25-02-2026

1016CMD303031250049 MD

PHYSICS

1) A man M slides down a curved frictionless track, starting from rest. The curve obeys the equation

y= . The tangential acceleration of man is

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot
of light P moves along the wall at a distance 3m. What is the velocity of the spot P when θ = 45° ?

(1) 0.6 m/s

(2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 0.4 m/s
(4) 0.3 m/s

3) One end of a string of length is fixed and a mass of 1 kg is tied to the other end. The ball
is given a velocity at the bottom most point A as shown in figure. The string is cut when it

becomes horizontal. Find the total distance travelled by ball till it stop for the 1st time (Take
).

(1) 3 m
(2) 28/9 m
(3) 18/7 m
(4) 4 m

4) A grind-stone starts revolving from rest, if its angular acceleration is 4.0 rad/sec2 (uniform) then
after 4 sec. What is its angular displacement & angular velocity respectively:

(1) 32 rad, 16 rad/sec

(2) 16 rad, 32 rad/sec
(3) 64 rad, 32 rad/sec
(4) 32 rad, 64 rad/sec

5) A motorcyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km per hour on a flat road takes a turn on the road at
a point, where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 meter. The acceleration due to gravity is 10
m/sec2. In order to avoid skidding, he must not bend with respect to the vertical by an angle greater
than :

(1) θ = tan–1 6
(2) θ = tan–1 2
(3) θ = tan–1 (25.92)
(4) θ = tan–1 4

6) A block of mass m is pushed towards the movable wedge of mass M and height h, with a velocity
v0. All surfaces are smooth. The minimum value of v0 for which the block will reach the top of the

wedge is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) A body of mass m moving with a velocity u in the +x-direction collides with a body of mass M
moving with velocity V in the +y-direction. They stick together during collision. Then :

(1)
the loss of kinetic energy as a result of collision is

(2)
the composite body moves in a direction making an angle with the x-axis

(3)
the magnitude of momentum of the composite body is
(4) All the above choice are correct

8) A wooden block of mass M rests on a horizontal surface. A bullet of mass m moving in the
horizontal direction strikes and gets embedded in it. The combined system covers a distance x on the
surface. If the coefficient of friction between wood and the surface is µ, the speed of the bullet at the
time of striking the block is (where m is mass of the bullet)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A cart of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope of length 10m. The other end of the rope is

in the hands of a man of mass . The entire system is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. If the
man pulls the cart by the rope then find the distance the man will slip on the horizontal surface
before the man & the cart will meet each other.

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) None

10) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A) : When a fire cracker (rocket) explodes in mid air, its fragments fly in such a way that
they continue moving in the same path, which the fire cracker would have followed, had it not
exploded
Reason (R) : Explosion of cracker (rocket) occurs due to internal forces only and no external force
acts for this explosion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

11) The rate of flow of water in a capillary tube of length ℓ and radius r is V. The rate of flow in
another capillary tube of length 2ℓ and radius 2r for same pressure difference would be :-

(1) 16 V
(2) 9 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 2 V

12) A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative density
0.75. If relative density of silver is 10, then tension (in N) in the string will be :
[take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 35
(2) 37
(3) 39
(4) 40

13) A metallic wire of density d is lying horizontal on the surface of water (surface tension = T). The
maximum length of wire so that it may not sink will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) any length

14) When the load on a wire is increased from 3 kg-wt to 5 kg-wt the elongation increases from 0.61
mm to 1.02 mm. The required work done during the extension of the wire is :-

(1) 16 × 10–3 J
(2) 8 × 10–2 J
(3) 20 × 10–2 J
(4) 11 × 10–3 J

15) An iron casting containing a number of cavities weighs W in air and W0 in water. What is the
volume of cavities in the casting ? (density of iron & water are ρi & ρw respectively)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Water is flowing through a horizontal tube according to the figure. Its diameter at two points are
0.3 m and 0.1 m respectively. Pressure difference between these two points is equal to 0.8 m of

water column. Find rate of flow of water in the tube.

(1) 32 ltr/s
(2) 72 ltr/s
(3) 198 ltr/s
(4) 49.5 ltr/s

17) A container of large uniform cross-sectional area A is resting on a horizontal surface holds two

immiscible, non-viscous and incompressible liquids of densities d and 2d each of height as shown.
The lower density of liquid is open to atmosphere. A small hole is made on the wall of container at

height from floor. The initial speed of efflux of the liquid at the hole is :-

(1) (3H – 4h) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Water (density ρ) is flowing through the uniform tube of cross-sectional area A with a constant
speed v as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force exerted by the water on the curved corner of
the tube is (neglect viscous forces)

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

19) A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 25 m2. If the
speed of the air on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing are 270 km h–1 and 234 km h–1
respectively, then the mass of the plane is (Take the density of the air = 1 kg m–3)

(1) 1550 kg
(2) 1750 kg
(3) 3500 kg
(4) 3200 kg

20) The thin rod shown below has mass M and length L. A force F acts at one end as shown and the
rod is free to rotate about the other end in horizontal plane. Initial angular acceleration of the rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5 g are put
one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the
mass of the metre stick ?

(1) 33g
(2) 66g
(3) 99g
(4) None of these

22) A solid sphere rolls without slipping on a rough surface and the centre of mass has a constant
speed v0. If the mass of the sphere is m and its radius is R, then find the angular momentum of the

sphere about the point of contact.

(1) 0
Mv R

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Statement I : A body rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The fraction of total energy
associated with its rotation will depend on its radius of gyration.
Statement II : Total kinetic energy of rolling body is equal to addition of kinetic energy of rotation
and kinetic energy of translation.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

24) A solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a level surface at a constant speed of 2.0 ms–1. How
far can it roll up a 30° ramp before it stops? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 56 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 53 cm
(4) 84 cm

25) A rod of length L and mass M0 is bent to form a semicircular ring as shown. The M.I. about X'X is

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Shown in the figure is rigid and uniform one meter long rod AB
held in horizontal position by two strings tied to its ends and attached to the ceiling. The rod is of
mass 'm' and has another weight of mass 2 m hung at a distance of 75 cm from A. The tension in the
string at A is :

(1) 2mg
(2) mg/2
(3) (3/4)mg
(4) mg

27) In the given figure a sphere of radius 2m rolls without sliding on a plank. The acceleration of the
sphere and plank are indicated. The value of angular acceleration α is :-

(1) 2 rad/s2
(2) 1 rad/s2
(3) 3 rad/s2
(4) 4 rad/s2

28) A particle is moving in circle with uniform speed as shown. The angular momentum of the

particle w.r.t. origin is :-

(1) Constant in magnitude only

(2) Constant in magnitude as well as direction
(3) Constant in direction only
(4) Variable in magnitude as well as direction

29) Minimum force F required to make the block topple about the edge is: (mass of block is m)
(1) 2mg/3
(2) 3mg/2
(3) 4mg/3
(4) 3mg/4

30) Assertion (A): The time period of revolution of a satellite close to surface of earth is smaller
than that revolving far from surface of earth
Reason (R): The square of time period of revolution of a satellite is directly proportional to cube of
its orbital radius.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

31) Five point masses m each are placed at five corners of a regular pentagon. Distance of any
corner from centre is r. Match the following two columns.(Symbols have their usual meaning)

Column I Column II

A Gravitational field strength at centre P Gm/r2

B Gravitational potential at centre Q 4 Gm/r

When one mass is removed gravitational field strength (magnitude) at

C R zero
centre.

