26-04-2026

1803CJA101029260039 JA

PHYSICS

SECTION - I(i)

1) A vertical spring of spring constant k is compressed by x0 by a block of mass m as shown in figure.

Block is released from rest. Spring can be gently detached from block at any moment. At the instant
of detachment, a particle of mass m moving with speed v0 horizontally collides with the block

perfectly inelastically.

to have maximum horizontal velocity of the block on the ground, spring can be detached at any
(A)
moment.
to have maximum horizontal velocity of the block on the ground, spring should only be detached
(B)
at it’s natural length.
to have maximum mechanical energy of the block on the ground, spring can be detached at
(C)
equilibrium of the block
to have maximum mechanical energy of the block on the ground spring should be detached at
(D)
it’s natural length.

2) From a uniform semicircular thin disc of radius R, a semicircular portion of radius R/2 is removed
and placed in a new position as shown in figure. Taking O as origin and x and y axis as shown in

figure, centre of mass of new setup is at :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) A particle is describing circular motion in a horizontal plane in contact with the smooth inside
surface of a fixed right circular cone with its axis vertical and vertex down. The height of the plane
of motion above the vertex in h and the semivertical angle of the cone in α. The period of revolution

of the particle :

(A) increases at h increases

(B) decreases as h increases
(C) increases as α increases
(D) decreases as α increases

4) Find the true statements

(A) it is easier to launch a satellite into an eastward orbit than into a westward one.
Effect of friction on an orbiting satellite (assuming the height of the orbit is small so that
(B)
atmosphere is present) would finally result in increasing its speed.
(C) An astronaut feels weightlessness as the astronaut’s acceleration is zero.
The earth is in free fall under the action of the net gravitational force of the sun and the planets
(D)
(neglect the effect of other astronomical objects)

5) A spherical conductor of radius 2R has a spherical cavity of radius . The cavity does not
enclose the centre of sphere. Charges Q1 and Q2 are placed as shown in figure. Q2 is at the center of
cavity. An additional charge Q3 is given to the sphere.

(A)
The potential of the sphere is

The potential inside the cavity at a distance from the center of cavity is
(B)

The value of potential outside the sphere at a distance r from the center of sphere is
(C)
where r’ is the distance fromQ1
(D)
The charge that will flow into ground if the sphere is grounded

6) Figure shows 3 charges A, B and C, each having mass m and charge q connected with 3 light
insulating threads (shown by dotted lines) to form an equilateral triangle of side length . The
string connecting charges B and C is cut. Assume only the electrostatic forces and the string forces
on the particles to act. Consider the motion of charged particles after the string is cut, and mark the

correct option(s):(Neglect magnetic effects due to moving charges).

(A)
Maximum speed achieved by particle A is
Displacement of particle A till the time it achieves its maximum speed is
(B)

(C)
Minimum potential energy of the system during the motion is

(D)
When speed of each particle is maximum, tension in the string connecting A and C is

SECTION - I(ii)

1) Column-I gives certain situations regarding a point object and its image formed by an optical
instrument. The possible optical instruments are diverging and converging mirrors or lenses as
given in Column-II. Same side of principal axis means both image and object should either be above
the principal axis or both should be below the principal axis as shown in figure. Same side of optical
instrument means both image and object should be either left of the optical instrument or both
should be on right of the optical instrument as shown in figure. Match the statements in column-I
with the corresponding statements in column-II.

List-I List-II
(Lens/Mirror) (Curve)
 If point object and its image are on same side of principal axis
(I) and opposite sides of the optical instrument then the optical (P) Concave mirror
instrument is

If point object and its image are on opposite side of principal

(II) axis and same sides of the optical instrument then the optical (Q) Convex mirror
instrument is

Diverging lens of
(III) If point object and its image are on same side (R) principal axis and same
sides of the optical

If point object and its image are on opposite side of principal

(IV) axis and opposite sides of the optical instrument then the (S) Converging lens
optical instrument is
Pick the correct option:
(A) P⇢1,2; Q⇢3,4; R⇢3,4; S⇢2,1
(B) P⇢2; Q⇢1; R⇢4; S⇢3
(C) P⇢1,2; Q⇢1,2; R⇢3,4; S⇢3,4
(D) P⇢1; Q⇢2; R⇢3; S⇢4

2) In list-II some arrangements of point charges with shaded Gaussian surface are given. In List-I the
electric flux passing through surface are given. Match the following lists with flux passes through
shaded region.

