in equivalent resistance is

(1) 3%
(2) 4.5%
(3) 0.67%
(4) 1.33%
34) In a new system of units 4 kg is unit of mass, 10 m is unit of length and 1 sec is unit of time. Find
the value of 1 pascal (N/m2) in this new system.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Potential energy of an object at any postion x is given by, U = , The dimensions of B are
:–

(1) [M L–1/2 T–2]

(2) [M L1/2 T–2]
(3) [M L1/2 T–1]
(4) [M L–1/2 T–1]

36) In a vernier calliper N division of main scale coincided with (N + 2) division of vernier scale. If
one main scale division is 2mm, the least count of vernier calliper will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

38) In the given figure, R is the mid-point of PQ then relation between , and :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. The magnitude of is equal to n times the
magnitude of , then the angle between and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Choose the correct statement

(1) Error in a measurement is equal to the sum of true value and measured value of the quantity
(2) Systematic errors occur in both directions, positive and negative
(3) Random errors occur irregularly and at random, in magnitude and direction
(4) In constant errors, errors affect each observation by the different amount

41) A new system of units is proposed in which, the unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m, and
unit of time is γ s. What will be the value of 5 J in the new system?

(1) 5α –2 β–1 γ–2

(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–1β2γ2
(4) 5αβ2γ–2

42) Velocity v and acceleration a in two systems of units 1 and 2 are related as and

respectively. Here, m and n are constants. The relations for distance and time in two
systems respectively are
(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

43) Diameter of steel ball is measured using a vernier callipers which has divisions of 0.1 cm on its
main scale and 10 divisions of its vernier scale match 9 divisions on the main scale. Three such
measurements for a ball are given as

[Link] M.S. V.S. Divisions

1 0.5 cm 8

2 0.5 cm 4

3 0.5 cm 6
If the zero error is 0.03 cm, then mean corrected diameter is :
(1) 0.53 cm
(2) 0.59 cm
(3) 0.56 cm
(4) 0.51 cm

44) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is measured value of L is 20.0 cm

known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a
wrist watch of 1 s resolution. What is the accuracy in the determination of g ?

(1) 3%
(2) 1%
(3) 4%
(4) 2%

45) The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. In
measuring the diameter of a sphere there are six divisions on the linear scale and forty divisions on
circular scale coincides with the reference line. Find the diameter of the sphere :

(1) 34mm
(2) 46mm
(3) 6.4mm
(4) 62mm

CHEMISTRY
1) The energies E1 & E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e λ1 & λ2 will be

(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)
λ1 = λ2

2) Rutherford’s α – particle scattering experiments led to the conclusion that

(1) mass and energy are related together

(2) the mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus
(3) neutrons are present in the nucleus
(4) atoms are electrically neutral

3)

In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled & the mass attributed to protons were halved,
the atomic mass would become approximately :-

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

4) A monovalent anions has 10 electrons and 10 neutrons. The atomic number and mass number of
the element are respectively

(1) 10, 20
(2) 9, 18
(3) 20, 10
(4) 9, 19

5) An isotone of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(1) (ii) & (iii)

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)
6)

The wavelength in metres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1 is?

(1) 3 × 107
(2) 2 × 10–25
(3) 5 × 10–18
(4) 3.75 × 10-8

7) The energy of a photon of light is _________ proportional to its frequency and _________
proportional to its wavelength.

(1) directly, directly

(2) inversely, inversely
(3) inversely, directly
(4) directly, inversely

8) The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a photoelectron of zero velocity from the surface of
the metal, the wavelength of incident light should be

(1) 2700 Å
(2) 1700 Å
(3) 5900 Å
(4) 3100 Å

9) True statements are

(a) Electromagnetic waves do not require medium to move.
(b) All types of electromagnetic radiations are same in wavelength.
(c) In vacuum all electromagnetic radiations, travel at the same speed.
(d) The oscillating electric & magnetic fields produced by oscillating charged particles are
perpendicular to each other and both are perpendicular to the direction of propogation of the wave.

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c, d

10) The energy of one mole photons of radiation having frequency 5.01 × 1014 Hz is :

(1) 160 kJ mol–1

(2) 180 kJ mol–1
(3) 200 kJ mol–1
(4) 220 kJ mol–1

11) What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000pm that provide 1J of energy ?

(1) 2 × 1017
(2) 2 × 1016
(3) 2 × 1019
(4) 2 × 1015

12) is angular momentum in.............orbit of He+

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Infinite

13)

The radius of a shell for H-atom is 4.761A°. The value of n is :-

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 5
(4) 4

14) In Bohr's atomic model radius of Ist orbit of Hydrogen is 0.053 nm then radius of 3rd orbit of Li+2 is
:

(1) 0.159 nm
(2) 0.053 nm
(3) 0.023 nm
(4) 0.026 nm

15) Assertion (A):- Bohr's model is not applicable for He atom.

Reason (R):- He atom is multielectron species.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

16) For Li+2, r2 : r5 will be :-

(1) 9 : 25
(2) 4 : 25
(3) 25 : 4
(4) 25 : 9

17) Which of the following is not a permissible value of angular momentum of electron in H-atom?
 1.5
(1)

0.5
(2)

1.25
(3)

(4) all of these

18) Statement-1 : Energy emitted when an electron jump from 5 → 2 (energy level) is less than
when an electron jump from 2 →1 in all 'H' like atom.
Statement-2 : The |total energy difference| between 1st & 2nd energy level is greater than that of
any two energy level provided level '1' is not part of those two energy levels.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

19) If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of
Li2+ ion?

(1) 15.87 pm
(2) 1.587 pm
(3) 158.7 Å
(4) 158.7 pm

20) Which of the following species will produce the shortest wavelength for the transition n = 2 to n
= 1.

(1) Hydrogen atom

(2) Singly ionised helium
(3) Deuterium atom
(4) Doubly ionised lithium

21) Select the correct Statements from the following :

(A) Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
(B) The mass of the electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg.
(C) All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
(D) Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) C, D and E only

(2) A and E only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) A,B and C only

22) Calculate the number of electrons in the species, H2+, H2 and O2+ respectively.

(1) 0, 2, 15
(2) 1, 2, 15
(3) 1, 2, 16
(4) 0, 2, 16

23) Based on equation E = –2.178 × 10–18 J certain conclusions are written. Which of them is
not correct ?

