23-04-2026

9610WMD801490250047 MD

PHYSICS

1) Consider mass of hydrogen atom is M. It is at rest. It emits is a photon due to transition of

electron from n = 3 to n = 1. Recoil speed of hydrogen atom is (R = Rydberg const) :-

(1) 3 × 108 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Find magnetic field at 'O' :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A circular plate of diameter 'a' is kept in contact with a square plate of edge 'a' as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be:-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) outside the system

4) If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is 1 : 4. The
ratio of the magnitudes of electric field intensity (E) to the magnetic field intensity (H) of an EM
wave propagating in that medium is

(1) 30π : 1
(2) 1 : 120π
(3) 60π : 1
(4) 120π : 1

5) The first two lengths of an air column, in resonance tube experiment were found to be 32.1 cm
and 99.2 cm Determine the end correction for the tube and frequency of the vibrating turning fork.
(VSound = 332 m/s)

(1) 1.45 cm, 260 Hz

(2) 1.45 cm, 270 Hz
(3) 247.3 Hz, 1.45 cm
(4) 247.3 Hz, 2.45 cm

6) The refracting angle of a prism is 40°. A ray of light is incident at angle 38° and passes in
the position of minimum deviation. The angle of minimum deviation is

(1) 40o
(2) 38o
(3) 36o
(4) 32o

7) In an isobaric process of a diatomic gas 140 J heat is added to n moles of the gas to increase its
temperature from T1 to T2. The amount of work done by the gas in this process is

(1) 100 J
(2) 40 J
(3) 60 J
(4) 120 J

8) The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15m. Then the radius of a nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be :

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 9 × 10–15 m
(3) 6 × 10–15 m
(4) 24 × 10–15 m

9) A boy runs towards plane mirror with speed of 10m/s. What is the speed of his image with respect
to him.

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 20m/s
(4) 40 m/s

10) Friction is NOT a fundamental force of nature because:

(1) It is a derived force arising from electromagnetic forces between atoms.

(2) It does not depend on mass.
(3) It only acts on solids.
(4) It is always constant.

11) A uniformly charged ring of radius 3a and total charge q is placed in xy-plane centred at origin.
A point charge q is moving towards the ring along the z-axis and has speed v at z = 4a. The
minimum value of v such that it crosses the origin is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A charge Q, is distributed uniformly through a sphere of radius R. A smaller sphere, of radius d
and concentric with the large sphere, is now removed from it; leaving a spherical cavity with no
charge in it. The charge density of the remaining shell has not changed. The electrostatic potential
at a distance r > R, outside the shell, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A hot air balloon starts from rest and accelerates vertically upward at for 5 seconds. At
, a ball is released from the balloon. Determine the total distance the ball travels during the
first 3 seconds of its descending motion. (Take )
(1) 45m
(2) 80m
(3) 20m
(4) 55m

14) A galvanometer of ig = 1mA & resistance = 10Ω is connected in a circuit as shown. This
combination (circuit) can be used as an ammeter or a voltmeter also. The range of ammeter (RA) and

voltmeter (Rv) are :-

(1)
, 15 mV
(2) 1 mA, 12 mV

(3)
, 20 mV

(4)
, 10 mV

15)

A dipole is placed in an electric field = (ax) + (by) . The net force on the dipole is:

(1) p(a + b) ( + ​)

(2) pa + pb​
(pa + pb)
(3)

(4) Zero

16)

Two circular rings of identical radii and resistance of 36 each are placed in such a way that they
cross each other's centre C1 and C2 as shown in figure. Conducting joints are made at intersection
points A and B of the rings. An ideal cell of emf 20 volts is connected across AB. The power delivered
by cell is –

(1) 80 watt
(2) 100 watt
(3) 120 watt
(4) 200 watt

17) A ball of mass 2 kg is released from height 10 m as shown. It moves on smooth horizontal track
and compress spring of spring constant k = 100 N/m, if horizontal track AB is rough with μ = 0.3
and length of track AB is 25 m. Then maximum compression in spring will be : -

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3)
(4) 3 m

18) A particle goes from point A(3, 2, 1) to point B (4, 3, 2) find unit vector along :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A particle of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r under a centripetal force equal to ,
where K is constant. What is the total energy of the particle?

(1) –K/2r
(2) K/4r
(3) K/r
(4) None

20) A solid sphere rolls down an inclined plane and its velocity at the bottom is ν1. The same sphere
slides down the plane (without friction) and its velocity at the bottom is ν2. Which of the following
relations is correct :-

(1) ν1 = ν2

(2)
ν1 = ν2
(3)
ν1 = ν2
(4) None of these

21) A wheel is spinning at 27 rad/s but is slowing with an angular acceleration that has a magnitude
given by (3t2 rad/s2). It stops in a time of :-

(1) 1.7 s
(2) 2.6 s
(3) 3.0 s
(4) 4.4 s

22) A body weighs 700 gm wt. on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh on the surface of

a planet whose mass is and radius half of that of the earth ?

(1) 200 gm wt
(2) 400 gm wt
(3) 50 gm wt
(4) 300 gm wt

23) An elevator is moving down with acceleration a. A ball is fired horizontally relative to the
elevator with speed u. The time it takes to hit the elevator wall at distance L is:

(1) L / u
(2)
(3)
(4) Dependent on g

24) A thin vertical uniform wooden rod is pivoted at the top and immersed in water as shown. The
container is slowly raised. At a certain moment, the equilibrium becomes unstable. If density of
water is 9/5 times the density of wood, then ratio of total length of rod to the submerged length of

rod, at that moment is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
25) A physical quantity P is described by the relation P=a1/2b2c3d−4. If the relative errors in a,b,c,d
are all equal to x, the relative error in P is:

(1) 9.5x
(2) 6.5x
(3) 7.5x
(4) 5.5x

26) A vessel filled with a liquid of density ρ falls vertically downwards with an acceleration a(<g).
The guage pressure P at depth h below the free surface of liquid is :

(1) P = h ρ ( g + a)
(2) P = hρg
(3) P = h ρ ( g – a)
(4) P = hρa

27) A body takes 4 minutes to cool from 100°C to 70°C. To cool from 70°C to 40°C it will take- (room
temperature is 15°C)

(1) 7 minutes
(2) 6 minutes
(3) 5 minutes
(4) 4 minutes

28) The volume of a gas increases with temperature, according to the relation V = KT2/3. What is the
work done by the gas when the temperature changes by 60 K ? [n = 1 mole]

(1) 10 R
(2) 20 R
(3) 30 R
(4) 40 R

29) A bomb of mass 6M is initially at rest on a frictionless surface. It suddenly explodes into three
fragments with masses M, 2M, and 3M. The fragments of mass M and 2M fly off with speeds of
and respectively, in directions perpendicular to each other. What is the speed of the
third fragment (3M)?

(1) 5.00 m/s

(2) 6.67 m/s
(3) 8.33 m/s
(4) 10.0 m/s

30) A capacitor C1 of capacitance C is charged to a potential differenceV0. The terminals of the

charged capacitor are then connected to an uncharged capacitor C2 of capacitance C/2.

Column I Column II
 A. Final energy of capacitor C1 1.

B. Final energy of capacitor C2 2.

C. Final energy of the system 3.

Change in energy on
D. 4.
joining the capacitors

5.

(1) A- 4, B- 5, C- 3, D- 2
(2) A- 4, B- 5 C- 3, D- 1
(3) A- 4, B- 5, C- 3, D- 4
(4) A- 4, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4

31) The length of simple pendulum executing SHM is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in
the time period of the pendulum is -

(1) 10%
(2) 11%
(3) 21%
(4) 42%

32) An organ pipe closed at one end has fundemental frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number
of overtones generated by this pipe which a normal person can hear is : -

(1) 4
(2) 13
(3) 6
(4) 9

33) A charged particle of charge 4mC enters a uniform magnetic field of induction
tesla with a velocity If the particle continues to move undeviated, then the strength
of the magnetic field induction (B) is (in tesla)

(1) 14
(2) 2
(3) 3.5
(4) 28

34) What is the output for given combination of logic gates :-

(1) A + B
(2) A . B
(3)
(4)

35) A rigid conducting wire bent as shaped in the figure, is released to fall freely in a horizontal
magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. If the magnetic field strength is
B, then the e.m.f induced across the points A and C when it has fallen through a distance h will be –

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) A wire of length 2m carries 3.14 A current is bent to form a square loop. Plane of this loop makes
30° angle with the uniform field direction of strength 8T, then potential energy of loop is:-

(1) –5.4 J
(2) –3.14 J
(3) – J

(4)
– J

37) Match the components given in Column-I with their correct circuit symbols shown in Column-II.
Identify the correct combination:

Column-1 Column-2

A Resistor P

B Capacitor Q
 C Diode R

D LED s

(1) A → R; B → P ; C → S ; D → Q
(2) A → S ; B →P ; C →R ; D → Q
(3) A → P ; B → S ; C → R ; D → Q
(4) A → Q ; B → S ; C → R ; D → P

38) A conducting circular rigid loop is placed near a long straight current carrying wire as shown.

Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II

Induced current
If current is
(A) (P) in the loop is
increased
clockwise.

Induced current
If current is
(B) (Q) in the loop is
decreased
anticlockwise.

If loop is moved
Wire will attract
away from the
the loop and
wire maintaining
(C) (R) there will be no
constant current
torque about y-
in the straight
axis.
wire.

