17-08-2025

1752CMD303051250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The tension T2 in the horizontal string

(in kg wt) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface (friction coefficient µ). A person is trying
to pull the body by applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving. The force by the surface
on the body is F, where :-

(1) F = Mg
(2) F = µMgf

(3)

(4)

3) Figure shows the position of a particle moving on the x-axis as a function of time. Choose the
wrong statement :-

(1) The particle has come to rest 4 times

(2) The maximum speed is at t = 4s
(3) The average velocity is zero for t = 2s to t = 6s
(4) Motion of particle is non-uniformly accelerated

4) In the two cases respectively, the ratio of contact force between the blocks will be :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

5) A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is µ. The acceleration a of the cart that
will prevent the block from falling satisfies :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A ball is thrown horizontally and the same time another ball is dropped down from the rop of a
tower:-
(a) Both the balls will reach the ground at the same time
(b) Both will strike the ground with the same velocity

(1) (a) is true and (b) is false

(2) (a) is true and (b) is true
(3) (a) is false and (b) is true
(4) (a) is false and (b) is false

7) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration 5 m/s2. Its brakes can produce a
maximum retardation 10 m/s2. If motorcyclist start from point A and reach at point B. What is the
minimum time in which it can cover if distance between A and B is 1.5 km. (Given : that motorcycle
comes to rest at B)

(1) 30 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 5 sec
8) A river is flowing due east with a speed 3m/s. A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of 4
m/s. If he wants to start from south bank and reach just opposite point on north bank then what will
be his resultant speed :-

(1) 70 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3)
(4) 1 m/s

9) A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity ( )m/s and moves in x – y plane under
action of force which produces constant acceleration of ( ) m/s then what is the y-coordinate
of the particle at the instant its x-coordinate is 16 m :-

(1) 16 m
(2) 32 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 64 m

10) Two masses are connected by a string as shown over a frictionless pulley, find acceleration of

system :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) Zero
(4) 9.8 m/s2

11) In the following figure two masses P and Q are joined with a string. The tension in the string in
between PQ in newton will be :-

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Mark the wrong statement:-

(1) Nothing is in the state of absolute rest or state of absolute motion.

(2) Magnitude of displacement is always equal to the distance travelled.
(3) Magnitude of displacement can never be greater than the distance travelled.
(4) Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is equal to the instantaneous speed.

13) Two projectiles A and B are projected with same speed at angle 30° and 60° to horizontal, then
choose the wrong statement ?(symbols have their usual meaning) :-

(1) RA = RB
(2) HB = 3HA
(3) TB = TA
(4) All of these

14) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity v0. If the vertical downward direction is
considered to be positive, then correct variation of velocity with time is represented by the graph:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The brakes of a car moving at 20 m/sec along a horizontal road are suddenly applied and it
comes to rest after travelling some distance if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the
road is 0.90 and it is assumed that all four tyres behave identically, the shortest distance the car
would travel before coming to a stop is-

(1) 2.27 m
(2) 11.35 m
(3) 22.7 m
(4) 4.54 m

16) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help smooth plane with the help of a rope which
moves with a velocity v as shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is :

(1) v
(2)

(3) v sin θ

(4)

17) A ball of mass m is moving towards a batsman at a speed v. The batsman strikes the ball and
deflects it by an angle θ without changing its speed. The impulse imparted to the ball is given by :-

(1)
2mv cos

(2)
2mv sin
(3) 2mv cos θ
(4) 2mv sin θ

18) What will be the maximum value of F if the block does not slip. (coefficient of static friction is µs

= )

(1)
mg

(2)
mg

(3)
mg
(4) None

19) A parachutist jumps out of an airplane and accelerates with gravity for 6 seconds. He then pulls
the parachute cord and after a 4s deceleration period, descends at 10 m/s for 60 seconds, reaching
the ground. From what height did the parachutist jump? Assume acceleration due to gravity to be 10
m/s2 throughout the motion.

(1) 840 m
(2) 920 m
(3) 980 m
(4) 1020 m

20) A particle is projected with velocity u at an angle θ from horizontal from a truck moving with
velocity v0 then which of the following is not correct for the two observers one inside the truck and
other on the ground :-

(1) Time of flight will be same for both observer

(2) Maximum height will be same for both observer
(3) Horizontal range will be same for both observer
(4) Vertical component of velocity will be same for both observer

21) For student safety traffic police want to form a speed breaker with having speed limit of 36
km/hr. If average deceleration caused by the breaking is 2.5 m/s2 then at what distance before the
school the breakes should be form:-

(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 20 m
(4) None

22) A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a platform of mass 40 kg as shown in figure then what force
man should apply on platfrom so that he accelerate up with the platform with acceleration of 2 m/s2

:-

(1) 300 N
(2) 320 N
(3) 400 N
(4) 480 N

23) The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by: y = x – , where x and y are in meter. The
angle of projection and horizontal range are respectively-

(1) 45°, 50 m
(2) 30°, 100 m
(3) 45°, 100 m
(4) 30°, 50 m

24) A rocket consumes fuel at the rate of 100 kg/s. The exhust gases are ejected at a speed of 5 ×
104 m/s. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the force experienced by the rocket is :-

(1) 5 × 102 N
(2) 5 × 104 N
(3) 5 × 106 N
(4) 50 N

25) Find the acceleration of B?

(1) 1 m/s2↓
(2) 2 m/s2↑
(3) 2 m/s2↓
(4) 0 m/s2

26) Equation of motion of a body moving along x-axis at an instant t second is given by x = 40 + 12t
– t3. Displacement of the particle before coming to rest is :-

(1) 16 m
(2) 56 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 40 m

27) Force applied on a body is given by F = (3t2 – 2t + 10) N where t is in sec. Find impulse in t = 0
to t = 2 sec (in kg m/sec)

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 24

28) Find normal contact force between 1 kg and 2kg :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 26 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 24 N

29) When a force of 5 N acts on a body the acceleration produced in the body is 5 m/s2. If two forces
of magnitude 5 N each are acting on this body as shown in the figure. The acceleration of body is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

30) A rigid rod is placed against the wall as shown in figure. When its velocity of lower end is 10 m/s
and its base makes an angle α = 60° with horizontal, then the vertical velocity of its end B will be :

(1) 10

(2)

(3) 5

(4)

31) If all surfaces are frictionless then what will be the value of mass 'm' so that 1 kg block does not

slip:

(1) 5 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 15 kg
(4) None

32) A machine gun has a mass of 20 kg. It fires 300 bullets per minute with a speed of 400 m/s. If
force applied to the gun to keep it in position is 700 N, mass of a bullet is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 0.35 g
(4) 350 g

33) Acceleration of a particle is given by a = 6x – 2 m/s2 velocity of the particle at origin is 20 m/s
then velocity at x = 2m is :-
(1) 36 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3)
(4) None