For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the
(1)
electron is more lossely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.
The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is
(2)
lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus
(3) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius
(4) Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron change orbit

24)

Going from K–shell to N–shell in case of H– atom :-

(1) Kinetic energy decreases

(2) Total energy decreases
(3) Potential energy decreases
(4) None of these

25) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :

(Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 6.67 × 1015

(2) 6.67 × 1011
(3) 4.42 × 10–15
(4) 4.42 × 10–18

26) The energy of H–atom in nth orbit is En, then energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium atom will
be:-

(1) 4En
(2) En/4
(3) 2En
(4) En/2
27)

Which is correct for any H like species :-

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)
(4) (E2 – E1) = 1/4 (E3 – E2)=1/9 (E4 – E3)

28)

Energy required to remove an e– from M shell of H-atom is 1.51 eV, then energy of first excited state
will be :-

(1) –1.51 eV
(2) +1.51 eV
(3) –3.4 eV
(4) –13.6 eV

29) En = –313.6/[Link] the value of En = –34.84 then to which of the following values does 'n'
correspond :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) The ratio of potential energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of hydrogen like
species is :-

(1) 2
(2) –2
(3) 1
(4) –1

31) In which transition minimum energy is emitted

(1) ∞ → 1
(2) 2 → 1
(3) 3 → 2
(4) n → (n – 1) [n ≥ 4]

32) The frequency of light for 1.0 Å wavelength is:-

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 Cycles per sec
(4) All of the above

33) X+, Y2+ and Z– are isoelectronic with CO2. Increasing order of protons in X+, Y2+ and Z– is :

(1) X+ = Y2+ = Z–
(2) X+ < Y2+ < Z–
(3) Z– < X+ < Y2+
(4) Y2+ < X+ < Z–

34) The ratio of circumference of 3rd and 2nd orbits of He+ ion is -

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 4 : 9

35) Bohr's model may be applied to :-

(1) Na10+ ion

(2) He atom
(3) Be2+ ion
(4) C6+ ion

36) Specific charges ( ratio) of two particles A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the mass ratio,
mA : mB is 2 : 3 then the ratio of their charges , eA : eB should be

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 5 : 3

37) The radius of second Bohr orbit of Li2+ is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Correct sequence for specific charge ratio of e, p, n, α is (with respect to magnitude only) :-
(1) e < p < n < α
(2) α < n < p < e
(3) n < α < p < e
(4) α < p < n < e

39) When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a low energy level, then :-

(1) Energy is emitted

(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) Atomic number increases
(4) Atomic number decreases

40) The fraction of volume occupied by the nucleus with respect to the total volume of an atom is :

(1) 10–15
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–30
(4) 10–10

41) A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u respectively. The
proportion of these isotopes in the sample is 3:1. What will be the average atomic mass of oxygen in
this sample?

(1) 17.5 u
(2) 17 u
(3) 16 u
(4) 16.5 u

42) Energy of an electron is given by E = – 2.178 × 10–18 J . Wavelength of light required to

excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be :-
(h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 1.214 × 10–7 m

(2) 2.816 × 10–7 m
(3) 6.500 × 10–7 m
(4) 8.500 × 10–7 m

43) Calculate velocity of an electron placed in the third orbit of the hydrogen atom :-

(1) 7.27 × 105 ms–1

(2) 7.27 × 107 ms–1
(3) 0.27 × 105 ms–1
(4) 7.27 × 106 ms–1
44) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are :

(1) 175, 104 and 71

(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71
(4) 71, 71 and 104

45)

Maximum frequency will be of

(1) UV-rays
(2) IR
(3) Radiowaves
(4) X-rays

BOTANY

1) Which of the following cell organelle is absent in prokaryotic cell ?

(1) Ribosome
(2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) (2) and (3) both

2) An organelle which is surrounded by double membrane structure, contain small circular DNA
molecule & ribosome and also having the site for oxidative phosphorylation:

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Centriole
(3) Mesosome
(4) Mitochondria

3) Total number of microtubules in centriole and axoneme of cilium or flagellum of eukaryotes are
respectively as :-

(1) 20, 27
(2) 27, 20
(3) 27, 18
(4) 18, 27

4) How many given below structures are commonly found in both flagella and centrioles?
Radial spokes, Hub, Plasma membrane, Peripheral microtubules, central microtoubules

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) In plants which of the following microbody is involved in photorespiration :-

(1) Peroxisome
(2) Sphaerosome
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Ribosome

6) In plant and animal cells, chromatin are made up of :

(1) Only DNA

(2) DNA, RNA and Histone only
(3) DNA, RNA, Protein and some fat bodies
(4) DNA, RNA, Histone and non histones

7) Assertion (A): Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.

Reason (R): They produce ATP by the process of photophosphorylation.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

8) Sedimentation coefficient 'S' [Svedberg's unit] is indirectly a measure of :-

(1) Volume and weight

(2) Density and size
(3) Size and colour
(4) Mass and gravitational force

9) Small disc shaped structures at the surface of centromere is called :-

(1) Telomere
(2) N.O.R.
(3) Satellite
(4) Kinetochore

10) Assertion :- Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles.

Reason :- They are formed by division of pre-existing organelles as well as contain DNA but lack
protein synthesizing machinery.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

11) Microtubules are part of cytoskeleton of cell and they help in the formation of

(1) Centriole
(2) Cilia and flagella
(3) Spindle fibres
(4) All of the above

12) A granular particle present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, related to protein synthesis is
also present in

(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi body
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Peroxisomes

13) The chromosome in which centromere lies slightly away from the middle of the chromosome
resulting into one short arm and one long arm is called :-

(1) Acrocentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Submetacentric
(4) Metacentric

14) Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constriction at a constant location.
The gives the appearance of a small fragment beyond the secondary constriction called :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Centromere
(3) Satellite
(4) Both (2) and (3)

15) Which of the following is correct for the diagram given below ?
(1) It represents prokaryotic flagella
(2) It possess '9 + 0' microtubular organisation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) It represents hair-like outgrowths of cell membrane in eukaryotic cilia and flagella

16) Read the following statements w.r.t. mitochondria:-

(i) It divides and increases in number by fission
(ii) During early course of evolution these were actually bacteria
(iii) Its matrix perform electron transport chain and the inner membrane perforem Krebs' cycle
(iv) These are fully autonomous organelles
(v) Its matrix posses 70S ribosomes, RNA and linear dsDNA
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

17) Spindle fibres attach to the :-

(1) Telomere of the chromosome

(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(3) Secondary constriction of the chromosome
(4) Kinetosome of the chromosome

18) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(2) Central proteinaceous hub in missing in a centriole
(3) Each centriole has an organization like that of a cartwheel
(4) Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical centrioles

19) Aerobic respiration is performed by :- [NCERT 11th Pg :134]

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosome
(4) Golgibody

20) Read the following statements :-

(A) Both the chromatids of chromosome are joined by a structure called centromere
(B) During cell division spindle fibres are not formed
(C) Telocentric chromosome has a terminal centromere
(D) Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction
Find out correct sequence of true (T) and false (F) statements

(1) T F T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T F T F
(4) T T F F

21) From the statements given below choose the correct option:
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

(1) A, B, C are true

(2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true
(4) B, D, E are true

22) Inner mitochondrial membrane forms a number of infoldings which increase surface area
is called :

(1) Mesosome
(2) Cisternae
(3) Secondary constriction
(4) Cristae

23) What does a centrosome consist of?

(1) Two centrioles surrounded by pericentriolar material

(2) Two mitochondria
(3) One centriole and one lysosome
(4) Two nuclei

24) Cilia and flagella arise from which centriole-like structure?