List-I List-II

(I) (P)

(II) (Q)
 (III) (R)

(IV) (S)

(A) P⇢2; Q⇢3; R⇢1; S⇢4

(B) P⇢1; Q⇢2; R⇢3; S⇢4
(C) P⇢4; Q⇢3; R⇢2; S⇢1
(D) P⇢1; Q⇢3; R⇢2; S⇢4

3) Consider a system of three charges (q/3), (q/3) and (–2q/3) placed at points A, B and
C, respectively, as shown in the figure. Take O to be the centre of the circle of radius R and angle
CAB = 60°

Column I Column II

I The electric field at point O P

II The potential energy of the system Q

III The magnitude of the force between the charges at C and B R zero

IV The potential at point O S

 T

(A) I⇢S,II⇢T;III⇢P;IV⇢R
(B) I⇢R,II⇢T;III⇢P;IV⇢S
(C) I⇢P,II⇢T;III⇢S;IV⇢R
(D) I⇢P,II⇢Q;III⇢R;IV⇢S

4)

List II
(Time
List I
period of
( physical systems)
small
oscillations)

(P) (1) se
c

m1 uniform rod (Rod welded to disc centre)

m2 uniform disc (Neglect gravity)

(Q) (2)
sec

k1 = 1N/m
k2 = 4 N/m
m = 0.4 kg
vertical plane (ideal pulleys & string)
 (R) (3) sec.
(massless rod )(vertical plane )
C = 1m
b = 1m
k = 1N/m
m = 1kg

(S) (4) sec.

Uniform square plate in vertical plane

m = 3kg

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-22, R-3, S-4
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

SECTION - II

1) A uniform triangular plate of triangular area 1m2, base length 60 cm and thickness 10 mm (prism
like shape) is lying vertically on a smooth ground as shown in figure. Find maximum value of cotθ for

which it does not topple.

2) A spring of spring constant 2000N/m is suspended vertically in earth's gravitational field and a
mass of 0.8 kg is hung from it. It is hanging in equilibrium. At t = 0, a force of 72 N starts acting in

vertically downward direction. The force ceases to act at t = sec. If the amplitude of resulting

SHM (in mm) after that is given by N. Fill value of

3) A particle is projected from the surface of the earth (of radius Re and mass Me ) with
speed equal to ,at certain angle from local horizontal as shown in the figure such
that the angle subtended by arc between launching & landing site at earth’s centre

is . The maximum separation of the particle from the centre of the earth is .
Find 4x? Consider earth to be uniformly dense and air resistance to be
absent.

4) A plane mirror is placed horizontally inside water . A ray falls normally on it. If the
minimum value of angle by which mirror rotates such that, the ray does not come out of water is

, then ‘k’ is ? (Use approximation of normal inciolence)

5) A plano-convex lens has a thickness of 4 cm. When placed on a horizontal table with the curved
surface in contact with it, the apparent depth of the bottom-most point of the lens is found to be 3
cm. If the lens is inverted such that the plane face is in contact with the table, the apparent depth of
the centre of the plane face of the lens is found to be 25/8 cm. Find the focal length of the lens. (in
cm)

6) Charge in the form of a plane sheet with density σ = 40 µC/m2 is located at z = –0.5 m. A uniform
line of charge of density λ = –6 µC/m lies along the y-axis. Net flux that crosses the surface of cube

2m on an edge, centered at the origin as shown, is ____

7)