34) A force of 40 N is acting on a block of mass 5 kg as shown in figure. If coefficient of friction is

0.2 then acceleration of block is :-

(g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 5.73 m/sec2

(2) 8.0 m/sec2
(3) 3.17 m/sec2
(4) 10.0 m/sec2

35) In the given figure if the acceleration of 10 kg block is 12 m/s2 then the acceleration of 20 kg

block is :-

(1) 12 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) Zero

36) The horizontal range of a projectile is times of its maximum height. It angle of projection
will be :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°

37) If position of 2 particles A and B are xA = t3 + 2t2 + 4 and xB = t2 + 3t – 5, then acceleration of A

w.r.t. B depends upon time by which of the following graph ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) Acceleration of system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

39) A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of 4 m/s2 then find S7th :

(1) 26 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 98 m
(4) 100 m

40) A 90 kg man stands in an elevator that has a downward acceleration of 1.4 m/s2. The force
exerted by him on the floor is about:-

(1) Zero
(2) 900 N
(3) 774 N
(4) 880 N

41) In the given diagram, if the string connecting B and C is cut then what will be the accelerations
of blocks A, B, C, D at that instant ?

(1) 0, g↓, g ↑, 0

(2)
0, , g ↑, 0

(3)
0, , ,0

(4)
g↓, , g↓,

42) The acceleration of a particle starting from rest vary with time as : a = (2t – 6), where t is in
seconds. The time at which velocity of particle is maximum in negative direction is :-

(1) 1s
(2) 3s
(3) 5s
(4) 7s

43) Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a string passing over a
frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction of A
with the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of C that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is
equal to :

(1) 15 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) zero

44) A horizontal force of 10N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall the

coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :-

(1) 2N
(2) 20N
(3) 50N
(4) 100N

45) A student is standing at 50m from a bus, and at same time when bus starts at 1m/s2 constant
acceleration forward, student runs behind it to catch it, at uniform speed u . Find minimum value of
u so that student can catch the bus :-

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 12 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) x g of the metal gives y g of its oxide. Hence equivalent weight of the metal :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2 M NaOH solution? Given that, solubility product
of Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10–24 :

(1) 12 × 10–23
(2) 12 × 10–21
(3) 3 × 10–19
(4) 3 × 10–22

3) What is the pH of a 10–4 M OH– solution at 330K, if Kw at 330K is 10–13.6 ?

(1) 4
(2) 9.0
(3) 9.6
(4) 10

4) An acid-base indicator has a Ka = 1.0 × 10–5. The acid form of the indicator is red and the basic
form is blue. Calculate the pH change required to change the colour of the indicator from 80% red to
80% blue.

(1) 1.20
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.20
(4) 1.40

5) In a closed system : A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g), if the partial pressure of C is doubled at equilibrium,
then partial pressure of B will be :

(1) two times the original value

(2) one half of its original value

(3)
times the original value
(4) times the original value

6) Which of the following is the correct plot for the probability density ψ2(r) as a function of distance
‘r’ of the electron form the nucleus for 2s orbital?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) aMnO4– + bI– + cH+ → dMn2+ + eI2 + fH2O

In above balanced reaction value of will be

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.2
(3) 8
(4) 5

8) In a equilibrium reaction
H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
ΔH = – 3000 calories,
which factor favours dissociation of HI :-

(1) Low temp.

(2) High Pressure
(3) High temp.
(4) Low pressure

9) The set of quantum numbers associated with minimum energy is:

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1
(2) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(3) n = 6, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 2

10) Given K1 = 2 at 45ºC for the reaction

A(g) + B(g) C(g) & K2 = 0.25 for
2A(g) + D(g) C(g)
If starting with only C(g) & D(g) at 1.5 atm partial pressure each & establishing only the given below
equilibrium :
C(g) + D(g) 2B(g)
What is the mole fraction of 'B' once the equilibrium is establised.

(1) 1/3
(2) 1/6
(3) 2/9
(4) 1/9
11) A2Ox is oxidised to AO3– by MnO4– in acidic medium. If 1.5 × 10-3 mole of A2Ox requires 40 ml of
0.03 M-KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. Which of the following statement(s) is correct?

(1) The value of "x" = 1

(2) The value of "x" = 3
(3) Empirical formula of oxide is AO3.
(4) Empirical formula of oxide is A2O.

12) is a conjugate acid of :–

(1) H2CO3
(2) HCOOH
(3)
(4) CO2

13) Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 × 10–4M Na2CO3 solution. At what concentration of
Ba2+ will a precipitate begin to form (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9) :-

(1) 4.1 × 10–5 M

(2) 5.1 × 10–5 M
(3) 8.1 × 10–8 M
(4) 8.1 × 10–7 M

14) In which transition of hydrogen atom will have same wavelength as in Balmer series transition
of He+ ion (n = 4 to n = 2) :-

(1) 4 to 2
(2) 3 to 2
(3) 2 to 1
(4) 4 to 1

15) Given, uncertainty in momentum of an electron 3 times of uncertainty in position. Find

uncertainty in velocity of that electrons.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A weak acid of dissociation constant 10–5 is being titrated with aqueous NaOH solution. The pH
at the point of one-third neutralization of the acid will be :-
(1) 5 + log 2 – log 3
(2) 5 – log 2
(3) 5 – log 3
(4) 5 – log 6

17) A certain weak base has a dissociation constant 2 × 10–5. The equilibrium constant for its
neutralisation reaction with strong acid is :-

(1) 2 × 10–5
(2) 5 × 1010
(3) 2 × 10–9
(4) 2 × 109

18) In alkaline medium ClO2 oxidises H2O2 to O2 and itself gets reduced to Cl–. How many moles of
H2O2 are oxidised by 1 mole of ClO2 ?

(1) 1
(2) 1.5
(3) 2.5
(4) 3.5

19) A3(g) ⇌ 3A (g)

In the above reaction, the initial moles of A3 is "a". If α is degree of dissociation of A3. The total
number of moles at equilibrium will be:-

(1)
a–

(2)
–a

(3)

(4) None of these

20) Statement-1 : Catalyst does not alter the equilibrium constant

Statement-2 : Because for the catalysed reaction and uncatalysed reaction ΔH remain same an
equilibrium constant depend on ΔH.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

21) Degree of salt hydrolysis of 0.1 M NaCN solution having Kh value 5 × 10–5 :-

(1) 5 × 10–5
(2) 2.2 × 10–3
(3) 5 × 10–3
(4) 2.2 × 10–2

22) Calculate the pH of a buffer prepared by mixing 300 cc of 0.3 M NH3 and 500 cc of 0.5 M NH4Cl.
Kb for NH3 = 1.8 × 10–5 :