(1) Centrosome
(2) Basal body
(3) Axoneme
(4) Centromere

25) What is the arrangement of microtubules in a typical eukaryotic cilium or flagellum

(1) 9 + 0 pattern
(2) 9 + 2 pattern
(3) 9 + 1 pattern
(4) 10 + 2 pattern

26)
The name chromatin was given by Flemming after staining which type of dye?

(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Basic
(4) None of these

27)

Which of following is not common in chloroplasts & mitochondria?

(1) Both are present in animal cells

(2) Both contain their own genetic material
(3) Both are present in eukaryotic cells
(4) Both are present in plant cells

28) Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton?

(1) Microtubules
(2) Intermediate filaments
(3) Centrioles
(4) Microfilaments

29) Assertion : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin
Reason : During different stages of cell division, cells show structured chromosomes in place of the
nucleus

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

30) Plastid which store fat and carbohydrate respectively

(1) Elioplast, Amyloplast

(2) Amyloplast, Chloroplast
(3) Elioplast, Aleuroplast
(4) Chromoplast, Chloroplast

31) Which statement about nucleolus is false?

(1) It is non-membrane bound

(2) It synthesizes rRNA
(3) It is continuous with the nucleoplasm
(4) Nucleolus is found in bacteria
32) Where are ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells?

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) All of these

33) How many of the following organelles are found in prokaryotic cells?
ER, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Microbodies, Vacuoles

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 0

34) Which of the following present in mitochondria of the cell ?

(1) Single circular DNA

(2) Few RNA molecules
(3) 70S ribosomes
(4) All of these

35) Select wrongly matched option :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Statement-I:- Ribosomes perform protein synthesis.

Statement-II:- Ribosomes are membrane bound organelle.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

37) Match the Column (Organelle and Function)

Column I (Organelle) Column II (Function)
A. Golgi apparatus P. Glycosylation of proteins
B. Lysosome Q. Intracellular digestion
C. Nucleolus R. rRNA synthesis
D. Mitochondria S. ATP production
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–Q, B–P, C–S, D–R
(3) A–R, B–P, C–Q, D–S
(4) A–P, B–R, C–Q, D–S

38) A biologist observes a double-membrane organelle with circular DNA, capable of ATP
production. The organelle divides independently.
Identify the organelle and key feature:

(1) Nucleus – semi-autonomous

(2) Mitochondria – endosymbiotic origin
(3) ER – protein synthesis
(4) Chloroplast – lacks DNA

39) Choose the feature common to mitochondria and chloroplasts:

(1) Presence of thylakoids

(2) Double membrane with circular DNA
(3) Cristae
(4) Cellulose wall

40) Consider the following four statement (a - d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones:
(a) Many membrane bound minute vesicles called microbodies that contain various enzymes, are
present in both plant and animal cells.
(b) Cilia and flagella are hair-like out growths of the cell membrane.
(c) The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and
proteins.
(d) Anton von Leenwenhoek first saw and described a dead cell.

(1) Statement b,c and only

(2) Statement a, b only
(3) Statement a, b and c only
(4) Statement c,d only

41) Study the following statements of eukaryotic cilium or eukaryotic flagellum and answer the
question.
(i) Cilium / Flagellum contains an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet
microtubules.
(ii) Cilia are smaller which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cells or surrounding
fluid.
(iii) Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible for cell movement.
(iv) Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

42) How many characters for chromosomes are not correct from given characters?
(i) Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin.
(ii) The name chromatin for material of the nucleus was given by Flemming.
(iii) Chromatin consists of DNA and some basic proteins called histones, some non-histone proteins
and RNA.
(iv) A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
six chromosomes.
(v) Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction or the centromere.
(vi) Every chromosome have non-staining secondary constrictions.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iv) and (vi)
(4) (vi) only

43) Power house of the cell produces ......................

(1) ATP
(2) Glucose
(3) O2
(4) None of the above

44) Mitochondria divide by :

(1) Meiosis
(2) Reduction division
(3) Mitosis
(4) Fission

45) Which of the following is correct option for given statements.

A. Thylakoids are flat, membranous sacs found in the matrix of mitochondria
B. The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes for only carbohydrate synthesis
C. In ribosomes S is directly a measure of density and size
D. Cell wall provide barrier to undesirable micromolecules

(1) All statements are correct

(2) Only B, C & D are correct
(3) All statements are incorrect
(4) Only A, C & D are correct
 ZOOLOGY

1) Switch off point, which reduce duration of inspiration is located in :-

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Cerebrum
(3) Intercostal muscles
(4) Pons

2) Identify the disorder, which causes "Wheezing" :-

(1) Emphysema
(2) Arthritis
(3) Asthma
(4) Fibrosis

3) How many layers are present in the diffusion membrane at alveolar level ?

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

4) Oxygen dissociation curve is a:

(1) Sigmoid curve

(2) J-shaped curve
(3) Exponential growth curve
(4) Hyperbolic curve

5) CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as:

(1) carboxy – haemoglobin

(2) carbamino – haemoglobin
(3) carbamido – haemoglobin
(4) deoxyhaemoglobin

6)

Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration :

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity
7) Oxyhaemoglobin curve will show right shift in the case of :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (3)

8) Which of the following statement are/is true ?

(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick

(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter
(3) At the level of alveoli, gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion
(4) All of these

9) Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by :-

(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood

(2) Carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in the venous blood
(4) Oxygen content in the arterial blood

10) In the given statements choose the odd one :-

(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-tight chamber

(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity
(3) The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
(4) The inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface

11)

Read the following statements :-

(a) Respiratory rhythm centre is present in medulla region
(b) Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.

(c) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant (d) Pneumotaxic
centre is present in pons region.
(e) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognise changes in CO2 and
H⊕ concentration. How many statements are correct about regulation of respiration ?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

12) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a process of oxidation.

 Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to tissue under normal
(2)
physiological condition.
Dissociation curve is curve between percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen and partial
(3)
pressure of oxygen.
(4) High concentration of CO2 activates dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is called Bohr's effect.

13) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation of partial pressure of O2.

B C
A
Deoxygenated Tissue
Alveoli
blood fluid

(1) 104 mm Hg 40 mm Hg 40 mm Hg

(2) 45 mm Hg 45 mm Hg 20 mm Hg

(3) 104 mm Hg 50 mm Hg 40 mm Hg

(4) 104 mm Hg 95-104 mm Hg 40 mm Hg

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin ?

(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Lesser H+ concentration
(d) Lower temperature

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

15) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option ?

Column-I Column-II

A. Asthma (i) Fibrosis in lungs

It is the
B. Emphysema (ii) inflammation of
bronchi

Allergy of
Occupational
C. (iii) bronchi and
lungs disease
bronchioles
 Reduced
D. Hypocapnia (iv) CO2 concentration in
Blood

Damaging of
E Bronchitis (v)
alveolar wall
Options :-
A B C D E

(1) iii ii i iv v

(2) iii v i iv ii

(3) ii v iv i iii

(4) v iii i ii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Read the following statements:- (A) It is a chronic disorder

(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking.
(C) Alveolar walls are damaged
(D) Respiratory surface is decreased.
(E) It is due to inflammation of bronchi & bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are incorrect about "emphysema" disorder ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All

17) Which of the following situations would result in the greatest degree of O2 saturation for
haemoglobin, assuming PO2 remains constant-

(1) Increased CO2 levels, decreased temperature

(2) Increased CO2 levels, increased temperature
(3) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased temperature
(4) Decreased CO2 levels, increased temperature

18) Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding trachea ?