Four balls, each with mass m, are connected by four nonconducting strings to form a square with
side a as shown in figure. The assembly is placed on a horizontal, nonconducting, frictionless
surface. Balls 1 and 2 each have charge q, and balls 3 and 4 are uncharged. Find the maximum
speed of balls 3 and 4 after the string connecting balls 1 and 2 is cut. If your answer
is . Fill the value of N

8) An instrument uses two mirror as shown in figure. Such instrument is built with two mirrors 20
mm apart. If the radius of curvature of the large mirror is 220 mm and the small mirror is 140 mm,
where the final image of an object at infinity will be formed from M2 ? (Write your answer in cm)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - I (i)

1) Which of the following compound does not consist of inter molecular hydrogen bonding ?

(A) chloral hydrate

(B) o-chloro phenol
(C) o-hydroxy benzaldehyde
(D) acetic acid (liquid)

2)
Which option is INCORRECT?

(A) (I) (i) (P)

(B) (II) (ii) (R)
(C) (III) (iii) (S)
(D) (IV) (i) (P)

3) Which of the following statement is correct against to the indicated properties?

(A) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2 > K2[PtCl4]; Crystal field splitting energy

(B) [Co(NH3)3ClBr(NO3)] > [Co(NH3)3Cl3] ; Number of geometrical isomers
(C) K4[Fe(CN)6] > K3[Fe(CN)6]; Valence shell's electrons of central metal ion
(D) [Fe(CO)2(NO)2] > [Fe(edta)] ; Number of Fe–N linkages.

4) Which of the following compounds will give E1 reaction?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) For the first-order decomposiong reaction of N2O5 in the gas phase, N2O5→2NO2+ O2, the rate
constant k at 300 K is . Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The half-life of the reaction is independent of the initial concentration of N2O5.

(B) If the initial concentration of N2O5 is 0.1 M, the concentration of N2O5 after second will
be 0.025 M.
(C) The rate of reaction decreases with time.
(D) Doubling number of molecules of per litre of N2O5 will double the reaction rate.

6) If the height of HCP unit cell of identical particles is h, then the height of tetrahedral voids from
the base is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION - I(ii)
1) Match the reactions given in column I with major product given in column II.

(A) I→Q, II→P, III→S, IV→R

(B) I→Q, II→P, III→R, IV→S
(C) I→Q, II→P, III→S, IV→S
(D) I→R, II→P, III→S, IV→S

2) For the reaction of type A(g) —→ 2B(g)

Column-I contains four entries and column-II contains four entries. Entry of column-I are to be
matched with ONLY ONE ENTRY of column-II.

Column - I Column - II

(I) (P)
vs for first order

(II) [A] vs t for first order (Q)

 (III) [B] vs t for first order (R)

(IV) [A] vs t for zero order (S)

(A) I→S, II→R,III→P,IV→R

(B) I→S, II→R,III→P,IV→Q
(C) I→S, II→R,III→P,IV→P
(D) I→Q, II→R,III→P,IV→S

3) Match List-I with List-II, and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(I) Positive deviation from Raoult's law (P) Acetone + Chloroform

(II) Negative deviation from Raoult's law (Q) Ethanol + Water

(III) Negative ΔGmix (R) Carbon disulphide + Acetone

(S) Phenol + aniline

(IV) Minimum boiling point azeotrope
(T) Water + Nitric acid

(A) I-R; II-S; III-P; IV-T

(B) I-Q; II-T; III-R; IV-Q
(C) I-S; II-P; III-Q; IV-R
(D) I-P; II-Q; III-S; IV-T

4)

List-I List-II

Distance between nearest particles in simple cubic

(I) a (P)
crystal

Distance between nearest particles in body centred

(II) (Q)
cubic crystal
 Distance between nearest particles in face centred
(III) (R)
cubic crystal

Distance between next nearest particles in simple cubic

(IV) (S)
crystal

Distance between next nearest particles in body centred

(T)
cubic crystal
(A) I-P,R, II-Q, III-T, IV-S
(B) I-P,T, II-R, III-Q, IV-S
(C) I-Q,T, II-S, III-Q, IV-R
(D) I-Q, II-R,T, III-Q, IV-T

SECTION - II

1) Total number of pairs of resonating structure in which second is more stable than first.