(1) 8.1187
(2) 9.8117
(3) 8.8117
(4) None of these

23) Calculate the ratio of pH of a solution containing 1 mole of CH3COONa + 0.5 mole of HCl per
litre and of other solution containing 1 mole CH3COONa + 1mole of acetic acid per litre :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

24) Number of moles of Mn3O4 that will require to react completely with 1 mol of FeC2O4.Fe2(C2O4)3
in presence of H2SO4

(1) 9 mol
(2) 9/5 mol
(3) 4.5 mol

(4)
mol

25) When an electron of mass 6m and charge 6e moves with a velocity of 7v about the nuclear
charge Ze in a circular orbit of radius 'r'. The potential energy of the electron will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) For reaction

2P(g) + Q(g) R(g) + S(g) ; KC = 1012
If initial moles of P, Q, R, S are 2, 1, 7 and 3 moles respectively in a one litre vessel. Find equilibrium
concentration of P

(1) 8 × 10–4 M
(2) 4 × 10–4 M
(3) 10–4 M
(4) 2 × 10–4 M

27) Given :
Fe3+(aq.) + SCN–(aq.) [Fe(SCN)2+(aq.)]
Yellow Red which is correct statement -

(1) Red colour intensity increase when FeCl3 added

(2) Yellow colour intensity increase when NaSCN added
(3) Conc. of Fe3+ is greater at new equilibrium in comparision of old equilibrium on dilution
(4) Solution becomes colourless on addition of FeCl3

28) In a hydrogen like species , an electron jumps from an orbital having two radial and two angular
nodes to the orbital having same sign and value of wave function in all direction, at any distance. If
the energy of emitted photon is 326.4 eV, the atom or ion is

(1) H
(2) Li2+
(3) He+
(4) B4+

29) Photoelectron emission is observed for three different metals A, B and C. The kinetic energy of
the fastest photoelectrons versus frequency of incident radiations n is plotted for each metal. Which
of the following graph shows the phenomenon most correctly :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The portion of orbital diagrams representing the electrons configuration of certain element
shown below. Which them violet Pauli’s Exclusion principle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1) Only 1
(2) Only 3
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1, 2 and 4

31) When an electron makes a transition from (n + 1) to n state, the frequency of emitted radiations
(ν) is related to 'n' according to (n >>1)

(1) ν α n–3
(2) ν α n2
(3) ν α n3
(4) ν α n2/3

32) In the reaction ;

Zn + HNO3(dil) → Zn(NO3)2 + N2O + H2O
Select the INCORRECT option (Given : Zn = 65)-

(1) Zn is acting as reducing agent while HNO3 is acting as oxidising agent

(2)
Equivalent weight of Zn =
(3) For 1 mole Zn, 4 moles of HNO3 are required
(4) For 1 mole N2O formation, 4 moles of Zn are required

33) 0.1 M formic acid solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution. What would be the difference
in pH between 1/5 and 4/5 stages of neutralization of acid ?

(1) 2 log 3/4

(2) 2 log 1/5
(3) log 1/3
(4) 2 log 4

34) The number of S–2 ions present in 1 L of 0.1 M H2S (Ka = 10–21) solution having [H+] = 0.1 M is :

(1) 6.023 × 103

(2) 6.023 × 104
(3) 6.023 × 105
(4) 6.023 × 106

35) An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing :

(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 200 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M CH3COONa
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M NaCl

36) The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in it’s 0.1 M solution is found to be
50%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) none of these

37) Statement-1 : Energy emitted when an electron jump from 5 → 2 (energy level) is less than
when an electron jump from 2 →1 in all 'H' like atom.
Statement-2 : The |total energy difference| between 1st & 2nd energy level is greater than that of
any two energy level provided level '1' is not part of those two energy levels.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

38) What % of the carbon in the H2CO3 – HCO3– buffer should be in the form of HCO3– so as to have a
neutral solution? (Ka = 4 × 10–7)

(1) 20 %
(2) 40 %
(3) 60 %
(4) 80%

39) An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constants for the
formation of HS– from H2S is 1.0 × 10–7 and that of S2– from HS– ions is 1.2 × 10–13 then the
concentration of S2– ions in aqueous solution is :

(1) 5 × 10–8
(2) 3 × 10–20
(3) 6 × 10–21
(4) 5 × 10–19
40) What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)2 (Ksp = 4.5 × 10–14) in a buffer solution contain equal
moles of NH4Cl and NH3 (Kb (NH3) = 1.8 × 10–5) ?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4

(2) 1.39 × 10–4
(3) 1.3 × 10–3
(4) 7.3 × 10–4

41) An excited hydrogen atom returns to the ground state. The wavelength of emitted photon is λ.
The principal quantum number of the excited state will be -

(1)

(2) [λR(λR +1)]1/2

(3)

(4)

42) For which of the following solutions pH = pKa

(1) 100 ml of 0·1M CH3COOH + 200 ml of 0·1M CH3COONa

(2) 100 ml of 0·1 M CH3COOH + 50ml of 0·1 M NaOH
(3) 100 ml of 0·1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0·1M NaOH
(4) 100 ml of 0·1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0·1 M NH3

43) Consider the following statements :

(i) Spectral lines of He+ ion belonging to Balmer series are not in visible range.
(ii) In the Paschen series of H-atom maximum lines are in the UV region.
(iii) 2nd line of Lyman series of He+ ion has energy 48.4 eV approx.
The above statements (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively are (T = True, F = False)

(1) T F F
(2) F T T
(3) T F T
(4) T T T

44)

Equivalent weight of H2SO4 in the following reaction

Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + H2SO4 → PbSO4 + H2O is -

(1) 98
(2) 49
(3) 196
(4) 80
45) Some gaseous equilibrium are following :

then find out the relation between equilibrium constants :

(1) K = K1K2
2
(2) K = (K1K2)
–½
(3) K = (K1K2)
½
(4) K = (K1/K2)

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following option give the correct categorisation of six organisms according to
their related kingdoms (A, B and C) ?