Wire will repel

the loop and
(S) there will be no
torque about y-
axis.
(1) A→Q,S ; B→P,R ; C→P,R
(2) A→P,R ; B→Q,S ; C→P,R
(3) A→P,S ; B→Q,R ; C→Q,S
(4) A→Q,R ; B→P,S ; C→Q,S

39) Optical path is defined as the distance light travels in vacuum in the same _______ it takes to
travel the geometrical distance in a medium.
(1) Velocity
(2) Frequency
(3) Time
(4) Wavelength

40) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II

Photoelectric current is Frequency of

i. p.
directly proportional to light

Maximum kinetic of Intensity of

ii. photoelectron increases q. light of a
linearly with increase in given frequency

Photoelectric current
Threshold
iii. becomes zero in r.
frequency
experiment

Certain minimum
frequency of light
Stopping
iv. below which no s.
potential
photo electron
emission takes place
Now, select the correct option from the codes given below :
(1) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
(2) i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s
(3) i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r
(4) i-p, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q

41) While measuring diameter of wire using screw gauge the following readings were noted. Main
scale reading is 1mm and circular scale reading is equal to 42 divisions. Pitch of screw gauge is

1mm and it has 100 divisions on circular Scale. The diameter of the wire is . The value of x is -

(1) 142
(2) 71
(3) 42
(4) 21

42) A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is joined in series with a resistance of 220 Ω. When the
alternating e.m.f. of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it. Then the phase through which current lags
behind the applied e.m.f. and the watt-less component of current in the circuit will be respectively :
[Use π = 22/7]

(1) 30°, 1 A
(2) 45°, 0.5 A
(3) 60°, 1.5 A
(4) None of these
43) A box P and a coil Q are connected in series with an ac source of variable frequency. The emf of
source is 10 V. Box P contains a capacitance of 1μF in series with a resistance of 32Ω while coil Q
has a self-inductance 4.9 mH and resistance 68Ω . The frequency is adjusted so that the maximum
current flows in P and Q. The impedance of P and Q at this frequency will be :-

(1) 77 Ω, 97.6 Ω
(2) 32 Ω, 68 Ω
(3) 100 Ω, 77 Ω
(4) 77 Ω, 68 Ω

44) Atomic binding energy of elements A and B are Ea and Eb respectively. Three atoms of B forms
one atom of A. In this fusion process E energy is released, The relation between Ea, Eb and E :-

(1) Ea + E = 3Eb
(2) Ea = 3Eb
(3) Ea – E = 3Eb
(4) Ea + 3Eb + E = 0

45) The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The main scale reading before the zero of the
vernier scale is 10 and the zeroth division of the vernier scale coincides with the main scale division.
Given that each main scale division is 1 mm, the measured value should be expressed as

(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 1.1 cm
(3) 2.00 cm
(4) 1.00 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the following redox processes with different emf values as shown in the diagram.

The species which will undergo disproportionation is

(1)
(2) I2
(3) HOI
(4) H5IO6

2) Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I Column II
(Symbol) (Definition)
The heat change that takes place when one equivalent of an acid is neutralised by one
A. ΔCH 1.
equivalent of a base.
B. ΔfH 2. When one mole of anhydrous hydrate salt combines with specific moles of water.
C. ΔNH 3. When one mole of the substance is completely burnt in oxygen.
D. ΔHydH 4. When one mole of a substance is formed from its elements in their standard states.
(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

3) A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz. The
wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is: [Speed of light, c = 3.0 x
108 m/s]

(1) 2192 m
(2) 21.92 m
(3) 219.3 m
(4) 219.2 m

4) The two isomers given below:

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Mesomers
(4) Positional isomers

5) Assertion (A):- The QC for the reaction:

is

Reason (R):- When QC < KC, the reaction will be fast in backward direction.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) if (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

6) In the Haber's process of ammonia manufacture,

N2(g) +3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
the rate of appearance of NH3 is:

The rates of the reaction expressed in terms of N2 and H2 will be:

 Rates in terms of H2 Rates in terms of N2
(mol L–1 sec–1) (mol L–1 sec–1)

(1) 3 × 10–4 2 × 10–4

(2) 3 × 10–4 1 × 10–4

(3) 1 × 10–4 3 × 10–4

(4) 2 × 10–4 2 × 10–4

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of a strong acid and a weak base?

(1) Methyl orange

(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) Thymol blue
(4) Fluorescein

8) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Oxoacids of Sulphur) (Bonds)

A. Peroxodisulphuric acid I. Two S–OH, Four S = O, One S–O–S

B. Sulphuric acid II. Two S–OH, One S = O

C. Pyrosulphuric acid III. Two S–OH, Four S = O, One S–O–O–S

D. Sulphurous acid IV. Two S–OH, Two S=O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

9) In which of the following coordination compounds, central metal atom obey the EAN rule :

(1) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(4) Both (1) and (3)

10) The atomic numbers of V, Cr, Mn and Fe are 23, 24, 25 and 26 respectively. Which one of these
may be expected to have the highest second ionisation enthalpy :
(1) V
(2) Cr
(3) Mn
(4) Fe

11) In the following reaction what will be the product:

(conc.) —→

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Arrange the following compounds in their increasing order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2–Br

b.
c. (CH3)3CBr

(1) b < a < c

(2) a < c < b
(3) a < b < c
(4) c < b < a

13) Match group of cation in column-I with their group reagent of qualitative analysis in column-II

Column-I Column-II
a. Group-I (i) NH4OH + NH4Cl
b. Group-II (ii) dilute HCl
c. Group-III (iii) H2S + dilute HCl
d. Group-IV (iv) H2S + NH4OH
Correct match among the following is
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
14)

Match the following aspects with the respective metal of 3d series.

List-I (Aspects) List-II (Metal)

a. The metal with highest enthalpy of atomisation (i) Manganese
The metal in which +1 oxidation state undergoes disproportionation in
b. (ii) Vanadium
aqueous solution
c. The metal with highest spin only magnetic moment in +2 oxidation state (iii) Copper
d. The metal which does not exhibit variable oxidation states (iv) Scandium
Select the correct option
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

15) Consider the following species

The total number of aromatic species are

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

16) Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below :
(A) In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent.
(B) In B2H6, there are four 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid.
(D) B2H6 is a non-planar molecule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (C) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

17) For a chemical reaction A + B → Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.
Rate [A] [B]
mol L s mol L mol L–1
–1 –1 –1

0.10 20 0.5
0.40 x 0.5
0.80 40 y
What is the value of x and y ?

(1) 80 and 4
(2) 160 and 4
(3) 80 and 2
(4) 40 and 4

18) Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell? (T = 298 K)
Sn + 2Ag+ → Sn2+ + 2Ag

(1) Increase in the size of silver rod

(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(4) None of the above

19) Which of the following is correct graphical representation of vapour pressure with temperature
for solvent and solution containing non volatile solute
Tf = Freezing point of solvent
Tf' = Freezing point of solution

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Reactions) (Products)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

21) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Sucrose is a disaccharide and a nonreducing sugar.
Reason R: Sucrose involve glycosidic linkage between C1 of β-glucose and C2 of β-fructose.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

22) Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in dimethyl sulfoxide solution ?

(1) Fluoride
(2) Chloride
(3) Bromide
(4) Iodide

23) [X] Product [X] of given reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The main product of following reaction will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Which is incorrect :-

(1)

are enantiomers

(2)

are diastereomers
(3) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH3 is Optically inactive
(4) CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3 Shows geometrical Isomerism

26) Correct IUPAC match are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, d
(4) b, c, d

27) Which one of the following is least stable resonating structure ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following order of lattice energy is correct :-

(1) Al2O3 < MgBr2

(2) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
(3) NaF > MgF2
(4) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl

29) In which of the following compounds B–F bond length is shortest?

(1)
(2) BF3 ← NH3
(3) BF3
(4) BF3 ← N(CH3)3

30) Calculate pH of a solution whose 100 mL contains 0.2 g NaOH dissolved in it :-

(1) 10.699
(2) 11.699
(3) 12.699
(4) 13.699

31)
Which are placed at correct position?

(1) H2, He
(2) He, NH3
(3) NH3, CH4
(4) CH4, H2

32) Total number of nodes, angular nodes and the radial nodes in case of 4f orbital respectively are

(1) 4, 3, 2
(2) 3, 3, 0
(3) 3, 2, 1
(4) 4, 2, 1

33) N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g)

For the reaction, if the percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 25%, 50%, 75% and 100%, then the
sequence of observed vapour densities will be (d1, d2, d3 and d4 are vapour density at 25%, 50%, 75%
and 100% dissociation respectively)

(1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4

(2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1
(3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4
(4) (d1 = d2) > (d3 > d4)

34) The most acidic hydrogen in the following compound is :

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

35)
product (C) is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The IUPAC name of unknown compound ‘Q’ is:

(1) Hexanoic acid

(2) n-Heptane
(3) Heptanoic acid
(4) n-Hexane

37) Which compound does not undergo hydrolysis?

(1) SF6
(2) SF4
(3) NCl3
(4) SeF6

38) Which of the following is square planar and paramagnetic complex?

–2
(1) [NiCl4]
–2
(2) [Pt(CN)4]
–2
(3) [Zn(OH)4]
2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]

39) The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are – 15.89 and 2.80 kCal mol–1
respectively. What will be the heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4 ?

(1) –18.69 kCal

(2) 18.69 kCal
(3) –28.96 kCal
(4) 28.96 kCal

40) Given below are two statements : -

Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of
comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due
to dipole – dipole interactions.
Statements II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar
molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statements II is incorrect
(3) Statements I is incorrect but statements II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are correct.

41) Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?

(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3

(2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > BF3 > NF3
(4) NH3 > NF3 > BF3

42) In which of the following pairs, the ionisation energy of the first species is less than that of the
second

(1) N, P
(2) Be+, Be
(3) N, N¯
(4) Ne, Ne+

43) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II
Elements Atomic radii (pm)
(a) O (i) 88
(b) C (ii) 74
(c) B (iii) 66
(d) N (iv) 77
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

44) Which amongst the following is incorrect statement :-

(1) B2 is having π-bond only
+
(2) H2 bond order equal to 0.5
(3) is diamagnetic
(4) Be2 does not exist.

45) Which of the following oxide is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide ?

