14-06-2026

1015CMD303003260007 MD

PHYSICS

1) A man walks 30 m towards North, then 20 m towards East and the last towards South-
East. The displacement from origin is

(1) 10 m towards West

(2) 50 m towards east
(3) towards North-West
(4) towards North-East

2) An object travels 10 km at a speed of 100 m/s and another 10 km at 50 m/s. The average speed
over the whole distance is :-

(1) 75 m/s
(2) 55 m/s
(3) 66.7 m/s
(4) 33.3 m/s

3) A car running on a straight road covers a distance of 15 m in 2 s and then returns back to the
initial position in next 3 s. The average speed and average velocity of car are respectively :-

(1) 3 m/s, 5 m/s

(2) 6 m/s, 0 m/s
(3) 0 m/s, 6 m/s
(4) 6 m/s, 6 m/s

4) A particle is moving with a constant speed v in a circle. What is the magnitude of average velocity
after half rotation?

(1) 2v

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A person walks a distance of 30 m towards west with a speed of 2 ms–1 and 40 m towards north
with a speed of
1.5 ms–1. Then average speed and average velocity of his journey are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle moves along a circle with a uniform speed v. After it has made an angle of 60°, the
change in its speed and velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 0, v

7) A car covers part of total distance with a speed of 20 km hr–1 and second part with a speed of

30 km hr–1 and the last part with a speed of 60 km hr–1. The average speed of the car is :-

(1) 55 kmhr–1
(2) 30 kmhr–1
(3) 44 kmhr–1
(4) 37.3 kmhr–1

8) A car travels a distance d on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point in
next three hours. Its average speed and average velocity is :

(1)

(2)
,0

(3)

(4) None of these

9)

A man travells 30 m with speed 20 m/s then 20 m with 40 m/s then 50 m with 25 m/s his average
speed is

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 25 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) None of these

10) If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t2)m/s then the average acceleration of particle between 2
sec and 5 sec is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

11) A particle is moving with a velocity of 10m/s towards east. After 20 s its velocity changes to
10m/s towards north. Its average acceleration is :-

(1) zero
(2) m/s2 towards N-W

(3)
m/s2 towards N-E

(4)
m/s2 towards N-W

12)

Displacement of particle is given by s=at2 +bt+c. Find the ratio of initial velocity and initial
acceleration.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t, where x and y
are in metre and t in seconds. The acceleration of particle at t = 5 s is

(1) Zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

14) For motion of an object along the x-axis the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 –
2x, then what is the acceleration at x = 2m.

(1) 48 ms–2
(2) 80 ms–2
(3) 18 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

15)

The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The retardation
is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

16) The displacement is given by x = 2t2 + t + 5, the acceleration at t = 5 sec will be

(1) 8 m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

17) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 4m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h., what is the minimum stopping distance ?

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 8 m

18) A particle is moving with constant acceleration from A to B in a straight line AB. If u and v are
the velocities at A and B, respectively, then its velocity at the midpoint C will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If a train travelling at 72 km/h is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its retardation
should be:

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

20) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of distance travelled by the body during 4th and 3rd
second?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 seconds after starting from rest. If it travels a
distance s1 in the first 10 seconds and distance s2 in the next 10 seconds, then:

(1) s2 = s1
(2) s2 = 2s1
(3) s2 = 3s1
(4) s2 = 4s1

22) For given graph slope will be –

(1) tan30°
(2) tan120°
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

23) If then graph between x & y:–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) What is the maximum value of function y = 5 sin x – cos x ?

(1)
(2) 7
(3) 10
(4)

25) Arc length of 15π cm makes an angle of radian. Find the radius of the circle ?

(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 30 cm

26) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 > m2

27) The slope of straight line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

28)

The maximum value of y = sin(x) cos(x) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A force newton produces acceleration 1 m/s2 in a body. The mass of the body is
(in kg) :-

(1)
(2) 100
(3)
(4) 10

30) A rocket consumes fuel at the rate of 100 kg/s. The exhust gases are ejected at a speed of 5 ×
104 m/s. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the force experienced by the rocket is :-

(1) 5 × 102 N
(2) 5 × 104 N
(3) 5 × 106 N
(4) 50 N

31) and is removed then acceleration of particle of mass m on which these are
acting :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) A Football and a stone has same mass then both have :

(1) Same inertia

(2) Same momentum
(3) different inertia
(4) different momentum

33) A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless horizontal plane. It is struck by a jet
releasing water at a rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will
be:

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s

34) A man of mass m is standing in an elevator moving downward with an acceleration . The force
exerted by the bottom surface of the elevator on the man will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Working of rocket or jet is based on :-

(1) Newton's law

(2) Newton's II law
(3) Newton's III law
(4) All the three laws

36) A block is kept on a smooth horizontal surface and applied by a force as shown in figure. The

acceleration of the block will be (sin 37° = 3/5 and g=10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m/s2 in the direction of 10 N force

(2) 10 m/s2 in horizontal direction
(3) 8 m/s2 in horizontal direction
(4) 6 m/s2 in vertical direction
37) A body of mass 1 kg moving on a smooth horizontal surface with velocity 5 ms–1 is to be brought
to rest in 5s. How much force need to be applied?

(1) 25 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 1 N

38) The linear momentum p of a body moving in one dimension varies with time according to the
equation where a and b are positive constants. The net force acting on the body is

(1) Proportional to t2
(2) Constant
(3) Proportional to t
(4) Inversely proportional to t

39) A disc of mass 1·0 kg kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass 0·05 kg each
vertically at it, at the rate of 10 per second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed, the speed

with which these are fired will be– (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0·098 m/s

(2) 0·98 m/s
(3) 9·8 m/s
(4) 98·0 m/s

40) In given force-time graph : find impulse on particle ?

(1) 1.6 NS
(2) 0.16 NS
(3) 0.8 NS
(4) 0.08 NS

41) If momentum of a particle is given by

P = (4t2 – 2t) N-sec then find the force acting on it, at t = 1 sec :-
(1) 8 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 6 N
(4) – 2 N

42) For action and reaction pair, which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) act on two different objects

(2) have equal magnitude
(3) have opposite directions
(4) have resultant non-zero on whole system

43) Two forces, one with a magnitude of 3N and the other with a magnitude of 5N, are applied to an
object. For which orientations of the forces shown in the diagrams is the magnitude of the
acceleration of the object the least ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A 45 kg box starts from rest and moves on a smooth plane the force that varies with time as
shown. The velocity of the box at t = 8 sec is:-

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 24 m/s

45) Assertion :- A batsman is protected from injury by wearing helmet.

Reason :- Helmet prolongs the time of impact.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

CHEMISTRY

1) An electron is placed in one of the following orbitals. Which orbital will have the highest energy?

(1) 4d
(2) 5p
(3) 5d
(4) 6s

2) Arrange the following orbitals in increasing order of their energy : 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p

(1) 3p < 3d < 4s < 4p

(2) 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p
(3) 4s < 4p < 3p < 3d
(4) 4p < 4s < 3d < 3p

3) The electronic configuration of Gadolinium Gd (z = 64) is :

(1) [Xe] 6s2 4f7 5d1

0
(2) [Xe] 6s2 4f8 5d
(3) [Xe] 6s2 4f6 5d2
0
(4) [Xe] 6s1 4d9 5d

4)

Match the general outer electronic configuration in Column-I with their element classification in
Column-II.