D When one mass is removed gravitational potential at centre S None of these

(1) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→S
(2) A→R, B→P, C→S, D→Q
(3) A→S, B→R, C→P, D→Q
(4) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P

32) Find gravitational field at point (2, 3) if gravitational potential is given by V = 5x2y.

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) A projectile is projected with velocity kve in vertically upward direction from the surface of earth
into the space (ve is escape velocity and k < 1). If air resistance is considered to be negligible then
the maximum height from the centre of earth to which it can go, will be: (R = radius of earth) :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Two identical satellite A and B revolve round the earth in circular orbits at distance R and 3R
from the surface of the earth. The ratio of the linear momentum of A and B is (R=radius of the earth)
:-

(1) 1:1
(2)
(3)
(4) 2:1

35) The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit very close to earth surface is V. The
velocity of another satellite orbiting in circular orbit at height 3R from earth's surface will be (R =
Radius of Earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A ring of mass M and radius R is fixed in y–z plane with centre at origin. A point mass M0 is
placed at centre of ring. If point mass M0 is displaced slightly along x-axis and released find the time
when point mass again reach the centre.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) While revolving around the earth, a satellite has kinetic energy K, potential energy U and total
energy E. If the value of is x and is y then ratio is :-

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 3 : 2

38) A narrow glass U-tube whose one limb is of diameter 3.0mm and other limb of diameter 6.0 mm
is partially filled with water. The difference in the level of water in two limbs will be
[Given density of water = 1.0 × 103 kg m–3, surface tension of water = 7.2 × 10–2 Nm–1 ; angle of
contact between glass and water to be taken as zero and g = 10ms–2]

(1) 2.4mm
(2) 3.6mm
(3) 4.8mm
(4) zero

39) Match the terms in list-I with suitable options in list-II

List-I List-II

A. Concave menisus P cohesive & adhesive forces

B. Convex menisus Q cohesive forces

C. Capillary action R adhesive forces dominate

Bigger drop splits into smaller

D. S temperature decreases
drops

E. Surface tension T cohesive forces dominate

(1) A → R, B → T, C → S, D → P, E → Q
(2) A → T, B → R, C → P, D → Q, E → S
(3) A → R, B → T, C → P, D → S, E → Q
(4) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → T, E → Q

40) A thin plate separates two liquids of coefficients of viscosity η and 4η kept between two fixed

plates as shown. If plate has to be pulled by applying minimum force then is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) The angle of contact between glass and water is 0° and it rises in a capillary upto 6 cm when its
surface tension is 70 dynes/cm. Another liquid of surface tension 140 dynes/cm, angle of contact 60°
and relative density 2 will rise in the same capillary by:

(1) 12 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 6 cm

42) A container filled with viscous liquid is moving vertically downwards with constant speed 3v0. At
the instant shown, a sphere of radius r is moving vertically downwards (in liquid) has speed v0 wrt
ground. The coefficient of viscosity is η. There is no relative motion between the liquid and the
container. Then at the shown instant, the magnitude of viscous force acting on sphere is

(1) 6 π η r v0
(2) 12 π η r v0
(3) 18 π η r v0
(4) 24 π η r v0

43) A capillary tube with inner cross-section in the form of a square of side a is dipped vertically in a
liquid of density ρ and surface tension σ liquid wet the surface of capillary tube with angle of contact
θ. The approximate height to which liquid will be raised in the tube is : (Neglect the effect of surface
tension at the corners of capillary tube)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

44) The amount of force needed to pull out a regular hexagonal figure made of wire, perpendicular
to its plane from liquid of surface tension 'T' will be:-
(assume mass of wire is m, side = a)

(1) 12 aT + mg
(2) aT – mg
(3) 12 aT
(4) 6aT + mg
45) Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and other made of brass are loaded as shown
in figure. The unloaded length of the steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass is 1.0 m. Young's modulus
of steel is 2.0 × 1011 Pa and that of brass is 1.0 × 1011 Pa. The ratio of elongations of steel and brass

wires.

(1) 1.25
(2) 1.5
(3) 2.0
(4) 0.5

CHEMISTRY

1) The highest probability of finding the electron in an orbital having values of quantum numbers n
= 3, ℓ = 1.

(1) In between any two axis out of three.

(2) On any two axis simultaneously, perpendicular to each other.
(3) On any one axis out of the three at a time.
(4) On all the three axis simultaneously at a time.

2) The set of ions which has same magnetic moment?

(1) Co+2, Cr+3, V+3

(2) Mn+2, Fe+3, Cr+
(3) Ni+2, Mn+2, Co+2
(4) Fe+2, Mn+2, Co+2

3) Ratio of wavelength of photon corresponding to γ-line of Paschen series in Li2+ ion and β line of
Balmer series in He+ is -

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 3 : 16

4) What will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths for two electrons which are accelerated through
100 volts and 400 volts respectively ?

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1

5) The radius of any two of the first four Bohr's orbits of the hydrogen atom are in the ratio 1 : 4. The
energy difference between them may be :-

(1) Either 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV

(2) Either 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(3) Either 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV
(4) Either 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV

6) In a hydrogen like species , an electron jumps from an orbital having two radial and two angular
nodes to the orbital having same sign and value of wave function in all direction, at any particular
distance. If the energy of emitted photon is 326.4 eV, the atom or ion is

(1) H
(2) Li2+
(3) He+
(4) B4+

7)

Atoms are such that is an isobar of and atom is isotone of . Mass

number of ‘X’ & number of neutrons in Y are respectively

(1) 8, 8
(2) 17, 7
(3) 9, 8
(4) 16, 8

8) The number of photons in a radiation of wavelength 662.6 nm that provide 3 J of energy are :

(1) 109
(2) 1019
(3) 1028
(4) 0.33 × 109

9) α-particles are projected towards the following metals, with the same kinetic energy. Towards
which metal, the distance of closest approach is minimum.

