16-02-2025

5301CMD303031240033 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find Current in Resistance 15Ω as shown in figure -

(1) 2 Amp form P to Q

(2) 2 Amp from to Q to P
(3) 4 Amp from Q to P
(4) 4 Amp from P to Q

2) A galvanometer of resistance 10Ω has ig current flowing through it. Find the shunt required so
that deflection of galvanometer becomes 30% of its maximum value :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 5 Ω

3) A current sensitivity of a galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection
per unit voltage) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is :

(1) 250 Ω
(2) 40 Ω
(3) 500 Ω
(4) 25 Ω

4) Find current in the circuit if power dissipated in R is maximum

(1) 1 A
(2) 0.25 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) 0.125 A
5) Two bulbs marked 100 W, 220 V and 200 W, 220 V are connected in series and the combination is
now connected across a 220 V main supply. Total power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 80 W
(2) 40 W
(3) 33.5 W
(4) 66.67 W

6) The potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 50 V when 11 A current is drawn. The
potential difference is 60 V when 1 A current is drawn. The internal resistance of the battery is

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 4 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

7) The Galvanometer G reads zero. If the battery A has negligible internal resistance the value of

resistance 'X' will be :–

(1) 200Ω
(2) 50Ω
(3) 500Ω
(4) 100Ω

8) Six identical cells each of emf E & internal resistance r, are joined in series to form closed circuit
Only one cell A is joined with reverse polarity. Then the terminal potential difference across cell (A)
is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Three resistances of values 2 ohm, 3 ohm and 6 ohm be connected to give an effective resistance
of 4 ohm is :–

(1) 6 ohm and 2 ohm in parallel with 3 ohm in series.

(2) 6 ohm and 3 ohm in parallel with 2 ohm in series.
(3) 2 ohm and 3 ohm in series with 6 ohm in parallel.
(4) 6 ohm and 2 ohm in series with 3 ohm in parallel.

10)

If we have n identical cell of emf ε & internal resitance r than -

Column - I Column - II

(A) Net emf of n cell in series (p) ε

Net emf of n cell in

(B) (q) nr
parallel

Net internal resistance of

(C) (r) r/n
n cell in series

Net internal resistance of

(D) (s) nε
n cell in parallel
(1) (A) → (s); (B) → (p); (C) → (q); (D) → (r)
(2) (A) → (p); (B) → (s); (C) → (q); (D) → (r)
(3) (A) → (r); (B) → (p); (C) → (s); (D) → (q)
(4) (A) → (p); (B) → (q); (C) → (s); (D) → (r)

11) Current density at an area is A/m2. The current through the

area is :-

(1) 0A
(2) 2A
(3) 9A
(4) 6A

12) A 150 m long metal wire connects point A and B. The electrical potential at Point B is 50V less
than at point A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m then magnitude of the current
density in the wire is equal to :-

(1) 11 × 10–4 A/m2

(2) 5.5 × 10–3 A/m2
(3) 4 × 107 A/m2
(4) 20 × 106 A/m2

13) For a galvanometer of resistance 80Ω, to calculate its figure of merit, following experimental
data is obtained. Calculate its figure of merit (in A/div.) (approx.) :

EMF of cells in
S. No. volts Resistance from RB R(Ω) Deflection θ(div)
E(V)

1 2 5000 10

2 4 10000 10
(1) 2 × 10–5
(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–4
(4) 4 × 10–5

14) 100 wires of unequal resistances are connected in parallel then net resistance is x. Now one wire
is removed then net resistance becomes y, resistance of removed wire will be -

(1) xy

(2)

(3)

(4) None

15) The resistance of a bulb filaments is 100Ω at a temperature of 100ºC. If its temperature
coefficient of resistance be 0.005/ºC, its resistance will become 200 Ω at a temperature of :-

(1) 200ºC
(2) 300ºC
(3) 400ºC
(4) 500ºC

16) Two square metal plates A and B are of the same thickness and of same material. The side of B is
twice that of A. These are connected as shown in series. If the resistances of A and B are denoted by

RA and RB, then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If a wire is stretched so that its length is 40% more than its initial length. The percentage
increase in the resistance of the wire is :

(1) 80%
(2) 96%
(3) 100%
(4) 40%

18) Find charge on 2μF and energy stored in 4μF.

(1) 50 μC, 40 μJ
(2) 50 μC, 50 μJ
(3) 10 μC, 40 μJ
(4) None

19) The work done by battery in charging fully both the capacitor is :

(1)
CV2

(2)
CV2

(3)
CV2
(4) CV2

20) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit -

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 20 V, –20 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

21) Calculate final charge on 1μF capacitor :-

(1) 6 μC
(2) 2 μC
(3) 7.5 μC
(4) 2.5 μC

22) Voltage variation shown with distance between capacitor plates then ratio of dielectric

constants =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A parallel plate capacitor charged by a battery, first battery is removed and then the dielectric
slab between the plates is removed, match the following list

List-A List-B

(1) Capacitance (A) Will increase

Stored
(2) (B) will decrease
energy

will remain
(3) Charge (C)
constant

(4) Electric field

(1) (1)→B, (2)→A, (3)→C, (4)→A
(2) (1)→A, (2)→A, (3)→C, (4)→B
(3) (1)→C, (2)→B, (3)→A, (4)→C
(4) (1)→A, (2)→B, (3)→C, (4)→A

24) For an R-C discharging circuit, current decay is shown. Then

[If τ = time constant]

(1) t0 < τ
(2) t0 > τ
(3) t0 = τ
(4) None

25) If galvanometer resistance is 1Ω then select correct statement/statements ?