2) Number of moles of AgCl obtained when one mole of complex PtCl4.3NH3 is react with excess
of AgNO3.

3)

Among the following how many compounds, on elemination give regioselective products ?
4) For a chemical reaction aA bB

The ratio of ‘a’ and ‘b’ is

5) The equation
k = ( 6.5 × 1012 s–1) e–26000K/T
is followed for the decomposition of compound A. The activation energy for the reaction is ____ kJ
mol–1. [nearest integer]
(Given: R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)

6)

The number of pairs of the solution having the same value of the osmotic pressure from the
following is ________. (Assume 100% ionization)
A. 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) and 0.25 M KBr(aq)
B. 0.100 M K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.100 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4(aq)
C. 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.25 M NaCl(aq)
D. 0.15 M NaCl(aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2(aq)
E. 0.02 M KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (aq) and 0.05 M KCl(aq)

7) Number of following statements which are correct regarding quantum mechanical model of atom.
(1) 4πr2ψ2 indicate the value of probability in a region of space.
(2) Probability of finding electron outside boundary surface diagram is zero.
(3) If a wave function is multi values at single point in space it can be justified by quantum
mechanics.
(4) Nodal surfaces are those surfaces where probability of finding electron is nearly zero.
(5) In ψ2(r) v/s r curve height of succesive maximas increases.
(6) For 3s orbital maximum value of amplitude of wave function will be at origin.

8) An ionic compoud is doped with controlled amount of (MY2). Number of cation vacancies in
1 mol of XY is found to be 6.02 × 1021. If atomic mass of X, Y and M are 15,10 & 20 a.m.u
respectively : (Assume volume remains unchanged)
(Given : NA = 6.02 x 1023) If the % decreases in density is x, then the value of 10x is :

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I(i)

1) For the function ƒ(x) = |x + 3| – |x + 1| – |x – 1| + |x – 3|, identify correct option(s)

(A) Range of ƒ(x) is (–∞, 4]

(B) maximum value of ƒ(x) is 4
(C) ƒ(x) = 4 has infinite solutions
(D) ƒ(x) = 0 has infinite solutions

2) Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?

(A) If f is a one-one mapping from set A to A, then f is onto.

(B) If f is an onto mapping from set A to A, then f is one-one
Let f and g be two functions defined from → such that gof is injective, then f must be
(C)
injective.
If set A contains 3 elements while set B contains 2 elements, then total number of functions
(D)
from A to B is 8.

3) The value of ;a≠0

(A) 1 if a > 0
(B) 0
(C) –1 if a < 0
(D) 1

4) If where & , then the

possible value(s) of α is/are

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

5)

The function

(A) continuous at x = –1
(B) neither continuous nor derivable at x = –1
(C) derivable at x = –1
(D) Not derivable at x = –1

6) Let if derivative of f(x) with respect to

g(x) at x = 1 exists and is equal to k, then

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION - I(ii)

1) f(a) = 2, f'(a) = 1, g(a) = 2, g'(a) = 1 where f, g are two differentiable function.

List-I List-II

(I) (P) 12

(II) (Q) 1

(III) (R) 3

(IV) (S) 4

(T) 0
(A) I-R, II-T, III-P, IV-Q
(B) I-T, II-T, III-R, IV-Q
(C) I-T, II-T, III-P, IV-Q
(D) I-T, II-T, III-P, IV-S

2)

List-I List-II

(I) (P) 5
If then value of f(2020) + f(–2019) is equal to

The smallest integral value of λ for which (λ – 2)x2 + 4(2x + 1) + λ > 0 for all real
(II) (Q) 2
values of x, is

The set of all real numbers of x for which x2 – |x + 2| + x > 0 is

(III) (R) 6
, then value of 'a' is

(IV) The range of the function f(x) = |x – 1| + |x – 2|, –1 ≤ x ≤ 3 is [a, b] then a + b is (S) 1

(T) 4
Which of the following is the only correct combination ?
(A) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-T
(B) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-R
(C) I-T, II-P, III-Q, IV-R
(D) I-S, II-P, III-T, IV-R

3) Three functions, f1, f2 and f3 are given as f1(x) = sin–1 f2(x) = x – cos–1

[Note: {k} denotes fractional part function of k.]

