Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7

SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MODEL TEST - 7

GENERAL/ FINANCIAL AWARENESS
1. Under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, eligible beneficiaries can avail a collateral-free
enterprise development loan of which of the following amounts in the first tranche?
1) Rs.50,000 2) Rs.75,000 3) Rs.1,00,000 4) Rs.1,50,000 5) Rs.2,00,000
2. In the financial markets, the value of instruments such as futures, options and

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swaps is linked to the value of an underlying asset, index, currency, interest
rate or commodity. Such financial instruments are known as:
1) Derivatives 2) Commercial Papers
3) Certificates of Deposit 4) Treasury Bills 5) Depository Receipts
3. Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Scheme, the annual
financial benefit of Rs.6,000 provided to eligible farmer families is disbursed in:
ha
1) Two equal instalments of Rs.3,000 each every six months
2) Six equal instalments of Rs.1,000 each every two months
3) Four equal instalments of Rs.1,500 each every three months
4) Three equal instalments of Rs.2,000 each every four months
4.

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5) One annual instalment of Rs.6,000
The Delhi government has launched the “Rah-Veer” scheme to encourage citizens
to assist road accident victims by offering financial incentives and recognition.
d
What is the maximum cash reward provided under the Rah-Veer scheme to a
person who helps accident victims in a single incident?
1) Rs.10,000 2) Rs.15,000 3) Rs.1,00,000 4) Rs.50,000 5) Rs.25,000
5. As per the existing ownership structure applicable in 2026, what percentage of
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the issued capital of an RRB is mandatorily contributed by the Sponsor Bank?

1) 15% 2) 35% 3) 50% 4) 25% 5) 40%
6. A bank that does not maintain a physical branch network and provides banking
services remotely through internet banking, telephone/mobile banking and
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interbank ATM network alliances is known as which of the following?
1) Unit Banking 2) Universal Bank 3) Virtual Bank
4) Wholesale Banking 5) Correspondent Banking
Sr

7. As per the Master Direction on Microfinance Loans, what is the maximum annual
household income threshold for classifying loans as microfinance loans?
1) Rs.1,00,000 2) Rs.1,50,000 3) Rs.2,00,000 4) Rs.3,00,000 5) Rs.5,00,000
8. Which of the following banks has been authorised by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) as an Agency Bank to collect Goods and Services Tax (GST) payments, becoming
the only wholly-owned subsidiary in India to receive such approval as of 2025?
1) HSBC India 2) Standard Chartered Bank India
3) Deutsche Bank India 4) Citibank India 5) DBS Bank India
C
9. Credit Rating Agencies (CRAs) play an important role in assessing the creditworthiness
of debt instruments and borrowers in the financial system. Presently, how many
Credit Rating Agencies are approved by the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI) and accredited by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India as of 2026?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) 9
10. Which of the following authorities is responsible for notifying the Cost Inflation
Index (CII) each year for the purpose of adjusting the purchase cost of long-term
capital assets for inflation under the Income-tax Act?
1) Department of Economic Affairs 2) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 4) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
5) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
11. Exercise INDRA is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and which country?
1) United States of America 2) France 3) Russia 4) Japan 5) Australia
12. The World Bank Group has released the report titled “Women, Business and the
Law”, which evaluates women’s economic participation across multiple indicators.
What is the average score of countries on the adequacy of laws to enable economic
equality between women and men?
1) 47 out of 100 2) 53 out of 100 3) 60 out of 100 4) 67 out of 100 5) 75 out of 100
13. Who is the current Governor of Assam as of May 2026?
1) Lakshman Prasad Acharya 2) Himanta Biswa Sarma
3) Gulab Chand Kataria 4) Jagdish Mukhi 5) Ramen Deka

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
14. Under the revised Unified Payments Interface (UPI) framework implemented by
the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), what is the enhanced per-
transaction limit prescribed for insurance premium payments?
1) Rs.1 lakh 2) Rs.2 lakh 3) Rs.3 lakh 4) Rs.5 lakh 5) Rs.10 lakh
15. In retail lending, banks and financial institutions use the Fixed-Obligation-to-Income
Ratio (FOIR) as an important parameter while evaluating the repayment capacity of
a borrower. The FOIR primarily measures the ratio of which of the following?
1) Total assets to total liabilities of the borrower
2) Interest payable to total sanctioned loan amount
3) Loan amount to market value of collateral 4) Annual savings to annual household expenditure
5) Fixed monthly financial obligations to total income
16. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has signed
a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Razorpay to launch a dedicated