(1) No current flows in (G)

(2) 0.2 A current flows in (G)
(3) Potential difference across 4µf is 1 volt
(4) Potential difference across 5µf is 1.2 volt

(1) 1,2,3
(2) 2,3,4
(3) 1 only
(4) All

26) A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area A as the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor, and has thickness , where d is the separation of the plates. The
capacitance when the slab is inserted between the plates is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B versus
increase of charge Q stored in them. Which of the capacitors has higher capacitance ?

(1) capacitor A
(2) capacitor B
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

28) In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10–3 m2
and the distance between the plates is 3 [Link] this capacitor is connected to a 100V supply, what is
the charge on each plate of the capacitor ?

(1) 1.77 × 10–9 C

(2) 2.77 × 10–9 C
(3) 1 × 10–8 C
(4) 4.7 × 10–6 C

29) A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply, Then, it is disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
process ?

(1) 12 × 10–6 J
(2) 8 × 10–6 J
(3) 6 × 10–6 J
(4) 4 × 10–6 J

30) Two similar spheres having +q and -q charge are kept at a certain distance. The force acts
between the two if F. If in the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +q charge is
kept, then it experience a force in magnitude and direction as:-

(1) zero, having no direction

(2) 8F, towards +q charge
(3) 8F, towards -q charge
(4) 4F, towards +q charge

31) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is :–

(1)
from 9e charge
(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

32) Charges Q1 and Q2 are at points A and B of a right angle triangle OAB (see figure). The resultant
electric field at point O is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then Q1/Q2 is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A charge 'q' is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in figure. The flux of electrostatic field

through the shaded area is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3g cm–3 is held stationary under a constant electric
field 3.55 × 105 V m–1 in the Millikan's oil drop experiment. What is the number of excess electrons
that the oil drop will possess ? (consider g = 9.81 m/s2)

(1) 48.8 × 1011

(2) 1.73 × 1010
(3) 17.3 × 1010
(4) 1.73 × 1012

35) A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is enclosed inside the concentric conducting
spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in figure. The approximate variation

electric field as a function of distance r from centre O is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Four charges 2C, – 3C, –4C and 5C respectively are placed at the four corners of a square. Which
of the following statements is true for the point of intersection of the diagonals ?

(1) E = 0, V = 0
(2) E ≠ 0, V = 0
(3) E = 0, V ≠ 0
(4) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
37) Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2).
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R and 4R hold charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Given
that surface charge densities of the concentric spheres are equal, the potential difference V(R) –
V(4R) is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A two point charges 4q and –q are fixed on the x-axis at x = and x = , respectively. If a third
point charge 'q' is taken from the origin to x = d along the semicircle as shown in the figure, the

energy of the charge will :

increase by
(1)

increase by
(2)

decrease by
(3)

decrease by
(4)
40)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of electric field
through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the sphere.
Statement II : If R is the radius of a solid metallic sphere and Q be the total charge on it. The
electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius r (< R) is zero but the electric flux
passing through this closed spherical surface of radius r is not zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

41) Three concentric shell of radius R, 2R, 3R are placed as shown in figure. Find electric field at

point P.

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the
body is .....

(1) Unchanged
(2) Charged positively
(3) Charged negatively
(4) an insulator

43) Two point charges + 3μC and +8μC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of –5μC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

44) Which of the following is not a unit of charge ?

(1) Faraday
(2) Stat coulomb
(3) Coulomb
(4) Ampere/second

45) Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface, the electric field will be due to :

(1) Charge q2
(2) Only the positive charges
(3) All the charges
(4) Charge +q1 and –q1

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct graph regarding first order reaction is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) For a first-order reaction A → B, the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to
be 2.0 × 10–5 mol L–1s–1. The half-life period of the reaction is :-

(1) 220 s
(2) 30 s
(3) 300 s
(4) 347 s

3) At 300 K the half-life of a sample of a gaseous compound initially at 1 atm is 100 sec. When the
pressure is 0.5 atm the half-life is 50 sec. The order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

4) In a zero - order reaction, for every 10 degree rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
temperature is increased from 25°C to 75°C, the rate of the reaction will become :-

(1) 32 times
(2) 64 times
(3) 128 times
(4) 256 times

5) In the Arrhenius plot of ln k vs , a linear plot is obtained with a slope of –2 × 104. Then energy of
activation of the reaction (in kJ mol–1) is (R value is 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) :

(1) 83
(2) 166
(3) 249
(4) 332

6) An endothermic reaction A → B have an activation energy 15 kcal/mol and the ΔH is 5 kcal/mol.

The activation energy of the reaction B → A is :-

(1) 20 kcal/mol
(2) 15 kcal/mol
(3) 10 kcal/mol
(4) Zero

7) For an elementary reaction 2P + Q → R. The differential rate equation is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) The rate constant for a first order decomposition reaction is given by :-

log k = 10 – . Then, what will be activation energy in kcal/mol ?

(1) 4.60
(2) 17.6
(3) 3.2
(4) 9.8

9) Assertion : On increasing temperature, rate of reaction increases.

