11-06-2026

1001CMD303052250123 MD

PHYSICS

1) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Number) (Significant figure)

(a) 1001 (i) 3

(b) 010.1 (ii) 4

(c) 100.100 (iii) 5

(d) 0.0010010 (iv) 6

Choose correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

2) Two particle A and B are located in x-y plane at points (0, 0) and (0, 4 m). They simultaneously
start moving with velocities and . Select the correct alternative(s).
(A) The distance between them is constant
(B) The distance between them first decreases and then increases
(C) The shortest distance between them is m
(D) Time after which they are at minimum distance is 1s

(1) Only B is correct

(2) Only C is correct
(3) A, B, C are correct
(4) B, C, D are correct

3) A car accelerates from rest at constant rate for t seconds and covers a distance x. The distance
covered by it in next t seconds will be :

(1) x
(2) 2x
(3) 3x
(4) 4x

4)
If acceleration of 2 kg block at an instant is 2 m/s2, find the acceleration of the 1 kg block at same
instant :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 0.5 m/s2

5) Consider a block and trolley system as shown in figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration of the system in ms–2 is :
(Consider that the string is massless and unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and

frictionless) :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1.2

6) A block is released from rest from height of 5 m. After travelling through smooth curved surface,
it moves on the rough horizontal surface of length 8 m and climbs onto the other smooth curved

surface at a height h'. The value of h' will be –

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 0

7) Assertion :- In vertical circular motion acceleration of bob at position A is greater than 'g'.
Reason :- Net acceleration of bob is resultant of tangential and radial components of acceleration.

Choose correct option -

(1) Both are true and the reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

8) Mass 2m is kept on a smooth circular track of mass m which is kept on a smooth horizontal
surface. The circular track is given a horizontal velocity towards left and released. Find the

maximum height reached by 2m.

(1) R
(2) R/3
(3) R/4
(4) 2R/3

9) Find the value of T1, if the system is in equilibrium and mass of the rod is 10 kg and length 10 m ?

[g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 100 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 25 N
(4) 12.5 N

10) A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency
is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved, then the new angular momentum is :

(1)

(2) 2L
(3) 4L

(4)

11) Inside an isolated uniform spherical shell :-

(A) The gravitation potential is not zero.
(B) The gravitational field is not zero.
(C) The gravitational potential is same everywhere.
(D) The gravitational field is same everywhere.

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, C, D
12) A cube of aluminum of side 0.1m is subjected to a shearing force of 100 N. The top face of the
cube is displaced through 0.02 cm with respect to the bottom face. Modulus of rigidity would be

(1) 106 N/m2

(2) 2 × 106 N/m2
(3) 5 × 107 N/m2
(4) 5 × 106 N/m2

13) A sphere made of material of specific gravity 8 has a concentric spherical cavity and it just sinks
in water. Then the ratio of the radius of cavity to the outer radius of the sphere is : (Take g = 10
m/s2 and ρwater = 103 kg/m3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A soap film of surface tension 3 × 10–2 N/m formed in a rectangular frame can support a wire as

shown in the figure. If g = 10 ms–2 then the mass of the wire is :-

(1) 0.006 g
(2) 0.06 g
(3) 0.6 g
(4) 6 g

15) A satellite moving round the earth in a circular orbit of radius r and speed v, suddenly losses
some of its energy. Then :-

(1) r will increase and v will decrease

(2) both r and v will decrease
(3) both r and v will increase
(4) r will decrease and v will increase

16) Supposing the distance between the atoms of a diatomic gas to be constant, its specific heat at
constant volume per mole (gram mole) is

(1)

(2)

(3) R
(4)

17) A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle PQRSP process. The net work done by the

system during this cycle is :-

(1) 80 J
(2) –80 J
(3) 400 J
(4) –374 J

18) At which temperature the velocity of O2 molecules will be equal to the velocity of N2 molecules at
0ºC :-

(1) 40ºC
(2) 93ºC
(3) 39ºC
(4) Cannot be calculated

19) As shown in fig temperature of juction is

(1)

(2)

(3) 80°C
(4) 40°C

20) Assertion : Potential at the surface of a solid metallic sphere may be non-zero, even if net
charge on the surface is zero.
Reason : If potential at the centre of a solid metallic sphere is non-zero, potential at the surface of
the sphere is non-zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) Amount of work done in moving a charge q0 from centre of ring to an axial point at x = will
be, if charge given to ring is Q and ‘a’ being the radius:-
(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

22) Find the potential on the conducting shell of radius b :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

23) Consider the figure below, initially distance between plates of capacitor is ‘d’ and ‘A’ is area of
plates. In this state spring (non conducting) is at its natural length (d). Now, charges +Q & –Q are
given to plates and system is allowed to reach mechanical equilibrium. Find potential difference

between plates in this state of equilibrium.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Find the current through 20V cell & power supplied by 20V cell in the figure shown.
(1) 10 A, 20 watt
(2) 12 A, 10 watt
(3) 12 A, 20 watt
(4) 1 A, –20 watt

25) When a current of 5 mA is passed through a galvanometer having a coil of resistance 15 Ω, it

shows full scale deflection. The value of the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer to
convert it into to voltmeter of range 0 – 10 V is:-

(1) 2.535 × 103 Ω

(2) 4.005 × 103 Ω
(3) 1.985 × 103 Ω
(4) 2.045 × 103 W

26) The segment AB of wire carrying current I1 is placed perpendicular to a long straight wire
carrying current I2 as shown in figure. The magnitude of force experienced by the straight wire AB is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The effective value of current i = 2 sin (100πt) + 2 sin(100πt + 30°) is :

(1)

(2)
Amp
(3) 4 Amp

(4)
28) Match List-I with List-II

List - I List - II
Source of
Radioactive decay
(P) microwave (1)
of nucleus
frequency
Source of
(Q) infrared (2) Magnetron
frequency
Source of Transition of inner
(R) (3)
Gamma Rays shell electrons
Source of Vibration of atoms
(S) (4)
X-rays and molecules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (P)-(3), (Q)-(4), (R)-(1), (S)-(2)
(2) (P)-(3), (Q)-(2), (R)-(1), (S)-(4)
(3) (P)-(2), (Q)-(1), (R)-(4), (S)-(3)
(4) (P)-(2), (Q)-(4), (R)-(1), (S)-(3)

29) Identify the correct statements from the following descriptions of various properties of
electromagnetic waves.
A. In a plane electromagnetic wave electric field and magnetic field must be perpendicular to each
other and direction of propagation of wave should be along electric field or magnetic field.
B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic fields.
C. Both electric field and magnetic field are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction
of propagation of wave.
D. The electric field, magnetic field and direction of propagation of wave must be perpendicular to
each other.
E. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field is equal to speed of light.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Only D is correct

(2) Only B and D are correct
(3) Only B, C and E are correct
(4) Only A, B and E are correct

30) u-v graph for a convex mirror is shown in figure. A real object placed 25cm away from mirror

will have transverse magnification :

(1) 2
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) –0.5

31) Upper and lower half of convex lens are made up of materials of refractive index 1.5 and 1.8
respectively. Distance between images formed by a lens is (R is radius of curvature of either side of

lens)

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

32) In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.3 mm and the screen is 1.5 m
away from the plane of slits. Distance between fourth bright fringes on both sides of central bright
is 2.4 cm. The frequency of light used is_____× 1014 Hz.

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

33) When a photosensitive surface is illuminated with light of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is

V. When the same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 2λ, stopping potential is . If the
threshold wavelength for the surface is n (λ/2), then n =

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12

34) With what potential an electron should be accelerated so that its de Broglie wave-length
becomes equal to the wave length of first line of lymen series for He+ ion? (m : mass of electron)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) A nucleus undergoes a series of decay according to the scheme :

A B C D E
Atomic number and mass numbers of E are 69 & 172, then which of the following is incorrect

(1) Atomic number of A is 72

(2) Mass number of B is 176
(3) Atomic number of D is 69
(4) Atomic number of C is 69

36) A sinusoidal peak voltage of 15V connected between input terminals of circuit shown in figure.

Assume diodes are ideal. In the output wave form,

(1) Positive peaks of input clipped at +12V and negative peaks at –6V
(2) Positive peaks of input clipped at +6V and negative peaks at –12 V
(3) Positive peaks of input clipped at +12V and negative peaks at –12 V
(4) Positive peaks of input clipped at +6V and negative peaks at –6 V

37) In n cases of input, output is Y = 1 in the given diagram. Then find the value of n.