(1) BeO
(2) B2O3
(3) CaO
(4) SiO2

BIOLOGY

1) The RER in the cell synthesized a protein which would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the membrane is slightly different from the protein
made in the RER. The protein was probably modified in another cell organelle. Identify the organelle

in the given diagram:-

(1) D
(2) B
(3) A
(4) C

2) Which of the following structure represent zwitterionic form-

(1) P
(2) R
(3) P, R
(4) Q

3) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(A) Carotenoids (i) Lectins
(B) Ricin (ii) Alkaloids
(C) Diterpenes (iii) Terpenoids
(D) Morphine (iv) Toxins
(v) Pigments
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A D C B

(1) v i iii iv

(2) v ii iii iv

(3) v iv iii ii

(4) v iv iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

5) Refer to the given figure showing meiosis and germ cell formation in a cell with four
chromosomes. Which of the Mendel's law can effectively be explained by this figure?
(1) Law of dominance
(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) All of the above

6) What is the major hallmark of double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick ?

(1) Base pairing between two strands

(2) Presence of phosphodiester bond
(3) Acidic nature of DNA
(4) Presence of pentose sugar

7) Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:

(1) T/A Cloning Vectors

(2) T–DNA
(3) BAC and YAC
(4) Expression Vectors

8) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor which affect photosynthesis?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

9) Assertion (A): H+ gradient across the thylakoid membrane is essential for the formation of ATP.
Reason (R): Breakdown of H+ gradient due to the movement of protons through F0 of ATPase
release enough energy to activate ATPase enzyme that catalyses the formation of ATP.

(1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true

10) For the formation of 10 ATP molecule how many NADH2 and FADH2 will be oxidised in ETS :–

(1) NADH2 = 3 FADH2 = 1

(2) NADH2 = 2 FADH2 = 2
(3) NADH2 = 1 FADH2 = 2
(4) NADH2 = 4 FADH2 = 1

11) Assertion: In Cassia and Gulmohar, the aestivation is imbricate.

Reason: The margins of petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall and cell membrane.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are correct.

13) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.

The morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies forms the basis
(2)
for the division of the kingdom-fungi into various classes.
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.

14) Which of the following statement is true for bryophyta ?

(1) Along with water absorption roots also provide anchorage to plants
(2) Sporophyte is dominant
(3) Gametophyte is dominant and sporophyte is mostly parasitic
(4) Gametophyte is parasitic

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The form and size of algae is highly variable, ranging from colonial forms like
Ulothrix and Spirogyra and to the filamentous forms like Volvox.
Statement-II : Isogamous type of reproduction is found in Marchantia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

16) Phase between the cytokinesis and S-phase is :-

(1) G1
(2) G2
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

17) Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding the plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells ?
(A) Formation of intercellular junctions
(B) Cell division
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) Selective permeable
(E) Secretion
(F) Cell growth

(1) C and D only

(2) C and E only
(3) C and F only
(4) Only C

18) Identify the given below diagram and select the correct option which represent correct function

of labelled A, B, C and D.

(1) B = Metaxylem – Conduction of water and minerals.

(2) C = Trichomes – Increase surface areas for absorption of water and minerals.
A = Cortex – Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes
(3)
place in these cells.
(4) D = Starch sheath – Help in storage of starch grains.

19)

Which of the following floral diagram represent to disc floret of marigold and sunflower.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Statement-I : The enzymes, pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyse the
lactic acid fermentation.
Statement-II : The reducing agent is NADH + H+ which is reoxidised to NAD+ in both lactic
acid fermentation and alcohol fermentation.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

21) Given below are statements regarding polysaccharide, choose the incorrect one.
(A) Cellulose, Glycogen, Chitin, Inulin are Polysaccharides.
(B) Starch can not hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
(C) Insulin is a polymer of fructose.
(D) In Glycogen and cellulose the right end is called reducing end while the left end is called non-
reducing end.

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (D)

22) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
Statement-II :- DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

23) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I List-II
A. C4 Pathway
+ –
I. 2H2O → 4H + O2 + 4e
B. Light reaction II. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
C. Photorespiration III. Phosphoenol Pyruvate
D. Calvin Cycle IV. Phosphoglycolate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

24) A DNA sequence is polymorphic if -

(1) The carrier frequency is less than 2 percent

(2) If can be cut with a restriction enzyme
(3) A variation in sequence occurs in more than 1 percent of the population
(4) Variation is present in more than 100 organisms

25) In a double stranded DNA molecule each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each
step of ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 36°
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) 34°

26) If the modified allele produce normal enzyme then which statement is not true :-

(1) It will produce phenotype similar to unmodified allele

(2) It will be responsible for transformation of substrate into product
(3) Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified allele
(4) Modified allele is equivalent to unmodified allele

27) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 123
(4) 576
28)
Above diagram shows proportionate number of species of major taxa of plants, identify the A, B, C
plant group :-

A B C
(1) Lichens Angiosperms Algae
(2) Angiosperms Algae Lichens
(3) Lichens Algae Angiosperms
(4) Algae Lichens Angiosperms
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Meiosis-I results in formation of ______ of cells with ________ of chromosomes in each cell as
compare to mother cell.

(1) Tetrad, half number

(2) Diad, half number
(3) Tetrad, same number
(4) Diad, double number

30) In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 6 KJ, what will

be the energy at producer level ?

(1) 0.6 KJ
(2) 60KJ
(3) 600KJ
(4) 6000KJ

31) Assertion (A) : Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
Reason (R) : Heterotrophs (Herbivores) exhibit secondary productivity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

32) Plant → Rabbit → Wolf → Lion

In above food chain if plant produce 1000 Kcal energy (NPP) during photosynthesis, then how much
amount of energy available for wolf in given food chain ?

(1) 100 Kcal

(2) 1 Kcal
(3) 10 Kcal
(4) 1 Kcal

33) In equation = rN ; here K is defined by :-

(1) Maximum population density achievable under unlimited resources.

(2) Carrying capacity of habitat
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Maximum intrinsic rate of growth

34) Which of the following characters are related with family Malvaceae ?
(a) Five stamens
(b) Marginal placentation
(c) Infinite stamens
(d) Twisted aestivation
Options :

(1) Only a & b

(2) Only c & d
(3) Only b & c
(4) Only a & d

35) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems.
Statement-II : Leaves are arranged in acropetal order.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

36) Which of the following characters are related with Poaceae family ?
(a) Basal placentation
(b) Feathery stigma
(c) Cypsela fruit
(d) Pentamerous flower
Options :

(1) Only a & c

(2) Only b & d
(3) Only a & b
(4) Only c & d

37) Which of the following physiological effects, is common to both Auxin and Ethylene?

(1) Sprouting of potato tuber

(2) Petiole elongation in deep water rice plants
(3) Flowering in pineapple
(4) Weed killing

38) Identify the correct set of statements out of followings :-

(a) Inulin is a linear polymer of fructose unit.
(b) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
(c) Tertiary structure of protein are soluble in water
(d) Maximum proteins present in protoplasm show tertiary structure
Choose the correct answer from the given options below :-

(1) a, b and d only

(2) only a and b
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d all

39) Given structure marks the which stage of dicot embryo development.

(1) Globular embryo

(2) Heart shape embryo
(3) Mature embryo
(4) None of the above

40) An advantage of cleistogamy is that -

(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity.
(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread.
(3) Each visit of pollinator brings hundreds of pollen grains.
(4) Seed set is not dependent upon pollinators.

41) Observe the following figures and identify the labelled structures P, Q, R, and S:-

P Q R S

(1) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Antheridiophore Seta

(2) Antheridiophore Rhizoids Archegoniophore Capsule

(3) Antheridiophore Seta Archegoniophore Leaves

(4) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Antheridiophore Capsule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Given is the representation of age pyramids for human population. Identify the growth status of

a, b and c.

(1) a – expanding, b – declining, c – stable

(2) a – expanding, b – stable, c – declining
(3) a – stable, b – expanding, c – declining
(4) a – stable, b – declining, c – expanding

43) Which among the following are exotic/alien species introduced in India :-
(a) Parthenium hysterophorous
(b) Lantana camara
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
(d) Clarias gariepinus
(1) b,c,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c,d

44) Statement-I : The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
Statement-II : Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

45) Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at _______.

(1) 70°C
(2) 100°C
(3) – 196°C
(4) 196°C

46) Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) 2500 to 3000 ml (i) Tidal volume

(B) 1000 - 1100 ml (ii) Inspiratory reserve volume

(C) 500 ml (iii) Expiratory reserve volume

(D) 5100 - 5800 ml (iv) Total lung capacity

(E) 1100 - 1200 ml (v) Residual volume

A B C D E

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (v)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)

(4) (ii) (v) (i) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Match the abnormal conditions given in Column I with their explanations given in Column II and
choose the correct option :-
 Column I Column II

(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in Glomerulus

(C) Glomerulonephritis (iii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney

(D) Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i

48) Statement-I : Exopthalmic goitre is a form of hypothyroidism.

Statement-II : Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrate, proteins and fats.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and II incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II correct.

49) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Hinge joint (i) Ribs & Sternum

(B) Saddle joint (ii) Sutures

(C) Cartilaginous joint (iii) Elbow joint

(D) Fibrous joint (iv) Between Carpals and metacarpal of thumb

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

50) The below diagram shows germinal layers, found in the following group of organism :

(1) Adamsia, Asterias, Aplysia

(2) Echinus, Hyla, Calotes
(3) Fasciola, Ctenoplana, Pila
(4) Doliolum, Gorgonia, Sycon

51) Choose the common character shown by the animals which belong to phylum Hemichordata,
Arthropoda and subphylum Urochordata :

(1) Any plane passing through the central axis divide them into two identical halves.
(2) Blood is pumped out of the heart and the cells and tissues are directly bathed in it.
Mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic
(3)
development.
(4) Body cavity is not lined by mesoderm , instead, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches.

52) Statement-I It serves as a support framework for epithelium.