List-I List-II

(I) the differential coefficient of f1(x) with respect to f2(x) at x = tan 1, is (P) –1

(Q) 2
(II) is equal to

(III) is equal to (R) 1 + sec 2

(IV) The slope of the normal to the curve y = f3(x) at x = is equal to (S) tan 1

(T) 0
(A) I-R, II-T, III-S, IV-Q
(B) I-R, II-P, III-T, IV-Q
(C) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-T
(D) I-R, II-P, III-S, IV-Q

4) Match the following

 List-I List-II

(I) Number of points of discontinuity of f(x) = tan2x – sec2x in (0, 2π) is (P) 4

Number of points at which f (x) = 2sin–1 x + tan–1 x + cot–1x is non-differentiable in

(II) (Q) 3
(–1,1) is

Number of points of discontinuity of y = [sinx],x∈[0,2π) where [·]

(III) (R) 2
represents greatest integer function

Number of points where

(IV) (S) 1
is non-differentiable

(T) 0
(A) I-R, II-T, III-R, IV-S
(B) I-R, II-T, III-R, IV-T
(C) I-S, II-T, III-R, IV-S
(D) I-R, II-T, III-R, IV-P

SECTION - II

1) The angles of a ΔABC are in A.P. (order being A, B, C) and it is being given that b : c

= and ∠A is (where m and n are co-prime). Find m + n

2) If α, β, γ are the roots of x3 + 27 = 0, then the value of is :

3) If x, y & z are different even integers and minimum value of

is N, then is

4) If in a ΔABC, AB = 4, BC = 2,CA = 3 and A,B,C are respective angles then the value of

is

5) If , , then the number of solutions of the system of equations 3x – y + 4z = 3, x

+ 2y – 3z = –2, 6x + 5y + = –3 for a particular value of is.
6) In a triangle ABC, a straight line parallel to BC intersects AB and AC at point D and E,
respectively. If the area of ADE is one-fifth of the area of ABC and BC = 10cm, then value of DE
equals :

7) Solve the equation of x :

then sum of real value of x is.

8) A rectangle is inscribed in a square creating four isosceles right triangles. If the total area of
these four triangles is 200. The length of the diagonal of the rectangle is
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - I(i)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
A. A,C C A,C B,D A A,B,C

SECTION - I(ii)

Q. 7 8 9 10
A. C A A C

SECTION - II

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
A. 0.36 3.00 4.00 0.75 75 148.00 6.0 31.5

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - I (i)

Q. 19 20 21 22 23 24
A. A,B,C B,D A,B,C A,B,C,D A,C,D A,D

SECTION - I(ii)

Q. 25 26 27 28
A. C B B B

SECTION - II

Q. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A. 4.00 1.00 3.00 2.00 215 to 217 4.00 2.00 4.00

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I(i)

Q. 37 38 39 40 41 42
A. B,C,D C,D A,C B,C B,D A,B,C,D

SECTION - I(ii)

Q. 43 44 45 46
A. C B D A
 SECTION - II

Q. 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
A. 17.00 0.00 8.00 0.00 1.00 10 5 20
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

To have max. M.E. on ground spring should be detached at a point where spring have
minimum energy.