A B C Y
1 0 0 0
2 0 0 1
3 0 1 0
4 0 1 1
5 1 0 0
6 1 0 1
7 1 1 0
8 1 1 1

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

38) Statement (a): In YDSE, with white light central maxima will be white.
Statement (b): In YDSE, when screen moves away from slits, then central maxima will also move
on screen.
Statement (c): In YDSE, when screen moves away from slits, then speed of central maxima will be
same as that of the screen.
Which of the following option is correct:

(1) Statement (a), (b) is incorrect but (c) is correct

(2) Statement (a) & (b) is correct and (c) is incorrect
(3) Statement (a), (b), (c) all are correct
(4) Statement (a) and (c) is correct and (b) is incorrect

39) A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver 20A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If
the efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current drawn from the line is .

(1) 3 A
(2) 30 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) 2.4 A

40) Two bulbs consume same energy when operated at 200 V and 300 V respectively, when these
bulbs are connected in series across a DC source of 500V, then :
(a) ratio of potential difference across them is 3/2
(b) ratio of potential difference across them is 4/9
(c) ratio of power consumed in them is 4/9
(d) ratio of power consumed in them is 2/3

(1) only a is correct

(2) a & d are correct
(3) only d is correct
(4) only b & c are correct

41) A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring
carries a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10T is switched on at time t = 0 as shown in

figure. The initial angular acceleration of the ring will be :-

(1) 40 π rad/s2
(2) 20 π rad/s2
(3) 5 π rad/s2
(4) 15 π rad/s2

42) The energy that sound be added to an electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from 2 ×
10–9 m to 0.5 × 10–9 m will be :-

(1) 1.1 MeV

(2) 0.56 MeV
(3) 0.56 keV
(4) 5.67 eV

43) A tuning fork produces 4 beats/s with another fork of frequency 288 cps. A little wax is placed on
the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/s. The initial frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

44) The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of an
open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50 cm, the length of closed pipe is

(1) 25 cm
(2) 12.5 cm
(3) 100 cm
(4) 200 cm

45) A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in
the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released, the
mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the
minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan ?

(Take, g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10.0 cm
(2) any value less than 12.0 cm
(3) 4.0 cm
(4) 8.0 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4 absorb
wavelength in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is :

(1) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1

(2) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
(3) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1
(4) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4

2) Match List-I with List-II.

LIST-II
LIST-I
(Electronic
(Complex ion)
Configuration)

A. I.

B. II.

C. III.

D. IV.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

3) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-membered covalent chelate when treated with NiCl2
solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : A homoleptic octahedral complex, formed using monodentate ligands, will not show
stereoisomerism.
Statement II : cis– and trans– platin are heteroleptic complexes of Pd.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

5) Match the following group of metals with their characteristic in d-block

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cr, Mo,W (i) Highest oxidation state

 (B) Ru, Os (ii) Strong metallic bond

(C) Cu,Ag, Au (iii) Volatile metals

(D) Zn, Cd, Hg (iv) Coinage metals

(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

6) Given below some statements. Select the correct option [T = True, F = False]
(I) The metals of the second & third series have greater enthalpies of atomisation than the
corresponding elements of the first series.
(II) In general, ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decreases in radius with
increasing atomic number.
(III) The net result of the lanthanoid contraction is that the second & third d-series exhibit similar
radii (eg. Zr 160 Pm & Hf 159 Pm ) & have very similar physical & chemical properties.

(1) F, T, F
(2) F, F, F
(3) T, T, T
(4) T, F, T

7) A and B formed in the following reactions are:

(1) A = Na2CrO4, B = CrO5

(2) A = Na2Cr2O4, B = CrO4
(3) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO3
(4) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO5

8) To avoid the precipitation of hydroxides of Ni2+, Co2+, Zn2+ and Mn2+ along with those of Fe3+, Al3+
and Cr3+ the third group solution should be :-

(1) Heated with a few drops of conc. HNO3

(2) Treated with excess of NH4Cl
(3) Concentrated
(4) None of these

9) Which statement is correct :

3+
(1) Fe ions give deep green precipitate with K4[Fe(CN)6].
(2) On heating K+,Ca2+ and ions, we get a precipitate of K2[Ca(CO3)].
(3) Copper salts give a violet borax bead test in reducing flame.
(4) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl.
10) The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals takes place only when the
combining atomic orbitals
A. have the same energy
B. have the minimum overlap
C. have same symmetry about the molecular axis
D. have different symmetry about the molecular axis
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below :

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A and C only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) B and D only

11) Choose the dry and temporary bleaching agent respectively in the following option :-

(1) SO2 and Cl2

(2) H2S and SO3
(3) CaOCl2 and SO2
(4) O3 and SO2

12) Choose the correct option regarding the property indicated :-

(1) Sc < Mn < Zn (Ionisation energy)

(2) Zn < Mn < V (Heat of atomisation)
(3) Cr < Mo < W (Melting point)
(4) All of these

13) In a following chemical reaction :

XeF6 + 2H2O → 'A' + HF
Choose incorrect option regarding 'A' is :-

(1) orbital participate in the hybridisation.

(2) Shape is folded square
(3) Total number of ℓ.p is 10
(4) It is polar as well as non-planar molecule

14) Find the value of z. [z = x – y + 3]

x = No. of acidic oxide
y = No. of amphoteric oxide
Mn2O7, NO2, ZnO, BeO, Na2O, N2O, PbO, CrO, MnO2, Al2O3.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 5

15) Assertion : Li doesn't form any type of alum.

Reason : Due to its small size and absence of vacant d orbital

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

16) The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/ml. There are 20 drops in 2 ml of this liquid. If mol. wt. of liquid is
24 then find no. of molecules in one drop.

(1) 6.02 × 1022

(2) 3.01 × 1023
(3) 3.01 × 1015
(4) 3.01 × 1021

17) A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27°C and in 10 minutes at 47°C. The
energy of activation of the reaction is :-

(1) 4.38 k cal

(2) 3.43 k cal
(3) 6.62 k cal
(4) 13.24 k cal

18) The molar conductivity of 0.02 M weak acid HA is 20.2 S cm2 mol–1. If for H+ = 350 S
cm2 mol–1 and for A– = 54 S cm2 mol–1 then calculate dissociation constant of weak acid HA.

(1) 2.5 × 10–3

(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 5 × 10–5

19) A ball of mass 200 gm is moving with a velocity of 10 m sec–1. If the error in measurement of
velocity is 0.1 %, then the uncertainty in its position is :-

(1) 3.3 × 10–27 m

(2) 2.64 × 10–32 m
(3) 2.64 × 10–35 m
(4) 3.3 × 10–24 m

20) For a general reversible reaction;

3A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g), the initial moles of A are double of B. At equilibrium moles of A and D
are equal. The percentage dissociation of A is :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 40%

21) Calculate heat (q), when 0.75 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly at 27°C
from a volume of 15 litre to 25 litre. (Given log 5 = 0.7, log 3 = 0.48)

(1) 947.78 joule

(2) –947.78 joule
(3) 890.52 joule
(4) –890.52 joule

22) Assertion (A) : For a polyprotic acid like H3PO4, higher order ionization constants (Ka2, Ka3) are
smaller than the lower order ionization constant (Ka1)
Reason (R) : It is more difficult to remove a positively charged proton from a negative ion due to
electrostatic forces of attraction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

23) Redox titration of 20 ml of 0.5 M Ferrous ammonium sulphate (Mohr's salt) against M/25 KMnO4
solution is carried out in acidic medium. Calculate used volume of KMnO4 at equivalence point or
end point ?

(1) 25 ml
(2) 75 ml
(3) 80 ml
(4) 50 ml

24) The rate of a first order reaction is 0.5 M s–1 at 20 sec and 0.4 M s–1 at 30 sec after initiation of
the reaction. The half life time of the reaction is (approx.) :

(1) 24 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 60 sec
(4) 30 sec

25) Match the values of different concentration terms given in column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Molarity of a solution containing 20 g of NaOH in

(A) I. 0.166
450 ml solution is

Molality of a solution containing 149 g of KCl in

(B) II. 1.11
500 g water is
 If 22 g of C6H6 is dissolved in 154 g of CCl4 then
(C) III. 4
the mass percentage of C6H6 is

If 46 g of C2H5OH is dissolved in 90 g of water

(D) IV. 12.5
then the mole fraction of C2H5OH is

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

26) One mole of P2H4 loses ten moles of electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all the
phosphorous appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of phosphorous in Y ?