Column-I
Column-II
(General
(Classification)
Configuration)

(A) ns2np5 (i) Alkali metals

(B) ns1 (ii) Chalcogens

(C) ns2np4 (iii) Noble gases

(D) ns2np6 (iv) Halogens

(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
5) Assertion (A) : The maximum capacity of a d-subshell is 10 electrons.
Reason (R) : The energy of the 5d orbital is greater than that of the 4f orbitals.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

6) Which of the following sets of elements does not strictly represent a Dobereiner's Triads?

(1) Li3, Na11, K19

(2) Ca20, Sr38, Ba56
(3) Cl17, Br35, I53
(4) F9, Cl17, Br35

7) Consider the following statements regarding early periodic tables :

Statements-I : Newland's law of octaves was found to be applicable only upto potassium.
Statements-II : In Lothar Meyer's curve, strongly electropositive alkali metals occupied the peak
positions.
Choose the correct option :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

8) An element has the IUPAC name Unnilpentium.

In which block of the periodic table does the element belong?

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block
0
9) An element 'X' has its valence electronic configuration represented as (n–2) f9 (n–1)d ns2. If n = 6,
the element belongs to which group and period?

(1) Period 6 Group 3

(2) Period 5 Group 4
(3) Period 4 Group 9
(4) Period 6 Group 11

10) The arrangement of element into groups in the long form of the periodic table is primarily
justified by which of the following features?

(1) Element in group have same no. of total isotopes.

(2) Element in group having identical valence shell electronic configuration.
(3) Element in a group have identical values for all four quantum numbers.
(4) Elements in a group are always found together in nature as ores.

11) Which of the following element was given the name Eka - aluminium by Mendeleev

(1) Scandium
(2) Germanium
(3) Gallium
(4) Sillican

12) What was the most unique and successful feature of Mendeleev's periodic table?

(1) It included noble gases like Helium and Neon.

(2) It was arranged exactly like the modern table.
(3) He left black spaces for undiscovered elements.
(4) It grouped metals and nonmetals together.

13) Match the following column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic Number) (Block of Periodic table)

(A) 37 (P) p-block

(B) 52 (Q) d-block

(C) 25 (R) s-block

(D) 65 (S) f-block

(1) (A)-(P), (B)-(Q), (C)-(R), (D)-(S)
(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(Q), (D)-(S)
(3) (A)-(S), (B)-(R), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
(4) (A)-(Q), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(R)

14) Which of the following option is incorrect?

(1) Trace amount of Neptunium and plutonium are also found in pitch blende. (U3O8).
(2) Group-3rd (IIIrdB) having 32 elements.
(3) In lanthanide series promethium is only radioactive lanthanide.
(4) In actinide series all elements are man made (artificial)

15) Which of the following statement is wrong?

(1) Total No. of liquid elements in the periodic table - six

(2) All type of elements are present in 6th period.
(3) Iodine is a gaseous element.
(4) The first metallic element in the periodic table is Lithium (Li).
16) If (n + ℓ) rule is not followed then calcium (20) exist in which block?

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

17) Statement-I : All inert gases having general electronic configuration ns2np6.
Statement-II : Inert gases are the last elements of their respective periods. A new period always
begins after them.

(1) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

18) Which transition in H-atom gives visible radiation ?

(1) 5 → 3
(2) 6 → 1
(3) 3 → 2
(4) 6 → 5

19) The third line in Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr's
orbits in hydrogen ?

(1) 5 → 3
(2) 5 → 2
(3) 4 → 3
(4) 4 → 2

20)

Which among the following has least de-Broglie wave length? (If velocity is same for all)

(1) CO2
(2) N2
(3) Electron
(4) All

21)

Number of waves by an electron in 5th orbit ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 2

22) Find total number of spectral lines when the electron of H-atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 state:-

(1) 15
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 4

23)

Calculate the number of absorption lines:

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

24) What is wavelength of last line of lyman series in H-spectrum :

(1) 1012 A°
(2) 912 A°
(3) 1216 A°
(4) 608 A°

25) Match the following:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Lyman (i) n1 = 2, n2 = 3,4, ...

(B) Balmer (ii) n1 = 1, n2 = 2,3, ...

(C) Paschen (iii) n1 = 4, n2 = 5,6, ...

(D) Brackett (iv) n1 = 3, n2 = 4,5, ...

(1) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(iii)
(2) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iv); D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(i)
(4) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)

26) If the shortest wavelength of Lyman series of H–atom is x then wavelength of first line of Balmer
series of H-atom will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Find number of electrons present in following quantum number set n = 4, ℓ = 2

(1) 10
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 2

28) For a moving electron if uncertainity in measurment of position is zero then uncertainity in
velocity will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) ∞

(3)

(4)

29) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is :-
[h = 6.6 × 10–34 J sec]

(1) 6.626 × 10–34 m

(2) 13.20 × 10–34 m
(3) 10.38 × 10–21 m
(4) 6.626 × 10–34 Å

30) If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased 4 times, the wavelength of the de–Broglie wave
associated with it would become :-

(1) Four times

(2) Two times
(3) Half times
(4) One fourth times

31) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not possible :-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = – 1/2
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = – 1/2
(3) n = 3, l = 3, m = –3, s = + 1/2
(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1/2

32) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible for an electron in a 4f-orbital?

(1) n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2
(2) n = 4, l = 4, m = + 4, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = –1/2
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = 4, s = +1/2

33) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function Ψ520 :-

(1) 3d
(2) 4d
(3) 4p
(4) 5d

34) n, ℓ and m values of an electron in 3py orbital are:-

(1) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = +1
(2) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = –1
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) None of these

35) 2p orbitals have :-

(1) n = 1, l = 2
(2) n = 1, l = 0
(3) n = 2, l = 1
(4) n = 2, l = 0

36) How many orbitals and electrons are associated with n = 4 ?

(1) 32, 64
(2) 16, 32
(3) 4, 16
(4) 8, 16

37) The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) zero
(4)

38) Maximum number of electron present in M shell is :-

(1) 8
(2) 18
(3) 32
(4) 10

39) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(quantum number) (Subshell)

(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (i) 2s

(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (ii) 3s

(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (iii) 2p

(d) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (iv) 3d
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

40) If the de–Broglie wavelength of 4th Bohr orbit of H-atom is 2Å, the circumference of the orbit will
be :-

(1) 8 nm
(2) 2Å
(3) 8Å
(4) 2 nm

41)

In which among the following Hund rule is not followed?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value

(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) +1
(4) All of the above are correct

43)

For H-atom which among the following is correct?