2)

Explanation Question: A portion of disc is removed and we have to find centre of mass
Concept: This question is based on calculation of COM
Solution:

mass of removed = =m

Centre of mass initially at 0,

Now =

∴ Now position = =
Final Answer
The correct option is (3)

3)

Ans.-1, 3

4)

Ans.-2, 4

5)

Ans.-1

6)

Ans.-1, 2, 3

7) For spherical mirror, line joining object and its image crosses principal axis at centre of
curvature. The line joining object and image inverted about principal axis cuts the principal
axis at the pole. The from figure below.
We can conclude
(A) If object and image are on same side of principal axis, they are on opposite side of mirror.
(B) If object and image are on opposite side of principal axis, they are on same side of mirror.
For a lens, the line joining object and image cuts the principal axis at optical centre.
Then from figures below.

We can conclude
(C) If object and image are on same side of principal axis, they are also on same side of lens.
(D) If object and image are on opposite side of principal axis. They are also on opposite side of
lens.

8) Ans.-1

9) Ans.-1

10) Effective torque constant = KR2 ; Also effective MOI =

(A)
m2 = 2 kg
m1 = 3 kg
l = 1m
R = 1m
K = 1N/m

TP =

(B)
k1 = 1 N/m
k2 = 4 N/m
m = 0.4 kg
as
x = 2x1 + 2x2

(C)

(D)

= =

11) Question Explanation : Find the maximum value of cot θ for a uniform triangular plate
such that it does not topple while lying on a smooth ground.
Concept : This question is based on calculation of centre of mass and toppling
Solution :

Condition for no toppling: Centre of mass must stay within the base.
Just to prevent from toppling, mg must pass through toppling point.

xCM = 60 = ⇒ x = 120 cm
Area = ⇒y=

cotθ =

Final Answer : 0.36

12)

At O, Mg = ky0

OO' = and O'A =

T = 2π = sec.

at t = sec,

number of oscillations N =

N = 12.5 ; it means when force cases to act, body is at position A.

So amplitude of resulting SHM, OA = = = 72 mm

13)

Ans.-4

14)

Ans.-0.75

15)

Ans.-75

16)

Ans.-148
 17)

18) Robjective mirror = 220 mm = R1

RSecondary mirror = 140 mm = R2

Distance between two mirrors, d = 20 mm.

When object is at infinity, parallel rays falling on objective mirror on reflection would collect at
its focus at

Instead, they fall on secondary mirror at 20 mm from objective mirror u = f1 – d

⇒ u1 = 110 – 20 = 90mm

From

CHEMISTRY

19)

Ans.-1,2,3

20) Question Explanation:

Match the column with the number of σ and π bond present in oxyacid.

Concept:
This question is based on Oxyacids.

Solution:

(1) H3PO4 1π 7σ
 (2) H3PO3 1π 6σ

(3) H2S2O8 4π 11 σ

(4) 2π 12 σ

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

21)

Explanation Question: Findingcun correct property statement

Concept: Based on C.F.T
Solution: Based on C.F.T

Ans : (A,B,C)
CFSE ⇒ [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2 > K2(PtCl4) C.F.S.E ∝ Strength of ligand
No. of G.I. ⇒ [Co(NH3)3ClBr(NO3)] > [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
G.I = 4 G.I = pac/ meri ⇒ 2
–
Valence shell e
on central metal ⇒ K4[Fe+2(CN)6] > K3 [Fe+3(CN)6]
No. of Fe–N linkages ⇒ [Fe(CO)2(NO2)] = [Fe(edta)]–
Final Answer 1,2,3

22)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify which of the given compounds can undergo an E1
(unimolecular elimination) reaction.

Concept:
This question is based on the E1 reaction mechanism and carbocation stability.

Solution:
An E1 reaction proceeds in two steps, with the formation of a carbocation intermediate as
the rate-determining step. Therefore, the feasibility of an E1 reaction primarily depends on the
stability of the carbocation formed after the leaving group departs.

A. Options (1, 2 & 3) form a resonance-stabilized carbocation.

 B. Option (4) forms a tertiary (3°) carbocation, which is stabilized by
hyperconjugation and the inductive effect.

Since resonance-stabilized carbocations and tertiary carbocations are highly stable, all
the given substrates readily undergo the E1 reaction.

Final Answer: Options (1), (2), (3), and (4).