Statement-II The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately

are converted into fats and are stored in this tissue.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

53) Identify this microbe :

(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Adeno virus
(3) Fungal colony
(4) TMV

54) Fill in the blanks and chose the correct option :

In the frog, ____A___ receives blood through the major veins called _____B____. The ventricles open
into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the ____C_____ side of heart.
(1) A = Sinus arterosus, B = Venacava, C = Dorsal
(2) A = Sinus Venosus, B = Venacava, C = Ventral
(3) A = Sinus Venosus, B = Aorta, C = Ventral
(4) A = Sinus arterosus, B = Aorta, C = Dorsal

55) Assertion (A) : Compound epithelium has a major role in secretion and absorption
Reason (R) : Compound epithelium is made up of a single layer of cells and provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

56) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air
is released out
Statement-II :- Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions result in release of CO2
Choose the correct option from the given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

57) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

A. Erythrocytes I. Phagocytic cells

Resist infection and are also associated

B. AB blood group II.
with Allergic reactions

C. Neutrophils III. Universal recipient

D. Eosinophils IV. Most abundant of all cells in blood

Choose correct option :-
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

58) Given below diagram is related with muscle, Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select
correct option :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ATP binding site Cross arm Head Actin binding site

(2) Actin binding site Head Cross arm ATP binding site

(3) Cross arm Head ATP binding site Actin binding site

(4) Actin binding site Head ATP binding site Cross arm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Choose the correct statement with respect to labelling 'a' :-

(1) Mid brain – cerebral aqueduct

(2) Hypothalamus – control the body temperature
(3) Thalamus – expression of emotional reactions
(4) Corpus callosum – Connects both cerebral hemisphere.

60) Read the Column-I & II and identify their correct match-

Column-I Column-II

A. Adrenaline (I) Reabsorption of Na+

B. Glucocorticoids (II) Growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair during puberty

C. Androgen (III) Mainly acts on renal tubules.

D. Aldosterone (IV) Lipolysis and proteolysis

(V) Increase heart rate

(VI) Ca+2 reabsorption

(1) (A-IV), (B-V), (C-II), (D-III)
(2) (A-VI), (B-IV), (C-III), (D-I)
(3) (A-V), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I, III)
(4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-IV)

61) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Match the column :

Column - I Column - II

A. Wuchereria bancrofti 1. Erythrocytes

B. Plasmodium vivax 2. Small intestine

C. Trichophyton 3. Lymph vessels

D. Entamoeba histolytica 4. Large intestine

5. Skin folds
(1) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2
(2) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

63) Find out the incorrect statement among the following ?

(1) First non- cellular form of life could have been orginate 3 BYA
The first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules is
(2)
accepted by majority.
Excess use of herbicides, pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a
(3)
much lesser time scale.
Evolution is a not a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation
(4)
in the organisms.

64) Find the correct match :-

(1) Aspergillus niger - Butyric acid

(2) Clostridium butylicum - Ethanol
(3) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Citric acid

65) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The first restriction endonuclease isolated was Hind III.

(2) Restriction enzymes cut at specific base sequence is known as recognition sequence.
(3) From over 230 strains of bacteria, 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated.
(4) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.

66) Choose the incorrect statement about class reptilia.

(1) body is covered by dry and cornified skin.

(2) They do not have extermal ear opening.
(3) Operculum represent the ear.
(4) They are oviparous and development is direct.

67) Assertion :- In cockroach compound eyes are situated at ventral surface of head.
Reason :- Each eye consists of about 200 hexagonal ommatidia.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation
(4) Assertion in true but Reason is false

68) Given below are statements : One is labelled as Statement-I and the other is labelled as
Statement-II.
Statement-I :- The afferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network
around the renal tubule called the peritubular capillaries
Statement-II :- Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in juxta medullary nephrons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II is false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I incorrect but statement-II is false
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II is true.

69) Vasa recta is highly reduced in which nephron.

(1) Cortical
(2) Juxta medullary
(3) Nephridia
(4) Antennal glands

70) Match the columns and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(1) Thyroxine Regulation of blood calcium

(2) Cortisol Formation of graafian follicles

(3) Insulin Hypoglycemia

(4) Melatonin BMR regulation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Use the figure to answer the question.

The surgical procedure indicated in the figure is __________

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Hysterectomy
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Orchidectomy

72) Given diagram shows flowering branch of

(1) Datura
(2) Cannabis Sativa
(3) Opium poppy
(4) Atropa Belladona

73) Which of the following is / are not correctly match?

Common Name Order Class

(i) Man Homo Hominidae

(ii) Housefly Solanaceae Polymoniales

(iii) Mango Mangifera Anacardiaceae

(iv) Man Primata Mammalia

(1) (i) & (ii)
(2) only (i)
(3) only (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

74) Match column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Spooling (i) Cutting out & extraction of DNA from gel

(b) Elution (ii) Restriction endonuclease

(c) Transformation (iii) Piece of DNA introduced into host bacterium

(d) Molecular scissors (iv) Collection of fine threads of DNA

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

75) Match the placental mammals given in Column-I to their corresponding Australian marsupials
given in Column-II.
 Column-I Column-II

a Mole i Marsupial mole

b Anteater ii Marsupial mouse

c Mouse iii Spotted cuscus

d Lemur iv Numbat
Select the correct option.
a b c d

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) iv ii i iii

(4) iv i iii ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Which of the following is incorrect option for Neanderthal man ?

(1) They had a brain size of 1400 cc.

(2) They used hides to protect their body.
(3) They buried their dead
(4) They lived in near east and central Asia between 40,000-10,000 years back.

77) Which of the following is the essence of Darwinism ?

(1) Branching descent

(2) Natural selection
(3) Over Production
(4) Struggle for existence

78) Assertion (A) : A girl child can never be colorblind if her father is not colorblind.
Reason (R) : Colorblindness is an x-linked recessive disorder.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
79) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) How many of the following statement is/are correct with respect to menstrual cycle ?
(A)The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause.
(B) Menstruation occurs if the released secondary oocyte is not fertilised.
(C) During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
(D) In mammals, menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

81) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being associated with drugs and alcohol.
Statement II : With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body
decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
82) Which of the following cells are infected by HIV in humans ?

(1) Macrophages, T-lymphocytes, B-Lymphocytes

(2) Macrophages, Neuroglial cells, B-Lymphocytes
(3) Macrophages, Neutrophils, mast cells
(4) Macrophages, T-helper cells

83) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Negatively Charged DNA 1 Moves toward anode in electric field

B Sieving Effect 2 Smaller DNA fragments travel farther

C Elution 3 Extracting DNA fragments from gel

D Anode 4 Positive terminal in gel electrophoresis

(1) A→2, B→4, C→1, D→3
(2) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1
(3) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(4) A→3, B→1, C→4, D→2

84) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Method) (Description)

Increases efficiency of DNA uptake by increasing

A Calcium Treatment 1
permeability of bacterial membrane.

Brief exposure of cells to high temperature to

B Heat Shock 2
facilitate DNA uptake.

Direct injection of DNA into the nucleus of an animal

C Microinjection 3
cell.

Bombarding plant cells with micro-particles coated

D Gene Gun 4
with DNA.
(1) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(2) A→2, B→1, C→4, D→3
(3) A→3, B→4, C→1, D→2
(4) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1

85) Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are :

(1) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(2) High yield and resistance to bollworms
(3) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(4) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
86) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion(A) : Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion.
Reason (R) : Columnar epithelium is commonly found in duct of glands and tubular part of nephron
in kidneys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

87) What is vital capacity of our lungs ?

(1) inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume

(2) total lung capacity minus residual volume
(3) inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(4) total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume

88)

Match the columns

Column I Column II

a Superior Vena Cava p Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

b Inferior Vena Cava q Carries oxygenated blood from lungs

c Pulmonary Artery r Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of body to right atrium

d Pulmonary Vein s Brings deoxygentaed blood from upper parts of body into right atrium
(1) a—q, b—s, c—r, d—p
(2) a—s, b—p, c—q, d—r
(3) a—s, b—r, c—p, d—q
(4) a—s, b—p, c—r, d—q

89) In the diagram of excretory system of human beings given below, different parts have been
indicated by alphabets choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched

with the parts which they represent:-

(1) A = Kidney, B = Dorsal aorta, C = Ureter, D = Urinary bladder, E = Urethra, F = Renal pelvis
(2) A = Kidney, B = Dorsal aorta, C = Urethra, D=Urinary bladder, E=Ureter, F=Renal pelvis
(3) A = Kidney, B = Renal pelvis, C = Urethra, D=Urinary bladder, E=Ureter, F=Renal pelvis
(4) A = Kidney, B = Dorsal aorta, C = Urethra, D=Urinary bladder, E=Renal pelvis, F=Ureter

90) Which of the following option in given table is correct

identification of the structures labelled as A,B,C and D and their corresponding function in the
above figure :-

(1) (A) Hypothalamus Produces Prolactin hormone

(2) (B) Posterior pituitary Release FSH and LH

Supply blood from hypothalamus

(3) (C) Portal circulation
to posterior pituitary

(4) (D) Posterior pituitary Release oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question: Calculate the recoil speed of a hydrogen atom for an electron transition
from n = 3 to n = 1.

Concept: Conservation of momentum

Solution:

Final answer: Option (2)

2) Explain : To find net magnetic field at point D.

Concept : Magnetic field due to wire and arc
Solution :

...(i)

∴
 ...(ii)
∴
Final Answer : (3)

3) Explain the question : As shown in figure find position of C.O.M. of the given system.
Concept : This question is based on center of mass.
Solution :
C.O.M is closer to heavier mass.

area of circle =
area of square =
As area of square > area of circle
mass of square > mass of circle.
Final answer: 2

4) Explaining : To find the ratio of E and H.

Concept : This question is based on properties of EMW
Solution :

= 60 π : 1
Final Answer : (3)

5) Explaining : Find end correction & frequency of tuning fork.

Concept : This question is based on resonance tube experiment
Solution :
ℓ1 = 32.1 cm ℓ2 = 99.2 cm

V = nλ ⇒ 332 = n [2(ℓ2 – ℓ1)]

= 247. 3 Hz
Final Answer : (3)

6) Explain the Question : To find the angle of minimum deviation for a prism having A = 40°,
i = 38°
Concept : This question is based on minimum deviation in prism.
Solution : i = 38°, A = 40°
δm = 2i – A
δm = 2 × 38° – 40
= 76° – 40
δm = 36°
Final answer : 3

7) Question Explanation : In an isobaric process, 140 J of heat is supplied to a diatomic

gas. We have to find the work done by the gas.