Reason : On increasing temperature no. of activated molecules increases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 100 gm/min. Rate of
disappearance of O2 is:

(1) 50 gm/min
(2) 200 gm/min
(3) 40 gm/min
(4) 20 gm/min

11) For a hypothetical reaction

A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB
Mechanism
A2 ⇌ A + A (fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (Slow)
A + B → AB (Fast)
The order of the reaction will be ?

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

12) For the reaction A + B → C, starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in four experiments
 [A]0/M [B]0/M
[Link]. Rate/(M sec–1)
(initial conc.) (initial conc.)

1 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3

3 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2 × 10–3

4 3.2 × 10–3 10–1 8 × 10–3

Rate law for reaction from above data is :-

(1) r = k[A]2[B]2
(2) r = k[A]2[B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

13)

How many of the following are correct in given statements?

(a) Catalyst provides an alternative pathway to reaction mechanism.
(b) Catalyst raises the activation energy.
(c) Catalyst alters enthalpy change (ΔH) of reaction.
(d) Order of overall reaction is same as molecularity of the slowest step (Provided reaction has no
intermediate in slow step)
(e) Molecularity of slowest step is never zero or non-integer
(f) For elementary reaction molecularity of reaction is less than it's order of reaction.

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

14) The ratio of weights of hydrogen gas liberated and magnesium deposited by passing the same
amount of electricity from aqueous H2SO4 and fused MgSO4 are :

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 12
(3) 1 : 16
(4) None

15) If is 1.69 V and is 1.40 V, then will be :-

(1) 0.19 V
(2) 2.945 V
(3) 1.255 V
(4) None of these

16) The cell reaction of following cell will be spontaneous if

Pt|H2 (P1 atm)|H+ (1M)|| |H+ (1M) |H2 (P2 atm)|Pt

(1) P1 = P2
(2) P1 > P2
(3) P1< P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

17) If a spoon of copper metal is placed in a solution of ferrous sulphate :-

(1) Cu will precipitate out

(2) Iron will precipitate
(3) Cu and Fe will precipitate
(4) No reaction will take place

18) What will be standard cell potential of galvanic cell with the following reaction ?

2Cr(s) + 3Cd2+(aq) → + 3Cd(s)

[Given : = –0.74 V and

= – 0.40 V]

(1) 0.74 V
(2) 1.14 V
(3) 0.34 V
(4) –0.34 V

19) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

If and ,

2+
(1) Cu ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(2) Sn can be oxidized by H+
2+
(3) Sn ions can be reduced by H2
(4) Sn can be oxidized by Cu2+

20) For the galvanic cell is 0.46 V. Hence Ecell is :-

(1) 0.460 V
(2) 0.519 V
(3) 0.401 V
(4) 0.430 V

21) The ionic conductance of H+ and SO42– are 350 and 80 Scm2eq–1, hence eq. conductance (S
cm2eq–1) and molar conductance (Scm2mol–1) of H2SO4 will be :-

(1) 430, 430

(2) 860, 430
(3) 215, 430
(4) 430, 860

22) Specific conductance of NaCl is maximum for which of the following solution :-

(1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.01 N
(3) 0.1 N
(4) 1.0 N

23)

Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Specific conductance is the conductance of 1 cm3 electrolyte solution

(2) Specific conductance increases while equivalent conductance decreases on increasing dilution.
The maximum value of equivalent conductance for weak electrolyte can not be determined by
(3)
extrapolation of curve in between and (concentration)1/2.
(4) The conductivity of metal is due to mobility of electrons.

24) The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 N CH3COOH at 25°C is 80 ohm–1cm2eq–1 and at infinite dilution
is 400 ohm–1cm2eq–1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is :-

(1) 1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.5

25) Ksp of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10 M2. If the limiting ionic conductances of Ba2+ and ions are 64 and
80 ohm–1cm2 mol–1 respectively then its specific conductance is :-

(1) 1.44 × 10–8 ohm–1cm–1

(2) 144 × 10–8 ohm–1cm–1
(3) 1.44 × 108 ohm–1cm–1
(4) 144 × 108 ohm–1cm–1

26) Match the following process with quantity of charge required

Column-
Column-I
II

Electrolysis of H2O to give

(A) (P) 3F
5.6L O2 at STP

Conversion of 0.5 mole Cr2O72–

(B) (Q) 4F
into Cr3+
 (C) Reduction of 18g Al3+ into Al (R) 1F

(D) Electrolysis of 2L, 1M CuSO4 (S) 2F

solution to give Cu
(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
(4) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding lead storage battery :-

(1) It is a type of secondary battery.

(2) Anode is of lead and cathode is a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide.
Cell reaction during charging is
(3)
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq.) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(ℓ)
(4) 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte.

28) The amount of heat released when 20 ml of 0.5 N NaOH is mixed with 100 ml, 0.1 M HCl is x kJ.
The heat of neutralization is :-

(1) – x

(2)
–
(3) – 10 x
(4) – 100 x

29) The enthalpy of solution of CuSO4.5H2O(s) and CuSO4(s) are respectively –11.7 and –65.5 kJ/mol.
The hydration enthalpy of anhydrous CuSO4 will be :-

(1) 53.8 kJ/mol

(2) –9.8 kJ/mol
(3) –77.2 kJ/mol
(4) –53.8 kJ/mol

30) KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate according to the equation MnO4– + 5Fe2+ + 8H+
→ Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O, here 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to :

(1) 20 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4

(2) 30 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(3) 40 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4

31) The volume of 0.1 M oxalic acid that can be completely oxidised by 20 ml of 0.025M KMnO4 in
acidic medium :
(1) 125 ml
(2) 25 ml
(3) 12.5 ml
(4) 37.5 ml

32) Suitable indicator for the acid-base titration of HCOOH against KOH is.