(1) –1
(2) –3
(3) +3
(4) +5

27) At 27°C, vapour pressure of pure water is 50 mm Hg. Calculate no. of moles of MgCl2 (α =
100%) which are added to 15 moles of water to form a dilute solution, if vapour pressure is reduced
by 10 mm Hg.

(1) 2 moles
(2) 2.5 moles
(3) 1.8 moles
(4) 1.25 mole

28) Calculate pH of resultant mixture at 25°C when 500 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH solution is treated with
250 ml of 0.1 M HCl. Given Kb of NH4OH = 2 × 10–5

(1) 9.3
(2) 4.7
(3) 8.5
(4) 10.3

29) At 25°C, the potential (e.m.f.) for the cell,

Al(s)| (0.1 M) || (0.01 M) | Cd(s) is

Given :- = –1.66 volt ; = –0.40 volt

= 0.06

(1) 1.26 Volt

(2) 1.22 Volt
(3) –1.26 Volt
(4) 0.22 Volt

30) In a reaction, n1A + n2B → m1C + m2D, 5M of reactant A are allowed to react with 3 M of reactant
B. After 5 second, the concentration of A was found to be 4 M. Rate of decomposition of A and rate
of formation of D respectively :-

(1)
0.2 M sec–1 ; M sec–1

(2)
0.2 M sec–1 ; M sec–1

(3)
0.1 M sec–1 ; M sec–1

(4)
0.2 M sec–1 ; M sec–1

31)

Column - I Column - II
(Compound) Number of isomers

(A) (P) 2

(B) (Q) 3

(C) (R) 4

(D) (S) 6

Match column-I with column-II :-

(1) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
(2) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-P
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-P

32) What is the structure of major product B :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Product formed is :

(1) 2,4,6-Tribromoaniline
(2) 2-Bromophenol and 4-Bromophenol
(3) Picric acid
(4) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

34) Product (A) will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Rate of Nitration (ESR) is :-

(1)
> > >

(2)
> > >
(3)
> > >

(4)
> > >

36) Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) X, Major product X is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) P
Identify 'P' :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)
Product E is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
40) The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is :

(1) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(2) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(3) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose
(4) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.

41) When chlorine reacts with carboxylic acid in the presence of red P then α-chloro carboxylic acid
will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction

42)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent

Methyl Alcohol
(1) I2 + Base
and Ethyl Alcohol

Fehling
(2) and Solution
CH3CHO

Phenol and
(3) NaHCO3
Carboxylic Acid

Propane-1-Amine Hinsberg
(4)
and propane-2-Amine reagent
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity in SN1 reaction :-

(a) Ph–CH2–Cl (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > c > b > a

(2) c > d > b > a
(3) a > b > c > d
(4) b > a > c > d

44)
Which of the following product is not formed in above reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) IUPAC Name of :-

(1) 5-Cyano cyclohex-3-ene carbaldehyde

(2) 5-Formyl cyclohex-2-enecarbonitrile
(3) 3-Cyanocyclohex-4-enecarbaldehyde
(4) 3-Formyl cyclohex-5-enecarbonitrile

BIOLOGY

1) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) Taxonomic groups are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological aggregates.
(B) Family has a group of related genera with more number of similarities as compared to genus
and species.
(C) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison
to species of other genera.
(D) A species can be distinguished from the other closely related species based on the distinct
morphological differences.

(1) Statements A, B and C

(2) Statements A and D
(3) Statements A, C and D
(4) Statements A, B, C and D

2) Find out the incorrect match pair ?

(1) Phycomycetes - Rhizopus

(2) Ascomycetes - Claviceps
(3) Basidiomycetes - Alternaria
(4) Deuteromycetes - Trichoderma

3) Identify given organism and select true statement about it ?

(1) Euglena ; always heterotrophic

(2) Dinoflagellates ; always autotrophic
(3) Euglena ; have two flagella, a short and a long one
(4) Dinoflagellates ; mostly marine and photosynthetic

4) Select the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately in bryophytes.

(2) Sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular.
(3) Plant body of bryophytes lack true roots, stem and leaves.
(4) Bryophytes play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks

5) Read the following events :

(A) Spore formation (B) Gametes formation
(C) Zygote formation (D) Embryo formation
(E) Fertilization (F) Sex organ formation
Choose the correct sequence of above events regarding life cycle of pteridophytes.

(1) F, A, B, E, C, D
(2) A, F, B, E, D, C
(3) A, B, F, E, C, D
(4) A, F, B, E, C, D

6) A botany student encountered a palm like, short tree with pinnately compound leaves with sessile
leaflets bearing mid rib but no lateral veins. Unbranched stem has persistent woody leaf bases. This
plant produce seed but not fruit. The plant may be :-

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Cedrus

7) Which of the following is not a homopolymer ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Starch
(3) Glycogen
(4) Insulin

8) The number of carbon atoms excluding carboxylic carbon in arachidonic acid is :-

(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 19

9) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
I. Pigments a. Vinblastin, Curcumin
II. Alkaloids b. Abrin, Ricin
III. Toxins c. Carotenoids, Anthocyanins
IV. Drugs d. Morphine, Codeine
(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(3) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

10) Enzyme, which catalyze the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, is associated
with which of the following types of cofactors ?

(1) Organic and tightly bound

(2) Organic and loosely bound
(3) Inorganic and loosely bound
(4) Proteinaceous and tightly bound

11) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

 First action spectrum of photosynthesis was described with an experiment with the green alga
(1)
Cladophora.
In purple and green sulphur bacteria the reduction product in photosynthesis is sulphur or
(2)
sulphate depending on the organism.
In stroma, enzymatic reactions which synthesise sugar through calvin cycle are not directly
(3)
light driven.
Each photosystem has all the pigments forming a light harvesting system called antennae
(4)
except one molecule of chlorophyll 'a'

12) Statement-I : When only PS-II is functional, the electron is circulated within photosystem and
the photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electron.
Statement-II : The stroma lamellae membranes lack PS-I as well as NADP reductase enzyme.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

13) Two redox equivalents are removed in the form of two H-atoms when :-

(1) PGAL is oxidised to 1, 3–bisphosphoglyceric acid (1, 3–BisPGA)

(2) 1, 3–BisPGA is converted to 3–PGA
(3) 3–PGA is converted to 2–PGA
(4) Fructose 1,6–Bisphosphate splits into PGAL and DHAP.

14) How many of the following are the common compounds formed during the respiration of aerobic
and anaerobic organism ?
Acetyl co-A, 3-PGA, Succinate, pyruvate, malate, PEP.

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

15) Which process is not directly affected by auxin?

(1) Apical dominance

(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Synthesis of α-amylase by barley seeds
(4) Root initiation in stem cutting

16) Match column I with column II

Column I Column II

Promotes senescence and abscission of plant

A. Cytokinins I.
organ
 B. Gibberellins II. Inhibits seed germination

C. ABA III. Cause an increase in length of axis.

Promotes nutrient mobilisation which helps in

D. Ethylene IV.
the delay of leaf senescence.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
(2) A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
(3) A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
(4) A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV

17) Read the following statements-

(A) The phenomenon of heterophylly is an example of plasticity.
(B) Broadly, development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation
(C) Cytokinins help to produce new leaves.
(D) The PGR named Abscisic acid play an important role in plant responses to wounds and stresses
of biotic and abiotic origin
(E) Growth, differentiation and development are very closely related events in the life of a plant.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

18) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. grasshopper?

(1) Shows XO type of sex-determination

(2) Females have a pair of X-chromosomes
(3) Males have one Y-chromosome
(4) Males have only one X-chromosome

19) Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex ?

(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.

(2) XY type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in Drosophila.
(3) XO condition in humans as found in Turner’s syndrome determines female sex.
(4) Homozygous sex-chromosomes (XX) produce males in grasshopper.

20) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Multiple allelism (i) Tt × tt

(B) Dihybrid Test cross (ii) RrYy × rryy

 (C) Monohybrid Test cross (iii) Human blood groups

(D) Crossing over (iv) Parental combination

(E) Linkage (v) Recombination

(1) A → (iii), B → (i), C → (ii), D → (v), E → (iv)
(2) A → (iii), B → (ii), C → (i), D → (v), E → (iv)
(3) A → (iii), B → (ii), C → (i), D → (iv), E → (v)
(4) A → (iv), B → (ii), C → (i), D → (v), E → (iii)

21) Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also
expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and D only

(2) B and E only
(3) A and E only
(4) A and B only

22) What will be the probability of parental phenotype in the F2 generation of a quantitative
character regulated by three polygenes ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) What is position of untranslated region (UTR) in translation unit?