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support platform for early-stage founders. What is the name of this platform?
1) Startup Sahayak 2) Bharat Entrepreneur Hub 3) Udyam Saathi
4) Startup Setu 5) Sankalp Digital Platform
17. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS), often referred to as the "Bank for
Central Banks", is headquartered in which of the following cities?
1) Geneva, Switzerland 2) Zurich, Switzerland
3) Basel, Switzerland 4) Vienna, Austria 5) Brussels, Belgium
18.
ha
On March 28, 2026, India participated in the 20th anniversary of Earth Hour by
switching off lights at iconic landmarks for one hour. The World Wide Fund for
Nature India (WWF-India), in collaboration with MoEFCC, organised awareness
activities to commemorate this occasion in which Indian city?
19.
1) Indore

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2) Gwalior 3) Bhopal 4) Jaipur 5) Nagpur
India currently ranks as the ______ largest aquaculture producer in the world,
contributing approximately 8% to the global fish production.
d
1) Second-largest 2) Third-largest 3) Fourth-largest 4) Fifth-largest 5) Sixth-largest
20. In Indian domestic sports, the prestigious annual tournament known as the Irani
Trophy is associated with which of the following sports?
1) Hockey 2) Football 3) Badminton 4) Cricket 5) Kabaddi
ee

21. The Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga Temple is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord
Shiva. In which city is this temple located?
1) Omkareshwar 2) Ujjain 3) Maheshwar 4) Khajuraho 5) Gwalior
22. According to the official notification for the 2nd edition of the 5G Innovation Hackathon
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2026, what is the specific amount earmarked as the dedicated seed funding pool to
support selected teams in converting their ideas into working prototypes?
1) Rs 10 Lakh 2) Rs 25 Lakh 3) Rs 50 Lakh 4) Rs 75 Lakh 5) Rs 1 Crore
Sr

23. The Ministry of Rural Development has launched a real-time ‘Internal Audit
Portal’ to enhance transparency and accountability in rural governance. Which
organisation developed this portal?
1) Digital India Corporation 2) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
3) National e-Governance Division (NeGD)
4) National Informatics Centre (NIC) 5) Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
24. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced an in-house
artificial intelligence system to strengthen digital surveillance in the Indian capital
C
markets. What is the name of this AI-based surveillance system deployed by SEBI?
1) Sudarshan 2) Netra 3) Chakshu 4) Trinetra 5) Suraksha
25. As per the Reserve Bank of India’s eligibility criteria for Small Finance Banks
(SFBs) seeking transition into Universal Banks (UBs), what is the minimum
paid-up capital / net worth requirement to be fulfilled by such banks?
1) Rs.200 crore 2) Rs.500 crore 3) Rs.750 crore 4) Rs.1,000 crore 5) Rs.1,500 crore
GENERAL ENGLISH
Direction (26-32): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
We have inherited the tradition of secrecy about the budget from Britain where
also the system has been strongly attacked by eminent economists and political
scientists including Peter Jay. Sir Richard Wilson, who was the originating prodigy of
nearly every significant growth in the British budgeting procedures during the last
two decades, has spoken out about the abuse of budget confidentiality: ?The problems
of long-term tax policy should surely be debated openly with the facts on the table. In
my estimation, all governments should have just the same onus to publish their
spending policy. Indeed, this obligation to public taxation policy is really essential for
the control of public expenditure in order to get realistic taxation implications. Realising
that democracy flourishes best on the ideologies of open government, more and more
democracies are having an open public dispute on budget suggestions before announcing

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
the appropriate Bill in the legislature. In the United States, the budget is conveyed in
a message by the President to the Congress, which comes well in advance of the date
when the Bill is introduced in the Congress. In Finland, the Parliament and the
people are already conversing in June the tentative modest suggestions which are to
be familiarized in the Finnish Parliament in September. Every budget contains a
cartload of figures in black and white-but the dark figures represent the myriad lights
and shades of India‘s life, the contrasting tones of poverty and wealth, and of bread so
dear and flesh and blood so cheap, the deep tints of adventure and enterprise and
man‘s ageless struggle for a brighter morning. The Union budget should not be an
annual scourge but a part of presentation of annual accounts of a partnership between
the Government and the people. That partnership would work much better when the
ridiculous confidentiality is substituted by openness and public consultations, resulting
in fair laws and the people‘s acceptance of their moral duty to pay.