23) Ans.-A,C,D

24) Question Explanation: Determining the vertical positions of tetrahedral voids in an HCP
cell.
Concept: Tetrahedral voids in Hexagonal Close Packed structure.
Solution: In an HCP unit cell (ABAB pattern), the distance between any two consecutive
layers is h/2. Tetrahedral voids are located between these layers at heights of 1/4 and 3/4 of
the interlayer distance.
Total height = h; Interlayer distance = h/2.
Heights from the base:

- First layer of voids: and

- Second layer of voids: and

Among the given choices, the pair 3h/8 and 5h/8 represents standard void positions.

Final Answer: Option (1)

25)

Ans.-3

26)

Ans.-I→S, II→R,III→P,IV→Q

27) Ans.-2

28) Ans.-2

29)

Question Explanation: Total number of pairs of resonating structures in which second is

more stable than first.

Concept : This question is based on stability of resonating structures.

Solution: -

II > I (Octet complete)

I > II
Negative charge on more EN atom is more stable.

II > I
Reason → More number of π-bonds.

II > I
Reason → Neutral is more stable than charged.

II > I
Reason → More number of Benzenoid structure.

I > II
Reason → Extended conjugation.

In (a), (c), (d) and (e) IInd resonanating structures are more stable than Ist
Final Answer: 4

30) Questin Explanation :

Find moles of AgCl from reaction of 1 mole of PtCl4·3NH3 with excess AgNO3

Concept:
Precipitation of free Cl– ions using AgNO3. Only ionic/uncoordinated Cl– react with Ag+ to form
AgCl.

Soluton :

[PtCl3(NH3)3]Cl AgCl (1 mole)

Final answer : 1

31)

Question Explanation : Among the following how many compounds, on elimination give
regioselective products
Concept: Elimination reaction
Solution: Regioselectivity is possible when an elimination reaction can produce two or more
constitutionally isomeric products.
(i) 2-bromobutane can eliminate HBr to form but-1-ene or but-2-ene.
(ii) 2-bromo-2-methylpropane can only form 2-methylprop-1-ene.
(iii) (1-bromoethyl)cyclohexane can form (vinyl)cyclohexane or ethylidenecyclohexane.
(iv) 3-bromo-2,2-dimethylpentane can form 2,2-dimethylpent-1-ene or 2,2-dimethylpent-2-ene.
(v) 3-bromo cyclohexan-1-one can form cyclohex-2-en-1-one or cyclohex-3-en-1-one.
(vi) 4-bromo cyclohexan-1-one can only form cyclohex-3-en-1-one.
(vii) 3-bromocyclohex-1-ene can form cyclohex-1,3-diene or cyclohex-1,4-diene.
(viii) Cyclohexyl diazonium salt can only form cyclohexene.
(ix) 1-phenylpropane-1,2-diol can eliminate water to form 1-phenylprop-1-en-2-ol or 2-
phenylprop-1-en-1-ol (which tautomerizes).
Final Answer: 3

32)

on comparison with given equation.

33) K = Ae–Ea/RT = (6.5 × 1012 s–1) e–26000K/T

Ea = 216.164 kJ/mol.
 34)

π = iCRT
π ∝ iC
A, B, D and E have same value of osmatic pressure.

35) Theoretical.

36) Number of moles of cation vacancy

Number of moles of M+2 ions = 10–2 mole

Number of moles of missing y– ions = 2 × 10–2 mole % decreases in density

= x%
⇒ 10x = 4

MATHEMATICS

37) Solution:
f(x) = |x + 3| – |x + 1| – |x – 1| + |x – 3|
x 3
f(x) = x + 3 – x– 1 – x + 1 + x – 3 = 0
1 x<3
f(x) = x + 3 – x – 1 – x + 1 – x + 3 = 6 – 2x
–1 x < 1
f(x) = x + 3 – x – 1 + x – 1 – x + 3 = 4
–3 x < – 1
f(x) = x + 3 + x + 1 + x – 1 – x + 3 = 2x + 6
x<–3
f(x) = – x – 3 + x + 1 + x – 1 – x + 3 = 0

Range = [0,4]
f(x)max = 4
f(x) = 4 for x ∈ [–1,1]
f(x) = 0 for x ∈ (–∞,–3] ∪ [3,∞)
Final Answer: Option (2,3,4)

38)

(A) Let f : N → N and f(x) = x + 1, then f is one-one but not on to

Let y = x + 1
x=y–1
f–1(x) = x – 1, there is no element correspond to 1 in the natural no.
∵ O is not a natural number so it is NOT CORRECT.