(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae

(1) Mycoplasma, Archaebacteria Protozoa, Dinoflagellates Mango, Wheat

(2) Fungi, Mycoplasma Porifera, Protozoa Bacteria, Mango

(3) Eubacteria, Protozoa Mycoplasma, Diatoms Wheat, Potato

(4) Eubacteria, Archaebacteria Mycoplasma, Wheat Protozoa, Mango

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Natural classification of seeded plants was given by :-

(1) Oswold Tippo

(2) Theophrastus
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) A. W. Eichler

3) Agranal chloroplasts are found in :-

(1) Mesophyll of pea leaves

(2) Bundle sheath of mango leaves
(3) Mesophyll of maize leaves
(4) Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

4) Select the incorrect match :

(1) G1 - phase — Synthesis of tubulin protein
(2) S-phase — Synthesis of histone
(3) G0-phase — Quiscent stage
(4) G2-phase — Pre-mitotic phase

5) A bacteria divides every 35 minutes. If a culture containing 105 cells per ML, is grown for 175
minutes. What will be the cell concentration per ML after 175 minutes :-

(1) 175 × 105 cells

(2) 85 × 105 cells
(3) 35 × 105 cells
(4) 32 × 105 cells

6) A collection of species, which bears a close resemblance to one another in the morphological
characters of the floral parts is known as :-

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Kingdom

7) The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2 consumed in respiration is called:

(1) Respiratory quotient

(2) Glycolysis
(3) Electron transport system
(4) Krab's cycle

8) Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Infolding of inner
(A) Thylakoid (I) mitochondrial
membrane

Flat membranous sac

(B) Matrix (II) in
the stroma

Inner compartment of
(C) Cisternae (III)
mitochondria

Disc-shaped sac in
(D) Cristae (IV)
Golgi bodies
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

9) Which event is not related with meiosis I ?

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3) Separation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin

10) What is common among Porphyra, laminaria, Chlorella, Spirullina ?

(1) They all have same pigments

(2) They have eukaryotic cell organization
(3) They all are single celled
(4) They all used as food or food supplements

11)

Which of the following structure is similar in bacteria and plant cell?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Nuclear membrane

12) The biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis requires all, except :-

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH
(3) CO2
(4) O2

13) If spindle fibres are not properly attached with kinetochores of chromosomes then which check
point will be activated ?

(1) G1/S
(2) G2/M
(3) Metaphase - Anaphase transition
(4) G2/M and M

14) Choose the correct match.

(1) Fucus - Anisogamy

(2) Porphyra and Laminaria - Used as food
First stage of moss gametophyte develops from the lateral bud of protonema which
(3)
bears spirally arranged leaves
(4) Gelidium - Green algae

15)

Which of the following is/are incorrect with respect to reduction division?

(A) Diakinesis is marked by terminalization of chiasmata
(B) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase-I
(C) Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in prophase-I

(D) Interkinesis is short lived phase which is followed by prophase-II, a much simpler phase than
prophase-I
(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) A, C
(4) Only B

16) Match the following

Column - I Column - II
I Slime mould (A) Basidiocarp
Naked protoplasmic
II Virus (B)
body
III Agaricus (C) Angiosperm
IV Mango (D) Nucleoprotein body
(1) I – B, II – D, III – A, IV – C
(2) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
(3) I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – B
(4) I – B, II – D, III – C, IV – A

17) Assertion : The haploid plant body (gametophyte) produces gamete by mitosis.
Reason : Diploid plant body (sporophyte) produces spores by meiosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Why ER, GB, lysosome and vacuoles are components of endomembranous system?

(1) Their structures are distinct

(2) Their functions are distinct
(3) Their functions are coordinated
(4) All of the above

19) Find the incorrect statements about the eubacteria-

(A) Endospores in bacteria are maximum resistant structures
(B) Normally bacteria reproduce by budding and binary fission during unfavourable conditions
(C) Most extensive metabolic diversity.
(D) Bacterial structure is very complex, they are very simple behaviour.

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) Only B & D
(4) Only D & A

20) Oxidation decarboxylation step of aerobic respiration is -

(1) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl CoA
(3) Pyruvic acid → Ethanol + CO2
(4) Both (1) & (2)

21) Which of the following is true for alternation of generation :–

(1) The sporophyte undergoes syngamy to produce spores

(2) The sporophyte undergoes meiosis to produce spores
(3) The gametophyte undergoes syngamy to produce spores
(4) The gametophyte undergoes meiosis to produce gametes

22) Cell wall of algae is rich in _____

(1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectins and proteins

(2) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans and Minerals like CaCO3
(3) Cellulose, Lignin, Pectin and CaCO3
(4) Cellulose, Pectin, Galactans and Lignin

23) Identify the diagram (X), (Y) and (Z)

(1) X–DNA, Y–Volvox, Z-Dictyota

(2) X–RNA, Y–Polysiphonia, Z-Fucus
(3) X–DNA, Y–Volvox, Z-Laminaria
(4) X–TMV, Y–Volvox, Z-Fucus
24) How many statements are correct?
(i) Spindle fibres attached to secondary constriction.
(ii) Sub-metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms of the
chromosome.
(iii) During different stages of cell division, cells show structured chromatin in place of the nucleus.
(iv) A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
six chromosomes.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) All

25) Which of the following occurs only in plants?

(1) Glyoxysomes
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Periplasmic space
(4) Ribosomes

26) When two molecules of pyruvic acids forms two lactic acid by anaerobic respiration then ?

(1) 3 ATP is lost

(2) 1 ATP is lost
(3) 6 ATP is lost
(4) 38 ATP are gained

27) Choose the correct match out of the following-

(1) Phaeophyceae - Fucoxanthin, Starch

(2) Rhodophyceae - Phycocyanin, Laminarin
(3) Chlorophyceae - Chlorophyll, Starch
(4) Cyanophyceae - Phycoerythrin, Floridean Starch

28) In the given diagram, labelled structure X, Y & Z are respectively :-

(1) Rhizoids, Antheridia, Archegonia

(2) Archegonia, Antheridia, Rhizoids
(3) Antheridia, Archegonia, Rhizoids
(4) Apical notch, Archegonia, Rhizoids

29) Select the correct match:

(1) Ribosomes - Non-membrane bound and made up of DNA & proteins

(2) Golgi apparatus - Important site for formation of glycolipids and glycoproteins
(3) Secondary wall - Capable of extension
(4) Endomembrane system - Organelles whose Functions are not co-ordinated

30) Assertion :- Bryophyta are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Which of the following statement is true for cells in G0-stage of cell cycle?

(1) Cells in G0-stage are metabolically more active

(2) Cell are metabolically inactive
(3) Cells are metabolically active, but no longer proliferate in normal condition
(4) None of these

32) Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle :-

(1) Wheat
(2) Funaria
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Ustilago

33) In the five kingdom classification which kingdom occupies intermediate position from
phylogenetic point of view :-

(1) Monera
(2) Plantae
(3) Mycota
(4) Protista

34) If CO2 concentration increased in atmosphere then which of the following plants will be
benefited :-

(1) Maize, Sorghum

(2) Tomato, Bell pepper
(3) Tomato, Sugarcane
(4) Sugarcane, Maize

35) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chaismata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus

(1) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

36) In bacteria, the enzymes of respiration are found in:-

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Chromoplasm
(3) Flagella
(4) Lomasome

37) Which one of the following is correct binomial epithet for mango?

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera Indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera indica

38) Which of the following intermediate of respiration is used in synthesis of chlorophyll ?