(1) Methyl orange

(2) Methyl red
(3) Phenolphthalein
(4) Thymol Blue

33) On reaction of I– with H2O2 ; H2O2 acts as -

(1) An oxidising agent

(2) A reducing agent
(3) Both oxidising as well as reducing agent
(4) Catalyst

34) Maximum elevation in boiling point will be observed in which of the following solution :-

(1) 0.1 M CaCl2

(2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.1 M CH3COONa
(4) 0.1 M Urea

35) The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non volatile
non electrolyte solute having 2.175 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the
solution is 600 mm of Hg. The molecular weight of solute is :-

(1) 40.38
(2) 50.12
(3) 52.75
(4) 65.25

36) Assertion : For an ideal solution, ΔHmix is zero.

Reason : In an ideal solution A-B interaction are less than A-A & B-B interactions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Statement-I : Air present in oxygen cylinder of scuba divers is diluted with helium.
Statement-II : Helium has lower kH value than nitrogen.
(1) Statement I & II both are correct
(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

38) Two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio 1 : 5 at a certain temperature.
Assume A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase
is 4 : 5. Then the mole fraction of B in the solution at the same temperature is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) What will be the molality of a solution of glucose in water which is 10% w/W ?

(1) 0.01 m
(2) 0.617 m
(3) 0.668 m
(4) 1.623 m

40) Calculate normality of 2.1% (w/V) H2SO4 solution ?

(1) 2.14 N
(2) 4.28 N
(3) 0.428 N
(4) 0.214 N

41) The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is :

(1) 8.4 V
(2) 4.8 V
(3) 5.2 V
(4) 8.8 V

42) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of aqueous solution of NaCl is 0.182. Then number of
moles of NaCl present in 180g of H2O is :-

(1) 2.2 mol

(2) 1.11 mol
(3) 3.2 mol
(4) 4.2 mol
43) The molal elevation constant of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous
KCl solution (assuming complete dissociation of KCl), should be :-

(1) 100.52°C
(2) 101.04°C
(3) 99.48°C
(4) 98.96°C

44) Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?

(1) KCl
(2) C6H12O6
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) K2SO4

45) A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX is 20% ionized. The freezing point of the solution
is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 for water) :

(1) –0.45°C
(2) –0.9°C
(3) –0.31°C
(4) –0.53°C

BIOLOGY

1)

A gene, which controls more than one character is called as __(A)__ and it produces multiple __(B)__.

(1) A-Polygene, B-Genotypic effects

(2) A-Pleotropic gene, B-Phenotypic effects
(3) A-Polygene, B-Phenotypic effects
(4) A-Pleotropic gene, B-Genotypic effects

2) Fill in the blanks-

" Color blindness is ___A___ disorder caused due to defect in either red or __B__ cones of eye"

(1) A - Autosomal recessive ; B - green

(2) A - Sex - linked recessive ; B - green
(3) A - Sex - linked dominant ; B - yellow
(4) A - Autosomal dominant ; B - red

3) Select the correct statement-

Statement-I :- Today genetic maps are extensively used in the sequencing of whole genome.
Statement-II :- Colorblindness is due to mutation in certain genes present on 21st chromosome.

(1) Statement I & II correct

(2) Statement I & II incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct

4) The modified allele in equivalent to the unmodified allele when it produces.

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) Non-functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme at all
(4) Inactive enzymes

5)

Mendel work later formulated into laws of :-

(I) Linkage
(II) Segregation
(III) Incomplete dominance
(IV) Independent assortment
Choose the correct option :

(1) I, III and IV

(2) II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II and III

6) In which organism sex determination is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an

individual receives ?

(1) Honey bee

(2) Human
(3) Grasshopper
(4) Drosophila

7) Assertion (A) : Colour blindness occurs in about 8 percent of males and in about 0.4 percent of
females.
Reason (R) : Colour blindness is a sex-linked dominant disorder.

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A and R both are false.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

8) Which of the following is an example of pleiotropism ?

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Turner syndrome
(3) Down syndrome
(4) Klinefelter syndrome

9) Which of the following is correct statement about polygenic inheritance ?

(1) F1 generation resembles either of parents.

(2) F1 generation resembles both parents.
(3) F1 generation has intermediate phenotype.
(4) F1 generation shows parental phenotype.

10) Assertion :-
This given pedigree represent dominant disorder.
Reason :- In dominant disorder affected individual have atleast one affected parent.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

11) Match the column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

Multiple genes controlled one

(a) Pleiotropy (i)
phenotype

(b) Polygenic inheritance (ii) Point mutation

More than one phenotype controlled

(c) Multiple alleles (iii)
by single gene

Sickle cell
(d) (iv) More than two alleles of a gene
anaemia
Choose the correct option :-

a b c d

(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruitfly to study genes that were sex-linked
Alfred Sturtevant developed chromosomal map by using frequency of recombination between
(2)
genes
(3) Physical association of genes present on different chromosome is known as linkage
(4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in a dihybrid cross is obtained when the two genes are independent

13) Statement-I :- Human skin colour is a classical example of polygenic inheritance.