(1) Cr
(2) Ag
(3) Cu
(4) Pt
10) The uncertainty in position of an electron is equal to its de-broglie wavelength. The minimum
percentage error in its measurement of velocity under this circumtance will be approximately:-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 22
(4) 18

11) Which of the following does not show conductivity ?

(1) Na(s)
(2) AlF3(ℓ)
(3) KClO4(aq.)
(4) HCl(ℓ)

12) In which of the following conversion both hybridisation and shape changes with respect to
central atom?

+
(1) H2O → H3O
(2) 2ClO3 → Cl2O6
(3) 2NO2 → N2O4
(4) 2CH3 → C2H6

13) Correct order of decreasing adjacent bond angle is :-

(1)
(2) XeO3 > XeF4 > BrF5
(3) XeO3 < BrF5 > XeF4
(4) XeF4 > XeO3 > BrF5

14) Which of the following shows correct order of ionic character ?

(1) ZnO < ZnS

(2) PbCl2 < PbCl4
(3) AgCl < AgBr
(4) PCl3 > PCl5

15) Identify the iso-structural pair from the following

(i) SiCl4, SnCl4 (ii) NH3, NO3–
(iii) NH3, (iv) CO2, SO2

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iii)
16) Which of the following order is correct ?

(1) CO > CO2 (C–O Bond length)

(2)
(Bond strength)
(3) (Bond order)
(4) LiF > Li2O (Lattice energy)

17) Identify the incorrect statement in the following.

(1) The colour intensity of PbI2 is greater than PbCl2

(2) The acidic character of Mn2O7 is greater than MnO2
(3) HgCl2 having greater covalent character than ZnCl2
(4) Melting point of KCl is more than KF.

18) Assertion (A) :- SeCl4 does not have a regular tetrahedral structure.
Reason (R) :- Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false

19) How many of the following are non-polar ? , XeF4, PCl3F2, XeF6,
N2O4

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

20) Assertion :- Boiling point of H2SO4 is more than HNO3.

Reason :- H2SO4 have more extent of intra molecular H-bonding than HNO3.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is a correct explanation of assertion.

21) Consider the following statements & select the correct option.
Statement I : A polyatomic molecule can have zero dipole moment.
Statement II : It is necessary for a polyatomic molecule to have linear geometry to exhibit dipole
moment zero.

(1) Statement I is correct & statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement II is correct & statement I is incorrect.
(3) Both the statements are correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

22) Which of the following is correct ?

Compound Types of bond length

(1) H2O 4

(2) Cr2O72– 3

(3) SF6 2

(4) PCl5 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Assertion : Ionic compounds exhibits electrical conductivity in solution state.

Reason : In solution state electrons of ionic compounds are free.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

24) XeOF4 contain which type of π-bond?

(1) pπ–pπ
(2) pπ–dπ
(3) dπ–dπ
(4) both 2 and 3

25) Assertion (A) : F2 is gas while I2 is solid at room temperature.

Reason (R) : A larger molecule or heavy atom is more polarizable and has larger dispersion force
(vander wall forces)

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

26) In ICl2+ , ICl2– and ICl4– sum of bond pair and lone pair on each iodine atom are respectively -
(1) 2, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 2
(3) 4, 5 and 4
(4) 4, 5 and 6

27) The geometry and hybridisation of SCl4 will be

(1) T – shape, sp3

(2) Distorted tetrahedral, sp3d
(3) Tetrahedral, sp3
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d

28)

List-I List-II
(Pair of (Same characteristics
species) in pair)

d-orbital
participation in
(P) (CH4,NH3) (1) hybridisation of
central atom is
observed

Tetrahedral
electronic
(Q) (PF5, ICℓ3) (2)
geometry of
central atom

Atleast one
(R) (BeCℓ2,SO3) (3) pπ–pπ bond is
present

(S) (CO2, SO2) (4) Planar

All possible bond

(5)
angles are ≥ 90°

The correct code is :-

(1) P→2,4; Q→2; R→4,5; S→2,3,5
(2) P→2,3; Q→3; R→1,3; S→1,4,5
(3) P→2,5; Q→1; R→4,5; S→3,4,5
(4) P→2,5; Q→1; R→1,2; S→2,4,5

29) According to VSEPR method which of the following structure of XeO2F2 is CORRECT.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30)
(θ1, θ2 = bond angle)
d1, d2 are P-F and P-Cl bond length respectively.
Choose correct order of θ1, θ2 and d1, d2 both

(1) θ1 > θ2, d2 > d1

(2) θ2 > θ1, d2 > d1
(3) θ1 < θ2, d1 > d2
(4) θ1 > θ2, d1 > d2

31) Which pair of element have same number of electron in their valence shell :-

(1) Na, Sr
(2) Se, Te
(3) Mn, Fe
(4) He, Ne

32) Atomic number of element E is 56. What should be the formula of its halide ?

(1) EX
(2) E2X
(3) EX2
(4) E2X3

33) Correct order of IP :-

(1) Zn > Ga
(2) Cd > In
(3) Hg > Tl
(4) All
34) Incorrect statement for the given configuration :- [Xe]4f75d16s2

(1) It is placed in d-block, IIIB group, 6th period

(2) It is a natural element
(3) It has maximum unpaired e– in lanthanide series.
(4) This element is Gd

35) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(Position of element
(Atomic number)
in Periodic table)

(A) Z = 37 (P) p-block

(B) Z = 42 (Q) f-block

(C) Z = 34 (R) d-block

(D) Z = 92 (S) s-block

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

36) Which of the following is correct size order?

(1) N < C < Si < P

(2) Be < B < Al < Mg
(3) Cu < Zn < Ba < K
(4) F < O < S < Cl

37) Which of the following electron affinity order is incorrect ?

(1) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs

(2) O > S > Se > Te
(3) Cl > F > Br > I
(4) Li > B > Be

38) Which of the following order of ionic radius is correct?

(1) La+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3

(2) La+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < Yb+3
(3) Yb+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < La+3
(4) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3

39) Incorrect set is :-

(a) IP (Na < Li < B < Be)
(b) EA (N < P < O < S)
(c) EN (S < O < Cl < F)
(d) Size (F < N < O < Na)

(1) a
(2) a, b
(3) a, b, c
(4) c, d

40) What is the correct order of ionisation energy ?

(1) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl

(2) B < Al > Ga > In > Tl
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(4) B > Al ≤ Ga < In < Tl

41) Which is correct order ?

(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (Acidic nature)

(2) HOCl > HOBr > HOI (Acidic nature)
(3) NaOH > Mg(OH)2 (Basic nature)
(4) All of these

42) The correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si is ?