(1) 3-PGAL
(2) α-Ketoglutaric acid
(3) Succinyl Co-A
(4) Pyruvic acid

39) Oxygen act as the final hydrogen acceptor in ETS. How many molecules of oxygen are required
to oxidise 6 molecules of pyruvic acid ?

(1) 20 O2
(2) 15 O2
(3) 30 O2
(4) 60 O2

40)

Which one is not the feature of Cycas ?

(1) Unbranched stem
(2) Pinnate leaves
(3) The male or female cones may be borne on the different trees
(4) Archegonia is absent

41) The reaction

RUBP + O2 PGA + Phosphoglycolic acid
This reaction occurs in :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Cytoplasm

42) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule - help in locomotion

43) Mark incorrect statements :-

(A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of DNA replication
(B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis–I
(C) Mitosis usually restricted to diploid cells in animals
(D) In Yeast, cell cycle takes about 90 minutes.

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) Only B
(4) All are correct

44) Find the incorrect statement from the following -

(1) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification.
(2) Fungi have chitin in their wall while green plants have cellulose.
(3) Dinoflagellates float passively in water while diatoms have two flagella for floating.
(4) In euglenoids, both photosynthetic and heterotrophic nutrition is present

45)

During photosynthesis oxygen is evolved with the help of ______ :-

++
(1) MoO2
(2) Mg++
(3) Mn++
(4) Zn++

46) Some symptoms of a disorder are given read them and identify the disorder :-
(a) Alveolar walls are damaged
(b) Respiratory surface is decreased
(c) Smoking is major cause

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Pneumonia

47) The conditions which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin are :-

+
(1) PO2 , PCO2 , H concentration ↓, Temperature ↓
PO2 ↓, PCO2 ↓, H+ concentration , Temperature
(2)
+
(3) PO2 , PCO2 ↓, H concentration ↓, Temperature ↓
PO2 , PCO2 , H+ concentration ↓, Temperature
(4)

48) Myoglobin is found in

(1) Muscles
(2) Blood
(3) Lungs
(4) RBCs

49) Expiratory muscles contract at the time of

(1) Deep inspiration

(2) Normal inspiration and expiration
(3) Forceful expiration
(4) Normal expiration

50) Assertion (A):- Arthropoda and mollusca have open circulatory system.
Reason (R):- In their circulatory system, blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels
into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs of stone mine workers is characterstic feature of :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational Respiratory Disorder
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pleurisy

52) In the given table which animal is correctly matched with its taxon group and character.

Animal Taxon Character

Circulatory system
(1) Balanoglossus Hemichordata
is absent
Air bladder is
(2) Hippocampus Chondrichthyes
present
(3) Chameleon Amphibia Epidermal scales
(4) Canis Mammalia Possessing Hair
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53)

In a standard ECG. Select the correct statement for given figure :-

(1) P wave – Represents polarisation of auricles

(2) Ventricular systole starts from S wave
(3) End of the T wave marks the end of ventricular systole
(4) T wave represents the depolarisation of ventricles

54) Which is not a character of cartilaginous fishes?

(1) 2- Chambered heart

(2) Paired fins
(3) Air or swim bladder
(4) Gills without operculum

55) (a) Heart beat – 72 times per minute

(b) Cardiac cycle – 0.8 sec
(c) Number of beats/min × stroke volume = Cardiac output
(d) Cardiac output = 5 litre
(e) Heart sounds can be heard by sphigmomano meter
How many of above are incorrect ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Podocytes are present in which component of filtration membrane ?

(1) Epithelium of Bowman's capsule

(2) Endothelium of Glomerular blood vessels
(3) Basement membrane of epithelium of Bowman's capsule
(4) Basement membrane of endothelium of glomerular blood vessels

57) A person passes excessive urine and drinks a lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is
due to

(1) increased secretion of glucagon

(2) fall in glucose released in urine
(3) reduction in insulin secretion
(4) reduction in vasopressin secretion by posterior pituitary

58) Match the columns :-

(i) Accumulation of urea in blood (a) Glomerulonephritis

(ii) Kidney transplantation (b) Renal stone

(iii) Oxalates in kidney (c) Uremia

(iv) Inflammation of glomerulus (d) Renal failure

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

59) Give the correct match in the following :-

Scientific Name Common Name

(A) Balenoptera (I) Tortoise

(B) Pteropus (II) Angel fish

(C) Testudo (III) Flying fox

(D) Pterophyllum (IV) Blue whale

A B C D

(1) II III I IV

(2) IV III I II

(3) IV I II III
 (4) I II III IV
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Identify correct character for following animals :- (a) (b) (c)

(d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Jointed Presence of
(1) Oviparous Pseudocoelom
appendages comb plates

Visceral Only sexual

(2) Coxal gland Nephridia
hump reproduction

Radula Malpighian Only sexual

(3) Flame cells
present tubules reproduction

Bilateral Malpighian Pseudo

(4) Nephridia
symmetry tubules coelomate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) The amount of glucose present in urine of normal man is :-

(1) 0 mg/ml
(2) 120 mg/ml
(3) 40 mg/ml
(4) 5 mg/ml

62) During systole of heart :-

(1) Only auricles contract
(2) Only ventricles contract
(3) Atria and ventricles contract separately
(4) Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously

63) Which of the following option is incorrect in regard to the excretion by the human kidney?

(1) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
–
(2) Distal convoluted tubule is capable of reabsorbing HCO3
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to NaCl
(4) The maximum amount of electrolytes and water is reabsorbed through distal convoluted tubule

64) Read the following statements from A to D

A. All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state.
B. The tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open.
C. The semilunar valves are close.
D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the right and left ventricles respectively
through the left and right atria.
How many of the above state statements are incorrect during joint diastole ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

65) Fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Thrombin
(3) Thromboplastin
(4) none

66) In the absence of ADH,

(A) Kidney produce dilute urine
(B) Kidney produce concentrated urine
(C) Renal tubule absorb less H2O
(D) Renal tubule absorb more H2O

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D
67) Choose the correct statement which describe the phylum Aschelminthes?

(1) Circular in cross section, organ level of body organisation, coelomate, Bisexual
(2) Round worms, Bilateral symmetry, Hermaphrodite, External fertilization
(3) Flat worms, Bilateral symmetry, unisexual, organ level of body organisation
(4) Round worms, organ level of body organisation, unisexual, Pseudocoelomate

68) Respiratory centre of brain is mainly stimulated by–

(1) Carbon dioxide in venous blood

(2) Carbon dioxide in the arterial blood
(3) Oxygen in the venous blood
(4) Oxygen in the arterial blood

69) The most distinctive feature of the animal given in figure.

(1) Radial symmetry

(2) Water vascular system
(3) Exclusively marine
(4) Development direct

70) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water take place in :-

(1) Bowman's capsule

(2) PCT
(3) DCT
(4) Loop of Henle

71)
Which points are not correct about Angiotensin-II ?
(a) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure
(b) Activates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone
(c) Decreases the GFR
(d) Powerful vasoconstrictor

(e) Activates the JG cells to release renin.