Concept : Isobaric process.

Solution:
In an isobaric process ΔQ = ncPΔT

ΔW = P (V2 – V1 ) = nR(T2 – T1) = nRΔT = 40 J

Final Answer: option (2)

8) Explain Question:
Find the radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 128 for given radius of a nucleus with
nucleon number 16.

Concept: Nuclear radius relationship R ∝ A1/3.

Solution:
A1 = 16
R1 = 3 × 10–15 m
A2 = 128

R2 = 2 × 3 × 10–15
R2 = 6 × 10–15 m

Final answer: Option (3)

9) Explanation: To find the speed of image of image of person in a plane mirror length
respect to himself.
Concept : Velocity of Image in a plane mirror
Formula : Velocity of image with respect to observe in plane mirror
Solution/Calculation : Given speed of object V0 = 10m/s
velocity of image with respect to object VI/0 = 2V0
= 2 × 10 = 20m/s
Answer (3) correct

10) Question Explanation : The question asks for the fundamental physics reasoning behind
why friction is not classified as one of the fundamental forces of nature (like gravity or
electromagnetism) but is instead considered a secondary effect.
Concept :Fundamental vs. Derived Forces
Solution:The fundamental forces of nature are gravitational, electromagnetic, strong nuclear,
and weak nuclear [Link] is not included among these fundamental forces because it
does not arise [Link] occurs due to microscopic electromagnetic forces
between atoms and molecules of the two surfaces in [Link] interlocking of surface
irregularities and electromagnetic attraction produces resistance to motion, which we observe
as friction.
Therefore, friction is a derived (macroscopic) force, not a fundamental force of nature.
Final answer: Option (1)

11) Explaining : To find the minimum value of v.

Concept : This question is based on COME
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

12) Explaining : To find the potential at a distance r>R

Concept : This question is based on electric potential due to spherical distribution of
charge.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

13)

Explaining : Determine total distance travelled by ball.

Concept : Freefall and Galileo's law of odd numbers.
Solution :
State at Release (t = 5s):
The ball inherits the balloon's velocity:

Time to Reach Highest Point:

The ball continues upward until its velocity is zero:

The ball reaches its peak at t = 10 s (5s balloon + 5s ascent).

Distance Traveled in 3 Seconds of Descent:
At the peak, the ball is at rest (u = 0). According to Galileo's Law of Odd Numbers, the
distances in successive 1-second intervals follow the ratio 1 : 3 : 5.

Distance in 1st second:

Distance in 2nd second:
Distance in 3rd second:
Total Distance:

Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : To find the range of ammeter and voltmeter.

Concept : This question is based on Golvanometer
Solution :

whest stone bridge

15 × 10–3 = 120 × i

= = 15 mV
Final Answer : (1)

15) Explaining : To find net force on dipole

Concept : This question is based on Dipole in non uniform field
Solution:

The net force vector is F = pa + pb​ .

Final Answer: Option (2)

16) Explaining : To find the power supplied by cell.

Concept : This question is based on electrical energy & power.
Solution :

R 1 = R4 = (36Ω)
R1 = R4 = 24Ω

R 2 = R3 = (36Ω) 12Ω All are connected in

parallel.

= =

Req = 4Ω =

P= = = 100 W
Final Answer : (2)

17) Question explanation:

Calculate the maximum compression of a spring for a mass released from a height on a track
with a rough horizontal part.
Concept:
Solution:

200= 150 + 50x2 ⇒ 50 = 50x2

x=1m
Final answer : (1)

18) Explain Question:

We have to calculate unit vector along

Concept:
Unit vector

Solution:

Unit vector along

Final Answer: Option (3)

19) Question Explanation:

Question ask for total energy of a particle of mass m moving in a circle of radius r, where
centripetal force is given.

Concept:
Relation in between K•E & centripetal force
Relation in between P•E & centripetal force

Solution:

As we know,
 So, T•E = K•E + P•E

T•E =
T•E =

Final Answer: Option (1).

20) Question Explanation : A solid sphere rolls down and its velocity at bottom is v, same
sphere slides down, its velocity at bottom is v2. Find relation between v1 & v2
Concept : This question is based on Rolling motion on an inclined plane

Formula :

Solution :

Final Answer : option (2)

21)

Explain Question: A wheel is spinning at an initial angular velocity of 27 rad/s and is slowing
down with a time-dependent angular acceleration of magnitude 3t2 rad/s². find the time it
takes for the wheel to come to a complete stop.

Concept: This question is based on rotational kinematics

Formula :

Solution:

α = –3t2 ⇒ =–3t2

⇒
⇒ t3 = 27 ⇒ t = 3s
Final answer: (3)

22)
Question Explanation : Given 700 gm weight on surface of earth asking about weight at
planet which having mass and radius as per given below.
Earth :- Mearth = M ; Rearth = R ; Wbody on earth = 700gm wt.

Planet :- Mplanet = ; Rplanet = ; Wbody on planet = ?

Concept : Acceleration due to gravity.

Formula : g =

Solution :-

mg = 700 gm wt. =

mgp = × = mg

mgp =
Wbody on planet = 400 gm wt.

Final answer : Option (2)

23) Explanation : Find time taken by ball to hit the elevator.

Concept : Relative motion and so

Solution: Horizontal motion is independent of vertical acceleration. L = u × t ⇒ t = L / u.
Correct Answer : Option(1)

24) Question Explanation : A thin rod is immersed in water and container is now raised. It is
asked to find the ratio of total length of rod to the submerged length of rod.
Concept : This question is based on fluid statics.
Solution:

where
Balancing torque about hinge

[where θ is very small]

5X2 + 18X + 9 = 0 (Here )

Final Answer : The correct option is (2)

25) Explain : the relative error in P

Concept: error propagation
Solution:
Relative error = (1/2)x+2x+3x+4x=9.5x. Note: Errors always add up even for d in the
denominator.
Correct Answer: option (1)

26) Question Explanation:

It is asked to find the gauge pressure at depth h.

Concept:
This question is based on gauge pressure.

Solution:
Gauge pressure ΔP = ρgeffh = ρ(g – a)h

Final Answer:
The correct option is (3)

27) Explanation: Time taken to cool between temperatures.

Concept: Newton's Law of Cooling.

Solution:

Calculation:

Case 1: ⇒ 7.5 = 70 K

⇒ .

Case 2: .

⇒ t = 7 min.

Final Answer: (1) 7 minutes

28) Question Explanation : The volume of a gas varies with temperature according to
V=KT2/3. When the temperature of the gas changes by 60 K, the work done by the gas during
this process is to be calculated.
Concept: Thermodynamics – Work done in a process with given V–T relation

Formula:
Solution:
Given that: V = KT2/3.

W = 40 R (∵ n = 1)

Final answer: Option (4) .

29) Explaining : Find speed of the third fragment of bomb.

Concept : This question is based on conservation of linear momentum.
Solution :
Small & Elegant Solution
Conservation of Momentum:

Calculate Momentum of Perpendicular Fragments:

Using the Pythagorean theorem for perpendicular vectors:

3. Solve for :
The momentum of the third fragment is its mass times its velocity:

Final Answer: (2)

30) Explaining : To match the entery of column-1 to column-2 for combination of charged
capacitor with a uncharged capacitor.
Concept : This question is based on energy stored in capacitor
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

31) Explaining : find percentage increase in time period.

Concept : This question is based on simple pendulum
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining : Find max. no. of overtone generated by this pipe which a normal person can
hear.
Concept : This question is based on organ pipe.
Solution : In a close organ pipe only odd harmonics are found. So, frequency equal to odd
multiple of 1500 Hz may be found. Maximum audible frequency is 20,000 Hz. So, possible
frequency are 1500 Hz, 4500 Hz, 7500 Hz, 10500 Hz, 13500 Hz, 16500 Hz, 19500 Hz. 19500
Hz will be sixth overone as 4500 will be first overtone.
Final Answer : (3)

33) Question Explanation:

Find the magnitude of the magnetic field induction B given that a charged particle moves
through it without deviation.

Concept:
For a charged particle to move undeviated in a magnetic field, the magnetic force must be
zero, meaning v is parallel or anti-parallel to B.

Solution:

For the particle to move undeviated,

Angle between v & B i.e. 0° or 180°

Final answer: Option (1)

34)

Question Explanation : To find the output of given combination of logic gates.

Concept : Combination of logic gates.
Solution :
All gates are NOR gates

Y=
Y=
Y=
Final Answer: option (2)

35) Explain Question:

Induced EMF in a wire falling through a magnetic field.

Concept:
Motional EMF with Free Fall.

Solution:
When a wire falls through a distance h, it gains a velocity .
The EMF induced across the ends depends on the effective length of the wire perpendicular to
the velocity and the field.
For this V-shape, the effective length between A and C is the horizontal distance.

Calculation:
1. Velocity after falling h:
2. Effective length (Leff) between A and C: Since the arms are length at 90°, the distance
.
3. Induced EMF: e = B· Leff·v

4.

Final answer: Option (3)

36) Explain : To find the potential energy of loop

Concept : U = MBcosθ
Solution :

U = –MB cosθ = (B) cos 60° = –3.14 J

Final Answer : (2)

37) Explain Question:

Match electronic components with their correct circuit symbols.

Concept:
Identification of standard electronic circuit symbols.

Solution:
Each electronic component has a unique standard symbol.
By comparing the given symbols with known circuit symbols, we can match them correctly:
• Resistor is shown by a zig-zag line.
• Capacitor is shown by two parallel plates.
• Diode is shown by a triangle pointing to a line.
• LED is a diode symbol with outward arrows indicating light emission.