Statement-II :- In a polygenic trait phenotype reflects the additive effect of each allele.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

14) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Autosome linked recessive

A Monohybrid F2 phenotypic ratio I
trait

B Monohybrid genotypic ratio II 1:1:1:1

C Dihybrid test cross ratio III 1 : 2 : 1

D Sickle cell anaemia IV 3 : 1

V 3 tall and 1 dwarf

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, II
(2) A-III, B-IV, V, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, V, B - III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, V, B-III, C-I, D-II

15) Father is heterozygous for A blood group and blood group of mother is AB. How many type of
genotype and phenotype are possible in this cross ?

(1) Genotype = 3 and Phenotype = 2

(2) Genotype = 4 and Phenotype = 3
(3) Genotype = 5 and Phenotype = 6
(4) Genotype = 6 and Phenotype = 5

16) Read the statements carefully -

I. The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a translation unit.
II. A cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a t-RNA.
III. The transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.
IV. UAA, UAG, UGA are stop codons.
Choose incorrect statements ?

(1) Only II and IV

(2) Only I and II
(3) Only III
(4) Only IV

17) Assertion : Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

Reason : HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
bioinformatics.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) :- The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides present in it.
Reason (R) :- ϕ × 174 has 5386 nucleotides, it is characteristics of this virus.
In the light of above statement choose correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

19)

Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) The main enzyme of DNA replication is DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
(2) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction that is 5'-3'.
(3) The continuously synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.
(4) For replication DNA helix option in small-small segment referred as replication fork.

20) VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred to as :-

(1) Microsatellite DNA

(2) Minisatellite DNA
(3) Megasatellite DNA
(4) Repetitive DNA
21) Statement-I : DNA transferred from heat killed (S) strain to (R) strain and causes
transformation.
Statement-II : Transforming principle transform heat killed (S) strain into (R) strain.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

22) Digestion with __A__ did inhibit transformation, suggest that the __B__ caused the
transformation.

(1) A-DNase, B-RNA

(2) A-DNase, B-DNA
(3) A-RNase, B-RNA
(4) A-DNase, B-Protein

23) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

RNA polymerase
(A) I. Ribozyme
+ (σ – factor)

RNA polymerase Catalyses the process

(B) II.
+ (ρ – factor) of elongation

Initiate the process

(C) RNA Polymerase III.
of transcription

Terminate the process

(D) 23 S. rRNA IV
of transcription
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

24) A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and the promoter is
said to be located toward :-

(1) 3' end of the structural gene

(2) Upstream of the structural gene
(3) Downstream of the structural gene
(4) (1) and (2) both

25) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : The DNA sequence coding for t-RNA or r-RNA molecules also define a gene.
Statement-II : A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide, is called cistron.
Choose most appropriate answer from given below options :-
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

26) If the base sequence of one strand of DNA is ATGGCTAGC What would be the base sequence of
its complementary m-RNA.

(1) UACCGATCG
(2) UACCGAUGC
(3) UACCGAUCG
(4) TACCGATCA

27) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA Polymerase
(2) A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance
(3) In prokaryotes the terminator site is recognised with the help of sigma factor (σ) :
(4) In Prokaryotes all type of RNA are synthesised by single type of RNA Polymerase

28) Two statements are given below -

Statements-I The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of
Nucleotides to synthesise a polymer of Amino Acids.
Statements-II Neither does any complementarity exist between Nucleotides & Amino Acids, nor
could any be drawn theoretically.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I & II both both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

29) Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Genetic code direct the sequence of amino acids during synthesis of Proteins.
(2) The genetic code is Nearly universal.
(3) The genetic code always show overlapping.
(4) Genetic Code is Unambiguous in nature.

30) Predominant site for control of gene expression in Prokaryotes is -

(1) Replication level

(2) Transcription level
(3) Translation level
(4) Processsing level.
31) Identify A,B and C : -

(1) A-Repressor, B-Inducer, C-Inactive Repressor

(2) A-Inactive Repressor, B-Inducer, C-Repressor
(3) A-Inducer, B-Repressor, C-Inactive repressor
(4) A-Inactive Repressor, B-Repressor, C-Inducer

32) In Hershey and Chase experiment, the virus particles were separated from the bacteria by -

(1) Infection
(2) Centrifugation
(3) Blending
(4) Transformation

33) Select the correct option-

Statement-I :- In haemophilia disease, a single protein that is part of the cascade of proteins
involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
Statement-II :- The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to
sons.

(1) Statement I & II are correct

(2) Statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct

34) Select the correct statement :

(1) Law of independent assortment comes from monohybrid cross.

(2) All characters of pea plant show dominance (of one trait on another)
(3) Yellow pod color is dominant over green pod color.
(4) Yellow seed color is dominant over green seed color.

35) Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males have autosomes
besides :-

(1) only one Y-Chromosome

(2) only one X-Chromosome
(3) one X and one Y-chromosome
(4) Two X-chromosomes

36) Which of the following is an example of point mutation ?

(1) Klinfelter syndrome
(2) Turner syndrome
(3) Down syndrome
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

37) (a) Sickle cell anaemia

(b) Phenylketonuria
Which of the following is correct with respect to the given diseases.