(1) a, c, e
(2) a, d, e
(3) b, d
(4) b, c, e

72) Which sponge is found in the river :-

(1) Cliona
(2) Spongilla
(3) Sycon
(4) Hyalonema

73) What is the function of air sacs that are connected to lungs in birds ?

(1) Gaseous exchange

(2) Circulation of blood
(3) Supplement respiration
(4) Respiration under water

74) Read the following statements :-

(a) Systemic circulation takes place between left ventricle and right atrium of heart.
(b) Adrenal medullary hormones can decrease the cardiac output.
(c) Heart failure is not the same as heart attack.
(d) The opening between left atrium and left ventricle is guarded by bicuspid valve.
Out of these how many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

75) Chordae tendinae are found in :-

(1) Ventricles of heart

(2) Atria of heart
(3) Joints of legs
(4) Ventricles of brain

76) Read the following statements from A to D.

A. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes mainly excrete urea
B. Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of the insects including cockroaches.
C. Each human kidney has nearly one million nephrons.
D. Human kidneys can produce erythropoietin hormone. How many of the above statement are
correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

77) A list of animals is given below. Identify the animals with true coelom and choose the correct
answer-
(1) Scypha (2) Cockroach
(3) Earthworm (4) Prawn
(5) Silver fish (6) Snail
(7) Octopus

(1) 3 Only
(2) 5 only
(3) 6 Only
(4) All 7

78) Graph depicts the concentration of enzymes involved in urea synthesis in a developing tadpole. It

indicates a transition from :-

(1) Aminotelism to uricotelism

(2) Ammonotelism to ureotelism
(3) Uricotelism to ureotelism
(4) Ureotelism to urecotelism

79) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous westes (A,B,C) they give out :-

B C
A Ammonotelic
Ureotelic Uricotelic
Pigeon, Lizards,
(1) Aquatic amphibian Frog humans
Cockroach
(2) Aquatic amphibian Cockroach, Humans Frog, Pigeon, Lizards
Aquatic amphibia,
(3) Pigeon, Humans Cockroach, Frog
Lizards
Aquatic amphibia,
(4) Frog, Lizards Cockroach, Pigeo
Human
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Glycosuria and ketonuria are the symptoms of :

(1) Diabetese insipidus

(2) Diabetese mellitus
(3) Diarrhoea
(4) Renal calculi

81) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(d) Angina occurs when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

82) During cardiac cycle about _____ % of ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial contraction ___%
ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction.

(1) 50, 50
(2) 70, 30
(3) 30, 70
(4) 10, 90

83) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the Nephron are shown in

the given figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are? (Respectively)

–
(1) HCO3 , Nutrients, Urea, NaCl
+ –
(2) NaCl, Urea, K , HCO3
 –
(3) NaCl, Urea, HCO3 , Ammonia
–
(4) H2O, Urea, NaCl, HCO3

84) Asthma is due to -

(1) Elasticity of lungs is reduced.

(2) Degradation of alveolar walls.
(3) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(4) Damage in diaphragm.

85) Which one is correct about Porifera :-

(1) Unisexual
(2) Internal fertilisation with indirect development
(3) External fertilisation with direct development
(4) External fertilisation with indirect development

86) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

(1) (i) incorrect, (ii) incorrect, (iii) incorrect,(iv) correct

(2) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(3) (i) correct, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(4) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect, (iii) correct, (iv) incorrect

87) Among the following which phylum is correctly matched with its characters :-

(1) Platyhelminthes - Organ system, Bilaterally symmetrical, Pseudocoelomates, Flat body

Arthropoda - Organ system, Bilaterally symmetrical, Incomplete digestive system, Jointed
(2)
appendages, Exoskeleton
(3) Echinodermata - Organ system, Radial symmetry, Coelomates, Water vascular system
Chordata - Organ system, Bilaterally symmetrical, Coelomates, Ventral hollow nerve cord, gill
(4)
slits

88) How many of the following statements are true ?

(i) Mechanism of breathing in different organism depend on their habitat and level of organisation.
(ii) Gills are used by aquatic Arthropods.
(iii) Pharynx is a common pathway for food and air.
(iv) The initial bronchioles are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

89) Amount of platelets in our blood is ...... /mm3 of blood.

(1) 6000–8000
(2) 5–5.5 million
(3) 12000–15000
(4) 1.5–3.5 Lakh

90) Pneumotaxic centre is present in

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Medulla oblongata
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒ T2 =
Hence option (3)

2) Maximum force by surface when friction works

Minimum force = R when there is no friction

Hence ranging from R to

We get, Mg ≤ F ≤

3) At t = 4 sec; velocity = 0

4) a=

N1 = 2Ma =

a=

N2 = Ma =

5)
Here f = mg and N = mα but f ≤ µN
so mg ≤ µma ⇒ α ≥ .

6)

Correct Answer : (1)

7)

........(i)

from equation (i) and (ii)

t1 + t2 = 30 sec

8)

Correct Answer : (3)

9) Sx = Uxt + axt2

16 = 8t – × 2t2
t2 – 8t + 16 = 0; t = 4 sec

Sy = Uyt + ay t2

Sy = 6 × 4 + × 2 (4)2
Sy = 40 m

10)

Correct Answer : (3)

11)

Correct Answer : (4)

12)
Correct Answer : (2)

13) RA = RB

HA = ; HB =
∴ HB = 3HA

TA = ; TB =
∴ TB =

14)

Correct Answer : (4)

15)

Correct Answer : (3)

16)
ℓ2 = x2 + h2

ℓv = xv'

17)

Correct Answer : (2)

18) fs = µs N
F cos 37° = µs (mg + F sin 37°)

F=
19) Distance covered in first 6 sec. (when it was falling freelly)

m
v1 = 10 x 6 = 60 m/s.
for distance s2.
v2 = v1 - at
10 = 60 – a × 4

s3 = 10 × 60 = 600 m
total distance = 600 + 140 + 180 = 920 m.

20) Ball will cover some distance as of observer.

21) V2 = U2 + 2as
NCERT, Part-I; (English) Page No. # 50,
(Hindi) Page No. # 51

22)

Force applied by the man will be 320 N.

23)

Correct Answer : (1)

24)

25)

Correct Answer : (4)

26) v =
t = 2s
t = 0; xi = 40
t = 2; xf = 40 + 24 – 8 = 56
displacement = Δx = xf – xi = 56 – 40 = 16m

27) I =

=
= (t3 – t2 + 10t)0
2

= (8 – 4 + 20) – 0
= 24 kg m/sec.