Final Answer: Option (1)

38) Explaining : To match the entries of column-1 to column-2 induced for current direction
Concept : This question is based on induced current and lenz law.
Solution :
(A) If current is increased the by Lenz's law induced current in the loop opposes this changes
(increases in inward flux). Induced current gives outward flux so induced current 3 anti
clockwise.
Loop tries to move to decrease the flux so it is repelled by wire, force on loop is in the x-y
plane so no torque about y-axis.
(B) If current is decreased then oppose of decreases in flux so induced current is clockwise
and loop is attracted, no torque.
(C) If loop is moved away then same effect on loop as in B.
Final Answer : (1)

39)

Question Explanation: Optical path compares light travel in a medium with equivalent travel
in vacuum.

Concept: Optical Path Length

Formula: Optical path=μ × geometrical path

Solution: Optical path is the distance light would travel in vacuum in the same time.

It directly relates to time taken, not velocity or frequency.

Hence, the definition is based on equal time intervals.

Final answer: Option (3)

40) Explanation Question:

Match concepts of the photoelectric effect in Column-1 with their corresponding variables in
Column-II.

Concept:
Fundamental laws of the photoelectric effect and Einstein's equation.

Solution:
i. Photoelectric current is directly proportional to intensity of light of a given frequency (q).
ii. Maximum kinetic of photoelectron increases linearly with increase in frequency of light (p).
iii. Photoelectric current becomes zero in experiment at stopping potential (s).
iv. Minimum frequency below which no emission takes place is threshold frequency (r).
The correct matches are i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r.

Final answer: Option (3)

41) Question Explanation : Asking about x in which diameter reading of wire is asking in
screw gauge least count and M.S.R are given.
Concept : Screw gauge
Solution : Diameter =

Diameter = 1 mm + 42 ×

Diameter =

Diameter =
So ; x = 71
Final Answer : Option (2)

42) Question Explanation : For an LR series AC circuit :

L = 0.7 H
R = 220 Ω
Vrms = 220 volts
f = 50 Hz
ϕ=?
Iwattless = ?
Concept : Phase difference and wattless current in an LR series AC circuit
Solution :

So, Phase difference ⇒ ϕ = 45°

Now, Wattless current ⇒

Final Answer : Option (2)

43) Explaining : To find the impedance of P & Q

Concept : This question is based on resonance
Solution :

ω=
 ω= =

XL = ωL = × 4.9 × 10–3 = 0.7 × 102 = 70Ω

XC = = 70 Ω

ZP = ≈ 77 Ω

ZQ = ≈ 97.6 Ω
Final Answer : (1)

44) Explain Question:

Relate the released energy E to the atomic binding energies Ea and Eb in the fusion process 3B
→>A

Concept:
Energy released = (Binding energy of products) – (Binding energy of reactants)

Solution:
Binding energy of product (one atom of A) = Ea
Total binding energy of reactants (three atoms of B) = 3Eb
Energy released E = Ea – 3Eb
Rearranging gives Ea – E = 3Eb

Final answer: Option (3)

45) Question Explanation : The least count of the Vernier calipers is given as 0.1 mm. The
main scale reading is 10 mm and the zero division of the Vernier scale coincides with the main
scale. We have to find the measured value.

Concept : Vernier calliper.

Solution : Main scale reading = 10 mm Vernier scale reading = 0 (since the zero division of
the Vernier scale coincides with the main scale division) Least count = 0.1 mm Measured
value - Main scale reading + (Vernier scale reading × Least count) Measured value = 10 + (0
× 0.1) = 10 mm = 1 cm Thus, the measured value is 1 cm.
Final answer : Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : The species which will undergo disproportionation is

 Concept : This question is based on for disproportionation reaction
Solution :

= 0.28 V (+ve)
Final Answer : (3)

47) Explaining : Match the Column I with Column II.

Concept : This question is based on enthalpies of reaction
Solution :

Column I Column II
(Symbol) (Definition)
A. ΔCH 3. When one mole of the substance is completely burnt in oxygen.
B. ΔfH 4. When one mole of a substance is formed from its elements in their standard states.
The heat change that takes place when one equivalent of an acid is neutralised by one
C. ΔNH 1.
equivalent of a base.
D. ΔHydH 2. When one mole of anhydrous hydrate salt combines with specific moles of water.
Final Answer : (3)

48) Explaining : A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency
of 1,368 kHz. The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is:
Concept : This question is based on EMW

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

49) Explaining : The two isomers given below:

Concept : This question is based on diastereomers.
Solution : Diastereomers are a type of stereoisomer that are non-superimposable, non-mirror
images of each other. Unlike enantiomers, they occur when molecules with two or more
stereocenters differ in configuration at some, but not all, of those centers.
Final Answer : (2)

50)

Explaining : Evaluate assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on QC.
Solution : When QC < KC ; Rate of forward reaction increases.
Final Answer : (3)
51)

Explaining : Find rate of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on rate of reaction in terms stoichiometry.
Solution :

= 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

Final Answer : (2)

52)

Explaining : Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of a strong acid and
a weak base?
Concept : This question is based on indicators.
Solution :
Methyl orange
Strong acid react with weak base resulting in acidic solution leading to a pH less than 7 and
working pH range of methyl orange is between 3.1–4.4
Final Answer : (1)

53)

Explaining : Match List-I with List-II :

Concept : This question is based on structure of oxy-acids.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

54) Explaining : - In which of the following coordination compounds, central metal atom obey
the EAN rule :
Concept : This question is based on EAN rule
Solution : -
In [Fe(CN)6]4–, FeII; [Ar]3d6 will gain 12 electrons from 6 CN–. EAN of Fe = 24 + 12 = 36, At.
No. = Kr
Final Answer : (2)

55) Explaining : - Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionisation
enthalpy :
Concept : This question is based on ionisation enthalpy
Solution : -
Outer electronic configurations of V, Cr, Mn and Fe are as follows.
V(4s2 3d3), Cr(4s1 3d5), Mn(4s2 3d5), Fe(4s2 3d6)
Outer electronic configuration of uni-positive ions are
V+(4s1 3d3), Cr+(3d5), Mn+(4s1 3d5), Fe+(4s1 3d6)
Clearly, I.E2 of Cr will be highest as Cr+ has exactly half filled d-subshell.
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : - Find out the product.

Concept : This question is based on reaction of ether with HI.
Solution : -

Final Answer : (1)

57) Explaining : Arrange the following compounds in their increasing order of reactivity
towards SN1 reaction
Concept : This question is based on reactivity towards SN1 reaction.
Solution : Stability of carbocations decides the increasing order of reactivity towards SN1
reaction.
Final Answer : (3)

58)

Explaining : Match group of cation in column-I with their group reagent of qualitative
analysis in column-II
Concept : This question is based on qualitative analysis of salts.
Solution :
Group-I – dilute HCl
Group-II – H2S + dilute HCl
Group-III – NH4OH + NH4Cl
Group-IV – H2S + NH4OH
Final Answer : (4)
59) Explaining : Match the following aspects with the respective metal of 3d series.
Concept : This question is based on properties of d-block elements.
Solution :
ΔaH° (Vanadium) = 515 kJ mol–1
Copper in +1 oxidation state shows disproportionation in aqueous solution
Mn2+; μobs = 5.96 BM
Final Answer : (1)

60) Explaining : Find total number of aromatic species.

Concept : This question is based on aromaticity.
Solution : Cyclic, planar species having (4n + 2)π electrons in conjugation are aromatic in
nature.
Final Answer : (2)

61)

Explaining :
Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below :
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Concept : This question is based on B2H6
Solution :-
1. It has two 3-centre-2-electron bonds and four 2-centre-2-electron bonds. Hence, all B–H
bonds are not equivalent.
2. It is an electron deficient compound as the octet of boron is incomplete. Hence, it can
behave as a Lewis acid.
3. It is a non-planar molecule.
Hence, only Statements (C) and (D) are correct.
Final Answer : (3)

62)

Explaining : Find x and y

Concept : This question is based on rate law
Solution :
r = k[A]1[B]1
0.1 = k(20)1(0.5)1 …(i)
1 1
0.40 = k(x) (0.5) …(ii)
1 1
0.80 = k(40) (y) …(iii)
From (i) and (ii)
x = 80
From (i) and (iii)
y=2
Final Answer : (3)

63)

Explaining : Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell? (T = 298 K)
Sn + 2Ag+ → Sn2+ + 2Ag
Concept : This question is based on Nernst equation.
Solution :

As [Ag+] ↑, log term value decreases. Thus, Ecell ↑.

Final Answer : (3)

64)

Explaining : Which of the following is correct graphical representation of vapour pressure

with temperature for solvent and solution containing non volatile solute ?
Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point
Solution :

A non-volatile solid is added to the solvent its vapour pressure decreases and now it would
become equal to that of solid solvent at lower temperature. Thus, the freezing point of the
solvent decreases.
Final Answer : (4)

65)

Explaining : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Concept : This question is based on multiple concepts
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

66) Explaining : Analyse reason and assertion.

Concept : This question is based on disaccharides.
Solution : Sucrose involve glycosidic linkage between C1 of α-D-glucose and C2 of β-D-
fructose.
Final Answer : (1)

67) Explaining : Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in dimethyl sulfoxide solution ?
Concept : This question is based on nucleophilicity.
Solution : In PAS, strong anion is better nucleophile.
Final Answer : (1)

68) Explaining : Find the product.

Concept : This question is based on oxidation and reduction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

69) Explaining : The main product of following reaction will be:

Concept : This question is based on ESR or amines.
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

70) Explaining : Identify incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on stereoisomerism.
Solution : CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3 show optical isomerism.
Final Answer : (4)

71) Explaining : IUPAC naming.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming.
Solution :

Ethyl butanoate.
Final Answer : (2)

72) Explaining : Which one of the following is least stable resonating structure ?
Concept : This question is based on resonating structures.

Solution : is least stable due to incomplete octet of C⊕.

Final Answer : (3)

73) Explaining : Lattice energy.

Concept : This question is based on lattice energy .

Solution : L.E. ∝
Final Answer : (4)

74) Explaining : Bond length.

Concept : This question is based on back bonding.
Solution : BF3 has back bonding, so B–F length will be minimum.
Final Answer : (3)

75)

Explaining : Calculate pH of a solution whose 100 mL contains 0.2 g NaOH dissolved in it :-

Concept : This question is based on calculation of pH.
Solution :
[OH–] = = 5 × 10–2 M
pOH = –log [OH–] = –log 5 × 10–2 = 1.301
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1.301 = 12.699
Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : Graph based question.