(1) It usually lies posterior to oesophagus

(2) It split into right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs
(3) Opening of trachea is covered by epiglottis
(4) Tracheal rings are 'C' shaped

19) In normal expiration, which muscle contracts :-

(A) Diaphargm
(B) EICM
(C) IICM
(D) Abdominal muscles

(1) A, B and D
(2) C and D
(3) A and C
(4) No muscle contract during expiration

20)

Read the following statements :-

(a) Respiratory tree has dead space air.
(b) Cartilaginous rings are absent in bronchial tree.

(c) Gaseous exchange takes place in respiratory tree.

(d) 150 ml air is present as dead space volume in bronchial tree. Out of these which statements are
correct ?
(1) Only 'c' statement
(2) Statement 'b' and 'c'
(3) Statement 'a' and 'd'
(4) Statement 'c' and 'd'

21) Which of following condition stimulate rhythm centre for remedial action ?

+
(1) Change in CO2 and H conc. in venous blood
+
(2) Change in O2 and H conc. in arterial blood
+
(3) Change in CO2 and H conc. in arterial blood
+
(4) Change in O2 and H conc. in venous blood

22) Which of the following option is wrong about the larynx ?

(1) During swallowing of food, glottis is covered by epiglottis to prevent food entry into the larynx
(2) It is a cartilaginous box
(3) It is a common pathway for food and air
(4) Glottis is the opening in to the larynx

23) How much O is transported by oxygenated blood in one minute ?

(1) 1000 ml
(2) 250 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 20 ml

24) In a resting person, oxygen saturation of haemoglobin as blood leaves the tissue capillaries is :-
(1) 3 %
(2) 40 %
(3) 46 %
(4) 75 %

25)

During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to.

(1) Increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure

(2) Fall in pressure inside the lungs
(3) Increase volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Muscular expansion of lungs

26) Body tissues obtain oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin because of its dissociation caused by

(1) Low oxygen concentration

(2) High carbon dioxide concentration
(3) Low carbon dioxide concentration
(4) Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide concentration

27) Identify value of tidal volume per minute

(1) 6000 mL
(2) 500 mL
(3) 4000 mL
(4) 3000 mL

28) What is false about RBCs in humans ?

(a) They do not carry CO2 at all
(b) They carry about 20–25 percent of CO2
(c) They transport 99.5 percent of O2
(d) They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported
in dissolved state in blood plasma

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, c, d

29) Which one of the following is a way to prevent occupational lung disorder ?

(1) Avoid cigarette smoking at public place

(2) Wear protective masks at workplace
(3) Avoid eating junk food
(4) Avoid eating ice cream
30) What will be the pO2 at point A and Point B in the given diagram :-

(1) A – 40 mmHg, B – 45 mmHg

(2) A – 40 mmHg, B – 75 mmHg
(3) A – 40 mmHg, B – 95 mmHg
(4) A – 45 mmHg, B – 40 mmHg

31) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

a b c d
(1) Inspired Air Expired Air CO2 O2
(2) Inspired Air Expired Air O2 CO2
(3) Expired Air Inspired Air O2 CO2
(4) Expired Air Inspired Air CO2 O2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the :-

(1) Antero-posterior axis

(2) Dorso-ventral axis
(3) Ventro-lateral axis
(4) Dorso-lateral axis

33)

Which of the following is correctly paired ?

a. Mammals Lungs

b. Aquatic arthropods Gills

c. Frog Tracheal tubes

d. Flatworms Gills
(1) a, d
(2) b, c
(3) Only b
(4) a, b

34) Assertion (A) : Oxygen (O2) diffuses from alveoli to blood and blood to tissue.
Reason (R) : There is a concentration gradient for oxygen (O2) from alveoli to blood and blood to
tissues.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Assertion (A) : At tissue level, more binding of CO2 occurs with haemoglobin.
Reason (R) : At tissues level, PCO2 is high and PO2 is low.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) How many structures are supported by cartilaginous Rings :-

Larynx, Trachea, Bronchi, Inital bronchioles, Respiratory bronchioles, Alveolar duct, Alveoli

(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

37) Statement-I : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
thoracic cavity will be reflected in lung (pulmonary) cavity.
Statement-II : We can not directly alter the pulmonary volume.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

38) Statement-I :- RBCs contain a very high concentration of carbonic-anhydrase enzyme which
facilitates the formation and breakdown of carbonic acid.
Statement-II :- Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the
alveoli.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement are incorrect.

39) Assertion (A) :- pO2 is a major factor which could affect the binding of CO2 and haemoglobin.
Reason (R) : When the pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the alveoli dissociation of CO2 from
carbamino-haemoglobin takes place.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true and R is false.
(3) A is false and R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

40) Given below are two statements and choose the correct answer.
Statement-I :- The contraction of the diaphragm and a specialised set of muscles-external and
internal intercostals muscles help in deep inspiration.
Statement-II :- Relaxation of the diaphragm and external and internal intercostals muscles reduce
the thoracic volume and there by the pulmonary volume also reduce

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

41) A person met with an accident and died instantly without any injury to heart, brain, kidney and
liver. Which of the following could be a reason for his death ?

(1) Intestine got twisted

(2) RBCs became coagulated
(3) Stomach stopped digestion
(4) Diaphragm got ruptured

42) Which statement is correct ?

(1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation.

(2) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar ventilation.
(3) Alveolar ventilation is more than Pulmonary ventilation.
(4) Alveolar ventilation is less than Pulmonary ventilation.

43) Statement-I : - Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the
respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of body tissue.
Statement-II : - The role of oxygen in regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

44)
What process are shown in diagram (a) and (b) ?

(a) Inspiration
(1)
(b) Expiration
(a) Expiration
(2)
(b) Inspiration
(a) Volume of thorax decreased
(3)
(b) Volume of thorax increased
(a) Air expelled from lungs
(4)
(b) Air entering lungs

45) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration :

(1) ERV + RV + TV
(2) TLC – RV
(3) VC – ERV
(4) TLC – IC
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 4 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 3 4 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 4 1 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 3 2 1 3 1 4 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 4 4 1 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 4 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: Determining components of parallel vectors.