(1) N < P < C < Si

(2) P > N > Si > C
(3) N = P > C = Si
(4) N > C > P > Si

43) Correct order of EA is :

(1) O > Cl > N > C

(2) Cl > C > O > N
(3) Cl > O > C > N
(4) N > C > O > Cl

44) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II : Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
45) Assertion : Electronegativity of nitrogen is greater than carbon.
Reason : Nitrogen has stable half filled electronic configuration.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Correctly match column-I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Golgi apparatus (P) Chromatin (i) Protein synthesis

(B) Ribosome (Q) Cristae (ii) Packaging and secretion

(C) Nucleus (R) Cisternae (iii) Controller of cell

(D) Mitochondria (S) RNA and proteins (iv) Aerobic respiration

(1) (A)-(P)-(i), (B)-(Q)-(ii), (C)-(R)-(iii), (D)-(S)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(R)-(ii), (B)-(P)-(i), (C)-(S)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(R)-(ii), (B)-(S)-(i), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)
(4) (A)-(S)-(ii), (B)-(R)-(i), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)

2) Read the following statements :

(a) The mitochondria divide by fission
(b) The ribosomes of the chloroplast are smaller (70S) than the cytoplasmic ribosomes (80S)
(c) Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins and are not surrounded by any
membrane
(d) Nucleus as a cell organelle was first described by Robert Brown.
(e) Acrocentric chromosome has a terminal centromere.
Choose the correct statements :

(1) a, b, d & e
(2) b, c, d & e
(3) a, c, d & e
(4) a, b, c & d

3) Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct option :–

Column-I Column-II

(A) Hydrolytic enzymes (i) Gives the appearance of small fragment

(B) Osmoregulation & excretion (ii) Present in prokaryotic cell

(C) Peripheral triplet (iii) Centriole

(D) Non staining secondary constriction (iv) Centromere

 (v) pH 5

(vi) Vacuole

(vii) Basal body

(1) (A)-(v), (B)-(vi), (C)-(iii),(vii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(v),(vi), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i),(iv), (D)-(ii),(vii)
(3) (A)-(ii),(v), (B)-(vi), (C)-(iii),(vii), (D)-(i),(iv)
(4) (A)-(v), (B)-(vi),(vii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i),(iii)

4) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in mechanical support, DNA replication,
motility etc.
Statement-II :- An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures consisting of
microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filament present in the cytoplasm is collectively
referred to as the cytoskeleton.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) Both the statements are correct

5) Match the given organelle in column-I with their related functions in column-II and select correct
option -

Column-I Column-II

Smooth endoplasmic
(A) (I) Lipid synthesis
reticulum

(B) Lysosome (II) Hydrolysis of food

Storage of secretary & waste

(C) Vacuole (III)
product

Rough endoplasmic Actively involved in protein

(D) (IV)
reticulum synthesis and secretion
(1) (A)→I ; (B)→II ; (C)→III ; (D)→IV
(2) (A)→III ; (B)→IV ; (C)→I ; (D)→II
(3) (A)→IV ; (B)→III ; (C)→II ; (D)→I
(4) (A)→II ; (B)→I ; (C)→III ; (D)→IV

6) Statement-I : Schwann concluded based on his studies on plant tissues, that the presence of cell
wall is a unique character of the plant cells.
Statement-II : Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic where as cells that
lack membrane bound nucleus are considered prokaryotic.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct.

7) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Centromere holds two chromatids of a chromosome.

The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosomes are referred to as p-arm and q-
(2)
arm respectively.
(3) A single human cell has approximately two meter long thread of DNA.
(4) In acrocentric chromosome the centromere is slightly away from the middle of the chromosome.

8) Membrane bound vesicular structures which contain digestive acid hydrolases are formed by :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi body
(3) Microbodies
(4) Mitochondria

9) Identify the figures gives below A & B and choose correct answer :

(1) (A) ER→Lipid synthesis, (B) GB→ Formation of glycoprotein

(2) (A) ER→Formation of glycoprotein, (B) GB→ Lipid synthesis
(3) (A) GB→ Formation of glycoprotein, (B) ER→ Lipid synthesis
(4) (A) GB→ Steroidal hormone synthesis, (B) ER→ Power house of the cell

10) The fluid nature of the membrane is important from the point of view of functions like -

(1) Cell division & cell growth

(2) Endocytosis & secretion
(3) Formation of intercellular junctions
(4) All of the above

11) Which of the following enzyme is not present in lysosomes?

(1) Proteases
(2) Lipases
(3) Nucleases
(4) Catalase

12) Reductionist Biology is:

(1) The concepts and techniques of physics and chemistry are applied to understand biology.
(2) Only physical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(3) Physiological and behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
(4) Only chemical approach to study and understand living organism.

13) The stroma of chloroplast does not contain ?

(1) Enzymes for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins

(2) Small, double stranded, linear DNA
(3) Ribosomes
(4) ATP and NADPH + H+

14) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Chromatin name was given by flemming.

(2) Nucleus is absent in mature sieve tube and WBC.
(3) Nuclear lamina structure is formed by filament of tubulin protein.
(4) The nuclear pore is guarded by two octagonal discoid structure of actin protein.

15) Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to mitochondria ?

(1) Mitochondria surrounded by two membrane outer and inner membrane.

(2) Mitochondria is also called power houses of the cell.
The inner compartment of mitochondria is filled with a dense homogenous substance called the
(3)
matrix.
(4) The matrix possesses circular DNA, few RNA and 80 s type of ribosomes.

16) Assertion (A) : Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce
identical sister chromatids at the S-phase.
Reason (R) : Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between
homologous chromosomes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

17) Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to anaphase?

At the onset of anaphase, each chromosome arranged at the metaphase plate is split
(1)
simultaneously.
The two daughter chromatids, now referred to as daughter chromosomes of the future daughter
(2)
nuclei, begin their migration towards the two opposite poles.
As each chromosome moves away from the equatorial plate, the centromere of each
(3) chromosome remains directed towards the pole and hence at the leading edge, with the arms of
the chromosome trailing behind.
(4) During anaphase, centromeres do not split and chromatids do not separate.
18) A stage in a cell division give in a figure : Select the correct answer :

(1) Telophase :- two cells have two daughter nuclei

(2) Metaphase :- two cells have two daughter nuclei
(3) Telophase :- one cell have two daughter nuclei
(4) Anaphase :- one cell have two daughter nuclei

19) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Prophase (i) Chromosomes moved to spindle equator

(b) Anaphase (ii) Chromosomal material condensation start

(c) Metaphase (iii) Chromosome material decondense

(d) Telophase (iv) Centromere splits and chromatids separate

(1) a - (ii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (iii)
(2) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
(3) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
(4) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)

20) If a cell has 24 chromatids after s-phase, what will be the number of chromosome at each pole in
Anaphase-I ?