(1) 2s = 2p
(2) 2s < 3s
(3) 1s < 2s
(4) All are correct

44)

Among 3s, 4p, 5s and 3d, determine the correct energy sequence-

(1) 3s < 4p < 5s < 3d

(2) 3s < 3d < 4p < 5s
(3) 3d < 3s < 4p < 5s
(4) 4p < 5s < 3d < 3s

45)

If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, the no. of spectral lines emitted is equal to :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

BIOLOGY

1) Statement- I : Mitotic cell division in animals is completely restricted to diploid somatic cells
with no exceptions whatsoever.
Statement-II : Plants can easily exhibit mitotic cell divisions in both their haploid and diploid
cellular phases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

2) Match Column-I (Cell Division/Phase) with Column-II (Characteristic Function) and select the
correct option from the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II
 short-lived phase
between two meiotic
A Mitosis i
divisions with no DNA
replication

Restores
nucleo-cytoplasmic
B Meiosis ii
ratio and facilitates
cell repair

Conserves specific
chromosome numbers
C G1 phase iii
across generations
and introduces variations

Period of continuous
D Interkinesis iv cellular growth and
normal metabolic activity
(1) A-ii ; B-iii ; C-iv ; D-i
(2) A-iii ; B-ii ; C-iv ; D-i
(3) A-ii ; B-iii; C-i ; D-iv
(4) A-iv ; B-i ; C-ii ; D-iii

3) Match the specific features and structures in Column-I with the correct cell types, locations, or
descriptions in Column-II:

Column-I Column-II

Mitotic division in During

A i
haploid cells telophase

Presence of
B ii Kinetochores
16 chromosomes

X-shaped Male
C iii
structures honey bees

Disc-shaped
D structures at iv Chiasmata
centromere surface

Site of Onion root

E v
crossing over tip cells

Identity of
chromosomes Recombination
F vi
lost as discrete nodules
elements

vii Heart cells

Diploid somatic
viii
cells only
(1) A-viii, B-v, C-iv, D-ii, E-vi, F-i
(2) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-ii, E-vi, F-i
(3) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-vii, E-vi, F-viii
(4) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-vi, F-i

4) Consider the following statements regarding the cellular changes observed during the final
phases of nuclear division:
1. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under a microscope, display distinct golgi complexes,
nucleoli, and a highly defined nuclear envelope.
2. The start of metaphase is physically marked by the complete disintegration of the nuclear
envelope.
3. At anaphase, as chromosomes move away from the equatorial plate, the centromere remains
directed towards the pole as the leading edge.
4. Telophase marks the reformation of the nucleolus, golgi complex, and endoplasmic reticulum.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 2, 3, and 4
(3) 1, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 2, and 4

5) Which of the following is not correct about the given diagram?

(1) This diagram is exhibiting the events occurring during late anaphase.
(2) Each chromosome is connected to both of the poles through spindle fibres
(3) Number of chromosomes remain as the same as in the G2 phase
(4) These chromosome are aligned on the equatorial plane

6) Match the descriptions of physical or quantitative shifts in Column-I with the corresponding stage
or context in Column-II:

Column-I Column-II

DNA content
A doubles from i G1 phase
2C to 4C

Non dividing
B ii Interkinesis
cells exist in

Cell grows and

carries out normal
C iii Pachytene
metabolism
without replication

Short-lived phase
with no DNA
D iv Metaphase
replication
between divisions
 Morphology of
E chromosomes is v S phase
most easily studied

Four chromatids
of each bivalent
F vi Mitosis
clearly appear
as a tetrad

Quiescent
vii
stage (G0)
(1) A-v, B-vii, C-i, D-ii, E-iv, F-iii
(2) A-v, B-i, C-vii, D-ii, E-iv, F-iii
(3) A-i, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv, F-vii
(4) A-v, B-v, C-vii, D-i, E-iv, F-iii

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: During Anaphase I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes separate while sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
Statement- II: During Anaphase II of meiosis, splitting of the centromere of each chromosome
occurs simultaneously, allowing sister chromatids to move toward opposite poles.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

8) Which of the following are regulatory proteins responsible for seamless performance of events of
the cell cycle?

(1) Histone proteins

(2) Cyclins only
(3) CDKs only
(4) Both cyclins and CDKs

9) Match the biological events listed in Column-I with the most appropriate cellular stages or
structures in Column-II:

Column-I Column-II

Dissolution of
A synaptonemal i Anaphse-I
complex

Simultaneous
B splitting of ii Pachytene
centromeres
 Homologous
C chromosomes iii Diplotene
separate

Exchange of
D iv Anaphase-II
genetic material

Liquid
Formation of
E v endosperm
syncytium
in coconut

Reapperance of
F vi Telophase
nucleolus and ER

vii Prophase-II

viii Zygotene
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii, E-v, F-vi
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-v, F-vi
(3) A-viii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii, E-v, F-vii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii, E-v, F-vi

10) Consider the following statements regarding the key structural events of the cell cycle:
1. During the S phase of animal cells, DNA replication begins in the nucleus while the centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm.
2. At the quiescent stage (Go), cells exit the cell cycle completely and become metabolically inactive.
3. In plant cells, cytokinesis begins in the center with the development of a cell-plate that represents
the future middle lamella.
4. Liquid endosperm in coconut is an example of a syncytium, which arises when karyokinesis is not
followed by cytokinesis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 1, 3, and 4
(3) 2, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 2, 3, and 4

11) Which of the following details from the text regarding the description of Ernst Mayr is
INCORRECT?

(1) He was an evolutionary biologist at Harvard University.

(2) He has been called 'The Darwin of the 19th century'.
(3) He pioneered the currently accepted definition of a biological species.
He almost single-handedly made the origin of species diversity the central question of
(4)
evolutionary biology.

12) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are kept together in the order
Polymoniales.
Reason (R): Taxonomic orders are assemblages of related families that exhibit a few similar
characters, and for these families, grouping is based mainly on floral features.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

13) Given below are two statements:

Statement- I : The process of classification groups organisms into convenient categories based on
some easily observable characters.
Statement- II : External and internal structure, structure of the cell, developmental processes, and
ecological information are the basic processes essential to modern taxonomic studies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

14) Match Column-I (Organisms) with Column-II (Their respective taxonomic Order) and select the
correct option from the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II

A Anacardiaceae i Class

B Sapindales ii Family

C Dicotyledonae iii Phylum/Division

D Angiospermae iv Order
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

15) Which of the following sequences represents the correct taxonomic hierarchy for the Housefly
(Musca domestica) in descending order (from highest category to lowest)?

(1) Arthropoda → Insecta → Diptera → Muscidae → Musca → domestica

(2) Insecta → Arthropoda → Diptera → Muscidae → Musca
(3) Musca → Muscidae → Diptera → Insecta → Arthropoda
(4) Arthropoda → Diptera → Insecta → Muscidae → Musca

16)

What is the title of the publication written by Carolus Linnaeus?