(1) (a) Autosomal linked, (b) X-linked

(2) (a) X-linked, (b) Autosomal linked
(3) (a) X-linked, (b) X-linked
(4) (a) Autosomal linked, (b) Autosomal linked

38) Match column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Incomplete dominance (I) ABO blood group

(B) Co-dominance (II) Phenylketonuria

(C) Multiple alleles (III) Snapdragon

(D) Pleiotropism (IV) AB blood group

Choose correct answer :-

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

39) A plant with genotype RrYY is crossed with another plant having genotype RrYY. In which first
trait shows incomplete dominance while second trait shows complete dominance. Find out the
phenotypic ratio of this cross.

(1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

40) Choose incorrect statement from given below options ?

(i) Wilkins and Franklin, proposed a very simple but famous double Helix model for the structure of
DNA.
(ii) A typical nucleosome contains 2000 bp of DNA helix.
(iii) Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally active chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is
transcriptionally inactive.

(1) Only (i) is incorrect

(2) Only (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(4) Only (i) and (iii) are incorrect

41) Given below are two statements -

Statement-I : The RNA polymerase III transcribe precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear
RNA (hn RNA).
Statement-II : An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are
referred as untranslated regions (UTR).
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given below options?

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

42) Why the DNA replication occur within a small opening ?

(1) Because DNA replicates only in 5'→3' direction.

(2) Because only one DNA strand replicates at a time.
Because long DNA cannot be separated in its entire length due to very high energy
(3)
requirement.
(4) Because only one strand replicated continuously.

43) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of DNA replication in [Link] ?

The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in one direction that is 3' → 5' in
(1)
template dependent manner.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in one direction that is 5' → 3' in
(2)
template independent manner.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' → 3' as well as 3' → 5'
(3)
direction via template dependent manner.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' → 3' direction in template
(4)
dependent manner.

44) Two statement are given below :-

Statement-I :- In prokaryotes, many times the translation can begin much before the m-RNA is fully
transcribed.
Statement-II :- The Promoter & terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit.

(1) Statement-I & II both are correct

(2) Statement-I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

45) A coding strand of DNA has following base sequence 5' ATGCGAGCC 3'. On transcription it
produces an m-RNA. Which of the following anticodon of t-RNA recognizes the 3rd codon of this
mRNA.
(1) 3' CGG 5'
(2) 3' GCC 5'
(3) 3' CGC 5'
(4) 3' CCG 5'

46) Opioids are the drugs which bind to specific opioid receptors present in our CNS and GIT.
Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically....., which is white, odourless, bitter crystalline
compound, obtained by.......of morphine.

(1) Diacetylmorphine, methylation

(2) Diacetylmorphine, acetylation
(3) Benzodiazepines, amination
(4) Amphetamines, acetylation

47) After getting into the body of the person HIV virus enters into macrophages where RNA genome
of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) Transcriptase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Protease

48) Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

(1) Dysentery
(2) Dengue
(3) Malaria
(4) Chicken pox

49) _____ produces an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them.

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Basophils
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Helper T-cell

50) The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of :-

(1) Anxiety, Shakiness, Nausea, Sweating

(2) Reckless behaviour, vandalism, Violence
(3) Death
(4) Fever

51) HIV that causes AIDS, starts destroying:

(1) N-K cell

(2) T-killer cell
(3) T-helper cell
(4) B-cell

52) Which of the following set of diseases is caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera and tetanus

(2) Typhoid and smallpox
(3) Tetanus and mumps
(4) Herpes and influenza

53) Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory
test for typhoid.

(1) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

(2) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Anthronc test

54) Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells may be induced by which agents?

(1) Physical
(2) Chemical
(3) Biological
(4) All of the above

55) Use of hyper immune horse serum raised against a specific pathogen, given to a recipient is an
example of :

(1) Artificial active immunity

(2) Natural passive immunity
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(4) Natural active immunity

56) Read the statement carefully :

(1) Morphine is very effective sedative and painkiller.
(2) These days opioids are also being abused by some sportspersons.
(3) Natural cannabinoids are obtained form the inflorescences of the plant papaver somniferum.
(4) Coca alkaloid interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

57) Choose the incorrect statement among given below :

(1) Ascaris is an intestinal endoparasite.
(2) Wuchereria mainly affects the lymphatic vessels.
(3) Filariasis is transmitted by female anopheles mosquito.
(4) The main symptoms of ascariasis are internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia etc.

58) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Entamoeba (a) dry scaly lesions on skin

Streptococcus Blockage of intestine, fever,

(ii) (b)
pneumoniae muscular pain, internal bleeding

Stomach pain, stool with blood and

(iii) Microsporum (c)
mucus

fever with chils, lips and nail of

(iv) Ascaris (d)
finger may turn gray to bluish
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b

59) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
(ELISA).
Statement II: Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is completely effective.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

60) Identify A, B, C in given diagram :-

(1) A-Light chain, B-Heavy drain, C-Antigen binding site

(2) A-Heavy chain, B-Light chain, C-Antigen binding site
(3) A-Antigen binding site, B-Light chain, C-Heavy chain
(4) A-Light chain, B-Antigen binding site, C-Heavy chain

61) Identify the incorrect statements ?

(1) Bone marrow and thymus are site of maturation of lymphocyte.