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 3

21) Cells remain metabollically active but no longer proliferate (divide) unless called on to do so
depending on the requirement of the organism.
This is correct for :-

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S-phase
(4) G0 phase

22) Which of following event does not take place during S phase of cell cycle ?
(1) DNA replication
(2) Centriole duplication
(3) Cell growth
(4) Tubulin protein synthesis

23) The anaphase promoting complex involved in the separation of ___(i)___ and, ___(ii)___ of
chromosomes and ___(iii)___ of nuclear membrane.

(1) (i) Sister chromatids, (ii) Decondensation, (iii) Reassembly

(2) (i) Non-sister chromatids, (ii) Decondensation, (iii) Reassembly
(3) (i) Sister chromatids, (ii) Condensation, (iii) Disassembly
(4) (i) Non-sister chromatids, (ii) Condensation, (iii) Reassembly

24) Which one of the following stage of meiosis begins with the spliting of centromere?

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase II

25) Mitosis accomplishes not only the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into daughter nuclei
but the cell itself is divided into two daughter cells by a separate process called :-

(1) Karyokinesis
(2) Cytokinesis
(3) Syncytium
(4) Fertilisation

26) In an onion root tip cell number of chromosomes and DNA content at G1 stage are 16 and 2C
respectively. After s-phase number of chromosomes and DNA content respectively will be :

(1) 16, 2C
(2) 16, 4C
(3) 4C, 16
(4) 32, 4C

27) Statement-I :- Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number
of each species is achieved across generation in sexually reproducing organisms, even through the
process (per se paradoxically) results in reduction of chromosome number by half.
Statement-II :- Meiosis also increase the genetic variability in the population from one generation
to the next generation and genetic variations are very important for the process of evolution.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
28) Which of the following diagram is not associated to mitosis ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Few events regarding cell cycle are given below. Arrange these events in correct order and
select the correct option from option given below:
A. Chromosomes replication
B. Centromere division
C. Cell organelle synthesis
D. Condensation of chromatin material complete
E. Division of cytoplasm

(1) C,B,A,D,E
(2) C,D,B,A,E
(3) C,A,D,B,E
(4) C,D,A,B,E

30) Fill up the blanks in the following statements with the appropriate options.
(I) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called as A .
(II) Enzyme involved in crossing over is B .
(III) The X-shaped structure formed during diplotene is C .
(IV) Dyad of cells are formed at the end of D .

A B C D
 (1) Synapsis Permease Synaptonemal complex Telophase-I

(2) Bivalent Recombinase Chiasmata Meiosis-I

(3) Tetrad Lyase Bivalent Meiosis-I

(4) Nodules Endonuclease Chiasmata Anaphase-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) In the given below diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen, glycosidic bonds

represented by A, B and C are :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32)

Consider following graphs regarding the effect of change of different factors on enzyme activity
Identify the factor (a) and (b)
(1) (a) - Substrate concentration, (b) - temperature
(2) (a) - pH, (b) - substrate concentration
(3) (a) - Temperature, (b) - pH
(4) (a) - Substrate concentration, (b) - pH

33) Match the column-A to column-B

Column-A Column-B

(A) Apoenzyme (I) Tightly bond

(B) Prosthetic group (II) Co-enzyme

(C) Co-factor (III) Hydrogen peroxide

(D) Catalase (IV) Protein part

(1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(3) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
(4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

34) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Low temperature keep the enzyme in a permanently inactive state whereas high
temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat and cold.
Statement-II : When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is called as noncompetitive inhibitor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

35) Match the list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(A) Acidic amino acid (I) Valine

(B) Basic amino acid (II) Glutamic acid

(C) Neutral amino acid (III) Phenyl alanine

 (D) Aromatic amino acid (IV) Lysine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

36) Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statements.
(a) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Lipids are not strictly macromolecules.
(d) Cellulose is a heteropolymer.
(e) Protein is a homopolymer.
Choose the correct options :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (d) and (e)

37) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) :- In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end
is called the non reducing end.
Reason (R) :- Polysaccharides are usually non reducing carbohydrates.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

38) How many total number of carbon present in Arachidonic acid?

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 20

39) Which structure of protein show hollow woolen ball like structure?

(1) Primary Structure

(2) Secondary Structure
(3) Tertiary Structure
(4) Quaternary Structure

40) Which of the following is not an example of macro-molecules ?

(1) Polysaccharides
(2) Proteins
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Lipids

41) Select the correct match-

A B

(1) Trypsin Hormone

(2) Collagen Enzyme

(3) Insulin Sensory reception

(4) Antibody Fights Infectious Agents

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Starch forms blue colour with iodine because :-

(1) It is a linear molecule.

(2) It contains complex helices and hence hold iodine molecules.
(3) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it.
(4) It is a disaccharide.

43)
the above reaction catalysed by which class of enzyme:-

(1) Ligases
(2) Transferases
(3) Lyases
(4) Hydrolases

44) The enzymes that catalyse hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C—C, C-halide or P-N
bonds belong to class ?

(1) Hydrolases
(2) Lyases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Ligases
45)
A in the above graph represents-

(1) Progression of reaction

(2) Potential energy
(3) Transition state
(4) Activation energy

46) Which one is correct statement for oxygen dissociation curve ?

(1) X → dissociation of oxygen at alveoli level

(2) Y → Intensive exercise condition for tissue
(3) Y → 100 ml at blood gives aprox 15 ml O2 to tissue
(4) Z → 100 ml at blood gives 15 ml O2 to tissue

47) The figure given below shows the mechanism of breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing

explained & A, B and C marked in the figure.

(1) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
(2) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
(3) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – increased, C – contracted
(4) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – increased, C – contracted

48) Match the columns and choose the correct options :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Granulocyte (P) Neutrophil (i) Heparin secretion

(B) Agranulocyte (Q) Lymphocyte (ii) Allergic Reaction

(R) Basophil (iii) Phagocytosis

(S) Acidophil (iv) Immune response

i ii iii iv

1 R,A S,B P,A Q,B

2 R,A S,A P,A Q,B

3 R,B S,B P,A Q,A

4 R,A S,B P,B Q,B

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Which of the following statement is correct about the given diagram of cardiac cycle ?

(Note :- Shaded part indicate systole)

'a' represent atrial systole during which 25% blood moves from atria to ventricles actively and
(1)
slowly.
(2) (a → b → c) represents (Atrial systole → ventricular systole → joint diastole)
'c' and 'd' together called as joint diastole during which approx 75% of blood moves from atria
(3)
to ventricles passivelly.
'b' represents phase of diastasis during which rate of filling of ventricles is twice to the rate of
(4)
flow of blood into atria.
50) Identify A to F in given diagram :- Choose the correct option.