(1) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(2) Systema Naturae
(3) The Origin of Species
(4) Trinomial System of Classification

17) Consider the following statements about taxonomic classification:

1. Animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals are grouped together into the
Phylum Chordata based on features like a notochord and a dorsal hollow neural system.
2. For plants, terms like 'Phylum' are strictly used instead of 'Division'.
3. The genus Panthera includes species like leo, tigris, and pardus.
4. Families are characterized entirely on vegetative features, ignoring reproductive habits.
5. Each rank or taxon, in fact, represents a unit of classification.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1 ,2 ,3 and 5
(2) 1, 3 and 5
(3) 2,3,4 and 5
(4) 1,2, 3 and 4

18) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
• Assertion (A) : As we move from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the problem of
classification becomes more complex.
• Reason (R) : As we go higher in the hierarchy, the number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing, making it harder to determine relationships to other taxa at the same level.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

19) ‘Cats’, ‘Mammals’, ‘Wheat’, ‘Rice’, ‘Plants’, ‘Animals’,’Dogs” represent

(1) Same taxa belonging to same rank

(2) Different taxa belonging to same level
(3) taxa at different levels
(4) taxon at same levels

20) Which of the following statements regarding the universal rules of nomenclature is
INCORRECT?

(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and printed in italics.

The first word representing the genus starts with a capital letter, while the specific epithet
(2)
starts with a small letter.
 Both words in a biological name, when handwritten, are jointly underlined to indicate their
(3)
Latin origin.
(4) The name of the author appears after the specific epithet in an abbreviated form.

21) Read the following statements and select the correct option:

(1) The process of nomenclature can happen before an organism is correctly identified.
(2) The scientific term used for convenient categories to study organisms is taxa.
Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order Polymoniales based
(3)
mainly on vegetative characters.
(4) The number of known and described species ranges between 1.7-1.8 billion.

22) Small disc-shaped structures present at the surface of the centromeres that serve as attachment
sites for spindle fibers are known as:

(1) Asters
(2) Chromatids
(3) Kinetochores
(4) Bivalents

23) Which of the following is the correct scientific name of potato?

(1) Solanum tuberosum

(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn.
(4) Solanum melongena

24) What will be the number of chromosome and amount of DNA in dyad of cells, if the gametes
have 5 chromosomes with 10 picograms DNA respectively ?

(1) 10 and 10 pg
(2) 5 and 20 pg
(3) 5 and 10 pg
(4) 10 and 20 pg

25) If the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell undergoing meiosis is 16 during G2, then find out
number of chromosomes in anaphase - I and anaphase - II respectively ?

(1) 16 and 8
(2) 8 and 16
(3) 8 and 8
(4) 16 and 16

26) Meiosis ensures the production of ……X……phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
organisms whereas fertilisation restores the …..Y…… phase.
X and Y are respectively.
(1) Haploid and haploid
(2) Diploid and haploid
(3) Haploid and diploid
(4) Diploid and diploid

27) Arrested diplotene in oocytes of certain vertebrates is also known as -

(1) Bouquet stage

(2) Quiescent phase
(3) Interkinesis
(4) Dictyotene

28) Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis?

(1) Formation of haploid phase in diploid organisms

(2) Cell repair
(3) Growth in multicellular organisms
(4) Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio

29) Which of the following systems of classification is based on gross morphology?

(1) Aristotelian classification

(2) Linnean classification
(3) Classification of Bentham and Hooker
(4) Classification of Thaeophrastes

30) Which of the following is not correctly matched :

(1) Class- Mammalia

(2) Order - Polymoniales
(3) Family- monocotyledonae
(4) Genus - Triticum

31) Which of the following in not a valid scientific name?

(1) Pisum pisum

(2) Rattus rattus
(3) Naja naja
(4) Gorilla gorilla gorilla

32) Which of the following is a valid suffix for nomenclature of families of plants?

(1) -opsida
(2) - ales
(3) - aceae
(4) - phyceae
33) The gene recombination in Pachytene takes place between-

(1) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

(2) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(3) Non sister chromatids of non homologous chromosomes
(4) Sister chromatids of the same chromosome

34) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia.

(2) Asterias exhibits radial symmetry.
(3) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal.
(4) Taenia is a triploblastic animal.

35) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

Column I Column II

A Porifera i Canal system

Water-vascular
B Aschelminthes ii
system

C Annelida iii Muscular pharynx

D Arthropoda iv Jointed appendages

E Echinodermata v Metameres
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-iv, E-i
(2) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-v, D-iv, E-ii
(4) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii

36) Which one of the following options is incorrect for phylum platyhelminthes ?

(1) All members are endoparasite into animals.

(2) Members of this phylum are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic animals.
(3) Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms.
(4) They have a dorso-ventrally flattened body.

37) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Molluscs have a segmented body with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral
hump.
Statement-II : The molluscs have a soft body surrounded by an external calcareous shell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

38) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material occurs through malpighian tubules.
(2) In Ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates.
(3) In Fasciola, flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation.
(4) Earthworms are hermaphrodites.

39) The given image shows different animals of various phyla from the kingdom Animalia. Inspite of
the differences in structure and form of different animals, there are fundamental features common
to various individuals. These features are used as the basis of animal classification.

Which of the following features is common to all these

animals?

(1) Presence of Coelom

(2) Diploblastic
(3) Organ system level of organisation
(4) Radial symmetry

40) Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda ?

(1) Chitinous exoskeleton

(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) Parapodia
(4) Jointed appendages

41) Which of the following characters in molluscs is present without any exception?

(1) The mouth contains a file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.
(2) Body is covered with calcareous shell.
(3) Unsegmented body and gills.
(4) A soft layer of skin forms a mantle over the visceral hump.

42) Read the following features (a to e) carefully :-

(a) Triploblastic
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) Often males are longer than females
(d) Pseudocoelomate
(e) Metameric segmentation
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct for members of phylum Aschelminthes ?

(1) c and d only

(2) b, d and e only
(3) a, b and d only
(4) c and e only

43) Mark the incorrect statement regarding the animal shown in the given figure:

(1) Respiration occurs by gills

(2) Excretion occurs by green glands
(3) It is an example of living fossil
(4) Jointed legs for swimming

44) Which of the following animals is radially symmetrical but has a bilaterally symmetrical larva ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Aplysia
(3) Pila
(4) Asterias

45) True coelom and metameric segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following
phylum?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

46) Given below is a list of some sexually reproducing animals. Select the hermaphrodite animals
from the list.
A. Nereis
B. Taenia
C. Pheretima
D. Ascaris
E. Hirudinaria
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) A and D only

(2) A, D and E only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) A, B and D only

47) The given image shows different animals of various phyla from the kingdom Animalia. Inspite of
the differences in structure and form of different animals, there are fundamental features common
to various individuals. These features are used as the basis of animal classification and some of them
are given in the table.
Select the correct option from the given table:

Bilateral
Triploblastic Coelomate
symmetry

(1) A,B,D,F,G A,B,D,E,G A,B,E,G

(2) A,B,C,D,G B,C,D,E B,D,E,F,G

(3) A,B,C,D,E,G A,B,E,G A,B,C,D,G

(4) B,D,E,F,G A,B,C,D,E,G A,B,D,E,G

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Select the incorrect statement about the animals belonging to phylum Annelida.

(1) They exhibit organ-system level of body organisation.

(2) They are triploblastic.
(3) They are metamerically segmented.
(4) Malpighian tubules help in osmoregulation and excretion.

49) Select the correct statements :

(A) In Echinoderms, fertilisation is usually external and development is indirect with free-swimming
larva.
(B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external with indirect development
(C) In tapeworm, sexes are not separate and fertilization is internal.
(D) In roundworms, Fertilisation is internal and development may be direct or indirect.
(E) In sponges, fertilization is external and development is direct.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (E) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

50) Which of the following is not the feature of the members of phylum Platyhelminthes?