(2) MALT constitutes 80% of the lymphoid tissue
(3) Spleen is the large reservoir of RBC
(4) Appendix is a secondary lymphoid tissue

62) The first mammals arose–

(1) After the extinction of dinosaurs

(2) Before the origin of dinosaurs
(3) Alongwith the dinosaurs
(4) From the dinosaurs

63) The original form of finches of Darwin in Galapagos island were adapted for :

(1) Honey collecting

(2) Insect eating
(3) Seed eating
(4) Fish eating

64) Which type of selection is observed in moth (Biston betularia) during industrial melanism ?

(1) Stabilising
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Artificial

65) Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a placental mammal. This shows :

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Inheritance of acquired character
(4) Adaptive radiation

66) Which of the following extinct animal is considered as closest relative of mammals?

(1) Thecodonts
(2) Therapsids
(3) Pelycosaurs
(4) Synapsids
67) Example of fish like reptile is :

(1) Ichthyosaurs
(2) [Link]
(3) Triceratops
(4) Crocodile

68) Identify the correct sequence of periods of mesozoic era:

(1) Devonian → Silurian → Cambrian

(2) Cambrian → Ordovician →Devonian
(3) Triassic→ Jurassic→ Cretaceous
(4) Triassic→ Cretuceous →Jurassic

69) Which organisms probably evolved into first amphibians?

(1) Synapsids
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Coelacanth
(4) Ichthyosaurs

70) The Swan Neck flask experiment was performed to disprove the theory of :

(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Continuity of germplasm
(3) Special creation
(4) Panspermia

71) Which of the following statements is correct about Australopithecus ?

(1) They were probably taller than 4 feet.

(2) Probably lived in East and Central Asia.
(3) They hunted with stone weapons.
(4) They essentially ate meat.

72) Match the columns and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Chemical evolution I. Darwin

B. Branching descent II. de Vries

C. Saltation III. Thomas Malthus

D. Work on population IV. Oparin and Haldane

A B C D
 (1) I II III IV

(2) IV III I II

(3) IV I II III

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Gene frequency (I) When gene migration happen multiple time

(B) Gene flow (II) Stable from generation to generation

When section of population gets isolated

(C) Gene pool (III)
from original population

(D) Founder effect (IV) Total number of gene and their alleles
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

74) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I :- According to Hardy-Weinberg principle the gene pool remain constant.
Statement-II :- According to Hardy-Weinberg principle p2 represent frequency of dominant allele.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I & II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but II is correct.

75) Which of the following is involved in passive immunity?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

76) Differentiation of immature lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs in :-

(1) Spleen
(2) Liver
(3) Bone marrow and Thymus
(4) Secondary lymphoid organs

77) The exaggereted response of the immune system to certain antigens is called-

(1) Primary immune response

(2) Secondary immune response
(3) Immune suppression response
(4) Allergy

78) Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of

(1) Opium
(2) Alcohol
(3) Tobacco (chewing)
(4) Cocaine

79) Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of
many infections disease, which one of the following is not included in personal hygiene ?

(1) Keeping the body clean.

(2) Consumption of clean drinking water food, vegetables and fruits.
(3) Cutting out enlarged nails at regular intervals.
(4) Proper disposal of waste and excreta

80) Which of the following sentences is correct :

(1) MALT constitute about 50 percent of lymphoid tissue

(2) Virus infected cells secrete protein called antibody.
(3) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs prevents death of patient
(4) α-interferon suppress immune system and helps in destroying the tumor

81) Match list I with list II :

List I List II

(A) Diacetyl morphine (i) Smack

(B) Cannabis sativa (ii) Cannabinoids

(C) Cocaine (iii) Erythroxylum

(D) Tobacco (iv) Nicotine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, c-iv, D-iii
82) Which of the following statements about the immune system are true ?
(a) B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
(b) T-lymphocytes do not produce antibodies.
(c) The spleen acts as a filter for blood and traps pathogens.
(d) Vaccination is an example of active immunity.
(e) Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system attacks foreign pathogens.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a, c, e only
(2) a, b, e only
(3) b, c, d only
(4) b, c, d, e only

83) According to Oparin – Haldane life has come from:

(1) Pre existing non-living organic molecules

(2) Pre existing living organic molecules
(3) Some another planet
(4) Decaying and rotting material

84) Choose correct statement w.r.t. evolution :

(1) Slow and discontinuous Process

(2) Fast and continuous process
(3) Slow and continuous process
(4) Fast and discontinuous process

85) Assertion : Darwin concluded that existing living forms share similarities with life forms which
existed millions years ago.
Reason : Darwin insisted small variations gradually accumulated for formation of new species from
common ancestors.
Select correct option for assertion and reason :-

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

86) Which of the following is herbivore is aquatic ecosystem :-

(1) Insect
(2) Birds
(3) Mammals
(4) Mollusca

87) Which of the following belongs to 2nd trophic levels :-

(1) Plants
(2) Herbivores
(3) Carnivores
(4) Human

88) The reason of greater biodiversity in tropics is :-

(1) tropical latitude remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.

(2) tropical environments are relatively less seasonal.
(3) There are more solar energy available for tropics.
(4) All of these

89) Biology is represented as :-

(1) Botany
(2) Zoology
(3) Microbiology
(4) All of these

90)

Assertion :- The problem of predation is severe for plants.

Reason :- They can not run away from their predator.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Relative potential Method.