A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary vein,

(1)
D-Pulmonary artery, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery,
(2)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery,
(3)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
A-Body parts, B-Lungs, C-Pulmonary artery,
(4)
D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta

51) Assertion : A special case of Rh incompatibility (mismatching) in erythroblastosis foetalis has

been observed between the Rh– blood of a pregnant mother with Rh+ blood of the foetus.
Reason : In case of subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh–) can leak into
the blood of the foetus (Rh+) and destroy the foetal RBCs.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

52) In the summer season, a person is walking on the road in the afternoon, causing excessive
sweating. Which of the following mechanisms helps maintain the osmolarity of body fluids despite
the loss of water due to sweating?

Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic

(1)
hormone from the neurohypophysis.
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic
(2)
hormone from the adenohypophysis
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release atrial natriuretic
(3)
factor from the neurohypophysis
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the JG cells to release antidiuretic hormone
(4)
from the neurohypophysis

53) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give out ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Go through the following diagram– If S = A fall is

GFR or glomerular b.p.
A = J G cells
Identify the organ which secretes 'B'–

(1) Kidney
(2) Liver
(3) Lung
(4) Adrenal gland

55) Match the columns and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Cartilagenous irregular
P A I Larynx
box walled

Vascularised
Q B Cartilagenous II Alveoli
bag

R Flap like C Sound box III Epiglottis

(1) P-C-I, Q-A-II, R-B-III
(2) P-A-III, Q-C-II, R-B-I
(3) P-A-II, Q-B-III, R-C-I
(4) P-B-I, Q-A-II, R-C-III

56) Match the following correctly.

Animals Respiratory organ

(A) Earthworm [I] Lungs

(B) Mollusca [II] trachea

(C) Fishes [III] Gills

(D) Birds/Reptiles [IV] Moist cuticle

(E) Insects
(1) A-IV, B and C-III, D-I, E-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C and D-I,, E-III
(3) A-II, B and C-III, D-I, E-IV
(4) A-III, B and C-I, D-II, E-IV

57) Statement-I : During respiration, O2 is utilized by the organism to directly break down nutrient
molecules.
Statement-II : The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells
is commonly known as respiration.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

58) Which of the following statement is correct about mechanism of breathing ?

(1) Inspiration is initiated by relaxation of diaphragm

(2) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in antero-posterior axis.
(3) IICM and diaphragm are the chief muscle for inspiration.
(4) Normal expiration is an active process.

59) Assertion : Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 4 ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions.
Reason : Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

60) Read following statements carefully and choose the incorrect one.
(1) Binding of CO2 with haemoglobin is related to the partial pressure of CO2.
(2) pO2 is major factor which could affect binding of CO2 with haemoglobin.
When pCO2 is high and pO2 is low as in the alveoli, dissocation of CO2 from
(3)
carbaminohaemoglobin take place.
(4) Approximately 4ml CO2 delivers to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood.

61) Assertion (A) : High blood pressure leads to heart disease and also affects vital organs like
brain and kidney.
Reason (R) : On Repeated checks of BP of an individual is 140|90 or more represents the
hypertension.

(1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true (R) is false
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

62) Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Joint diastole (i) 0.8 second

b. Heart beat (ii) All four chambers of heart are relaxed.

c. Cardiac cycle (iii) 72 times/min

d. Stroke volume (iv) 70 mL

Choose the correct answer about given column :-
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

63) Given below are two statements :-

Statements-I : Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 90-92 percent of blood.
Statements-II : Reduction in platelets number can lead to clotting disorders.

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

64) Which of one of the following statement is correct about blood grouping ?

ABO grouping is based on presence or absence of two surface antigens on RBCs namely A and
(1)
O.
(2) Group 'AB' blood can be donated to persons with any other blood group.
(3) Mismatched blood transfusion cause severe problems of clumping.
 An Rh⊕ve person if exposed to Rh⊖ve blood, will form specific antibodies against the Rh
(4)
antigens.

65) Which of the following option is correct regarding this figure :

(1) P wave represent repolarisation of atria

(2) Letter P to T shows chemical activity of heart
(3) Systole of auricle starts shortly after Q & marks the beginning of the contraction
(4) The T wave represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state

66) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup-like structure called Bowman’s capsule.
In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the
(2)
medulla.
(3) In juxta medullary nephrons, loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla.
Towards the centre of inner convex surface of the kidney, a notch is present, through which
(4)
ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter.

67) Assertion (A) : As a concentrated filterate pass upward through ascending limb of henle loop, it
gets diluted.
Reason (R) : Ascending limb of henle loop transports electrolyte actively or passively to the
medullary fluid.

(1) A is correct but R is not correct.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect.

68) Statement I : Collecting duct of nephron extends from the cortex of the kidney to the inner
parts of medulla.
Statement II : Large amount of water could be reabsorbed from collecting duct to form a
concentrated urine.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct.

(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.

69) Match column I with column II

Column I Column II
 Renal inflammation
(i) (a)
failure of kidney.

Stone or isoluble
Diabets
(ii) (b) mass of crystalised
Mellitus
salt

Presence of glucose &

(iii) Glomerulonephritis (c)
ketone bodoes in urine

Malfunctioning
(iv) Renal calculi (d)
of kidney
(1) i→a,ii→b,iii→c,iv→d
(2) i→c,ii→b,iii→d,iv→a
(3) i→d,ii→c,iii→a,iv→b
(4) i→a,ii→b,iii→c,iv→d

70) Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option given below :

Column-I Column-II
(Function) (Part of excretory system)

(a) Counter current mechanism (I) Proximal convulated tubule

(b) Maximum reabsorption (II) Distal convulated tubule

(c) Urea reabsorption (III) Malphigian corpuscle

(d) Ultrafiltration (IV) Henle's loop

(V) Collecting duct

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (IV) (V) (II) (III)

(2) (IV) (I) (V) (III)

(3) (V) (IV) (I) (II)

(4) (V) (IV) (I) (III)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to :-

+
(1) O2 and H ions
+
(2) CO2 and Na ions
+
(3) CO2 and H ions
(4) CO2 and O2
72) Most of the aquatic arthropods and molluscs respire through :-

(1) Network of tubes

(2) Gills
(3) Moist skin
(4) Lungs

73) In heavy smokers the alveoli of the lungs are enlarged and alveoli septa damaged which reduces
the surface area of the exchange of respiratory gases. This condition is called :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Insomnia

74) If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml,
what shall be the functional residual capacity–

(1) 1600 ml
(2) 2800 ml
(3) 2300 ml
(4) 1200 m

75) Trachea divided at the level of _____ thoracic vertebra into primary bronchi

(1) 5th
(2) 6th
(3) 10th
(4) 4th

76) In a healthy adult man, the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic arteries is 95 mm Hg
which is :-

(1) Less than the pO2 in lung alveoli

(2) Less than the pCO2 in systemic veins
(3) Equal to the pCO2 in systemic veins
(4) Less than the pO2 in actively metabolising tissues

77) 'Inspiration occurs if pressure within the lungs is __A__ than the atmospheric pressure. Choose
appropriate option to fill in the blank (A) in given statements?