Concept: Parallel Vectors
Solution: For two vectors to be parallel, their corresponding components must be in
proportion. So, for A=i^+2j^​+k^ and B=5i^+yj^​+zk^, we can set up the ratio 51​=y2​=z1​.
From this, we can solve for y and z. From 51​=y2​, we get y=10. From 51​=z1​, we get z=5.
Final Answer: Option (2)

2)

By theory

3) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to identify which among the given
quantities is a vector.
Concept : Scalar and vector quantities
Solution :
Vector quantities have both magnitude and direction while Scalar quantities have direction
only
• Angular acceleration -→ has magnitude as well as direction.
• Electric potential → scalar
• Electric current → scalar (magnitude with conventional flow but it does not follow vector law
of addition)
• Refractive index → scalar
Final answer : Option (1)

4) Direction reverses magnitude is doubled

6) Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero because they are perpendicular.
∴ ⇒ 8α = –4 ⇒ α = –1/2

7) ⇒ α = 60°

⇒ β = 60°

⇒ γ = 45°

8)

Resultant of two vectors and must satisfy A ~ B ≤ R ≤ A + B.

9) Magnitude of

10)

Relative density is a unitless. Therefore relative density is also a dimensionless quantity.

11)

Question Explanation: We have to find percentage error in x

Concept : This question is based on error propagation.

Solution :
a = 8 ± 0.04, b = 6 ± 0.02
x=a–b
Δx = Δa + Δb
x ± Δx = (a – b) ± (Δa + Δb)
x ± Δx = (8 – 6) ± (0.04 + 0.02) = 2 ± 0.06

percentage error in 'x' :

Final answer : Option (2)

12)

NCERT

13)
0 0 0 0
M L T–1M L T–1

14)

2.88 cm2

15)

% error in K.E. :–

= (2%) + 2 (3%) = 8 %

16) Explanation: In this question we have to tell the number of significant figures in given
number.
Concept: As per the rules for significant figures
1) All zero after decimal but before a non zero digit is not considered a significant figure
For example: 0.00465 has only 3 Significant figure
2) All zeros which are at the right side of decimal and also at the right side of a non-zero digits
are considered as significant figure.
For example: 0.640 has 3 Significant figure.
Calculation: Given = 0.04320 has 4 Significant figures as per the rules.
Conclusion: The Correct answer is option 3

17)

18) [W] = [E] = [Torque] = ML2T–2

[Pressure] = ML–1T–2

19)

Explain the Question : We need to find the value of 1MSD, form the given data of the vernier
callipers.
Concept : This question is based on vernier callipers.
Solution :
20 VSD = 18 MSD

1 VSD = MSD
L.C. = 1 MSD –1 VSD

0.1 mm = 1 MSD – MSD

0.1 =

1 MSD =
Final answer : 3

20) Among the given quantities displacement gradient is unitless quantity.

21) The physical quantity nu remains same in all systems.

22)

Question Explanation: The question asks us to determine the number of significant figures
in the given number 0.0006032.
Given Data: The given number is 0.0006032.
Concept: Significant figures.
Mathematical Calculation:

A. The given number is 0.0006032.

B. The leading zeros (0.000) are not significant.
C. The digit 6 is significant.
D. The zero between 6 and 3 is significant.
E. The digits 3 and 2 are significant.

Therefore, the significant digits are 6, 0, 3, and 2.

E. Final Answer: There are 4 significant figures in the number 0.0006032.
F. Question Level: Easy

23)

Density (ρ) =

= 1% + 5% = 6%

24) Explain the question : The total time measured of 20 oscillations of a pendulum by a stop
watch ⇒ t = 25 sec

The least count (or absolute error) of the stop watch ⇒

The percentage error in measurement ⇒ =?

Concept : This question is based on error representation (percentage error)

Solution :

=
= 0.8%

Final answer : Option (2)

25) Density = 0.5 gm/cc

= 0.5 gm/cm3
= 0.5 (10–3kg)/(10–2m)3

=
= 5 × 102 kg/m3
∴ option (4) is correct
26)

Explain the Question : We need to comment on dimensionless quantity may have or may not
have unit.
Concept : This question is based on limitations of dimensionless analysis.
0 0 0
Solution : Unit of angle is radian but dimensions = [M L T ]
Final answer : 3

27)

Question Explanation : We need to find the dimensional formula for mass if velocity, force
and energy are taken as fundamental units.

Concept : This question is based on dimensional analysis.

Solution : Let M = VaFbEc

Putting dimensions of each quantities in both side

[M] = [LT–1]a[MLT–2]b[ML2T–2]c

Equating powers of dimensions. We have

b + c = 1, a + b + 2c = 0 and –a –2b – 2c = 0

Solving these equations, a = –2, b = 0 and c = 1

0
So [M] = [V–2F E]

Final answer : Option (4)

28) Question Explanation:

In this question , we have to find the angle between two vectors, A and B, as shown in a
diagram.
Concept:
The angle between two vectors is the smallest rotation needed to align one vector with the
other, measured from their tails at a common origin.
Solution:

Angle between & is = 120° + 15° = 135°

Final answer:
Option (4)

29) Explain the Question : In this question, we need a vector whose magnitude is twice that
of and whose direction is same as .
Concept : This question is based on vector magnitude and unit vector.

Solution : For a given vector its unit vector is given by

⇒ Magnitude of

⇒ Direction of
unit vector along is

⇒
⇒ Required vector :

Final Answer : Option (3)

30)

Question Explanation : We are asked to find a vector to be added

to + so that the resultant is a unit vector along the x-axis.
Concept : This question is based on resultant of vector [along x-axis : (unit vector)].
Solution :

Sum of given vectors :

Let be the vector to be added to the sum of given vectors :
∴

Final answer : Option - 2

31) Least count = = 0.1 mm;

Zero error = –(10–6) × 0.1 = – 0.4 mm
Reading = 6 + 5 × (0.1) – (–0.4) = 6.9 mm

Now

32)

33)
∴ % error =

34) Question Explanation: Converting a physical quantity to a new system of units.

Concept: Conversion of Units
Solution: The value of a physical quantity remains the same regardless of the system of units,
so n1​u1​ = n2​u2​. We need to find the numerical value n2​ in the new system. Pascal (N/m2) is the
unit for pressure, and its dimensional formula is [ML−1T−2].
n1u1= n2u2
1 [M1L1–1T1–2]= n2[M2L2–1T2–2]

Final Answer:

35)

U=
A will have dimensions equal to

[U] =

⇒ [B] =

[B] =

36)

Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find least count of vernier calliper.

Concept : This question is based on vernier calliper [least count].

Solution : Given here

1 MSD = 2 mm
⇒ (N + 2) VSD = (N) MSD

1VSD =
Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
 = (∵ 1MSD = 2 mm)

Final answer : Option (3)

38)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for the vector relationship between the position vectors of points P, Q, and
R, given that R is the midpoint of PQ.
Concept:
Vector Algebra
Solution:
From triangle POQ:

⇒ .....(1)
From triangle POR:

⇒ ......(2)
Given:

From (1) and (2)

⇒
Final answer:
Option (1)

39) Let θ be angle between vectors .

(Given)
Then,
A2 + 2AB cosθ + B2 = n2 [A2– 2AB cosθ + B2]
A2 + 2A2 cosθ + A2 = n2 [A2– 2A2 cosθ + A2]

2A2 + 2A2 cosθ = n2[2A2 – 2A2 cosθ]

(n2 + 1)cosθ = (n2 – 1)

or

40) Statement given in option (c) is correct but rest are incorrect and these can be corrected
as
Error in a measurement is equal to the difference of true value and measured value of the
quantity.
Systematic errors occur only in one direction, either positive or negative.
In constant errors, errors affect each observation by the same amount.