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26. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE in the context of the passage?
1) The British Government has been religiously maintaining budget secrecy.
2) Budget secrecy is likely to lead to corrupt practices.
3) Consulting unjustifiable taxes with public helps make them accept those taxes.
4) There should be no control on public expenditure in democratic condition.
5) None of these
27. Sir Richard Clarke seems to deserve the credit for
ha
1) transformation in the British budgetary techniques.
2) Maintenance of secrecy of the British budget.
3) detection of abuse of transparency in budget
4) bringing down the tax load on British people. 5) None of these
28.

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Direction (28-29): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning
to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
SCOURGE
d
1) Ritual 2) Presentation3) Whip 4) Compromise 5) Remedy
29. MYRIAD
1) Adequate 2) Functional 3) incompatible4) Abundant 5) Excellent
30. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold
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as used in the passage.

FLOURISHES
1) Disappears 2) Degenerates3) Vanishes 4) Blooms 5) Opens
31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are definitely False in the context of the passage?
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1) Transparency helps unscrupulous elements to resort to corrupt practices.
2) Open approach of Government is a sign of healthy democracy.
3) People‘s acceptance of their moral duties can best be achieved through openness
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and public consultations.

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) A and B 5) B and C
32. The author thinks that openness in budget is essential as it leads to
1) prevention of tax implications 2) People‘s reluctance to accept their moral duties
3) exaggerated revelation of the strengths and weaknesses of economy
4) making our country on par with Finland 5) None of these
Direction (33-37): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
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blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
33. _____ his father was a king, Cyrus was brought up like the son of a common man.
1) Although 2) thence 3) consequently 4) hence 5) as a result
34. Eternal truths will be neither true ______ eternal unless they have fresh meaning
for every new social situation.
1) along with 2) nor 3)with 4) or 5) and
35. The controversy __________ vitamin C is unlikely to be resolved in the near future.
1) irrespective of 2)in spite of 3)regardless of 4) regarding 5)despite
36. ________their original function, these historical documents now provide us with
many fascinating insights into the way we were.
1) according to 2) respectful 3) Irrespective of 4) cautious 5)attentive
37. ______ threats of strike action, the management remain hopeful that an agreement
can be reached.
1) despite of 2) by reason of 3) through 4) because of 5) Despite
Direction (38-41): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as
(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either
inappropriate in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding
alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also
correctly-spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
38. Turkey was willing to concede(A) the fullest local autonomy (B), but not to abandon
(C) its sovereign (D) rights over the island.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
39. Each individual can be positioned (A) somewhere on this personality dimansion
(B) between extreme poles: perfect emotional stability (C) versus complete
emotional chaos. (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
40. The top bankers and their top legal firms (A) are all part of a very deliberate (B)
and witting (C) money landering (D) apparatus.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
41. The ancestral (A) species does not constitute (B) a missing link along a lineage
but rather a node for divergance (C) into separate (D) lineages.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
Direction (42-45): In the question given below two statements are given. Connect
them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way without
changing the intended meaning.

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42. I. She studied diligently for the exam.
II. She still struggled to understand the material.
1) However 2) In addition 3) Because 4) Therefore 5) Since
43. I. He could manage the cooking part.
II. That would not taste awesome
1) Because 2) Therefore 3) Moreover 4) Likewise 5) Even though
44. I. Joy may not perform up to the mark in science subjects.

45.
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II. He has an impeccable hold in literature
1) Therefore 2) Furthermore 3) However 4) Similarly
I. All of her sons are engineers
5) In conclusion
II. The younger one chose to be a teacher

E
1) Furthermore2) Consequently 3) In fact 4) Similarly 5) Whereas
Direction (46-48): Rearrange the following five phrases (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
d
46. activity in the formal sector resulting in (A)/ in turn leading to extraction and
(B)/ With high unemployment and scarce (C)/ extreme competition for political
posts, (D)/ corruption, the State is caught in a debilitating cycle (E)
1) CEBDA 2) DBECA 3) DAECB 4) CADBE 5) No arrangement required
ee