(1) More
(2) Less
(3) Equal
(4) In inspiration air moves out of lungs
78) The average life span of a human RBC is __A__ and the organ considered graveyard of
erythrocytes is __B__ choose the correct option that fills the blanks A and B respectively.

(1) 120 days, liver

(2) 180 days, liver
(3) 120 days, spleen
(4) 120 days, kidney

79) Which of following formed by cascade process to help in blood clotting.

(1) Thrombokinase
(2) Heparin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin

80) In which of the following animals, the heart does not have the left and right auricles ?

(1) Mammals
(2) Reptiles
(3) Amphibians
(4) Fishes

81) Which of following nutrient absorbed through lymph in the lacteal present in intestinal villi -

(1) Fat
(2) Protein
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) All of above

82) Which layer of blood vessels is called endothelium ?

(1) Tunica intima

(2) Tunica media
(3) Tunica externa
(4) All of above

83) A unique Vascular Connection exists between the digestive tract and liver is called :-

(1) Digestive Portal System

(2) Renal Portal System
(3) Hepatic Portal System
(4) Coronary System

84) SA node is present in the :-

(1) right upper corner of the left atrium

(2) left upper corner of the right atrium
(3) right lower corner of the right atrium
(4) right upper corner of the right atrium

85) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the afferent arteriole which is a fine branch of

(1) Ventral aorta

(2) Renal vein
(3) Renal artery
(4) Inferior vena cava

86) Which of the following substance is not eliminated by secretion of sebaceous gland?

(1) Sterols
(2) Hydrocarbons
(3) Wax
(4) NaCl

87) Urination/micturition occurs when :

(1) Urinary bladder relaxes and urethral sphincter contracts

(2) Urinary bladder and urethral sphincter both contracts
(3) Urinary bladder contracts and urethral sphincter relaxes
(4) Urinary bladder and urethral sphincter both relaxes

88) The Hyperosmolarity gradient in medullary interstitium is mainly caused by :-

(1) NaCl only

(2) KCl
(3) Ammonia and NaCl
(4) Urea and NaCl

89) In which part of nephron minimum reabsorption occurs ?

(1) PCT
(2) Desending limb of LOH
(3) Ascending limb of LOH
(4) DCT

90) Auto-excitable heart of human :-

(1) Can't be moderated.

(2) Can be moderated by hyperventilation.
(3) Can be moderated by neural & hormonal mechanism.
(4) Can be moderated by external mechanical force.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 1 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 1 1 1 1 4 2 3 4 4 1 2 1 4 2 4 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 4 3 4 3 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
Here θ is + ve because lower side is +ve axis

y=

tangential acceleration at = g sinθ =

2) = 0.3 rad/sec

tan α = ⇒ sec2α

(sec2α)(ω) = (vp)

(sec245)(0.1) = (vp)
vp = 0.6 rad/sec.

3) By energy conservation

v1 = and y =

distance =

4)

θ = ωit +
 θ = 0 + (4) (4)2
θ = 32 rad
ωf = ωi + αt
ωf = 4 × 4
= 16 rad/s

5)

6)

When the block is moving over wedge, let their common horizontal velocity be v
By the momentum conservation

mv0 = (m + M)v ..(i)

and from COME

..(ii)

7)

P' = (M + m)v'

KE loss =
8)

Let speed of the bullet = v

Speed of the system after the collision = V
By conservation of momentum mv = (m + M)V

⇒
So the initial K.E. acquired by the system

=
This kinetic energy goes against friction work done by friction =
By the law of conservation of energy

9) Let distance of cart and mass is xc and xm

Mxc =

xc =
xc + xm = 10

xm = m

10)

Assertion is not correct After the explosion the fragments shoot off in different directions.
What does continue on the original path is only the centre of mass of the system not each
fragments.
Reason(R) : The explosion occurs due to internal forces only and no external force acts during
the explosion.

11) Rate of flow of water through a capillary tube is

As P, η remain the same

 12) Let ρS, ρL be the density of silver and liquid. Also m and V be the mass and volume of silver
block.
∴ Tension in string = mg – bouyant force
T = ρSVg – ρL Vg = (ρS – ρL) Vg

Also V=

∴T= mg = × 4 × 10
= 37 N

13) mg = 2TL ⇒ πr2Ldg = 2TL ⇒ ⇒ πr2dg = 2T.

This relation is independent of L.

14)

w2 – w1 =

=
= 1.68 × 10–2 J
= 16.8 × 10–3 J

15)

v = vol. of cavities.
V = vol. of solid iron

∴ ...(1)
In the water
⇒ decrease in weight = up thrust
⇒ W – W0 = (V + v) ρw g

0
⇒ W–W = ρwg + ρw vg

16) Q = A1A2
=

= 32 ltr/s

17)
Applying Bernoulli theorem between points 1 and 2

0
P +

Solving v =

18) = mv sin 60° = mv

= + mv = mv

⇒ = mv

⇒ = Ans.

19) For level flight

Mg = ΔP × A =

M × 10 = × 1 × [(75)2 – (65)2] × (2 × 25)

M = 3500 kg

20) τ = I α ⇒ ∝ =
α= Hence option (1)

21)
"A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre" means its centre of mass is at its
centre.
Let m is the required mass of stick in grammes
F1 = (5 + 5) × 981 dynes
F2 = m × 981 dynes
By taking torque about point P
F1 × (45 – 12) = F2 × (50 – 45)
⇒ 33F1 = 5F2
33 × 10 × 981 = 5 × (m × 981) so m = 66 gm.

22) = ;
here vcm = v0
Since sphere is in pure rolling motion hence,
ω = v0/R

0
+ Mv R

0
= Mv R

23)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

KE of rotation =

24) For rolling upon the incline plane the retardation

a= = = 25/7 m/s2

so distance covered = =
= 0.56 m = 56 cm

25)

For the complete ring, M.I. of the ring about diameter . For the semi-circular ring.

26) τB = 0 (torque about point B is zero)

(TA) × 100 – (mg) × 50 – (2mg) × 25 = 0
100 TA = 100 mg
TA = 1 mg

27)

a1 = Rα – a2 ⇒ 2 = 2α – 4
α = 3 rad/s2

28) As particle moves with constant speed but the magnitude & direction of angular
momentum changes continuously. As shown in figure because perpendicular distance of the
particle and changes continuously.
29)

An object begins to topple when the torque from the applied force equals or exceeds the
restoring torque from its own weight. We can find this minimum force by equating the torques
about the pivot point, which is the bottom corner of the block opposite to the force.