41) We know that, joule is the unit of energy and the dimension formula of energy is [ML2T–2].
Comparing with [MaLbTc], we get a = 1, b = 2, c = – 2

As,

42) Given,

....(i)

and

.... (ii)
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i) we get

As,

43)
1st Reading = 0.5 + 8 × 0.01 = 0.58
2nd Reading = 0.5 + 4 × 0.01 = 0.56
3rd Reading = 0.5 + 6 × 0.01 = 0.54

Average reading = = 0.56 cm

Correct Reading = 0.56 – 0.03 = 0.53 cm

44) Explain Question:

Question wants to identify the accuracy in determination of 'g' in terms of percent.

Concept: Error propagation

 Solution:

≈ 2.7% Final answer is 3% (rounded of significant figures)

Final Answer: Option (1)

45)

6.4mm

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

A: QUESTION EXPLANATION
The question asks for the primary conclusion drawn from Rutherford's alpha-particle
scattering experiment.
B: CONCEPT

● Rutherford's Alpha-Particle Scattering Experiment: This experiment

involved firing alpha particles at a thin gold foil and observing their deflection
patterns.

● Key Observations:

○ Most alpha particles passed straight through the foil.

○ A small fraction of alpha particles were deflected at large angles.

○ A very small number of alpha particles bounced back.

● Conclusions:

○ Most of the atom is empty space.

○ A dense, positively charged nucleus exists at the center of the atom.

 ○ This lead to the nuclear model of the atom.

C: FINAL ANSWER

The mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus.

Therefore, the correct option is (2) the mass and the positive charge of an atom are
concentrated in the nucleus.

48)

Question Explanation: Calculate new atomic mass of Nitrogen-14 after changing proton and
electron masses.
Concept : Atomic mass ≈ sum of proton, neutron, and electron masses; electron mass
negligible.
Solution:

% change = Reduces.
Final Answer : option (3)

49) 9, 19
No. of electrons in monovalent anion = 10
∴, No. of electrons in element = (10 – 1) = 9
So, No. of protons = 9
Mass no. = 10 + 9 = 19

50)

Question Explanation:
This question asks to identify which of the listed atoms are isotones of Germanium-76.
Concept:
An isotone is a species of atom with the same number of neutrons.
Solution:
Same number of neutrons → Isotone

⇒ 76 – 32 = 44 = no. of n
no. of n of ⇒ 77 – 33 = 44
no. of n of ⇒ 78 – 34 = 44
Final Answer : option (3)

51)
Asking About :- wavelength of photon
Concept :- Phank's Theory

Formula :-
Soln / Explanation :- Given data
(a) v = 8.0 × 1015 S–1
(b) c = 3 × 108 m/s

so

52) Explain Question:

Relate a photons energy to its frequency and wavelength proportionality.

Concept:

Use and
Solution:
Energy is directly proportion to frequency

Energy is inversely proportion to wavelength.

Final Answer: Option (4)

53) Explanation : Work function for metal is given and wavelength of incident light is to be
found.
Given Data : ϕ (work function) = 4 ev.
velocity = zero (KE=0)
Concept : E = ϕ + KE

Calculation : E = ϕ + KE = 4 + 0 = 4 ev

, A∘
E = 3100 A∘
Final Answer : 3100 A∘

54)

Explanation Question:
Identify which statements about electromagnetic waves and their properties are correct.
Concept:
This question is based on Electromagnetic waves propagate without medium; fields are
perpendicular in propagation.
Solution:
a → Electromagnetic waves can travel with out any medium.
c → In vacuum E.M. radiations travel at same speed.
d → Electric & magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other also both are perpendicular to
direction of propagation.

​Final Answer: (1)

55)

Question Explanation: Calculate energy of 1 mole of photons given frequency of radiation.

Concept: Energy of photon: E = hν
Solution:
E = hν
E = 6.626 × 10–34 × 5.01 × 1014
Thus the energy of 1 mole
E = 33.19 × 10–20 × 6.023 ×1023
=1.999 × 10⁵ J
= 200 × 10³ J
= 200 kJ mol⁻¹ = 200 kJ/mole
Final Answer : option (3)

56)

Explanation Question : We want the number of photons (n) when total energy = 1 J, λ =
4000 pm.
Concept : This question is based on planck's formula for number of photons: E = n·hc / λ ⇒ n
= E·λ / (h·c)
Solution :
λ = 4000 pm = 4000 × 10–12 m = 4 × 10–9 m
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J·s
c = 3 × 108 m/s
E=1J
n = (1 × 4 × 10–9) / (6.626 × 10–34 × 3 × 108)
= (4 × 10–9) / (1.9878 × 10–25)
≈ 2.01 × 1016
Final Answer : Option 2

57)

Question Explanation: We need to find the orbit of He⁺ where angular momentum L = h / 2π.

Concept: Quantization of Angular Momentum: L = n(h / 2π), n = principal quantum number

(orbit number)

Solution:
Given, L = h / 2π
Using L = n(h / 2π)
h / 2π = n(h / 2π) ⇒ n = 1
 Final Answer: Option 1

58)

r = 0.529 × A°

n2 = =9
n=3

59)

rH = 0.053 nm = 0.053 ×

rLi+2 = 0.053 ×
rLi+2 = 0.0159 nm

60)

Question Explanation : We are asked to evaluate the assertion and reason regarding Bohr’s
model applicability to helium.

Concept : Bohr’s model

Solution :

A. Assertion (A): Bohr's model is not applicable for He atom → True, since He has 2
electrons.

B. Reason (R): He atom is multielectron species → True, correct reason.

C. Thus, both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Final Answer : Option (1)

61) Explanation :→ To find the ratio of Li+2 ratio r2 : r5

Concept →

Mathematical expression :-

Correct answer = 4 : 25 (option A)

 62)

Explain the question : Question is asking about not permissible value of angular momentum
of electron in H atom.
Concept : This question is based on bohr atomic model
Solution :-

In bohr orbit angular momentum of e– should be multiple in tegral of (ie. were n = 1, 2 ,

3, ..... )

(1) 2 × 1.5

(2) 2 × 0.5

(3) 2 × 1.25 (wrong)

Final answer :- 3

63)

Explain the question : Compare energy difference in H-like atoms.

Concept : This question is based on Bohr's energy level formula.
Solution :-

From diagram
ΔE2→1 = +13.6 – 3.4
= 10.2 eV
& ΔE5→2 = 3.40 – 0.54
= 2.86 eV
So, statement 1 is true ; these values can also be calculated from
& from diagram statement-1, 2 is also True & correct explanation.