(1) After start codon and before stop codon

(2) Before start codon and after stop codon
(3) Before start codon and before stop codon
(4) After start codon and after stop codon

24) In Griffith's experiment:-

(1) The Protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform non-pathogenic cells.
(2) Heat killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
 Some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to non-pathogenic cells and
(3)
caused transformation.
(4) The polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused Pneumonia.

25) Which of the following is not the feature of human genome?

(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins

(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes (231)
(3) Repetitive sequences make up very large portion of human genome
Scientist have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA difference (SNP -
(4)
Single nucleotide polymorphism) occur in humans.

26)

Refer to the given figure and consider the following statements regarding it.

I. A is present at 5' end of coding strand.

II. B is sense strand having polarity.
III. C present at upstream end
IV. D acts as template strand.
Select the option which shows incorrect statement(s).
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) III only
(4) II, III and IV only

27)

Some events of protein synthesis in prokaryotes are given below –

(A) Binding of first charged t-RNA to ribosomal P site.
(B) Activation of amino acids.
(C) Binding of charged t-RNA to ribosomal A site during elongation
(D) Binding of smaller subunit of ribosome to m-RNA.
(E) Activity of releasing factor.
In which of the following option this events are arranged in specific sequence ?

(1) B → A → E → D → C
(2) A → B → E → C → D
(3) B → E → C → A → D
(4) B → D → A → C → E

28) Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose correct answer :-
 Column-I Column-II

(A) Lady bird (I) Methanobacterium

(B) Mycorrhiza (II) Trichoderma

(C) Biological control (III) Aphids

(D) Biogas (IV) Glomus

(1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV

29)

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the answer from the options given below :

(1) A only
(2) D only
(3) B only
(4) E only

30) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Microbes are also used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo shoot.
(2) Roque fort cheese are ripened by algae.
(3) Puffed up appearance of dough is due to O2
(4) Microbes are not diverse

31) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Expressed sequence tag method is focused on identifying all the genes that are expressed as
(1)
RNA.
(2) BAC and YAC were commonly used vectors in human genome project.
(3) Sequencing of only non-coding part of genome was done in sequence annotation method.
(4) In human genome project, fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencer.

32) Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use ?

(1) Restriction enzyme - Production of RFLPs

(2) DNA ligase-that cuts DNA, creating the sticky ends
(3) DNA polymerase - used in a polymerase chain reaction to amplify section of DNA
(4) reverse transcriptase - production of cDNA from mRNA

33) Which of the following enzymes is not used for isolation of DNA from bacteria, plant or fungi ?

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Chitinase
(3) Cellulase
(4) DNase

34) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. What is the correct
sequence for r-DNA technology ?
a → Downstream processing.
b → Cutting of DNA at specific location.
c → Obtaining the foreign gene product.
d → Isolation of the genetic material.
e → Insertion of r-DNA into the host cell.

(1) b → d → e → a → c
(2) d → b → e → c → a
(3) d → e → b → a → c
(4) e → d → a → c → b

35) The protein coded by the genes cry IAc and cry IIAb controls :-

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton bollworm
(3) Army worm
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis

36) A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to
hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
It will help studying diseases by getting following results :-

(1) The clone having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film.
(2) The clone having normal gene will hence not appear on the photographic film.
(3) The clone having the mutated gene will hence appear on the photographic film.
The clone having the mutated gene doesn't appear on photographic film as the probe has
(4)
complementarity with it.

37) Read the given statements and select the correct option :
Statement-I : Plants, bacteria, Fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation
are called genetically modified organism (GMO).
Statement-II : Genetic modification of organism can have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

38) Match the column–I with column–II

Column-I Column-II
(Phyllotaxy) (Example)

(A) Alternate (i) Calotropis

(B) Opposite (ii) Alstonia

(C) Whorled (iii) Guava

(iv) China rose

(1) A–(iv), B–(i), (iii), C–(ii)
(2) A–(i), (ii), B–(iii), C–(iv)
(3) A–(iii), B–(i), (iv), C–(ii)
(4) A–(ii), B–(i), (iii), C–(iv)

39) Select the incorrect statement for given diagram:-

(1) Represent the compound raceme type of inflorescence

(2) Younger flowers are present towards tip
(3) Shows acropetal manner of arrangment of flowers
(4) Can be seen as Solanum

40) The aestivation in petals of lady finger and Calotropis plants are respectively :-

(1) A & D
(2) B & A
(3) D & A
(4) D & B

41) Similarity in trichome and root hair is :-

(1) Both are epidermal out growth
(2) Both are always unbranched
(3) Both prevent transpiration
(4) Both are always secretory

42) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Phloem parenchyma is absent in stem of monocot plant usually

(2) In conjoint vascular bundle, xylem and phloem are present on different radii
(3) In conjoint vascular bundle, xylem is endarch
(4) In root radial vascular bundles are present

43) Assertion : The adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells in dicot
leaves.
Reason : The oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma present below the palisade
cells (tissue).

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

44) When many embryos are present inside the single seed then it is called :-

(1) Polyembryony
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Apomixis

45) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) A typical angiosperm anther is tetralobed.

(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 50-100 nm in diameter.
(3) In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage.
In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 seconds of their
(4)
release.

46) Identify the incorrect statements :

(A) After fertilization micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat and facilitates entry of
oxygen and water into the seed.
(B) Seeds have better strategies for dispersal to new habitat and help the species to colonies in other
areas.
(C) The nutrient's are the most important factor for germination of seed.
(D) In angiosperms, reproductive process such as pollination and fertilization are dependent of
water, thus seed formation is more dependable.
(E) In a typical angiosperm embryosac polar nuclei are situated above the antipodal cells.
(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) C, D and E
(4) A, B and C

47) Correct sequence of conduction of impulses in heart is :-

(1) Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → SA Node → AV Node

(2) Bundle of His → AV Node → SA Node → Purkinje fibres
(3) SA Node → AV Node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres
(4) AV Node → SA Node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

48) Identify A to F in the given diagram :- Choose the correct option.

A-Lungs, B-Body parts,

(1) C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery,
E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts,
(2) C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein,
E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts,
(3) C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein,
E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
A-Body parts, B-Lungs,
(4) C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein,
E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta

49)
Above diagram shows which phenomenon of respiration ?
(1) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(2) Expiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(3) Expiration : Relaxation in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(4) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and relaxation in internal intercoastal muscles

50) Arrange the following in the order of decreasing volume :-

(A) Tidal volume
(B) Residual volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume
(D) Vital capacity

(1) D → C → B → A
(2) D → B → C → A
(3) B → C → D → A
(4) C → B → D → A

51) Match the columns and choose the correct options :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Somatostatin P. GIT a. Increases blood glucose level

B. GIP Q. Pancreas b. Inhibits growth hormone

C. Glucagon R. Adrenal cortex c. Proteolysis

D. Cortisol S. Hypothalamus d. Inhibits gastric secretion

(1) A-P-b, B-Q-d, C-R-c, D-S-a
(2) A-Q-a, B-P-c, C-S-d, D-R-b
(3) A-S-a, B-R-d, C-Q-b, D-P-c
(4) A-S-b, B-P-d, C-Q-a, D-R-c

52) Read the statements given below carefully, and choose the correct option as answer.
(A) Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation of diurnal rhythm of our body.
(B) Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cycle.
(C) Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal body temperature.
(D) Melatonin also influences our defense capability.

(1) Only (A) and (D) are incorrect.

(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct.
(3) All statements are incorrect.
(4) Only (C) and (D) are incorrect.

53) How many of the followings are examples of steroidal hormone ?

Insulin, cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, progesterone, estrogen, GnRH, thyroxine

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three

54) Urge for eating and drinking is controlled by-

(1) Thalamus
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebrum

55) Statement-1 : The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.
Statement-2 : The neural system provide organised network of point to point connection for a quick
coordination.

(1) only statement 1 is correct

(2) only statement 2 is correct
(3) both statement 1 and 2 are is correct
(4) both statement 1 and 2 are is incorrect

56) Read the following statements from A to D.

A. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes mainly excrete urea
B. Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of the insects including cockroaches.
C. Each human kidney has nearly one million nephrons.
D. Human kidneys can produce erythropoietin hormone. How many of the above statement are
correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

57) Which of the following part of nephron maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood ?