2) i = ig ×
iG = (ig – i)S

ig

3ig =
⇒ 30 = 7S

S=

3) = 5 div/mA

Where C = releasing torque

So, VS =

20 =

R=
R = 250 Ω

4) Pmax ⇒ r = R

5)

When supplied voltage is equal to rated voltage then in series combination, power is given by
6)

V = ε – Ir
50 = ε – Ir = ε – 11r ...(1)
60 = ε – Ir = ε – 1r ...(2)
On solving (1) & (2)
(60 – 50) = (–1 + 11)r
10 = 10r
∴ r=1Ω

7)
As I2 = 0
So, VBC = 4V and 400Ω
becomes in series with X
VAB = 20 – 4 = 16 V

Across X :

8)
Total emf. = 6E – 2E = 4E
Total resistance = 6r

∴ VA = E + Ir

9)
10)

Theory based

11)

=2+3+4
I = 9A

12)

J = 20 × 106 A/m2

13) Figure of merit K =

K1 = = 3.9 × 10–5

K2 = = 3.9 × 10–5

K= = 3.9 × 10–5
⇒

14) .... (1) .... (2)

15)

Dividing

Solving t = 300°C
16) For A : L = ℓ ; A = ℓt

.......(I)
For B : L = 2ℓ ; A = 2ℓt

....(II)

17)

Li = ℓ ; Lf = ℓ + ...........(I)
Volume remains constant

.........(II)

= [(1.4)2 – 1] × 100
= 96%

18)
q1 = 2 × 25 = 50 μC
Potential of 4μF = 5V

19)
W.D by battery
=

=
20)

Apply K.V.L from D to A

VA = 20 V
Apply K.V.L from D to B

VB = – 20V

22) slope of v – x = tan θ

E1 ∝ tanθ1 ⇒

E2 ∝ tanθ2 ⇒

23) Q = const. (Battery removed) ;

C → decreases ; ↑ U =

E = field increases.

24)

∴ 55 is 25% of 220
Clearly t0 will Be more than τ.
Because at τ time current reaches to 37% of maximum value.

25) Capacitor → open ; I = = 0.2 A

Apply KVL to find Potential difference

26)
Where

27)

From the given graphs, find the voltages, VA and VB, on capacitor A and B corresponding to
charge Q on each of the capacitors. Clearly,

and or
Since, VB > VA, CA > CB i.e., the capacitor A has the higher capacitance.

28)
C = 1.77 × 10–11 F
When the capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, charge on each plate of the capacitor
q = CV = 1.77 × 10–11 × 100
q = 1.77 × 10–9 C

29) Given, capacitance of capacitor C1 = 600 pF

= 600 × 10–12 F and supply voltage V1 = 200 V
C2 = 600 pF = 600 × 10–12 F and V2 = 0

Loss in energy (E) =

⇒
= 6 × 10–6 J
Thus, the 6 × 10–6 J amount of electrostatic energy is lost in the sharing of charges.

30)

......(1)

New

.........(II)
∴ From (I) and (II)
FC = 8F N towards –q

31)

x= r=
From 9e charge

32)
E2 = electric field due to Q2

From diagram

33)

flux through cube =

flux through surfaces ABEH, ADGH, ABCD will be zero

ϕ (EFGH) = ϕ (DCFG) = ϕ (EBCF) =

34)
qE = Mg

neE =
n × 1.6 × 10–19 × 3.55 × 105

= 3 × 103 × × π × (2 × 10–3)3 × 9.81

n = 173 × 10(3 – 9 – 5 + 19)
n = 1.73 × 1010

35)

r < R, E = 0

, E=0

36)

VO = +
VO = 0, EO ≠ 0

37)
Potential at origin =
(Potential at ∞ = 0)

= KQ

∴ Work required to put a fifth charge Q at origin is equal to

38)

39)

Potential of –q is same as initial and final point of the path therefore potential due to 4q will
only change and as potential is decreasing the energy will decrease
Decrease in potential energy = q (Vi – Vf)
Decrease in potential energy

40)

Flux of through sphere is zero

But ⇒ for small section ds only

Statement-2
 As change encloses within gaussian surface is equal to zero.

Option(2) statement-1 correct statement-2 false.

41)

As outer sphere is earthed, the charge on its outer surface is zero.

So, the E.F. out side it will be zero

42)

When a positively charged body connected to earth, electrons flows from earth to body and
body becomes neutral.

43) New charges will be –2μC and +3μC.

In first case;

In second case ; F =

∴
or F = –10 N

44)

Theory based

45) Electric field is due to all charges that are present inside and outside the Gaussian surface

CHEMISTRY

49)
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 25 = 32 times

50)
In k = ℓnA – Ea/RT
For ln k vs 1/T
ln A = intercept
–Ea/R = Slope = –2 × 104 K
Ea = R × 2 × 104 K = 8.3 × 2 × 104 J mol–1
= 16.6 × 104 J mol–1 or 166 KJ mol–1

51)
ΔH = Ea – Eb
5 = 15 – Eb
Eb = 15 – 5 = 10 kJ mol–1

52) 2P + Q → R
differential rate equation

62)

Copper is less reactive than Fe

68)

Theory Based

70)
S = 10–5

74)
–65.5 = ΔH + (–11.7)
ΔH = –53.8 kJ/mol

76) Eq. KMnO4 = Eq. C2O4

.025 × 5 × 20 = 0.1 × 2 × V
V = 12.5 ml

77) pH range for titration is 6 to 11.

78)

83)
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