Final answer : Option (1)

64)

Question Explanation: You are given the radius of the 2ⁿᵈ Bohr orbit of He⁺ and asked to find
the radius of the 3ʳᵈ Bohr orbit of Li²⁺ using Bohr’s atomic model.
Concept: For hydrogen-like ions, radius of nᵗʰ Bohr orbit: rₙ ∝ n² / Z
where n = orbit number, Z = atomic number.
Solution:
Given:
He⁺ → Z = 2, n = 2, r₂ = 105.8 pm
Li²⁺ → Z = 3, n = 3
Using ratio of radii:
r(Li²⁺) / r(He⁺) = (n₂² / Z₂) / (n₁² / Z₁)
= (3² / 3) / (2² / 2)
= (9 / 3) × (2 / 4)
= 3 × 1/2
= 3/2
So,
r(Li²⁺) = (3/2) × 105.8 pm
= 158.7 pm
Final Answer: Option 4

65) Question Explanation: Determine which atomic species emits radiation with the shortest
wavelength during an electron transition from the second orbit (n=2) to the first orbit (n=1).
Concept: Rydberg Formula & Energy

E = –13.6

For Hydrogen ΔE = 13.6 × 12

For He+ ⇒ ΔE = 13.6 × 22

For D ⇒ ΔE = 13.6 × 12

For Li2+ ⇒ ΔE = 13.6 × 32

For Li2+ maximum energy will have minimum wavelength.
Final Answer: Option (4)
66)

It is statement based question.

Statements B, C & E are correct.
(B) Mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg
(C) All the isotopes of given elements show same chemical properties.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.

67) Explanation Question:

Find the number of electrons in H₂⁺, H₂, and O²⁺ species.
Concept:
This question is based on Number of electrons = total electrons − charge of species.
Solution:
Number of e– = Z-charge
= 2–1 = 1
H2 = 2–0 = 2
= 16–1 = 15
Final Answer: (2)

68)

E1 < E6
Ist orbit electron is tightly bound compare to 6th orbit.

69)

Explanation Question :
We are asked about how the energies change when an electron in H–atom goes from K–shell (n
= 1) to N–shell (n = 4).
Concept : This question is based on Bohr’s model
Solution :
Total Energy, E ∝ –1/n2 → increases (becomes less negative) as n increases.
Kinetic Energy = –E → decreases as n increases.
Potential Energy = 2E → also increases (less negative), not decreases.

From n = 1 to n = 4 :
K.E. decreases (option 1 is correct)
T.E. increases (becomes less negative, so option 2 is wrong).
P.E. increases, not decreases (so option 3 is wrong).

Final Answer : Option 1

70)

λ = 45nm = 45 × 10–9m
h = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s
c = 3 × 108 m/s
E=
E = 0.442 × 10–17 J
E = 4.42 × 10–18 J

71) Question Explanation :

Determine the energy of an electron in the nth orbit of He+ relative to that of H in the same
orbit.

Concept :
This question is based on Bohr Model

Solution :
For H–atom

⇒ En = –13.6 ×
For He+ (Z=2)

⇒ En = –13.6 ×
= 4En

Final Answer :
Option (1)

72)

Explanation Question : Compare (E2–E1), (E3–E2), (E4–E3) using Bohr energy formula.
Concept : This question is based on Bohr energy: En = –13.6 / n2 (eV).
Solution :
E2 – E1 = 10.2ev
E3 – E2 = 1.89ev
E4 – E3 = 0.66ev
[E2 – E1] > [E3 – E2] > [E4 – E3]

Final Answer : (1)

73) Question Explanation:

The question gives the energy required to remove an electron from the M shell (n = 3) of a
hydrogen atom. which is 1.51 eV and asks for the energy of the first excited state.

Concept:
This question is based on In the hydrogen the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is given
by:

The M shell corresponds to n = 3. The first excited state corresponds to n = 2.

Solution:
We are told the ionization energy from n = 3 is 1.51 eV. which matches.

For the first excited state (n =2):

Hence,
Correct option: (3) -3.4eV

74)

En = –313.6/n2 = –34.84

n2 = ≃9
n=3

75)

Question Explanation :
The question asks for the ratio of potential energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr
orbit of a hydrogen-like species.
Concept : This question is based on energy of electron in bohr orbit.
Solution :
In the Bohr model potential energy is equal to twice the total energy with a negative sign.
Potential Energy (U) = 2 × total energy

Final Answer : Option (1)

76)

Energy emitted when electron moves from Higher to lower energy level.
Check by formula →

En2 – En1 = –13.6 × z2

77)

n = 3 × 1018 s–1 or 3 × 1018 Hz or

3 × 1018 cycles per second

78)
x+, y+2, z– are isoelectronic means all have same number of electrons i.e. 22 but they are ions of
different atom, so number of protons
Z < X+ < Y+2

79)

Explanation Question: Question is asking about circumference ration for 3rd and 2nd orbits of
He+
Concept: This question is based on Bohr model.
Solution:
Circumference = 2πr

r = 0.529 ×
So, for same atom

⇒ 9:4
The correct option is (3)

80) Question Explanation:

Bohr model may be applied to

Concept:
This question is based on Bohr atomic model.

Solution:
Na10+ ion contains only one e– because Bohr model is applied for single e– species.
He contain 2e–, Be2+ ion contain 2e– and C6+ ion contain zero e–.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (1)

81) Question Explanation: Find the ratio of their charges , eA : eB.

Concept: This question is based on specific charge.

Solution:
As per given data

[Given ]

=
Final Answer: Option (2)

82)

83)

Explain Question : The question asks to arrange electron, proton, neutron, and α-particle by
their specific charge (q/m) magnitude.

Concept : Specific charge q/m depends on charge and mass of particle.

Solution :

A. Neutron: q = 0 ⇒ = 0 (smallest).

B. α-particle: q = +2, mass ≈ 4u ⇒ = (next).

C. Proton: q = +1, mass ≈ 1u ⇒ = 1 (larger).

D. Electron: q = –1, mass ≈ 1/1836 u ⇒ 1836 (maximum)

Order: n < α < p < e.

Final Answer : Option (3)

84)

Question Explanation
Identify what happens when an electron moves from a higher to a lower energy level.

Concept
Electronic transition and energy emission

Solution:
When electron drops to a lower energy level, the energy difference is released as a photon.
Atomic number remains unchanged.

Final Answer
Energy is emitted → Option 1
Answer: Energy is emitted, Option Number: 1
85) Volume fraction =

86) Given,
Two isotopes of oxygen with 16 u and 18 u. The proportion is given, 3:1.
Percentage composition of isotopes of oxygen is 75% and 25%.
Now, we know that
Average atomic mass of element

=16.5 u
Hence, the average atomic mass of oxygen is 16.5 u.