(1) Bowman Capsule

(2) Henle's loop
(3) DCT
(4) Glomerulus

58) Ciliary movement is found in:

(1) Macrophages and leucocytes

(2) Fallopian tube and leucocytes
(3) Fallopian tube and Trachea
(4) Tongue and Limbs

59) Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human
skeleton?
(1) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(2) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(3) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
(4) Parietal bone and temporal bone of the skull are joined by the fibrous joint

60) Which bacteria are mainly responsible for causing pneumonia in humans by infecting the alveoli
of the lungs?

(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

(2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Salmonella typhi
(3) Vibrio cholerae and Clostridium tetani
(4) Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

61) Which of the following statement is correct with respect to benign tumor ?

(1) It usually spreads to other parts of body

(2) It causes huge damage to the tissues concerned
(3) Normally remain confined to its original location
(4) It is characterised by metastasis

62) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding sexually transmitted disease ?
(A) Sexually transmitted disease can spread through kissing and inheritance.
(B) AIDS and Hepatitis-B both are sexually transmitted diseases that do not specificially affect
reproductive organs.
(C) Genital herpes is a non-curable STD.
(D) STD can lead to infertility, abortions and even cancer of reproductive tracts.

(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and C
(4) Only B

63) Given below are four statements. Read the statements and mark the option that has both correct
statements.
(i) Heroin, commonly called Smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum
(iii) Marijuna interferes with the transmission of dopamine
(iv) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.

(1) i & ii
(2) i & iv
(3) ii & iii
(4) iii & iv

64) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
 A Sea weeds existed I Around 350 mya

B Jawless fishes evolved II Around 65 mya

C Extinction of dinosaurs III Around 200 mya

D Ichthyosaurs evolved IV Around 320 mya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-II

65) Given below diagram shows variety of beaks of finches that Darwin found in Galapagos island.

Choose the incorrect statement about these finches.

(1) These finches are an example of adaptive radiation.

(2) The variations in beak shapes among finches are a result of natural selection.
(3) All the finches shown in the diagram feed on the same type of food.
Darwin used observations on these finches to support his theory of evolution by natural
(4)
selection.

66) Assertion (A): Sertoli cells releases some factors which helps in the process of spermiogenesis.
Reason (R): After spermiogenesis, sperms head embedded in the leydig cells, and are finally
released from seminiferous tubules this process is known as spermiation.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but reason is False.
(4) Assertion & reason both are false.

67) In the absence of fertilization, the........A...........degenerates, this causes disintegration of

the......B.......leading to menstruation :-

(1) A-corpus albicans, B-Myometrium

(2) A-corpus albicans, B-endometrium
(3) A-corpus luteum, B-Myometrium
(4) A-corpus luteum, B-endometrium

68) Identify the correct sequence of events during reproductive cycle of human:
I. Parturition
II. Fertilization
III. Gametogenesis
IV. Gestation
V. Implantation
Options:

(1) III, IV, V, II, I

(2) II, III, IV, V, I
(3) V, IV, II, I, III
(4) III, II, V, IV, I

69) Which of the following is correct regarding temporary contraceptive methods ?

(A) Lactational amenorrhea is effective for maximum 6 weeks.
(B) MTPs also helped in population control to some extent.
(C) Insertion of IUD by user herself is very effective emergency contraceptive method
(D) Multiload-375 makes uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(E) saheli pill is taken once a week and has very few side effects.

(1) A, B, C, D & E
(2) B, C, D & E
(3) C & E
(4) E only

70) Ciliated epithelium is present in -

(1) Blood vessels

(2) Air sacs of lungs
(3) Stomach
(4) Bronchioles

71) The genital pouch in female cockroach is formed by :-

(1) by 7th, 8th & 9th sterna

(2) by 6th, 7th & 9th sterna
(3) by 5th, 6th & 7th sterna
(4) by 4th, 5th & 6th sterna

72) Which of the following is sexual dimorphic character of frog.

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Tympanum
(3) Vocal sacs
(4) Nictitating membrane

73) Read the statements with regard to frog. Which of the statement is/are correct and incorrect ?
(i) The medulla oblongata passes out through foramen megendie and continues into spinal cord
(ii) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise from testes.
(iii) Ovaries have no functional connection with kidneys.
(iv) Frogs are uricotelic.

(1) Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while statement (iv) is incorrect.
(2) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct while statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(3) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct while statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect
(4) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct while statement (i) is incorrect.

74) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Earthworm
(3) Leech
(4) Ascaris

75) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gregarious pest (i) Antedon

Adult with radial

(b) symmetry and larva with (ii) Limulus
bilateral symmetry

Sea
(c) Living fossil (iii)
Walnuts

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

(I) A. Fresh water sponge

 (II) B. Sycon

(III) C. Bath sponge

(1) I-B, II-C, III-A

(2) I-B, II-A, III-C
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C
(4) I-C, II-B, III-A

77) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct order & select the correct option from options
given below
(A) Crossing over
(B) Bivalent formation
(C) Centromere division
(D) Condensation of chromatin material initiates
(E) Chromosome condensation completes

(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) B, A, D, E, C
(3) D, B, A, E, C
(4) D, B, A, C, E

78) See the diagrams carefully and identify the different stages of mitosis (A-C) by choosing

appropriate options given below. A B

C

(1) A-Metaphase; B-Telophase; C-Interphase

(2) A-Telophase; B-Metaphase; C-Prophase
(3) A-Anaphase; B-Telophase; C-Interphase
(4) A-Telophase; B-Anaphase; C-Prophase

79) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending on the physiological activity of the
(1)
cell.
(2) Mitochondria is a double membrane bound structure.
(3) Amyloplast stores protein.
(4) Plastids are found in all plant cell and in Euglenoids.

80) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ribosome (i) Osmoregulation

(B) Nucleolus (ii) Protein Synthesis

(C) Vacuole (iii) Provide motility

(D) Cilia (iv) r-RNA synthesis

(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

81) Extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm is not found in?

(1) Protista
(2) Animals
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria

82)

Read the following four statements (a–d) :-

(a) Geometric growth produces J-shaped population growth curve
(b) Logistic growth occurs when resources are limiting.
(c) Equation for exponential growth is Nt = N0ert.
(d) Limiting factors can influence the number of organisms in a population once it reaches its
carrying capacity.

How many of the above statement are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

83) They may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the other organisms and reduce it's
population density, They might render the organism more vulnerable to predation by making it
physically weak. They are :-

(1) Predator
(2) Parasite
(3) Amensal
(4) Commensal
84)
For the given population growth curve which statement is correct .

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.
(2) 'K' is carrying capacity and is specific for a given population.
(3) Curve 'a' is obtained when responses are limiting.
(4) Curve 'b' is depicted by a population of small organisms.

85) Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is 1000 Kcal/m2/year–1. If a

Heterotroph consume 60% part of available mass for it. Then find out the rate of storage not used by
Heterotrophs:-

(1) 40 k cal
(2) 100 k cal
(3) 400 k cal
(4) 900 k cal

86) Which of the following statements is not correct about pyramid of biomass ?

(1) It may be upright or inverted

(2) It is based on standing crop
(3) A large standing crop is always required to support a small standing crop
(4) In a forest ecosystem it is upright

87) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

a Fragmentation i Leads to accumulation of a dark coloured substance

Water-soluble inorganic nutrients undergo in soil

b Humification ii
horizon

Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade

c Catabolism iii detritus into simple organic and inorganic
substance

d Leaching iv Detritivores break down detritus in small pieces

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

88) Who conducted long term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots for finding importance of
species diversity ?

(1) Paul Ehrlich

(2) Alexander Von Humboldt
(3) David Tilman
(4) Edward Wilson

89) There are four major causes ( the evil quartet) of biodiversity losses, with respect to them, which
of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation decreases biodiversity

(2) Over exploitation cause some fishes to get endangered.
(3) Alien species invasions decrease the threat to native species.
(4) Co-extinctions lead to extinction of a species as well as associated plant and animal species.

90) Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Obvious reasons for

(a) Nile Perch in lake Victoria (i)
biodiversity conservation

(b) Narrowly utilitarian (ii) Habitat destruction

Main cause for biodiversity

(c) (iii) High endemism
loss

(d) Hotspots (iv) Alien species

(1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 3 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (a) 1001 : All non-zero digits and zeros between them are significant. So 4
(b) 010.1 : Leading zeros are never significant. So 3
(c) 100.100 : Zeros between non-zero digits and trailing zeros after a decimal point are
significant. So 6
(d) 0.0010010 : 5 significant figures

2) or
Assuming B to be at rest, A will move with velocity in the direction shown in figure. The
distance between them will first decrease from A to Cand then increase beyond C.