28)

30 – N = 1(4)
N12 = 26 N

29)

Correct Answer : (2)

30)

Correct Answer : (2)

31)

Correct Answer : (3)

32)

Force required = rate of change of linear momentum of bullets

33)
34)
N = 50 – 20 = 30

a = 5.73 m/s2

35)
kx = 10 × 12
200 – kx = 20a'
200 = 120 + 20a'

a' = = 4 m/s2

36)

Correct Answer : (4)

37) vA = (xA) = 3t2 + 4t and aA = (vA) = 6t + 4

vB = (xB) = 2t + 3 and aB = (vB) = 2

aAB = aA – aB = 6t + 2

38)

39)

Correct Answer : (1)

40)
Mg–N = Ma
N = Mg – Ma
N = 900 – 90 (1.4) = 774

41)
Before cutting
T1 = 1g
T2 = T1 + 2g = 3g
T3 = T2 + 3g = 6g
T4 = T3 + 4g = 10g
After cutting T2 = 0

aB =

aC =
aA = 0
aD = 0

42) a = 2t – 6
or = 2t – 6

v = max. when = 0 i.e. 2t – 6 = 0 or t = 3s

43) T = 5g
T = µN
 5g = 0.2(10 + m)g
5 = 2 + 0.2 m
m = 15 kg

44)

Correct Answer : (1)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Correct Answer : (2)

47)
[Al3+] [OH–]3 = Ksp

[Al3+] =
[Al3+] = 3 × 10–22
Molar solubility.

48) pOH = 4
pH = 13.6 – 4 = 9.6
49)
Ka = 10–5 M ; [H+]

50) Kp = ;

hence or

51) For 2s, number of radial nodes = 2 – 0 – 1 = 1 and value of ψ2 is always positive.

52) If reaction is balanced

2MnO4– + 10I– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O

53) 2HI(g)

Exothermic
backward
toward
High temperature dissociation of HI.

54) and (If n + ℓ is same)

55) Ans. (4)

56) 1.5 × 10-3 × (10-2x) = 0.03 × 5× x=3

57) Q. Explaination : We need to find HCO3– is a conjugate acid of

Concept & solution :
• A conjugate acid is formed when a base gains a proton (H+)
• If HCO3– is a conjugate acid, it must have been formed by a base gaining a proton.
• (carbonate ion) + H+ → (bicarbonate ion).
Answer : option 3

58)

Correct Answer : (2)

59) Given : λH =
or

∴ n1 = 1 and n2 = 2

60) Δx.ΔP ≥
OR
For calculation use

Δx.ΔP =
Given
ΔP = 3 × Δx

Δx =

(ΔP)2 =

(mΔV)2 =

(ΔV)2 =

ΔV =

61) pH = pKa + log

62) Kh =

∴ KN =

63)

Correct Answer : (3)

64) Question Explanation:

Asked total number of moles at equilibrium.

Concept:
This question is based on degree of dissociation.
Solution:
A3(g) ⇌ 3A (g)
t=0 a moles –
t = teq a(1 – α) 3aα
Total moles = a – aα + 3aα
= a + 2aα

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

65)

The presence of catalyst doesn't affect the value of equilibrium constant since it equally lowers
the forward & backward activation energy and therefore the value of enthalpy change for the

reaction stays constant ;

= Eaforwared – Eabackward

66)

67)

68)

Ans is (A)

First solution
∴ Solution is buffer solution.

Second solution in also buffer solution

∴ Ratio of pH of both solution

69)
Eq (Mn3O4) = Eq. [Link](C2O4)3
mol × 2 = 1 × 9
mol = 4.5

70) Potential energy of electron

71) 2P + Q R + S
2 1 7 3
2x x 8 –x 4 –x

x = 2 × 10–4
[P] = 2x = 4 × 10–4

72)

Correct Answer : (1)

73) For higher energy level : l = 2

and n – l – 1 = 2 ⇒ n = 5
For lower energy level : l = 0
and n – l – 1 = 0 ⇒ n = 1

Now, 326.4 = 13.6 × z2 ⇒Z=5

74)

Correct Answer : (3)

75) Because only in first configuration two electron have all four quantum number identical.

76) ν = C RHZ2

ν = C RHZ2
since n >>1 2n + 12n n + 1n
ν = C RHZ2
ν α n–3

77)

Correct Answer : (3)

78)

Correct Answer : (4)

79)

Correct Answer : (1)

80)
So finaly we get mixture of
CH3COOH + CH3COONa that will work like acidic buffer solution.

81)

Ans is (B)
Degree of hydrolysis of slat of week acid and weak base is independent of the conc. of solution.
82)
As we can see from the diagram that.
ΔE2→1 = +13.6 – 3.4
= 10.2 ev
& ΔE5→2 = 3.40 – 0.54
= 2.86 ev
so statement 1 is true ; these values can also be calculated from

& from diagram statement-1, 2 is also True & correct explanation.

83)

Ans is (D)

∴ % of

84) K = 1 × 10–7 × 1.2 × 10–13 = 1.2 × 10–20

0.1 0.2 x

[S2–] = 3 × 10–20
 85)
[Salt] = [Base]
POH = pKb
[OH–] = Kb = 1.8 × 10–5
Mn(OH)2 = Mn+2 + 2 OH–
Ksp = [Mn+2] [OH–]2
4.5 × 10–14 = S × (1.8 × 10–5)2

= 1.39 × 10–4

86) ,n=

87)

Correct Answer : (2)

88) (iii) E = 13.6 × Z2 = 13.6 × 22

89)

Correct Answer : (1)

90) (1) CO + H2O CO2 + H2

(2) 2CO + O2 2CO2

(3) 2H2 + O2 2H2O

By subtraction (2) – (3) we get :
2H2O + 2CO 2CO2 + 2H2
Dividing by (2) ;
H2O + CO CO2 + H2O

K=

BIOLOGY

91)

Solution:

The Correct answer is : 1.

92)

Bentham and Hooker

93) NCERT pg.# 219

94) NCERT Pg.#163

95)

Correct Answer : 32 × 105 cells

96)

NEW NCERT XI pg no.6

97) NCERT Page No. 163

98)

NCERT - XI Pg # 97, 98

99) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, 169

100)

They all used as food or food supplements

101)

The structure of Cell membrane is similar

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 215 (E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 215 (H)

103)

Metaphase - Anaphase transition

104)

Correct Answer : Porphyra and Laminaria - Used as food

105) NCERT XI pg.# 126

106)

Correct Answer : I – B, II – D, III – A, IV – C

107) NCERT Pg. # 402

108)

Their functions are coordinated

109)

NCERT XI Pg # 19

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158,159

111)

NCERT Pg. No. 42

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

113)

Correct Answer : X–TMV, Y–Volvox, Z-Fucus

114)

(iv) is correct

115)

Correct Answer : Glyoxysomes

116) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157

117) NCERT XI Pg # 33(Table)

118)

Correct Answer : Archegonia, Antheridia, Rhizoids

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147

120)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35

121)

Cells are metabolically active, but no longer proliferate in normal condition

122)

Correct Answer : Ustilago

123)

Protista is having link with all other kingdoms.