47. unique and host to spots in permanent shadow (A)/ the success of Chandrayaan-
3 will (B)/ to the lunar south pole to date, a region of (C)/ also make it the
surface mission closest (D)/ the moon that has been found to be geologically (E)
1) BDCEA 2) DBECA 3) DAECB 4) BACED 5) No arrangement required
C
Directions (48-50): In this question, three sentences A, B and C are given. Decide
which one is/are correct with respect to grammar, meaning and usage and choose
your answer accordingly.
Sr

48. A. Well I spent six or seven years after high school trying to find a job for me but
could not succeed in it.
B. I am pleased to sanction one special increment to all the employees with this
month.
C. The United States and Canada share the world's longest undefended border.
1) Only B 2) Only A and B 3) A, B and C 4) Only C 5) No error
49. A. She wants to adopt an adorable puppy from the shelter.
B. Our school would have won the match if only we would have concentrated.
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C. The musics in the background added a touch of elegance to the atmosphere.
1) Only A 2) Only A and B 3) A, B and C 4) Only B and C 5) No error
50. A. She was happily occupied with reading.
B. Are you familiar to the general layout of the hospital?
C. I have lost one of the books which were costly.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and C 5) No Error
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (51-55): what should come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following questions?
1 3 2 2
51. 6 5 5  7 ?
7 7 7 7
1)0 2)1 3)2 4) -1 5) -2
 4
52.  550   + 25% of 2560= ?2 +140
 2
1) 40 2)36 3)32 4)42 5) 60
53.  
361  225 ×15= ?÷4
1)1020 2)2380 3)2040 4)1530 5) 1780

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7

154  396
54. 19×14 + =?
44  22
1)318 2)337 3)349 4) 298 5) 329
55. 92+26+ 49 ×2=?2
1)12 2) 11 3)8 4)9 5)10
56. M and N started a business with an initial investment in the ratio of 5:2. After 7
months, M left and O joined the business with the initial investment of Rs.p. At
the end of 14 months, the ratio of the profit share of M, N and O is 5:4:6 respectively
then find the value of p, if the initial investment of M is Rs.4500.

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1) Rs. 3600 2) Rs. 2700 3) Rs. 6300 4) Rs. 7200 5) Rs. 5400
57. Ratio of the monthly expenditure of Mithin to Githin is 7:5 and the monthly
savings of Githin to Mithin is 10:9. If the monthly income of Githin is five-six of
the monthly income of Mithin and the difference between the monthly income of
Mithin and Githin is Rs.1000, then find the monthly expenditure of Mithin.
1) Rs. 2800 2) Rs. 4900 3) Rs. 4200 4) Rs. 3500 5) Rs. 6300
58. Vessel A contains 350 litres of a mixture of thumsup and sprites are in the ratio
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of 4:3 and vessel B contains a mixture of thumsup and sprites are in the ratio of
6:5. If both vessels are mixed and the ratio of thumsup to sprite becomes 13:10,
then find the initial quantity in vessel B. (In litres)
1) 110 2) 220 3) 330 4) 165 5) 440
59.
1) 2464 cm2

E
The sum of the perimeter of circles A and B is 528 cm. If the radius of circle A is
28 cm more than the radius of circle B, then find the area of circle A.
2) 3696 cm2 3) 6160 cm2 4) 8624 cm2 5) 9856 cm2
d
Direction (60-64): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each
series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
60. 158 78 38 18 10
ee

1) 78 2) 10 3) 38 4) 18 5) 158
61. 2 3 7 22 89 448
1) 2 2) 3 3) 7 4) 448 5) 22
62. 101 118 84 135 67 158
C
1) 158 2) 84 3) 67 4) 118 5) 135
63. 190 94 46 22 8
1) 94 2) 46 3) 8 4) 22 5) 190
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64. 123 140 106 157 89 172

1) 140 2) 89 3) 157 4) 106 5) 172
Direction (65-69): Study the line graph carefully and answer the questions.
The line graph shows the total number of balls in three unique colours (Amaranth,
Puce and Sarcoline) and sold by four shops A, B, C and D in the year 2024.
60
C
50

40
Ama ra nth
30 Puce
Sarcol i ne
20

10

0
A B C D
65. If the number of Amaranth and Sarcoline balls sold by shop E is 20% more than
that of shop D and then find the sum of the number of Amaranth and Sarcoline
balls sold by shops E and C.
1) 180 2) 150 3) 170 4) 160 5) 190
66. Find the ratio of the number of Sarcoline balls sold by shops A and B together to
the number of Puce balls sold by shops B and C together.
1) 6:5 2) 3:4 3) 4:5 4) 7:6 5) 5:6