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Complete digestive tract
(3) Excretory organs are flame cells
(4) Indirect development with many larval stages

51) Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

Spiny bodied
animals with an
A Platyhelminthes i
endoskeleton of
calcareous ossicles

Cylindrical body
which is composed
B Echinodermata ii
of an anterior proboscis,
a collar and a long trunk

Soft body
surrounded by
C Hemichordata iii
an external
calcareous shell.

Dorso-ventrally
flattened body with
some peculiar features
D Mollusca iv
like thick cuticle, hooks
and suckers in
parasitic forms

Identify the correctly matched option:

(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

52) The given images depict different animals of various phyla from the kingdom Animalia. Inspite of
the differences in structure and form of different animals, there are fundamental features common
to various individuals. These features are used as the basis of animal classification.

Which of the following features is common to all four animals?

(1) Presence of Coelom

(2) Cells are arranged in two embryonic layers i.e. Diploblastic
(3) Body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane i.e. bilateral symmetry
(4) Body shows metameric segmentation

53) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula in-
(1) Adamsia
(2) Aplysia
(3) Asterias
(4) Antedon

54) A group of researchers procured some worm like marine animals and upon investigation the
following characters were observed;
A. Body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk
B. Rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord.
C. The excretory organ is proboscis gland.
Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters ?

(1) Ascaris sp.

(2) Balaenoptera sp.
(3) Balanoglossus sp.
(4) Branchiostoma sp.

55) Select the group of pseudocoelomate animals from the sets of animals given below :-

(1) Ascaris, Fasciola, Taenia

(2) Culex, Locusta, Limulus
(3) Wuchereria, Ascaris, Ancylostoma
(4) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Wuchereria

56) During a marine biodiversity survey near Havelock Island in Andamans, a group of deep-sea
divers and marine biologists studying coastal reef biodiversity collected free-swimming, bilaterally
symmetrical larvae. When reared in seawater tanks, these larvae settled on hard surfaces and
transformed into radially symmetrical, bottom-dwelling [Link] adult forms showed complete
digestive system with mouth on the lower (ventral) side and anus on the upper (dorsal) [Link]
most distinctive feature identified during later dissection was an internal water vascular system
equipped with tube feet aiding locomotion, food capture, and respiration. No excretory organs were
observed, and external fertilization producing numerous free-swimming larvae was recorded.
Based on these observations, identify the correct phylum of this organism:

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Mollusca

57) Identify the option which correctly mentions various animals of phylum Arthropoda according to
their categories:-

Economically
Gregarious Living
important Vectors
pest fossil
insects

Apis, Bombyx, Anopheles,

(1) Limulus Locusta
Laccifer Culex, Aedes
 Apis, Bombyx, Anopheles,
(2) Laccifer Limulus
Locusta Culex, Aedes

Apis, Bombyx, Anopheles,

(3) Locusta Limulus
Laccifer Culex, Aedes

Anopheles, Apis, Bombyx,

(4) Limulus Laccifer
Culex, Aedes Locusta
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Which of the following statements is not correct about the animal shown in the given diagram?

(1) Absorbs nutrients from the host directly through their body surface.
(2) Specialised cells called flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion.
(3) Sexes are not separate.
(4) Fertilisation is internal and development is direct.

59) Match the column-I with the column-II and find out the correct answer :-

Column - I Column - II

(A) Spongocoel (i) Arthropoda

(B) Flame cells (ii) Cnidaria

Coelenteron
(C) (iii) Porifera
cavity

Chitinous
(D) (iv) Platyhelminthes
exoskeleton
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

60) Which of the following is/are similarity between cockroach and earthworm?
(A) Open blood vascular system
(B) Internal fertilisation
(C) Dioecious
(D) Double ventral nerve cord
(E) Indirect development

(1) Only B
(2) B, C and E
(3) Only D
(4) A, C and D

61) Which of the following animals is not correctly matched with the feature present in it?

(1) Fasciola- Specialised cells called flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion
(2) Ascaris- Males are longer than females
(3) Locusta- Excretion takes place through malpighian tubules
(4) Octopus- Mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.

62) Match the following animals with their respective phylum:

(A) Aplysia (i) Mollusca
(B) Asterias (ii) Echinodermata
(C) Adamsia (iii) Coelenterata
(D) Ancylostoma (iv) Aschelminthes
Select the correct option:

(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)

(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

63) Identify the following four animals (A, B, C and D) given below. Which one of these is not
correctly identified in the options given along with its correct common name and their phylum ?

Common
Figure Animal Phylum
name

1 A Octopus Devil fish Mollusca

2 B Taenia Tapeworm Platyhelminthes

3 C Aurelia Jelly fish Coelenterata

4 D Ophiura Brittle star Echinodermata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Read the following statements.

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Annelids.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct

65) What is the common feature in Nereis, Pheretima and Hirudinaria ?

(1) Hermaphroditism
(2) Open circulation
(3) Nephridia for excretion and osmoregulation
(4) Presence of pseudocoelom

66) Match Column-I (Character) with Column-II (Animal having it) and select the correct
option using the codes given below :-

Column I Column II

a Water transport system i Ctenoplana

b Water vascular system ii Spongilla

c Bioluminescence iii Obelia

d Metagenesis iv Asterias
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

67) During a practical examination at the histology lab, an unlabeled histological slide is provided to
you for identification. After careful examination under the microscope,you observed that cells are
tall, slender with cilia on the free surface. Based on microscopic observations, the tissue sample to
prepare the slide was most likely obtained from-

(1) Alveoli of lungs

(2) Lining of stomach
(3) Lining of small intestine
(4) Lining of fallopian tube
68) The four sketches given below in the table represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of the following tissues is not identified correctly with its location in our body?

Sketch of Name
Found in
animal tissue of tissue

Dense
regular Ligament
1
connective and Tendon
tissue

Brush Proximal
bordered convoluted
2
columnar tubule of
epithelium Nephron

Dense
irregular
3 Skin
connective
tissue

Between
adjacent
4 Cartilage bones in
the vertebral
column

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Which one of the following pairs is not matched correctly?