124)

Correct Answer : Tomato, Bell pepper

125)

Correct Answer : (b), (a), (c), (d)

126)

Correct Answer : Cytoplasm

127) Yeast and Hydra

128) Module no. 3, Pg - 184

129) NCERT Pg. # 160

130)
Correct Answer : Archegonia is absent

131)

Correct Answer : Chloroplast

132) Option 1: Correct. Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacteria,
involved in cellular processes like cell respiration.
Option 2: Incorrect. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules, not involved in bearing
photosynthetic pigments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Flagella are involved in locomotion, not in the formation of conjugation
tubes.
Option 4: Incorrect. Capsules protect bacteria and help in avoiding immune responses, not in
locomotion.

133)

Correct Answer : Only B

134) NCERT-Page # 16,17,21,33

135)

Correct Answer : Mn++

136) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-5

137)

NCERT Pg. # 189

138)

Correct Answer : Muscles

139)

Question Explanation

The question asks about when expiratory muscles contract. It provides four options related to
different phases of breathing.

Solution Explanation

Forceful Expiration: When we need to exhale forcefully (e.g., coughing, sneezing, or during
strenuous exercise), the expiratory muscles contract. These include the internal intercostal
 muscles and the abdominal muscles. Their contraction helps to further decrease the volume of
the thoracic cavity and push air out more rapidly.
Final Answer (3)

140) NCERT XI, Pg. # 282 (E), 283 (H)

141) NCERT-XI, Pg#276

142)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

143)

End of the T wave marks the end of ventricular systole

144) NCERT (XI) Pg# 56 Para: [Link]

145) NCERT XI Pg # 285 (18.3.2)

146) NCERT–XI, Para–5(E), Para–6(H, Pg. # 293

147) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

148) Correct Answer:

Option (4) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)

Explanation: Correct matching is:

A. (i) Accumulation of urea in blood → (c) Uremia

A. Uremia is a condition where toxic levels of urea accumulate in the blood due to kidney
failure.
B. (ii) Kidney transplantation → (d) Renal failure
A. When kidneys fail completely, kidney transplantation is a treatment option to restore
function.
C. (iii) Oxalates in kidney → (b) Renal stone
A. Kidney stones (renal calculi) are formed due to the accumulation of calcium oxalate or
other minerals.
D. (iv) Inflammation of glomerulus → (a) Glomerulonephritis
A. Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of glomeruli, affecting the filtration process of
the

149)

Ncert page 48 to 51.

 150) NCERT Pg. # 51, 52, 53

151)

Correct Answer : 0 mg/ml

152)

During systole, the heart chambers contract in a coordinated sequence to pump blood
effectively.

A. Atrial systole: First, the atria contract, pushing the remaining blood into the ventricles.
B. Ventricular systole: Then, the ventricles contract forcefully, pumping blood out of the heart.

So, the correct answer is Option 3: Atria and ventricles contract separately.

153) NCERT Pg. # 294

154)

NCERT XI - Pg# 284, 285

155)

The conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin is the final step in the blood
coagulation cascade, the enzyme that directly catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is
thrombin.

Final Answer : (2) Thrombin

156) Correct Answer: Option (3) A and C

Explanation:

A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), also called Vasopressin, regulates water reabsorption in the
kidneys.
B. In the absence of ADH, the collecting ducts and distal tubules become less permeable to
water, leading to less water reabsorption (C).
C. As a result, the kidneys excrete a larger volume of dilute urine (A), leading to increased water
loss from the body.
D. This mechanism helps regulate water balance and prevent overhydration.

Thus, the correct answer is A and C.

157)

Round worms, organ level of body organisation, unisexual, Pseudocoelomate

158)
 Carbon dioxide in the arterial blood

159)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 54

160) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294

161) Correct Answer: a, c, e (Option 1)

Explanation:

A. Angiotensin-Il is a powerful vasoconstrictor, increasing glomerular blood pressure (so,

statement 'a' is incorrect).
B. It also increases GFR (so, 'c' is incorrect).
C. It stimulates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone, which helps in sodium and water
retention (so, 'b' is correct).
D. It does NOT activate JG cells; instead, JG cells activate the renin-angiotensin system (so, 'e' is
incorrect).

162)

Correct Answer : Spongilla

163)

Supplement respiration

164)

Correct Answer : Three

165)

The correct answer is Option 1: Ventricles of heart.

Chordae tendinae are fibrous cords that play a crucial role in the heart's function.

A. Location: They are located in the ventricles of the heart .

166)

Pg. No. 205 XI-NCERT

167)

Correct Answer : 6 Only

 168)

NCERT Pg No # 205

169)

Correct Answer : 1

170) NCERT Pg.#298

171)

Pg. No. 287, 288_XI NCERT

172)

Correct Answer : 70, 30

173) Correct Answer :

Option 3. NaCI, Urea, HCO3–, Ammonia

Explanation:
In the nephron, different substances are reabsorbed and secreted at specific locations:

A. A (NaCl): Actively reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to maintain
osmolarity.
B. B (Urea): Secreted into the loop of Henle to contribute to the counter-current mechanism.
C. C (HCO3-): Reabsorbed in the proximal and distal tubules to maintain blood pH balance.
D. D (Ammonia): Secreted in the distal tubule to eliminate excess hydrogen ions and maintain
acid-base balance.

174) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 276

175)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 49

176)

A. Question: Identify the correct relationships between respiratory volumes and capacities.

B. Given Data:

A. (i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV)
 B. (ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) +
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

C. (iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

D. (iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

C. Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities.

D. Explanation:

(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV):
Inspiratory capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can inhale after a normal
exhalation. It includes the tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal
breathing) and the inspiratory reserve volume (the extra volume of air that can be inhaled
beyond the tidal volume). The given equation incorrectly includes Residual volume (RV). So,
statement (i) is incorrect.

(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory
reserve volume (ERV): Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a
maximum inhalation. It includes the tidal volume, the inspiratory reserve volume, and the
expiratory reserve volume (the extra volume of air that can be exhaled beyond the tidal
volume). So, statement (ii) is correct.

(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) - Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV):
Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. It cannot be
directly calculated from vital capacity. It is related to the Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) by the
formula: FRC = RV + ERV. So, statement (iii) is incorrect.

(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): As explained in
(i), IC = TV + IRV. Therefore, TV = IC - IRV. So, statement (iv) is correct.

177)

Echinodermata - Organ system, Radial symmetry, Coelomates, Water vascular system

178) NCERT Pg. # 268,269

179) NCERT 11TH PAGE NO 194

180) Pneumotaxic centre is present in pons.