(B) Let f : N → N
f(x) = x– 1; x > 3 and
f(1) = f(2) = 1
∵ function is on to of f is onto but many-one

(C) Correct
Composition of two injective function is injective, so gof is injective therefore " f " must be
injective.

(D) Correct
If n(A) = n, n(B) = m
then number of functions from set A to B = mn
n(A)=3. n(B) = 2
So, number of functions = (2)3
=8

Final Answer: option (3) & (4)

39) Solution:
If a > 0 then

⇒
If a < 0 then
⇒

⇒
⇒ –1
Final Answer: Option (1, 3)

40)

As

as

41)

For x = − 1, we have
f(x) = 1 − 2x + 3x2 − 4x3 + .... = (1 + x)−2

Now,
f(x) is not continous at x = −1
So, f(x) is not derivable at x = −1
Hence f(x) is neither continuous nor derivable at x = −1

42)

If it is differentiable
then 1+ a = 2+b ⇒ a – b = 1
& 3 + b = 1 ⇒ b = –2
a = –1
(B) a + b = –3

(C)

(D)

43) (P) g'(a) f(a) – g(a) f'(a) = 0

(Q) 2g(a) g'(a) f(a) – 2g(a) f(a) f'(a) = 0
(R) 3f2(a)f'(a) = 12
(S) f'(a) g'(a) = 1

44) (I)
f(x) + f(1 – x) = 1
f(2020) + f(–2019) = 1
(II) (λ – 2)x2 + 8x + λ + 4 > 0 ∀ x ∈ R
λ – 2 > 0 and D < 0
λ>2 64 – 4(λ – 2)(λ + 4) < 0
(λ – 4)(λ + 6) > 0
λ ∈ (–∞, –6) ∪ (4, ∞)
Smallest integer value = 5
(III) Case I x + 2 ≥ 0
x ≥ –2
2
x –x–2+x>0
x2 – 2 > 0

Case II x + 2 < 0
x < –2
2
x +x+2+x>0
x2 + 2x + 2 > 0
Which is true
so
∴ x ∈ (–∞, –2)
from case I & case II

∴a=2

(IV)
x < –1 f(x) = –2x + 3
1 ≤ x < 2 f(x) = 1
2 ≤ x ≤ 3 f(x) = 2x – 3
from the graph
range is [1, 5]

45)

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)
Slope of the normal = 2.

46) (A) tan2x is discontinuous at

sec2x is discontinuous at
⇒ Number of discontinuous

(B) Since f(x) = sin–1x+ tan–1x + cot–1x = sin–1x +

∴ f(x) is differentiable in (–1, 1) Þ no. of points of non-diff. = 0

(C) Points of discontinuity are

(D) is non differentiable at x = 3 only

 47)

Ans.-17.00

48) 3αβγ – α3 – β3 – γ3
= –(α + β + γ)(α2 + β2 + γ2 – αβ – βγ – γα) = 0
because (α + β + γ) = 0

49) Given determinant is

= (x – y)2(y – z)2(z – x)2
minimum value is 256
(take x = 2, y = 0, z = –2)

50)

Question Explanation: Find the value of determinant which contains angles of triangle
Concept: Use sine rule, cosine rule
Solution:

⇒ sinA = 2k, sinB = 3k, sinC = 4k

= 12k2 (8cosA -7)

∵
∴Δ=0
Final Answer: 0
51)

52)

Ans.-10

53)

Ans.-5

54)

Ans.-20