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
67. The number of Amaranth and Sarcoline balls sold by shop A is what percentage
more than the number of Amaranth and Sarcoline balls sold by shop B?
1 1 2 1 2
1) 11 2) 7 3) 9 4) 9 5) 11
9 7 11 11 9
68. If the cost price of each Amaranth and Puce balls in shop D is Rs.5 and Rs.6
respectively and all the Amaranth and Puce balls are sold for Rs.270 and then
find the total profit/loss amount earned by shop D.
1) Rs. 20 loss 2) Rs. 20 profit3) Rs. 10 profit4) Rs. 30 loss 5) Rs. 50 profit
69. The number of Amaranth and Puce balls sold by shop C is how much more/less
than the number of Sarcoline balls sold by shops A and C together?
1) 25 2) 30 3) 35 4) 40 5) 15
Direction (70-74): Study the pie chart carefully and answer the questions.

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The given pie chart shows percentage distribution of the number of employees
working in six different departments in the Sreedhar CCE and the total number
of employees is 60.
Employees
ha25% 25%
Arithmetic
Reasoning
English

E
3(1/3)%
20%
General Awareness
Computer Awareness
SSC
d
20%

6(2/3)%
70. What is the total number of employees in Reasoning and Computer Awareness?
ee

1) 16 2) 12 3) 18 4) 22 5) 14
71. What is the ratio of number of employees in Arithmetic and General Awareness?
1) 4:5 2) 3:2 3) 5:4 4) 1:3 5) 2:3
C
72. The number of employees in Computer Awareness is what percent of the number
of employees in English?
1) 50% 2) 100% 3) 20% 4) 125% 5) 75%
Sr

73. The number of employees in Reasoning is what percent more or less than the
number of employees in SSC?
1) 20% less 2) 20% more 3) 50% less 4) 25% more 5) No more or less
74. What is the average number of employees in the Sreedhar CCE? (Except SSC)
1) 10 2) 9 3) 8 4) 12 5) 11
75. A and B entered into a partnership by investing Rs.3000 and Rs.5000 respectively.
After 4 months, A withdrew Rs.1000, while B invested Rs.1000 more. After 2 more
months, C joins the business with a capital of Rs.10,000. Find the difference between
the share of B and that of C, out of the total profit is Rs.29,250 after one year. (In Rs.)
C
1) 4500 2) 3000 3) 1500 4) 750 5) 2250
REASONING ABILITY AND COMPUTER APTITUDE
Direction (76-78): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I and II
have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
76. Statements: Only computers are laptops Only a few computers are keyboards
No keyboard is a desktop
Conclusion I: Some desktops are laptops
Conclusion II: Some laptops are not keyboards
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
77. Statements: All tables are chairs Some chairs are sofas
Only a few sofas are benches
Conclusion I: Some benches can be tables
Conclusion II: All chairs can never be benches
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Only Conclusion II follows
4) Only Conclusion I follows 5) Both Conclusions I and II follow

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
78. Statements: Some glasses are bottles Only a few bottles are cups
All cups are plates
Conclusion I: Some plates are glasses
Conclusion II: All cups can never be bottles
1) Both Conclusions I and II follow 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Only Conclusion I follows
4) Only Conclusion II follows 5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Direction(79-83): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors of a
seven storey building where the lowermost floor is numbered one, the one above
that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered seven. Only

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one person lives on each floor.
A lives on an even numbered floor. Only three people live between A and B. E
lives immediately above B. As many people live below E as above D. Only one person
lives between D and G. C lives below F. F does not live on the odd numbered floor.
79. In which of the following numbered floor does A live?
1) Fourth 2) Sixth 3) Third 4) Second 5) Fifth
80.
ha
Which of the following statement is true as per given arrangement?
1) G lives on third floor
3) D lives two floors below A
2) F lives immediately below E

4) B lives immediately above C 5) A lives on the fourth floor

81.
1) Two 2) Three

E
How many people live above B?
3) No one 4) More than three 5) One
d
82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) G – D 2) A – F 3) D – E 4) C – F 5) E – C
ee