(1) Tendon- Attaches skeletal muscle to bone

(2) Adipose tissue - Specialized to store fats
(3) Areolar tissue - Often serves as a support framework for epithelium
(4) Ligament- Site of production of blood cells

70) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II
 Sheet-like tissue
which forms the
Connective
A I covering or lining
tissue
for some part of
the body

Maximum
Neural
B II contribution in
tissue
body weight

Most abundant
Epithelial
C III and widely
tissue
distributed tissue

Exerts greatest
Muscular control over body's
D IV
tissue responsiveness to
changing conditions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

71) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Cells of connective tissues secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate
between cells and fibres and act as matrix.
Statement-II : Bone has a very hard matrix due to calcium salts in it and Cartilage has slightly
pliable matrix due to chondroitin salts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

72) The epithelium, made up of a single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is present
in-

(1) Distal convoluted tubule of nephron

(2) Lining of small intestine
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) Endothelium of blood vessels

73) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
 Tubular
Compound
A I parts of
epithelium
nephron

Ciliated Stomach
B II
epithelium and intestine

Bronchioles
Columnar
C III and Fallopian
epithelium
tubes

Cuboidal Moist surface

D IV
epithelium of buccal cavity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

74) Identify the epithelium shown in the given diagram and select the option which correctly

mentions location of it from the options given below:

(1) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium-PCT of nephron

(2) Brush bordered columnar epithelium-Small intestine
(3) Compound epithelium- Alveoli of lungs
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium- Fallopian tubes

75) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Epithelia are sheet-like tissues which form the lining of body cavities, ducts and
tubes.
Statement-II : The cells in epithelium are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

76) In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres made up of collagen or
elastin ?
A. Cartilage
B. Areolar tissue
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
E. Bone
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) A, D and E only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, C and D only

77) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called
glandular epithelium.
Statement-II : On the basis of the mode of pouring of their secretions, glands are divided into two
categories namely, exocrine and endocrine glands.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

78) During a cricket match, a player suffered an injury near the heel and was unable to effectively
transmit the pulling force of the calf muscles to the foot. Damage to which tissue is most likely
responsible for this problem?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Ligament
(3) Tendon
(4) Bone

79) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Simple squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion
boundary in structures like alveoli.
Reason (R) : Simple squamous epithelium is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

80) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground
substance.
Statement-II : Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

81) Ear wax secreting cells have which type of epithelium?

(1) Endocrine glandular epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Exocrine glandular epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

82) On the occasion of their child's birthday, a couple was planting a tree sapling in their garden.
While digging the soil, they noticed a small annelid crawling nearby. Curious, the little child gently
touched the organism, after which it quickly changed its position and moved away through the soil.
Which type of tissue is primarily responsible for the locomotion observed in this organism?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Neural tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

83) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults.
Statement-II : The bone marrow in all bones is the site of production of blood cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

84) Which epithelial tissue is best suited for diffusion and filtration?

(1) Stratified squamous epithelium

(2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium

85) Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature:

List -I List -II

 Cement neighbouring
Tight
a i cells together to form
junctions
sheet

Transmit information
Adhering
b ii through chemical to
junctions
another cells

Establish a barrier to
Gap
c iii prevent leakage of
Junctions
fluid across epithelial cells

Cytoplasmic
Synaptic channels to
d iv
junctions facilitate communication
between adjacent cells
Select the correctly matched option from the following :-
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), d-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), d-(ii)

86) During a football match, a player suddenly twisted his knee while changing direction. Medical
examination revealed damage to a structure that normally connects one bone to another and helps
stabilize the knee joint. Which tissue is most likely injured?

(1) Tendon
(2) Ligament
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

87) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Reason (R) : Compound epithelium is made up of multiple layers of cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

88) Two types of connective tissues are compared. In tissue ‘A’ , the bundle of collagen fibers are
oriented parallel to each other providing unidirectional tensile strength, as in tendons. In tissue ‘B’,
fibers and fibroblasts are oriented differently, providing resistance to stress in multiple directions,
as in the dermis of the skin.
The correct identification of these two connective tissues is:
 ‘A’- Dense regular connective tissue,
(1)
‘B'- Dense irregular connective tissue
‘A’- Areolar tissue,
(2)
‘B'- Adipose tissue
‘A’- Skeletal connective tissue,
(3)
‘B'- Fluid connective tissue
‘A’- Dense irregular connective tissue,
(4)
‘B'- Dense regular connective tissue

89) The type of epithelial tissue found in Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium with cilia

(2) Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli
(4) Simple columnar epithelium with cilia

90) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : In all animal tissues, specialised junctions provide both structural and functional links
between its individual cells.
Statement-II : Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue while adhering
junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 1 2 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 4 2 4 3 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) To find: The average speed over the whole distance.

Concept : Speed and velocity (average and instantaneous)
Solution :

Average speed =

= = 66.67 m/s
Final answer :
Option (3) is correct.

3)

Explain Question : We have to calculate average velocity and average speed.

Concept : This question is based on

(i)

(ii)
Solution :

Final answer : 2

4)

Explanation the Question : A particle is moving in a circle with a constant speed v. find the
magnitude of its average velocity after completing half a rotation. The movement is uniform
circular motion.
 Concept: This question is based on kinematics - average velocity
Formula :

Solution :
Let R be the radius of a circle.

Displacement = AB = 2R

Time taken to go from A to B,

Average velocity,

Final answer : 2

5) To find: The average speed and average velocity for the journey by person.
Concept : Speed and velocity (average and instantaneous)
Solution :
Displacement along west = 30m ;

Time taken t1 = = 15s

Displacement along north = 40 m ;

Time taken t2 =
Total distance travelled = 30 + 40 = 70m
Total displacement = = 50m

∴ Average speed = =

Average velocity =
Final answer:
Option (3) is correct.

6)
Δv = v2 – v1 = 0
 =

7)

8) Question Explanation: Avg speed and velocity calculation

Concept: Average Speed and Velocity

Solution:

Average speed = =

Average velocity =

Final Answer: Option(2)

9)

10)

V)t=2 = 18 m/s
V)t = 5 = 60 m/s

11) Acceleration m/s2

= (west-north)

m/s2 (north-west)
12)

Question Explanation : In this question, we are given with

Displacement ⇒ s = at2 + bt + c. we have to find

Concept :
This question is based on Application of calculus in kinematics.

Solution :

Velocity ⇒
= 2at + b(1) + 0
= 2at + b
For vinitial, putting t = 0 ⇒ vinitial = 2a (0) + b
=0+b
=b

Acceleration ⇒
= 2a + 0
= 2a
at t = 0 ⇒ ainitial = 2a

Now, the desired ratio ⇒

Final Answer : Option(4)

13)

14)
at x = 2

= 80 m/s2

15) = 2αx + β ⇒ v =

∴ a=
 a= = –2α . v . v2 = –2αv3 ∴ Retardation = 2av3

16)

displacement x = 2t2 + t + 5

Velocity

acceleration

17)

s= so s ∝ u2

So if speed is doubled, stopping distance will be four times i.e. 4 × 4 m = 16 m

18)

A to B : V2 = u2 + 2a ...(i)
2 2
A to C : v = u + 2a. d ...(ii)

From (ii), ad =

19)

u = 72 km/h = 20 m/s;

v = 0; S = 200 m

a= = –1m/s2
Retardation = 1 m/s2

20)
21) Suppose a be the constant acceleration of the particle;

then s = ut + at2

or s1 = 0 + × a × (10)2 = 50a

Now, s1 + s2 = 0 + × a × (20)2 = 200a

∴ s2 = 200a – 50a = 150a = 3s1

22) Explain the question : A plot containing straight line is shown as below.

We are supposed to determine at this straight line.

Concept : This question is based on slope of a straight line.
Formula : m = tan(θ)
Solution : slope ⇒ m = tan (θ) = tan (60°) = ±
Final answer : 3

23)

Explain the Question : The equation represents a curve; identify its graph type.