Minimum distance between them is BC which is equal to or and the time after which
they are at closest distance is :

3) or

=
∴ Distance covered = 4x – x = 3x

4)
For 2kg block For 1kg block
6 – T = 2a T = 1a1
6–T=2×2 2 = 1a1
T = 2N a1 = 2m/s2

5) fk = mN = 0.04 × 20g = 8 Newton

a= = 2m/s2
6)

0 + WG + Wf = ΔKE ....(i)
WN = 0, WG = mg(5) – mgh'
Wf = – µmg(8)
So, from relation (i)
mg(5) – mgh1 – µmg(8) = 0
50 = 10h' + 0.5 × 10 × 8
10 = 10h'
h' = 1 m

7) at = 'g'

ac =

anet =

anet =
Both Assertion & Reason are true & reason is correct explanation of the assertion.

8) Let v be the final speed of block when it is at maximum height h. At that instant the speed of
circular track shall also be v.

From conservation of momentum

= (m + 2m) v ...(1)
From conservation of energy

m (2gR) = (m + 2m) v2 + 2mgh ...(2)

solving (1) and (2) we get

h= R

9) T1 + T2 = mg = 100
Tnet = 0

⇒
∴ T1 = 50 N

10)

Angular momentum
L = Iω
Kinetic energy

K= {from Eq. (i)

∴L=

Now L' =

L' =

11) Inside shell :

Eg = 0

= constant

12)
= 5 × 106 N/m2

13) =

14) 2Tℓ = Mg ⇒ M =

= = 0.6 g

15)

T.E. = – K.E. = P.E.

T.E. = if satellite loss energy T.E. become more –ve so r↓ and K.E. = .
As r ↓ ⇒ K.E.↑ ⇒ v increases.

16)

If distance between atoms is constant so no vibrational K.E. & degree of freedom is 5 so

Cv =

17)

Wcyclic = – 200 kPa × 400cc

= – 200 × 103 × 400 × 10–6
= – 80 Joule

18)
Explanation Question:
We need to find the temp of oxygen gas (O2) at which oxygen gas rms speed is equal to rms
speed of nitrogen at 0ºC.
Concept:
This question is based on root mean square velocity of gases
Solution:
= 0°C = 273 K, = 32,

According to question

= (312 – 273)°C
= 39°C
Final Answer: (3)

19) Heat current same in both rod

100 – T = 2T – 40 ⇒ 3T = 140

20)

(a) Due to presence of any charge near metallic sphere, potential on sphere will be non-zero.
(b) Potential at surface of conducting sphere is equal to potential at the centre.

21)

Solution: Work done in moving a charge equals the change in electric potential energy:
W = q0 (Vf – Vi)
Electric potential on the axis of a charged ring:

Potential at the centre (x = 0):

Potential at
Work done:

22)

For mettalic sphere

Vout = ,

23)
Let ‘x’ be equilibrium extension, F = kx

V = E(d – x)

24)

I1 =
Power consumed = V I
= 20 × 1
= 20 watt
Power supplied = – 20 watt

25) R = Rg(n – 1)

=
= 1.985 × 103 Ω

26)
⇒

27) i = 2 sin 100 πt + 2 sin (100 πt + 30°)

= =
Effective value of current Or rms value.

28)

By Theory

29) Second and fourth statements are correct.

30)

R = 50 cm
f = 25 cm

31)

upper lens

[Lens makers formula]

[Lens makers formula]

distance between images is

32)

8β = 2.4 cm; = 2.4 cm

= 2.4 × 10–2

f = 5 × 1014 Hz

33) hv = hv0 + eVS

in the first case ... (i)

In the second case ... (ii)

From equation (i) ... (iii)

Subtracting (ii) – (iii), we get

0
⇒ λ = 4λ = ⇒ n=8

34)

35)

36) Solution: During the positive half-cycle of input (Vi > 0) diode D1 branch : diode D1 will be
forward-biased and conduct only when the voltage at its cathode. The cathode is connected to
a +12 V source.
So, D1 conducts when Vo > 12V. When D1 conducts, it acts like a short circuit, clamping the
output voltage Vo to +12V.
For any input voltage that would cause Vo to exceed +12V, the output will be limited to +12V.
Diode D2 branch: Diode D2 will be forward-biased only when the voltage at its anode (6V) is
greater than the voltage at its cathode (Vo).
So, D2 conducts when –6V > Vo. During the positive half-cycle, Vo is always positive. The
condition –6V > Vo can never be met.
Therefore, D2 remains reverse-biased (an open circuit) through out the entire positive half-
cycle.
Conclusion for positive cycle: The output voltage follows the input until it reaches +12V, at
which point it gets clipped.
During the negative half-cycle of input (Vi < 0)
* diode D1 branch : The condition for D1 conduct is Vo > 12 V.
* During the negative half-cycle, Vo is negative, so this condition is never met.
* Therefore, D1 remains reverse-biased (an open circuit) throughout the entire negative half-
cycle.
* Diode D2 branch: Diode D2 will be forward-biased when the voltage at its anode (–6V) is
greater than the voltage at its cathode (Vo).
* So, D2 conducts when –6V > Vo.
* This means that whenever the output voltage tries to become more negative than –6V, diode
D2 will turn on.
* When D2 conducts, it acts like a short circuit, clamping the output voltage Vo to –6V.
Conclusion for negative cycle : The output voltage follows the input until it reaches –6V, at
which point it gets clipped.
The circuit clips the sinusoidal waveform as follows:
The positive peak is clipped at +12V.
The negative peak is clipped at –6V.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 1

37)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
So Y = 1 for n = 5 cases

38)

Statement (a) : Due to maxima of all wavelegth

Statement (b) : Position of central maxima will remain same as before.
Statement (c) : Central maxima and screen move together , therefore there speed will be
same.

39)
40) When bulbs are connected in series, they share the same current (I).
The ratio of their potential differences and power they consume depends entirely on their
individual resistances.
We first find the resistance ratio using their rated voltages and then apply Ohm's Law and the
power formula.
Calculation:
1. Identify that resistance R is proportional to the square of rated voltage (V2) when power

rating is the same .

2. Calculate the resistance ratio: .

3. Simplify the ratio:

4. In a series circuit, potential difference V = I R, So the voltage ratio is the same as the

resistance ratio: .
5. This confirms statement (b) is correct.
6. In a series circuit, power consumed P = I2 R, so the power ratio is also the same as the

resistance ratio: .
7. This confirms statement (c) is correct.

41)

τ = IAB

42) λe = Å

Va = (Å)2 volt

V1 = volt
⇒ K1 = 0.375 eV
Similarly

K2 = = 6 eV
∴ extra energy required
 Δk = K2 – K1
= 6 – 0.375
= 5.67 eV

43) f = f' ± Δf = 288 ± 4 = 292, 284

* If f = 292 Hz, then by waxing f will decrease so beats freq. decrease will match with
experiment.
* If f = 284, then by waxing f will decrease but beat freq. will increase so not possible.

44)

ℓc = 12.5 cm

45)

Given :
m = 2kg, k = 200 N/m, g = 10 m/s2
Angular frequency :

Condition for detachment :

Final Answer : (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) If a ligand absorbs less energy it will be weak.

Red has highest wavelength & lowest energy so
L1 < L2 < L3 < L4

47) Contains
Contains
Contains
Contains

48) Ni2+ + NH4OH + dmg →

2 Five member ring

Prussian Blue

49) Solution:
Statement I is true: A homoleptic octahedral complex with all six identical monodentate
ligands has no geometrical or optical isomers (all positions equivalent).
Statement II is false: Cis- and trans-platin are , which has two types of ligands
and Cl), so it is a heteroleptic complex of platinum (not Pd).

Final Answer: Option (4)

50) NCERT Pg. No.90

51) NCERT Pg. No.93, 94

52)

53) For Fe3+, Aℓ3+, Cr3+, with NH4OH excess NH4Cl is added.

54) AgI does not dissolve in NH3 solution.

55) * Molecular orbital should have maximum overlap

* Symmetry about the molecular axis should be similar

56) O3 = dry bleaching agent

SO2 show's temporary bleaching agent due to its reducing behaviours.