83. How many people are living between A and E?

1) Two 2) One 3) More than three 4) Three 5) No one
Direction(84-88): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits
C
carefully to answer the given question:
D 8 @ N G # T 9 U * L $ K I 6 A % 4 W O ^ V 5 C & 0 1 E + 3
84. Which of the following element is exactly between “K” and “+” in the given arrangement?
Sr

1) ^ 2) V 3) O 4) W 5) 4
85. Which of the following is the ninth element to the right of the eighteenth element
from the right end of the given arrangement?
1) * 2) U 3) T 4) V 5) ^
86. If all the vowels are deleted from the given arrangement, which of the following
will be the fourteenth element from the left end of the given arrangement?
1) 4 2) % 3) 6 4) W 5) ^
87. How many such consonants are there in the given arrangement each of which is
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immediately followed by a letter which appears after ‘M’ in the English alphabetical
order?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
88. Four of the following five are like in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to the group?
1) N#T 2) UL$ 3) IA% 4) OVC 5) 1+3
Direction(89-93): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Six people viz. J, K, L, M, N and O are attending the meeting on two different
dates either 9th or 26th of three different months viz. January, February and
March of the same year. Only one person attends the meeting on each date and
only two persons attend the meeting in each month.
M attends the meeting in the month which has less than 31 days. Only two
people attend the meeting between M and J. As many people attend the meeting
after J as before O. Only two people attend the meeting between O and L. K
attends the meeting immediately after L.
89. Who among the following people attends the meeting on February 26th?
1) L 2) M 3) N 4) O 5) J

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 7
90. Which of the following combination is correct as per given arrangement?
1) January 9th - N 2) March 26th - K 3) February 9th - M
4) January 26th - O 5) February 26th - M
91. How many people attend the meeting before K?
1) Three 2) One 3) No one 4) More than three 5) Two
92. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) N 2) O 3) J 4) K 5) L
93. How many people attend the meeting between M and N?
1) Two 2) No one 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
Direction(94-97): Study the given information carefully to answer the given

r’s
questions:
Six people sold different number of chocolates. Only two people sold more
number of chocolates than O. M sold more than P but not more than K. N sold
more than K. O sold less than C. C does not sell the second highest number of
chocolates. The one who sold the third lowest number of chocolates and second
highest number of chocolates is 256 and 306 respectively.
1) 280 2) 255
ha
94. What may be the possible number of chocolates sold by O?
3) 307 4) 290 5) Either 1 or 4
95. If the sum of the number of chocolates sold by C and N is 681 and the sum of the
number of chocolates sold by K and P is 496, then what is the sum of the number

2) 625

E
of chocolates sold by C and P?
1) 605 3) 615 4) 600 5) 595
d
96. How many people sold more number of chocolates than P?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) No one
97. Who amongst the following people sold the least number of chocolates?
1) M 2) O 3) P 4) K 5) N
ee

Direction(98-100): In this question relationship between different elements is

shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
C
appropriate option as your answer.
98. Statement: B  D  M  X = Y > Q  R > F
Conclusion I: R  D Conclusion II: F < Q
Sr

1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true

3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
99. Statement: A < U = T  R  Q = O  Y  I < D
Conclusion I: U  I Conclusion II: O > A
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
C
100. Statement: B > A  T > F = Y  S < D
Conclusion I: F < D Conclusion II: A > S
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Either Conclusion I or II is true 5) Only Conclusion I is true

KEY
1.3 2.1 3.4 4.5 5.2 6.3 7.4 8.5 9.4 10.2 SCAN QR FOR
11.3 12.4 13.1 14.4 15.5 16.1 17.3 18.2 19.1 20.4 OUR RESULTS
21.2 22.3 23.4 24.1 25.4 26.5 27.1 28.3 29.4 30.2
31.1 32.5 33.1 34.2 35.4 36.3 37.5 38.5 39.2 40.4
41.3 42.1 43.5 44.3 45.5 46.4 47.1 48.4 49.1 50.4
51.4 52.1 53.3 54.5 55.2 56.5 57.3 58.1 59.5 60.2
61.4 62.1 63.3 64.5 65.3 66.1 67.4 68.2 69.5 70.5
71.3 72.1 73.1 74.2 75.3 76.2 77.4 78.5 79.2 80.4
81.4 82.4 83.1 84.1 85.4 86.2 87.2 88.4 89.1 90.3
91.4 92.5 93.2 94.5 95.3 96.4 97.3 98.5 99.2 100.5