Concept : This question is based on standard ellipse equation :

Solution : Given :

⇒
Here, a = 6, b = 2. This is the standard form of an ellipse centred at the origin with semi-major
axis 6 along x-axis and semi-minor axis 2 along y-axis.
Final answer : 4

24) = ymax

25) Radius =

26) From point 1 to point 3.

θ is acute and increases.
∴ (tanθ) will be increased
as slope (m) = tanθ
therefore slope will increase from point 1 to point 3.

27) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find the slope of given straight line.

Concept : Equation of a straight line.

Solution: Given here:

Comparing with the equation of straight line

y = mx + c, where m = slope of straight line

∴ slope = m =

Final answer : Option (1)

28) Question Explanation : In this question we need to tell the maximum value of the given
function y = sin(x) cos(x)
Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Solution :
y = sin(x) cos(x)

(dividing and multiplying by 2)

∴ ymax =
Final Answer : Option (1)

29) F =
F = Ma

M= kg.
 30) F = v = (5 × 104) (100) = 5 × 106 N

31) [NCERT pg # 108]

32) Explain the question :

A football and a stone are given, and they have the same mass. The question asks to compare
their properties based on this given information. The given data is: Mass of football = Mass of
stone.
Concept :
This question is based on the core concept is Inertia. Inertia is the property of an object to
resist any change in its state of rest or motion. It is a fundamental property of matter that is
directly proportional to its mass. The greater the mass, the greater the inertia.
Solution :
The problem states that the mass of the football is equal to the mass of the stone. Since inertia
is a measure of an object's mass, and it's a scalar quantity that doesn't depend on the object's
shape or state of motion, two objects with the same mass will have the same inertia. While
momentum is a product of mass and velocity (p=mv), the problem provides no information
about their velocities, so their momentum cannot be compared. Therefore, the only definitive
conclusion is that they have the same inertia.
FINAL answer : 1

33)

Question Explanation : Find the initial acceleration (a) of a 2 kg block when it's struck by a
water jet releasing water at a rate (dm/dt​) of 1 kg/s and a speed (v) of 5 m/s.
Concept : This question is based on thrust Force -rate of change of momentum
Formula :

Solution : Initial acceleration =

Final answer : Option (1)

34)

(1) Asking About :

The force exerted by the bottom surface of the elevator on the man.

(2) Concept :
This is a Newton's second law problem.

A. The man experiences two vertical forces:

B. Gravitational force downward: mg
C. Normal force upward from the elevator floor: N
D. Since the elevator is accelerating downward, the net force is :
E. Fnet = ma = mg – N
F.

(3) Formula :
Fnet = ma = mg – N ⇒ N = mg – ma

(4) Calculation :
Given downward acceleration: a = g

So, the force exerted by the elevator floor on the man is

(5) Final Answer:

(6) Correct Option :

Option 1

35)

Explain :
Which of Newton's laws of motion is the primary basis for the working of a rocket or jet.

Concept : The working of a rocket or jet relies heavily on the principle of action and reaction,
which is described by Newton's third law of motion.

Formula :
Newton's Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Calculation :
Newton's Third Law explains that the rocket expels hot gases downwards (action), and in
reaction, the rocket moves upwards.
The working of a rocket or jet is primarily based on Newton's III law.

Ans (3)

36)

Question Explanation : Calculate the acceleration and direction of motion of block on a

smooth surface subjected to an inclined pulling force.
Concept: Newton's Second Law.
Formula: a = , where Fnet is the horizontal component of the applied force.
Solution:
Fx = F cos 37°

Fx = 10 × =8N

ax =

ax = = 8 m/s2
The block moves along the horizontal surface since the vertical component of force (F sin 37°
= 6 N) is less than the weight (mg =10 N).
The acceleration is 8 m/s2 in the horizontal direction.

Final Answer: Option (3)

37)

Question Explanation :

We have to calculate force (F = ma) required to stop the body.

Concept:
This question is based on (i) equation of motion [V = u + at]
(ii) Newton's second law of motion [F = ma]
Solution:
V = u + at
0 = 5 + a(5)
a = –1 m/s2
F = m × a ⇒ F = 1 × –1 = –1 N.
So the force required is '1N' to stop the body.
Final Answer: option (4)

38)

Explain :
To find the force.

Concept :
According to Newton's second law, the net force acting on a body is equal to the rate of
change of its linear momentum with respect to time.

Formula :

Calculation : linear momentum P = at2 + b,

Net force = a(2t) + 0 = 2at

Since a is a positive constant, the net force F is directly proportional to time t

Ans (3) Proportional to t

39)

v= =

40) Explanation :
We have to find impulse in given force time graph.

Concept :
Impulse and average force.

Formula :
J = FΔt

Mathematical calculation :
J = FΔt

J = [40000 × 4 × 10–6] × ∴ F Δt is area under the curve.

I = 0.08 Ns

Correct answer with option (4) : 0.08 Ns

Estimated time : 1-2 minute

Level : Easy

41)

Explanation the Question :

Given
P = (4t2 – 2t) N-s
we have to calculate force at time t = 1 sec.
Concept : relation between force and momentum.

Formula :
Solution :
 Final Answer : Option (3)

42)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement regarding action and reaction pairs.
Concept: Newton's Third Law properties.
Solution:
Action and reaction act on two different objects, have equal magnitude, and opposite
directions Internal action-reaction pairs always cancel out for the whole system. Therefore,
their resultant on the whole system is zero.

Statement (4) is incorrect because it says the resultant is non-zero

Final Answer: Option (4)

43)

In option (1)
Fmin = 5 – 3 = 2N

44)

24 m/s

45)

∵F=
∴ for particular Δp,

F∝

CHEMISTRY

46) n+ℓ
4d = 4 + 2 = 6 5d = 5 + 2 = 7
5p = 5 + 1 = 6 6s = 6 + 0 = 6

47) According to (n + ℓ) rule

3p = 3 + 1 = 4 4s = 4 + 0 = 4
3d = 3 + 2 = 5 4p = 4 + 1 = 5
So,
3p < 4s < 3d < 4p

48) [Xe] 6s2 4f7 5d1 – Half filled stable (Fact based)
49) Fact Based

50) (A) d subshell = 5 orbital

No. of electron in d subshell
= 5 × 2 = 10 electron
(R) (n + 1) rule : 5d; 5 + 2 = 7 4f ;
4+3=7

51)

Fact base according to NCERT.

52) Newland's law applicable upto Ca(20).

53) 105 → [Rn] 7s25f146d3

54) If n = 6
4f9 5do 6s2
(n = 6, Period = 3, Block = f)

55) Fact base

56) Eka aluminium - Gallium

Eka sillicon - Ge
Eka boron - Sc

57) Factbase (NCERT)

58)

Group no. = 18 + given atomic no. – next inert gas

(1) = 18 + 37 – 54
= 55 – 54 = 1st (s block)
(2) 18 + 52 – 54
= 16th (p block)
(3) 18 + 25 – 36 = 7th (d block)
(4) 65 Lies in between
Ce58 – Lu71 → 4f series → f block
(Lathanides)

59) Th, Pa, U → Naturally occuring radioactive metals.