57) Concept based

58)
Total ℓ p is 11

59) x = 2, Mn2O7, NO2 (Acidic oxide)

y = 5, ZnO, BeO, PbO, MnO2, Al2O3 (Amphoteric oxide)
z=2–5+3
= –3 + 3 = 0

60)

Theory based

61) Mass of 2 ml liquid = d × v

= 1.2 × 2 = 2.4 gm
∵ mass of 20 drops = 2.4 gm

∴ mass of 1 drop =

moles of liquid in 1 drop =

no. of molecules = × 6.02 × 1023

= 3.01 × 1021

62) K1 = ; T1 = 300 K

K2 = ; T2 = 320 K

Ea = 6624 calories = 6.62 K cal

63) NCERT-XII (Part-1), Pg. # 85 Intext Que 3.9

Step 1 :

Step 2 :
Step 3 : Ka = Cα2

64) Δx × Δp =

Δx × mΔv =

... (1)
Δv = × 10 = 0.1 × 10–1 = 10–2 m/sec.

65) 3A + 2B ⇌ 2C + D
initially 2a a 0 0
at equilibrium (2a–3x) (a–2x) 2x x
At equilibrium moles of A = moles of D (given)
(2a – 3x) = x

4x = 2a ⇒ x =
∴ number of moles of A consumed in the reaction

= 3x = = 1.5 a

% age of A dissociated = × 100 = 75%

66) For isothermal and reversible process

q = 2.303 nRT log

= 2.303 × 0.75 × 8.314 × 300 log

= 947.78 Joule

67) NCERT-XI (Old) Part heading 7.11.6

(1) H3PO4 ⇌ H+ + ; Ka1
(2) ⇌ H+ + ; Ka2
(3) ⇌ H+ + ; Ka3
Ka1 >> Ka2 >> Ka3

68) At equivalence point,

(N × V)for KMnO = (N × V)for Mohr's salt
4

[This question is based experiment based on titration of Mohr's salt v/s KMnO4]

69) NCERT-XII (Old) Part-1, Pg. # 107 Equation 4.13

From interval formula for 1st order

r=

r=
After solving we get ; t1/2 ≃ 30 sec

70) ;
71)
in compound Y ;
2x + 4 = +10
2x = +6 ⇒ [x = +3]

72) For dilute solution

moles of MgCl2 = = 1 mole

73) NCERT-XI (Part-1), Solved Problem 7.24

NH4OH + HCl ⇌ NH4Cl + H2O
↓
At t = 0; moles moles 0 0
= M×V(in litre) = 0.1 × 0.25
= 0.1 × 0.5 = 0.025
= 0.05
After (0.05–0.025) (0.025–0.025) 0.025 0.025
reaction = 0.025 =0 mole mole
In remaining mixture weak base and salt of same weak base with strong acid both are present.
Hence it will act as basic buffer solution

pOH = pKb + log10

74) Ecell =

∴ Ecell = (1.66 – 0.40) –

Ecell = 1.26 – 0.01 log

Ecell = 1.22 volt

75) = 0.2 mol lit–1 sec–1

76)

77) Solution :

• 'A' is obtained by dehydration of alcohol.

• (B) is formed by addition of HBr on (A).

Final Answer : Option (3)

78) Answer Explanation :

2,4,6-Tribromophenol Phenol ionise in water to form phenoxide ion in which

O denote e to benzene ring and increased e–density at O & p-position then bromine replace H
– –

atom to form 2,4,6-Tribromophenol.

Final Answer : Option : (4)

Level : Easy

79)
Solution :- NaBH4 is mild reducing agent It can selectively reduce Aldehyde and ketones to
their corresponding alcohol it is not strong enough to reduce esters.

Final Answer :- 3

80)

Rate of Nitration ∝ +M , +H, +I group

81)

[Most readily Hydrated]

(Resonance stabilised product)

Final answer: Option (1)

82)

Solution: Br• attacks the benzylic carbon to form a tertiary radical, or the tertiary carbon to
form a benzylic radical. Since the benzylic radical is more stable due to resonance, Br attaches
to the tertiary carbon (C2) and H to the benzylic carbon (C1).

Final Answer: Option (2)

83)

R–C≡N
 84)

85)

Solution:

A. RNA contains ribose sugar (with −OH group at 2'position).

B. DNA contains 2'-deoxyribose sugar (lacking −OH at 2'position, only −H).
C. Arabinose is not a component of nucleic acids.

Thus, the correct statement is; RNA has ribose and DNA has 2'-deoxyribose.

Final Answer: Option (2).

86) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-375

87) Solution:
Let us evaluate each pair for its chemical correctness:

A. Pair (1): Ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) contains the CH3CH(OH)- group and gives a yellow CHI3
precipitate with I2 + Base (positive iodoform test). Methyl alcohol (CH3OH) lacks this group
and does not react. (Correct)
B. Pair (2): Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) Fehling's solution whereas aromatic benzaldehyde
(C6H5CHO) does not. (Correct)
C. Pair (3): Carboxylic acids react with NaHCO3 releasing CO2 gas. Phenol is too weakly acidic to
show this reaction. (Correct)
D. Pair (4): Propane-1-amine and propane-2-amine. Hinsberg's reagent distinguishes different
classes of amines (1°, 2°, and 3°)

Since both are primary (1°) amines, they undergo identical reactions, making this the Wrongly
Matched pair.
Final Answer: Option (4).

88)

Solution:
• (b) Tropylium precursor: Forms an aromatic tropylium cation (highly stable).
• (a) Benzyl chloride: Forms a resonance-stabilized benzylic carbocation.
• (c) 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane: Forms a tertiary (3°) carbocation.
• (d) Neopentyl chloride: Forms an unstable primary (1°) carbocation.
 Final Answer: Option (4)

89)

90)
5-Formyl cyclohex-2-ene carbonitrile

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Page No. # 6,7

92) NCERT (XI) Eng. Pg. # 17, 18

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

95)

Explain Question:
Question asking about the correct sequence of events regarding the life cycle of pteridophytes.
Concept: This question is based on Pteridophyta -general characters and life cycle
Solution:
The correct sequence of events regarding the life cycle of pteridophytes.
I(A) Spore formation
II(F) Sex organ formation
III(B) Gametes formation
IV(E) Fertilization
V(C) Zygote formation
VI(D) Embryo formation
Final answer: (4)

96)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 32

97)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 109, 110

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 106

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108

I. Pigments are substances that produce color. c. Carotenoids, Anthocyanins are well-known
examples of natural pigments, giving us vibrant yellows, oranges, reds, and blues in plants and
other organisms.

II. Alkaloids are naturally occurring chemical compounds containing basic nitrogen atoms.
Many have significant physiological effects. d. Morphine, Codeine are classic examples of
alkaloids derived from the opium poppy, used for pain relief.

III. Toxins are poisonous substances produced by living organisms. b. Abrin, Ricin are potent
toxins found in certain plants.

IV. Drugs are substances used in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of
disease. a. Vinblastin, Curcumin are examples of compounds derived from plants that have
medicinal properties; vinblastine is used in cancer treatment, and curcumin (from turmeric)
has anti-inflammatory effects.

Correct option = 3

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 118

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135, 136, 138

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 140

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 155, 156, 159

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 175, 176

Explain Question:
The question asks which of the listed physiological processes is not controlled or influenced
directly by auxin.
Concept :
Plant hormones → Auxin functions.
 Solution:
Auxin regulates apical dominance, induces parthenocarpy in some fruits, and promotes
adventitious formation in stem cutting. However, α-amylase synthesis in barley seeds is
regulated by gibberellins (GA), not auxin.
Final answer: option (3)

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176,177

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 173, 174, 177

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 70

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 70 (Sex Determination)

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 58, 62, 67

111) NCERT-XII, Pg # 76

112) Explain Question: The question asks the probability of parental phenotype in the F2
generation of a quantitative character regulated by three polygenes.
Concept: Polygenic Inheritance.
Solution: The probability of parental phenotype in the F2 generation of a quantitative
character regulated by three polygenes will be 2/[Link] is so because 3 polygenes will give
rise to trihybrid cross and 64 zygotes in the F2 generations. Now out of these 64 only 2 will be
having parental genotypes.
Final answer: Option (1)

113)

NCERT XII, Pg # 99

114) Question Explanation:

The key finding of Griffith's experiment.
Concept:
This question based on Bacterial Transformation, Genetic Material.
Solution:
Griffith's experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae showed that:

A. Heat-killed pathogenic (S) strain bacteria could transform non-pathogenic (R) strain bacteria.
This meant that some substance from the dead S strain cells was transferred to the live R
strain cells, making them pathogenic.
B. This substance was later identified as DNA. Griffith's experiment provided early evidence that
DNA, not protein or polysaccharides, is the genetic material.

Answer: Option 3 (Some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to non-pathogenic cells
and caused transformation).

115)

Explain Question: The question asks about the features of the human genome. Instead, we
need to identify the statement that is not a true feature of the human genome.