87)

E2 – E1 =

= 1.22 × 10–7 m

88)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question is asking to find the velocity of an electron that is moving
in the third orbit (energy level) of the hydrogen atom according to the Bohr model.
Underlying Concept: The core concept here is the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which
describes electrons orbiting the nucleus in specific quantized orbits. The velocity of an
electron depends on the orbit it occupies and the atomic number of the element.
Relevant Formulas: The velocity of an electron in the náµ—Ê° orbit of a hydrogen-like atom

is given by: where: - is the electron velocity in the ná&—Ê° orbit, -

is the atomic number (for hydrogen, Z = 1), - is the principal quantum number (orbit
number).
Step-by-Step Calculation: Given n = 3 and Z = 1:

So, the velocity of the electron in the

third orbit is approximately .
 Tips and Tricks: The constant velocity for the first orbit in hydrogen is .
Divide this by the orbit number n to find velocity in the nth orbit.
Common Mistakes: Students often forget to divide the velocity by the orbit number n, or
mistakenly use the atomic number Z incorrectly for hydrogen where Z = 1.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices with velocity values like are too
high because velocity decreases with increasing orbit number. Values less than
without proper calculation ignore the formula dependency on n.

OR

m/sec

= 7.27 × 105 m/sec

89)

Explaining Question:
Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the isotope of Lutetium with
atomic number 71 and mass number 175.
Concept:
Number of protons = atomic number, electrons = atomic number for neutral atom, neutrons =
mass number minus atomic number.
Solution:

A. Atomic number =71

B. Mass number =175
C. Number of protons =71
D. Number of electrons =71 (neutral atom)
E. Number of neutrons =175-71=104

90) Question Explanation:

Identify which type of electromagnetic radiation has the maximum frequency.

Concept:
Frequency (V) and wavelength (λ) are related by the formula.

where c is the speed of light (constant). Smaller wavelength means higher frequency.

Solution:
• Radiowaves have the longest wavelength → lowest frequency.
• Infrared (R) shorter wavelength than radiowaves → higher frequency
• Ultraviolet (UV) shorter wavelength than IR → higher frequency
• X-rays have the shortest wavelength → highest frequency
Therefore X-rays have the maximum frequency.
Final Answer
Option : (4)
BOTANY

91) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 126

94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 139, fig. 8.12

96)

DNA, RNA, Histone and non histones

97) NCERT, Pg. # 97

99) NCERT Pg. # 139

100) NCERT Pg. # 134,135,136

108) NCERT Pg No. # 137

109)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which cell organelle carries out aerobic
respiration.

Concept: Cellular respiration / Mitochondria

Solution:
Aerobic respiration requires oxygen and releases energy (ATP).
This process mainly occurs in mitochondria of the cell.
Mitochondria are called the “powerhouse of the cell.”

Final Answer: Option 1. Mitochondria

111)

A, B, C are true

112) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 35

113) Two centrioles surrounded by pericentriolar material

114) Basal body

115) 9 + 2 pattern

116) correct answer is Basic.

117) Both are present in animal cells

118) Explanation:
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

119) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

120) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

121) Explanation:
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

122) All of these

123) 0

124) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

125)

126) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect

127) Explaining : Each matches its core function.

Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

128) Explaining : Mitochondria have circular DNA and support endosymbiotic theory.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

129) Explaining : Both are double-membraned, semi-autonomous organelles.

 Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

130) Conceptual

131) correct option is B

132) correct option is D

133)

ATP

134) Solution:
NCERT Page No. # 97

135) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT Pg. No. 190

137) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 275, Para-4 (E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 277, Para-2 (H)

138)

Conceptual

139)

Sigmoid curve

140)

carbamino – haemoglobin

141)

Question Explanation: The question asks the term for the total volume of air present in the
lungs after a forced inspiration.

Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities

Solution: TLC is the maximum volume of air our lungs can hold when we fill them completely
after taking the deepest possible breath in. It includes all lung volumes together:- TLC = TV +
IRV + ERV + RV

Final answer: Option 1

143)

Ncert page 188.

145)

Explanation
The question is asking to identify the statement that does not correctly describe the thoracic
cavity and pleural membranes.

Concept
thoracic cavity and pleura.

Solution
The inner pleural membrane (visceral pleura) is in contact with the lung surface, not the
thoracic lining. The outer pleura (parietal pleura) contacts the thoracic wall. Hence, statement
3 is odd.

Final answer: The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining

146)

Explain Question: Identify the number of correct statements about respiratory regulation.

Concept: Regulation of respiration

Solution: The correct answer is Option 4.

A. (a) True – Respiratory rhythm center is in the medulla oblongata.

B. (b) True – Chemosensitive area detects CO₂ and H⁺ levels.

C. (c) True – Oxygen has a minor role; CO₂ is the main regulator.

D. (d) True – Pneumotaxic center is in the pons, regulating breathing rate.

E. (e) True – Aortic and carotid receptors sense CO₂ and H⁺ concentration.
All five statements are correct.

Final answer: Option (4)

148)

Conceptual

149)

Explaining: Which factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin

Concept: oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve
Solution: Factors which favour formation of oxyhaemoglobin are High PO2, Low PCO2, Lesser
H+ concentration, Lower temperature, High PH, etc.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Explain Question:

Matching respiratory diseases with their features.
Concept:
This question is based on respiratory disorders
Solution:
Asthma → allergy of bronchi/bronchioles.
Emphysema → damage of alveolar wall .
Occupational lung disease → fibrosis in lungs (e.g., silicosis, asbestosis).
Hypocapnia → reduced CO2 in blood.
Bronchitis → inflammation of bronchi.
Correct matching:
A → iii, B → v ,C → i ,D → iv, E → ii
Final answer: 2

151) NCERT-XI , Pg# 275

152) NCERT Pg. # 274

155)

Statement 'c' and 'd'

156) NCERT XI Pg # 275

158)

20 ml

159)
NCERT Pg. # 274

160)

161)

162)

6000 mL

163)

a, c, d

164) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 276

167)

Conceptual

168)

a, b

169)

Question Explanation: The question checks the validity of oxygen diffusion direction and the
role of concentration gradient.
Concept: Respiratory physiology – Gas exchange and diffusion gradient
Solution:
• Assertion (A): True – Oxygen moves from alveoli → blood → tissues (along partial
pressure gradient).
• Reason (R): True – Oxygen diffuses because partial pressure is higher in alveoli
than blood, and higher in blood than tissues.
• R correctly explains A.
Final Answer: Option 2

170) Explain Question:

Why does more CO2 bind to haemoglobin at the tissue level?

Concept :
 This question is based on Transport of carbon dioxide.

Explanation :

A. Assertion (A): True - At tissues, CO2 binds more with haemoglobin forming carbamino-
haemoglobin.
B. Reason (R): True - Tissues have high PCO2 and low PO2, which favors CO2 binding.
C. Relation: The reason correctly explains the assertion.

Final answer : Option 1

171)

Conceptual

172)

The correct answer is: 1. Both statement-I & II are correct

Statement-I : This statement is correct. The lungs are enclosed within the thoracic cavity, and
the pleural membranes create a close association between the lungs and the chest wall.
Therefore, changes in the thoracic cavity volume directly affect the lung volume.
Statement-II : This statement is also correct. We don't have direct muscular control over the
lungs themselves. Instead, we alter the volume of the thoracic cavity through the contraction
and relaxation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, which in turn changes the lung
volume

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 275

174) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 274

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 185

178)

Conceptual

179)

Conceptual

180)

Conceptual