Concept : This question is based on mole calculation.
Solution :
2g of H2 STP has volume 22.4 L
1g of H2 at STP has volume 11.2 L
similarly
2g of He = 11.2 L
3g of NH3 = 3.95 L
4g of CH4 = 5.6 L
Final Answer : (4)

77) Explaining : Total number of nodes, angular nodes and the radial nodes in case of 4f
orbital respectively are
Concept : This question is based on nodes.
Solution :
For 4f orbital n = 4, ℓ = 3
nodes = n –1 i.e. 3
Angular nodes (ℓ) = 3
Radial nodes = n –ℓ – 1 = 0
Final Answer : (2)

78) Explaining : N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g)

For the reaction, if the percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 25%, 50%, 75% and 100%, then the
sequence of observed vapour densities will be (d1, d2, d3 and d4 are vapour density at 25%,
50%, 75% and 100% dissociation respectively)
Concept : This question is based on vapour density.
Solution :

More α Less d
Final Answer : (1)

79) Explaining : The most acidic hydrogen in the following compound is :

Concept : This question is based on acidic strength.
Solution : Order of acidity : I > III > IV > II for acidic strength check stability of carbanion.
Final Answer : (1)

80) Explaining : Product (C) is :

Concept : This question is based on related to decarboxylation, aldol and reduction
Solution : Remove –CO2 then aldol condensation then reduction.
Final Answer : (2)

81) Explaining : The IUPAC name of unknown compound ‘Q’ is:

Concept : This question is based on ozonolysis then Wolf-Kishner reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

82) Explaining : Which compound does not undergo hydrolysis?

Concept : This question is based on hydrolysis.
Solution :
SF6 + H2O → ×
due to steric factor
Final Answer : (1)

83) Explaining : Which of the following is square planar and paramagnetic complex?
Concept : This question is based on VBT.
Solution :
[Cu(NH3)4]+2
0
Cu+2 = 4s 3d9

dsp2, paramagnetic
Final Answer : (4)

84) Explaining : The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are – 15.89 and
2.80 kCal mol–1 respectively. What will be the heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4 ?
Concept : This question is based on heat of hydration.
Solution :
CuSO4(s) CuSO4(aq)
∆H = –15.89 …(1)
CuSO4·5H2O(s) CuSO4(aq)
∆H = 2.8 Kcal …(2)
CuSO4(s) CuSO4·5H2O(s) …(3)
Eq.(3) = Eq.(1) – (2)
 ∆H = (–15.89) – (2.8)
∆H = –18.69 K cal
Final Answer : (1)

85) Explaining : Physical properties.

Concept : This question is based on physical properties.
Solution :
Boiling point of comparable molecular mass molecules
R–OH > Aldehyde – Ketone > Alkane
H-bonding Dipole-dipole interaction non-polar
(Strong molecular (Weak molecular association)
association)
Final Answer : (4)

86) Explaining : Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis
of their dipole moments ?
Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution :
μ = NH3 > NF3 > BF3
μ = 1.47 D, μ = 0.24 D, μ = 0 D
Final Answer : (4)

87) Explaining : In which of the following pairs, the ionisation energy of the first species is
less than that of the second
Concept : This question is based on ionisation energy.

Solution : For same element ions, I.E. ∝ positive charge ∝

Final Answer : (4)

88) Explaining : Match List-I with List-II :-

Concept : This question is based on atomic radii.
Solution :

List-I List-II
Elements Atomic radii (pm)
(a) O (i) 66 pm
(b) C (ii) 77 pm
(c) B (iii) 88 pm
(d) N (iv) 74 pm

B>C>N>O
As we move across the period from left to right atomic radius decreases due to increase in
nuclear charge.
Final Answer : (3)

89) Explaining : Which amongst the following is incorrect statement :-

Concept : This question is based on MOs diagram.
 Solution :
B2 BO = 1 B…….π…….B
, total e¯ = 1 ⇒ B.O = 0.5
⇒ 16 e¯ ⇒ unpaired e¯ = 2
⇒ paramagnetic
Be2 ⇒ total e = 8, BO = 0
⇒ so does not exist
Final Answer : (3)

90) Explaining : Which of the following oxide is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide
?
Concept : This question is based on nature of oxide.
Solution :
CaO is not expected to react with NaOH because NaOH is a base and it can only react with
either an acidic oxide or an amphoteric oxide.
Among given option BeO is an amphoteric oxide while B2O3 and SiO2 are acidic oxides. Thus all
of them react with NaOH to form salts. CaO, on the other hand, is a basic oxide and hence it
will not react with NaOH.
Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution : A is golgi body where proteins are modified.

Final Answer : (3)

92) Explanation:

A zwitterion is a molecule with both a positively charged and a negatively charged functional
group but remains overall neutral. This is typically seen in amino acids at physiological pH,
where:

A. The carboxyl group (-COOH) loses a proton, forming -COO⁻ (negative charge).

B. The amine group (-NH₂) gains a proton, forming -NH₃⁺ (positive charge).

In the given options, Q is the correct structure that exists in the zwitterionic form.

Final Answer: (4)

93)
Explain Question:
This question is asking about correct matching of plant secondary metabolites with their
respective categories.

Concept:
Biomolecules – secondary metabolites in plants.

Solution:
Carotenoids are pigments, ricin is a toxin, diterpenes belong to terpenoids, and morphine is a
alkaloid.

Final answer: option (2)

94)

Question Explanation: The question asks to observe the given diagram and select the
correct option.

Concept: Special crosses.

Solution:

It is the diagrammatic representation of a test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
organisms. So, the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: 4.

95) The correct answer is (b) Law of segregation*. The figure showing meiosis can effectively
shows how alleles are segregated to gametes but doesn’t portrait independent assortment
which will result in 4 different combinations.

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 3

Complementary base pairing.
 97) Solution : BAC and YAC
Final Answer : (3)

98) Solution : External factor which affect photosynthesis are Light, Atmospheric CO2
concentration, Temperature and Water.
Final Answer : (3)

99) Explain Question: The question is asking about assertion and reason
Concept: Chemiosmotic hypothesis
Solution: H+ gradient across the thylakoid membrane is essential for the formation of ATP.
This is the basis of chemiosmotic theory in photosynthesis. The proton gradient across the
thylakoid membrane drives ATP synthesis. "Breakdown of H+ gradient due to the movement of
protons through F0 of ATPase releases enough energy to activate ATPase enzyme that
catalyses the formation of ATP." As protons flow down the gradient through the F0 part of ATP
synthase, energy is released. This energy activates F1 subunit, catalyzing the conversion of
ADP + Pi → ATP. Final Answer (1)

100) Solution : Each NADH2 and FADH2 is oxidised through ETS and produce 3 and 2 ATP
respectively.
2NADH2 + 2FADH2
= 2 x 3 ATP + 2 x 2 ATP
= 6 + 4 ATP = 10 ATP
Final Answer : (2)

101) Solution : In Cassia and Gulmohar, the aestivation is imbricate because the margins of
petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction.
Final Answer : (1)

102)

The correct answer is: 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: 1. Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size

A. Correct.

Mycoplasma are among the smallest known bacteria, with a size range of 0.2-0.3 microns, allowing
their to pass through filters with a pore size of less than 1 micron. This property is a defining feature
of Mycoplasma.
2. Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall

A. Incorrect.

Mycoplasma are unique among bacteria because they lack a cell wall. Instead, they have a flexible
cell membrane containing sterols, which help them survive in different environments.

103) Solution : Classification of fungi is mainly based on type of mycelium, fruit body and
spore formation.
Final Answer : (2)

104) Explanation: Bryophytes have a dominant gametophyte stage (haploid, n), while the
sporophyte (diploid, 2n) is dependent on the gametophyte for nutrition, making it parasitic (
complete parasitic in liverworts and partially parasitic in mosses )
Final Answer : (3)

105) Solution : Oogamy is found in Marchantia.

Final Answer : (2)

106) Solution : Sequence of cell cycle - G1 → S → G2 → M

Final Answer : (1)

107) Explaion Question: The question is asking about incorrect regarding the plasma
membrane is eukaryotic cells.
Concept: The plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells
Solution: (C) Protein synthesis occurs in ribosomes, not in the plasma membrane in
eukaryotic cells.
Final Answer: (4)

108) Solution : Metaxylem is found inward.

Final Answer : (1)

109) Question Explanation: The question asks which option correctly represents the floral
diagram of a disc floret found in marigold and sunflower (Asteraceae).

Concept: Asteraceae disc floret characters (Actinomorphic, bisexual, epigynous,

gamopetalous).

Solution:

Disc florets are actinomorphic, bisexual, have syngenesious stamens, and an inferior ovary.
The given diagram shows 5 united petals, 5 stamens fused around the style, and an inferior
ovary, which matches the disc floret of Asteraceae.

Final Answer: Option (2)

110) Explaining the Question : The question is asking about fermentation
Concept : Anaerobic respiration
Solution : Statement-I: Incorrect-In lactic acid fermentation, lactate dehydrogenase converts
pyruvate into lactic acid.
Statement-II: Correct- In both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation, NADH + H+ is oxidized
to NAD+. This regeneration of NAD+ is essential to keep glycolysis running under anaerobic
conditions.
Final Answer : (4)

111) Solution : Starch actually gives Iodine test and Insulin is a protein not carbohychate.
Final Answer : (2)

112) Question Explanation: DNA quantity and polymorphism

Concept: DNA fingerprinting requirements
Solution: Statement I is correct – DNA from a single cell is sufficient for DNA
fingerprinting. Statement II is correct – all tissues of an individual have identical DNA, so
the degree of polymorphism is the same.
Final Answer: (4)

113) Solution : A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Different reaction, enzymes and products involved in photosynthesis are mentioned in NCERT.
Final Answer : (2)

114) Solution : Minimum 1% frequency is required for polymorphism.