Concept: Human genome project

Solution:
Option 1 is correct: <2% genome codes for proteins.
Option 2 is incorrect: chromosome 1 does not have the fewest genes; it has the maximum.
Option 3 is correct: repetitive sequences form a large part of the genome.
Option 4 is correct: ~1.4 million SNPs are identified in humans.

Final answer: 2

116) Explain Question :

The question is asking about identifying correct and incorrect statements related to the coding
and template strands of DNA based on the given transcription diagram showing 5′ and 3′ ends.
Concept : Transcription
Solution :
Incorrect statements are-
II. Because B is on coding strand.
III. Because C is at 3′ end (downstream).
IV. Because D acts as template strand.
Final answer
II, III and IV only

117)

Question Explanation: Sequencing the events of protein synthesis.

Concept: Process of Translation

Solution: The correct sequence of events is: (B) Activation of amino acids (charging tRNA) →
(D) Binding of the small ribosomal subunit to mRNA → (A) Binding of the first charged tRNA to
the P site → (C) Binding of the next charged tRNA to the A site during elongation → (E) Activity
of release factors at the stop codon.

Final Answer: Option (4) B → D → A → C → E

118) The correct answer is 2. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – [Link]:

A. A – III (Lady bird – Aphids): Ladybirds feed on aphids, which are harmful insects to plants.
B. B – IV (Mycorrhiza – Glomus): Fungi are also known to form symbiotic associations with
plants(mycorrhiza). Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
C. C – II (Biological control – Trichoderma): Trichoderma is a biocontrol agent used to
control plant pathogens.
D – I (Biogas – Methanobacterium): Methanobacterium is a genus of bacteria involved in the
production of methane during the biogas process.

119) NCERT-XII Pg # 158

120) NCERT - XII, Pg. # 151

121) Explain Question :The question asks which statement among the four is incorrect
regarding genome sequencing techniques and tools.

Concept : Human Genome Project

Explanation : Statement (3) is incorrect because annotation involves both coding and non-
coding sequences, not only non-coding.

Final answer :Option (3)

122)

Question Explanation: Identifying incorrect tool-use pair in rDNA.

Concept: Recombinant DNA Technology.

Solution: The incorrect pair is DNA ligase. DNA ligase is an enzyme that joins DNA fragments
together, not cuts them. The enzymes that cut DNA are called restriction enzymes.

Final Answer: DNA ligase-that cuts DNA, creating the sticky ends.

123) NCERT XII, Pg. # 201

124) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201,202,203,204

125)

The protein encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is
toxic to the cotton bollworm, a major pest that affects cotton crops. These genes are used in
Bt cotton to provide resistance against the cotton bollworm.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

126)

NCERT Page # 183

127) NCERT Pg # 208, 213

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

131) NCERT XI Pg # 72

132) NCERT Pg. # 73

133) NCERT, Pg. # 76

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4-8

136) NCERT Pg. # 20, 21

137) NCERT Pg. # 199

138)

Fig. 15.4

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186

140)

Question Explanation – The question is asking to arrange tidal volume, residual volume,
inspiratory reserve volume, and vital capacity in decreasing order of their volumes.
Concept – Lung volumes and capacities.
Solution –

A. Vital capacity (D) ≈ 4500 mL → largest.

B. Inspiratory reserve volume (C) ≈ 2500–3000 mL → second largest.

C. Residual volume (B) ≈ 1200 mL → smaller.

 D. Tidal volume (A) ≈ 500 mL → smallest.

So, the decreasing order is: D → C → B → A.

Final Answer – Option 1

141) NCERT Pg # 239 to 247

142) NCERT Pg.#242.

143) NCERT Pg. # 248

144)

Explain Question : Urge for eating and drinking is controlled by-

Concept : This question is based on fore brain.
Explanation : Urge for eating and drinking is controlled by hypothalamus.
Final answer : 2

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 237

146)

Question explanation: The question is asking how many of the given statements about
excretion and kidneys are correct.

Concept: EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION.

Solution:
Statement A is correct; mammals, many terrestrial amphibians, and marine fishes mainly
excrete urea.
Statement B is correct; Malpighian tubules are excretory structures in insects.
Statement C is correct; each human kidney has about one million nephrons.
Statement D is correct; human kidneys produce erythropoietin hormone.

Final answer: Four

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

148)

Question Explanation:
Identify the locations where ciliary movement is found.
Explanation Solution:
Ciliary movement involves the coordinated beating of tiny, hair-like projections called cilia.
Fallopian tubes: Cilia in the fallopian tubes help move the ovum towards the uterus.
Trachea: Cilia in the trachea help move mucus and trapped particles up and out of the
respiratory tract.
Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:
1. Macrophages and leucocytes: These cells use amoeboid movement, not ciliary movement.
2. Fallopian tube and leucocytes: While the fallopian tube has cilia, leucocytes use amoeboid
movement.
4. Tongue and Limbs: These are moved by skeletal muscles, not cilia.
Final answer
The correct answer is option 3..

149)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 227

150) NCERT (XII) Page # 131

151) NCERT (E) Pg # 141 (E)

152)

Question explanation
The question is asking to identify the incorrect statement(s) related to sexually transmitted
diseases.
Concept
Sexually transmitted diseases
Solution
Statement A is incorrect because sexually transmitted diseases are not inherited, and most
STDs do not spread through kissing.
Statement B is correct because AIDS and Hepatitis B are sexually transmitted diseases that do
not specifically affect reproductive organs.
Statement C is correct because genital herpes is a non curable STD.
Statement D is correct because STDs can lead to infertility, abortions and even cancer of the
reproductive tract.
Final answer 1

153)

NCERT XII, Pg # 142,143 (E)

154) NCERT-XII Page No. 122-124

155) NCERT Pg. # 117

156) NCERT Pg. No. # 31

157)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35

158)

NCERT Pg. # 27
Gametogenesis → Fertilization → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition

159) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 44, 45, 46

160) NEERT Page No. # 101

161)

Question Explanation: The question asks which sterna form the genital pouch in female
cockroach.

Concept: The question is based on cockroach morphology (female reproductive system).

Solution:

A. In female cockroach, the genital pouch is a large chamber at the posterior end of the
abdomen.

B. It is formed ventrally by the 7th, 8th, and 9th abdominal sterna.

C. This pouch contains the genital chamber and ootheca formation structures.

Final Answer : Option 1

162) NCERT_Pg. No. 81

163) NCERT Page - 118 and 119

164) NCERT, Pg. # 52

165)

NCERT XI Pg # 51, 52, 53, 54

166) NCERT, Pg. # 40

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126, 127

168) NCERT Page No. 123, 124

169) NCERT Pg # 97/98

170) NCERT Pg # 98, 99, 100

171) NCERT Pg # 91

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194, 195

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 197

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 206

176)

Question Explanation : The question asks you to identify the incorrect statement among the
four options regarding the pyramid of biomass.

Concept : This question is based on pyramid of biomass.

Solution : A large standing crop is always required to support a small standing crop:
incorrect.
While generally true for upright pyramids, in inverted pyramids of biomass (like in some
aquatic ecosystems), a smaller biomass of producers can support a larger biomass of
consumers due to rapid turnover rates of the producers.

Final Answer : option (3)

177) Question Explanation –

The question asks to correctly match the processes involved in decomposition given in
Column-I with their descriptions given in Column-II.
Concept –
Decomposition processes
Solution –
Fragmentation involves detritivores breaking detritus into small pieces, so (a–iv).
Humification leads to accumulation of a dark coloured substance called humus, so (b–i).
Catabolism is carried out by bacterial and fungal enzymes that degrade detritus into simple
organic and inorganic substances, so (c–iii).
Leaching involves water-soluble inorganic nutrients moving down the soil horizon, so (d–ii).
Final Answer – Option 4

178) NCERT Page No. 221

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 222

180) Explain Question:

The question asks to correctly match column I items column II descriptions.

Concept:
Biodiversity – causes of loss, utilitarian values, Hotspots, Alien species.

Solution:
(a) Nile perch in Lake Victoria → Example of alien species introduction causing biodiversity
loss. → (iv)
(b) Narrowly utilitarian → Refers to direct economic benefits (food, medicine, fuel) → obvious
reasons for biodiversity conservation. → (i)
(c) Main cause for biodiversity loss → Habitat destruction is the primary cause. →(ii)
(d) Hotspots → Defined by high endemism and high habitat loss. → (iii)
correct Match:
(a–vi), (b–i), (c–ii), (d–iii)

Final answer: Option (2)