60)
(1) Liquid elements - Ga, Br, Cs, Fr, Hg, Cn(UUb)
(2) 6 period having - Metal, Non metal, Metalloids
(3) Iodine exist as solid
(4) Li is first metallic element.

61) Not follow (n + ℓ) rule

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s

62) Except-He (1s2)

63) Solution : Visible lines appear when electron falls to n = 2. From options, only 3 → 2 lies
in Balmer series.
Final Answer : Option (3)

64) Solution : For the third line of the Balmer series, the transition is from a higher energy
level to nf = 2.
The third line corresponds to a transition from ni = nf + 3 = 2 + 3 = 5.
Therefore, the transition is from n = 5 to n = 2.
Final Answer : Option (2).

65)

66)

Number of waves = orbit number

67) No. of spectral lines =

Transition : n = 4 to n = 2
n2 = 4, n1 = 2

Number of total spectral lines =

68) Given n = 1, 2, 3, 4
Absorption always occurs from ground state (n = 1) to higher level
Possible transitions :
1→2
1→3
1→4
69)

A°

70) Solution :
Lyman series → n1 =1, n2 = 2, 3, .......... → (ii).
Balmer series → n1 = 2, n2 = 3, 4, .......... → (i).
Paschen series → n1 = 3, n2 = 4, 5, .......... → (iv).
Brackett series → n1 = 4, n2 = 5, 6, .......... → (iii).

71) 1. Shortest Lyman Wavelength:

For the shortest wavelength of the Lyman series, the transition is from n = ∞ to n = 1 in a
hydrogen atom (Z = 1)
Given this wavelength is x :

2. First Balmer Wavelength:

The first line of the Balmer series corresponds to a transition from n = 3 to n = 2.

λBalmer,1st =
3. Substitution:

Substitute into the Balmer wavelength equation:

72)

n = 4, ℓ = 2 ⇒ 4d ⇒ 10 electrons.

73) Solution : If Δx=0, then Δp→∞ and hence Δv→∞

When position is measured exactly (zero uncertainty), velocity becomes completely uncertain
(infinite uncertainty).
Final Answer : option (2)

74)

The de Broglie wavelength formula is

Substituting the values:

The de Broglie wavelength is 6.626 × 10–34m.

 75) or

76)

n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2
l = 0, n = 0
l = 1, m = +1, 0, –1

l = 2, n = – 2, –1, 0, +1, +2

77) For f - subshell, ℓ = 3

78) Ψn ℓ m
n = 5, ℓ = 2, m = 0 ⇒ 5dz 2

79) 3py
n = 3, ℓ = 1 m = –1 or +1

80) Concept
Principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l).
Solution
For 2p orbital: n = 2, l = 1

81) No. of orbitals = n2

No. of electrons = 2n2

82) Concept:
Orbital Angular Momentum
Solution:
The orbital angular momentum (L) is determined by the azimuthal quantum number (l).

Formula:
For a 3p electron: The value of l is 1.

Calculation: =
Final answer:
Option (4)

83) For n = 3 subshells are 3s, 3p, 3d

∴ electron = (2) + (6)+(10) = 18

84) Concept : Subshell type depends on azimuthal quantum number: ℓ = 0 (s),1(p),2(d).

Solution :
(a) n = 2 ℓ = 1 → 2p → (iii)
 (b) n = 3 ℓ = 2 → 3d → (iv)
(c) n = 3 ℓ = 0 → 3s → (ii)
(d) n = 2 ℓ = 0 → 2s → (i)
So: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).
Final Answer: Option (4)

85)

2πr = nλ
2πr = 4 × 2 = 8Å

86) ⇒

87) l = 1 m = –1, 0, + 1

88)

For H-atom energy depend on Value of n.

89)

(n + ℓ) α energy

90) Solution :
E₁ = −13.6 eV. Energy needed for n=1→n=2 = 10.2 eV. Given 9.9 eV < 10.2 eV, electron
cannot reach any excited stationary level, so no de-excitation lines.
​Final Answer :
Option (1)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg.# 122

92) NCERT Pg.# 122, 126, 128

93) NCERT Pg.# 122, 127, 126

94) NCERT Pg.# 122, 123, 124

95) NCERT Pg.# 123

96)

NCERT Pg.# 121, 123, 126

97) NCERT Pg.# 127

98) Module

99) NCERT Pg.# 124, 126, 127

100) NCERT Pg.# 121, 124

101) NCERT Pg.# 7

102)

NCERT Pg.# 7

103) NCERT Pg.# 1

104) NCERT Pg.# 8

105) NCERT Pg.# 8

106) NCERT Pg.# 6

107) NCERT Pg.# 5-7

108) NCERT Pg.# 8

109) NCERT Pg.# 5

110) NCERT Pg.# 4-5

111) NCERT Pg.# 4

112)

NCERT Pg.# 4
113) NCERT Pg.# 4

114) NCERT Pg.# 122

115) NCERT Pg.#126-127

116) NCERT Pg.# 125

117) Module

118) NCERT Pg.# 125

119) Module

120) NCERT Pg. # 8

121) Module

122) Module

123) NCERT Pg.# 126

124) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 38,41,42,45

125) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 40,43,44,45

126) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42

127) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 44

128) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42,43,206

129) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO.41 [Fig. 4.6 (a) & (b) ] ;
PAGE NO. 45 [Fig. 4.14 (a)]

130) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 44

131) Refer Module-4 & Class Notes

132) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43

133) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 44, Fig. 4.12 (d)

134) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 45

135) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43

136) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42,43

137) NCERT XI (New) See Figures on PAGE NO. 41,42,43,44,45

138) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43

139) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 40,42,43,45

140) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42,51 (Table 4.2)

141) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42,44,45

142) NCERT XI (New), Pg. # 42 [Fig. 4.9(b)] ;

Pg. 43 [Fig. 4.10] ;
Pg. # 43 [Fig. 4.11] ; Pg. # 44 [Fig. 4.12(c)]

143) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 44

144) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 45

145) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43

146) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 45

147) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 44

148) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42

149) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 40,41,42,44

150) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43,44

151) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 42,43,44

152) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 41,43,44,45

153) NCERT XI (New), Pg. # 41 [Fig. 4.6(a)] ;

Pg. # 43 [Fig. 4.10] ; Pg. # 44 [Fig. 4.13(b)] ;
Pg. # 45 [Fig. 4.14(b)]

154) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 41,42,43,45

155) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 43

156) NCERT XI (New) PAGE NO. 40,41,42,45

157) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101, fig. 7.1 (d)

158) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 101 ; Fig. 7.1(d),

Pg. # 103 ; Fig. 7.5 (a) & (b)
Pg. # 104 ; Fig. 7.6 (a)

159) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 103

160) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 102,105,120 and

NCERT XI (New) Pg. # 218

161) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 103 &

NCERT XI (New ) Pg. # 224

162) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101

163) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101,102

164) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101, Fig. 7.1 (d)

165) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101, 120 (NCERT SUMMARY)

166) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 103

167) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 102

168) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 103

169) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101

170) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 103

171) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 102

172) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 104

173) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 104

174) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101

175) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 102

176) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 103

177) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 102

178) NCERT XI (Old), Pg. # 103

179) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 101

180) NCERT XI (Old) PAGE NO. 102