Final Answer : (3)

115) Explain Question : The question is asking about the structural characteristics of a
double-stranded DNA molecule.

Concept : DNA Structure And Features

Explanation : “The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm. There are roughly 10 base pairs in each turn.
Consequently, the distance between a base pair in a helix is approximately 0.34 nm and a turn

of the helix involves ten base pairs, i.e., a 360° turn.”

Final answer : 2

116)

The correct answer is:

3. Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified allele
If the modified allele produces a normal enzyme, it would function the same as the unmodified
allele. Both would result in the same enzyme activity and phenotype.
Therefore, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele, making statement 3 not
true.

117) Solution : x 1024 = 576

Final Answer : (4)

118)

Plants including algae, fungi, bryophyte, lichens, gymnosperms and angiosperms, comprise no
more than 22% of the total species.

119) Solution : Meiosis-I results in formation of diad of cells with half number of
chromosomes in each cells as compare to mother cell.
Final Answer : (2)

120) Solution : 6KJ ← 60KJ ← 600KJ ← 6000KJ

Final Answer : (4)

121) Solution : Gross primary productivity (GPP) is always more than net primary
productivity (NPP) because it includes respiration loss also.
Final Answer : (1)

122) Solution : Energy available at second trophic level is 100 KJ (food for third trophic level).
Final Answer : (1)

123) Solution : K is maximum number of individuals supported by the habitat.

Final Answer : (2)

124)

Characters are related with family Malvaceae -

(a) Stamens - Infinite not five
(b) Placentation - Axile not Marginal
(c) Stamens - Infinite
(d) Aestivation - Twisted

125) Solution : Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

Final Answer : (3)

126)

Characters related with Poaceae family.

(a) Placentation - Basal
(b) Stigma - Feathery
(c) Fruit - Caryopsis not cypsela
(d) Flower - Trimerous not pentamerous

127) Solution : Both plant hormones are responsible for flowering in pineapple.
Final Answer : (3)

128) Explain Question: The question is asking about the correct set of statements
Concept: Biomolecules
Solution: The correct set statements:
(a) Inulin is a polysaccharide composed of fructose unit linked linear (β-2, 1-linkage).
(b) Sucrose is a made of glucose and fructose linked in such a way (no free aldehyde or ketone
group) that it does not reduce Fehling's or Benedict's reagent.
(c) Many globular proteins (Tertiary structures) are soluble in water, e.g., enzymes,
hemoglobin.
(d) Most functional proteins in cells are in tertiary form, like enzymes and transport proteins.
Final Answer (4)

129)

It is globular embryo stage of embryonic development of dicot embryo.

130) Solution : In case of cleistogamy, the flowers do not open and pollination is confirmed
with pollinator.
Final Answer : (4)

131) Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

132) Solution : Population is expanding if pre-reproductive individuals are more than

reproductive.
Final Answer : (2)

133) Solution : All are exotic species in India.

 Final Answer : (4)

134)

The correct answer is 2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

Explanation:

A. Statement-I: "The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight" is

correct. Biomass can be measured either as the fresh weight or dry weight of organisms.
B. Statement-II: "Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate" is correct.
Dry weight is preferred because it eliminates the variable of water content, giving a more
accurate and consistent measure of the actual organic material in an organism.

Thus, both statements are true.

135) Solution : Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen (–196°C) to retain their viability
for longer duration of time
Final Answer : (3)

136) Solution : A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv, E–v

Final Answer : (3)

137) Solution : A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

(A) Glycosuria (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(B) Renal calculi (iii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney

(C) Glomerulonephritis (ii) Inflammation in Glomerulus

(D) Gout (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

Final Answer : (3)

138) Solution : Exophthalmic goiter— Hyperthyroidism

Final Answer : (4)

139) Solution : A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(A) Hinge joint (iii) Elbow joint

(B) Saddle joint (iv) Between Carpals and metacarpal of thumb

(C) Cartilaginous joint (i) Ribs & Sternum

(D) Fibrous joint (ii) Sutures

Final Answer : (2)

140) Solution : Triploblastic organisms are :

Echinus — Echinodermata; Hyla — Chordata; Calotes — Chordata
Members of phylum Echinodermata and Chordata are Triploblastic.
 Final Answer : (2)

141) Solution : Open type of circulatory system is present in the members of phylum
Hemichordata, Arthropoda and Subphylum urochordata.
Final Answer : (2)

142) Solution : Figure given in statement-I represents Adipose tissue and the figure given in
statement-II represent Areolar tissue.
Final Answer : (3)

143) Solution : Adeno virus causes respiratory infections.

Final Answer : (2)

144) Solution : In the frog, sinus venosus receives blood through the major veins called
venacava. The ventricles open into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the ventral side of heart.
Final Answer : (2)

145) Solution : Compound epithelium is made up of 2 or more layer. It provide protection

against mechanical and chemical stresses.
Final Answer : (4)

146) Solution : Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

147) Solution : A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

A. Erythrocytes IV. Most abundant of all cells in blood

B. AB blood group III. Universal recipient

C. Neutrophils I. Phagocytic cells

Resist infection and are also associated

D. Eosinophils II.
with Allergic reactions
Final Answer : (2)

148) Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

149) Solution :
 Final Answer : (1)

150) Solution : (A-V), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I, III)

Final Answer : (3)

151) Solution : Given image is related with temporary contraceptive device copper-T and site
of implant is uterine cavity.
Final Answer : (3)

152) Solution : A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4

A. Wuchereria bancrofti 3. Lymph vessels

B. Plasmodium vivax 1. Erythrocytes

C. Trichophyton 5. Skin folds

D. Entamoeba histolytica 4. Large intestine

Final Answer : (2)

153) Solution : Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and
chance mutation in the organisms.
Final Answer : (4)

154) Solution :
Aspergillus niger - Citric acid,
Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid
Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Ethanol
Final Answer : (3)

155) Solution : The first restriction endonuclease discovered was Hind II.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Solution : Tympanum represent the ear.

Final Answer : (3)

157) Solution : Compound eyes are situated at dorsal surface of head . Each eye has 2000
hexagonal ommatidia.
Final Answer : (1)

158) Solution : Afferent arteriole is a branch of renal artery vasa recta present in Juxta
medullary nephron.
Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution : In cortical nephrones vasa recta highly reduce and peritubular capillary
network present.
Final Answer : (1)

160) Solution : Thyroxine - Metabolism, Cortisol - Life saving hormone, Melatonin - Normal
rhythm
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

162) Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : Man order = Primata, Class-Mammalia, Genus = Homo

Final Answer : (4)

164) Solution : (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Column-I Column-II
(a) Spooling (iv) Collection of fine threads of DNA

(b) Elution (i) Cutting out & extraction of DNA from gel

(c) Transformation (iii) Piece of DNA introduced into host bacterium

(d) Molecular scissors (ii) Restriction endonuclease

Final Answer : (2)

165) Solution :

olumn-I Column-II

a Mole i Marsupial mole

b Anteater iv Numbat

c Mouse ii Marsupial mouse

d Lemur iii Spotted cuscus

Final Answer : (1)

166) Solution : They lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years back.
Final Answer : (4)

167) Solution : Two key concepts of Darwin's work are natural selection and branching
descent. The essence of Darwinsm is natural selection, this process is primary mechanism
Final Answer : (2)

168)

Explain Question: The question asks the assertion and reason statements and selects the
correct option.

Concept: Colourblindness.

Solution:

Assertion (A) : A girl child can never be colorblind if her father is not colorblind.

Reason (R) : Colorblindness is an x-linked recessive disorder.

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

So, the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: 4.

169) Solution :
 Final Answer : (1)

170) Explain Question: To identity the correct about menstrual cycle?

Concept: This question is based on menstrual cycle.
Explanation:
(A) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause. (Incorrect)
(B) Menstruation occurs if the released secondary oocyte is not fertilised. (correct)
(C) During pregenancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
(correct)
(D) In mammals, menstrual cycles cease around 50 years of age. (correct)

Final Answer: (2)

171) Statement I : Correct. Addiction is indeed a psychological attachment to the effects such
as euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being that drugs and alcohol provide.
Statement II : Incorrect. With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors
present in our body actually increases, not decreases, which can lead to the need for higher
doses to achieve the same effect.

172) Solution : Most infected cells are macrophages and T helper cells
Final Answer : (4)

173)

Negatively Charged DNA - Moves toward anode in electric field.

Sieving Effect - Smaller DNA fragments travel farther.
Elution - Extracting DNA fragments from gel.
Anode - Positive terminal in gel electrophoresis.

174) Solution :

Column-I Column-II
(Method) (Description)

Increases efficiency of DNA uptake by increasing permeability of

A Calcium Treatment 1
bacterial membrane.

B Heat Shock 2 Brief exposure of cells to high temperature to facilitate DNA uptake.

C Microinjection 3 Direct injection of DNA into the nucleus of an animal cell.

D Gene Gun 4 Bombarding plant cells with micro-particles coated with DNA.
Final Answer : (1)

175)

Solution:
Bt cotton is genetically modified to produce a protein from the bacterium Bacillus
thuringiensis, which is toxic to certain pests, particularly the bollworm. This modification leads
to higher yields and better protection against these pests.

Hence,
Correct option: (2) High yield and resistance to bollworms

176)

Assertion is correct, some of columnar or cuboidal cells gets specialised for secretion and are
called glandular epithelium.
Reason is incorrect, not columnar but cuboidal epithelium is found in duct of glands and
tubular part of nephron in kidney.

177) Solution : TLC - RV = VC

Maximum volume of air a person can breath in after a forced expiration or the max. volume of
air a person can breath out after a forced inspiration.
Final Answer : (2)

178)

(a) Superior vena cava :- Brings deoxygenated blood from upper parts of body into right
atrium.
(b) Inferior vena cava :- Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of body into right atrium.
(c) Pulmonary artery :- Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs.
(d) Pulmonary vein :- Carries oxygenated blood from lungs.

179) Solution :

L
Final Answer : (1)

180) Solution :
Final Answer : (1)