Fmin for toppling (Torque about point P)

Fmin (4a) = mg(3a)

Fmin =

30)

T2 R3
as radius of orbit increases then, time period also increases.

31)

Gravitational field at center is zero : (A - R)

Gravitational potential at center = (B - S)

When one mass is removed field strength with 4 mass (C - P)

Potential with 4 mass

(D - S)

32)

Given V = 5x2y

;
at point (2, 3) ;
33) Kinetic energy = Potential energy

m(kve)2 = mk2 2gR =

Height of Projectile from the earth's surface = h

Height from the centre r = R + h = R +

By solving r =

34) i.e. p ∝

0
35) V =

V=

V' =

36)

= – M0ω2x

37)

For a satellite revolving around earth

∴

38) diameter d1 = 3.0 × 10–3m , d2 = 6.0 × 10–3 m

In one limb and in other limb

= 4.8 × 10–3m = 4.8mm

39) For concave meniscus : Adhesive forces > Cohesive forces

For convex meniscus : Cohesive forces > Adhesive forces
Capillary action : Due to both adhesive and cohesive forces
When a larger drops spits : Work is done to increase the surface area, and energy for it
comes at the cost of loss of heat
Reason surface tension : Only cohesive forces

40)

∴ (B)

41)

42) Relative to liquid, the velocity of sphere is 2v0 upwards.

∴ viscous force on sphere = 6 π η r 2v0 downward
 = 12 π η r v0 downward

43) Upward force by capillary tube on top surface of liquid is

fup= 4σa cosθ
If liquid is raised to a height h then we use
4σa cosθ = ha2 ρg

or h =

44)

F = 2T (6a) + mg
F = 12 aT + mg

45)

This question is based on .

= 1.25

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explain the question: Find the region of highest electron density for a 3p orbital (ℓ =1).
Concept: Shape & Orientation of p-orbitals.
Solution:

A. Identify: The quantum number ℓ = 1 defines a p-orbital.

B. Geometry: Unlike d-orbitals which often lie between axes, p-orbitals are dumbbell shaped with
lobes oriented along a single axis ( x,y, or z ).
C. Conclusion: The electron is most likely found along that specific axis.
47)
ions, having same no. of unpaired e–, have same magnetic moment.

48)
for γ-line of Paschen series of Li2+
z = 3, n1 = 3, n2 = 6

= 9RH ×

=
For β-line of Balmer series of He+
z = 2, n1 = 2, n2 = 4

= 4RH ×

49) for same particle

50)

The two orbits are either I and II or II and IV

∵ and rn ∝ n2

Thus, E2 – E1 = + 13.6 = 10.2 eV

and E4 – E2 = + = 2.55 eV

51) For higher energy level : l = 2

and n – l – 1 = 2 ⇒ n = 5
For lower energy level : l = 0
and n – l – 1 = 0 ⇒ n = 1

Now, 326.4 = 13.6 × z2 ⇒Z=5

52)

Isotones have same number of neutrons

17 – 9 = B – 8
B = 16
Isobars have same mass number
A = B = 16
No of neutrons = 16 – 8 = 8

53) Energy of one photon =

Lets assume ‘n’ no. of photons are present :

⇒n×
∴ n = 1019

54)

Distance of closest approach is given by

r=
For rminimum, z should be minimum

55)

Δx · Δp =

Δp = ⇒ =

⇒ =

= 8%
56)

Covalent compound do not show in liquid state.

57)

58)

59)

Ionic character ∝

60) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

61)

Bond order →
(7/4) (6/4) (5/4)
62)

M.P. → KF > KCl

63)
sp3d see-saw shape
1 L.P. + 4 b.p.

64) , , XeF4, PCl3F2, N2O4

are non polar

65)

B.P ∝ no. of H-bond.

66)

If (net) = 0
than dipole moment = 0

67) Compound → Types of B.L.

H2O → 1
→ 2
SF6 → 1
PCl5 → 2

68)

Solution of ionic compounds show conductance due to ions.

69)

XeOF4 – sp3d2 - pπ-dπ

70)

MP → F2 < I2
(MP ∝ Mass)
71) (bp + ℓp) (2 + 2) = 4

(2 +3) = 5

(4 + 2) = 6

72)
sp3d, see-saw

73)

(P)
sp3 sp3
BA = 109.5o BA < 109.5o

(Q)
sp3d sp3d
90o, 120o < 90o

(R)
sp sp2
180o 120o
planar planar

(S)
sp sp2
180o < 120o
planar planar
74)

XeO2F2 → sp3d, see saw

75)

The correct answer is option (B)

Or
BL ∝ size of atom

76) Explanation:
The question asks which of the provided pairs of elements share the same number of electrons
in their outermost (valence) electron shell.
Concept: (Electron sharing in their outermost shell)
Selenium (Se) and Tellurium (Te) are both in Group 16 of the periodic table. Elements in
Group 16 possess 6 valence electrons. Therefore, Se and Te have the same number of valence
electrons.
Final Answer : Option (2)

77) Question Explanation: Determine the chemical formula for the halide of element with
Z=56.
Concept: Valency and Formula Writing
Solution: The element with atomic number 56 is Barium (Ba), which is in Group 2 and forms a
+2 ion (E2+). Halides (X) are in Group 17 and form -1 ions (X–). To create a neutral compound,
two halide ions are needed, making the formula EX2.
Final Answer: Option (3)

78)

IP. order
(n–1)d10 > np1
Zn > Ga
Cd > In
Hg > Tℓ

79)

It is a f-block elements

80)

(A) Z = 37 → s-block
(B) Z = 42 → d-block
(C) Z = 34 → p-block
(D) Z = 92 → f-block

81)
Cu < Zn < Ca < K
L → R Size↓ but (rCu < rZn)

82) NCERT - Part-I (Class XI); Table 3.7, Page No. 07

83)

L → R Zeff ↑ Size↓
Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3

84)

EN order
S < Cl < O < F
Size order
F < O < N < Na

85)

B > Al < Ga > In < Tℓ

IE ⇒ Al < Ga (due to transition contraction)
In < Tℓ (due to lanthanide contraction)

86)

(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (Acidic nature)

(2) HOCl > HOBr > HOI (Acidic nature)
(3) NaOH > Mg(OH)2 (Basic nature)

87) C = 2.5
N=3
Si = 1.8
P = 2.1

88)

EA order
Cl > O > C > N

89)

EA order Cl > F > Br > I

S > Se > Te > O

90)
 EN order C < N
N → 2s2, 2p3
EN does not depend on stable configuration

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg.# English- 95,96,98,100.

# Hindi- 96,97,98,100.

92) NCERT Class-XI : Page No. 96-101

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