27-07-2025

1752CMD303051250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A swimmer's velocity with respect to a river is 20 m/s. At what angle it should swim with the flow
of river (speed of flow river = 10 m/s), so that it can reach to exactly opposite end ?

(1) 120°
(2) 150°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

2) Which of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 metre.
The angle of projection is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two similar cannon simultaneously fires two identical cannon balls at target 1 and 2 as shown in
the figure. If the cannon balls have identical initial speeds, which of the following statements is true

(1) Target 2 is hit before target 1

(2) Target 1 is hit before target 2
(3) Both are hit at the same time
(4) information is insufficient

5) A particle is moving with velocity , where k is a constant. The general equation for its
path is :

(1) y = x2 + constant
(2) y2 = x + constant
(3) xy = constant
(4) y2 = x2 + constant

6) Rain drops are falling with velocity m/s. What should be the velocity of man so rain drops
hit him with speed 5m/s :-

(1) –
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) A man can swim at a speed of 3 km/h in still water. He wants to cross a 500 m wide river. He
keeps himself always at an angle of 120° with the river flow while swimming. The time he takes to
cross the river is :-

(1) 10/ min

(2) 20/ min
(3) 30/ min
(4) 40/ min

8) The displacement-time graph of a moving particle with constant acceleration is shown. Then its

velocity-time graph is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A particle moves on straight line with constant acceleration. It covers 2m distance in first 2 sec.
Then 14 m distance in next 4 sec. then velocity of particle after 7 sec. from starting point will be :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

10) Two particle A and B are located in x-y plane at points (0, 0) and (0, 4 m). They simultaneously
start moving with velocities. m/s and m/s. The shortest distance between them will

be :-

(1) 16/5 m
(2) 12/5 m
(3) 9/5 m
(4) zero

11) Four particles A, B, C & D are moving with same speed v as shown in figure. Find out velocity of

A with respect to B, C & D at this instant :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A ball is projected as shown to hit the top of given building at point C but ball strikes below the
point C, at point D. Find distance between point C and D :-

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.5 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 10 m

13) Rain is falling vertically down at 3km/hr and a person holding a hollow tube is standing as
shown. If he runs at 4km/hr forwards at what angle with vertical he should tilt the tube so that rain

water entering tube do not wet the tube from inside:-

(1) 30°
(2) 53°
(3) 37°
(4) 60°

14) A stone is thrown at an angle of 45° to the horizontal with kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy
at the highest point is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) K
(4) Zero

15) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between

them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) none of these

16) A particle A is projected from the ground with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 60° with
horizontal. From what height h should an another particle B be projected horizontally with 5 m/s, So
that both the particles collide on ground at point C if both are projected simultaneously ?

(1) 10 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 25 m

17) A particle is projected as shown in figure. If the particle strikes at the wall after 1 sec, then the

ratio will be: (approximately)

(1) 1
(2) 1.6
(3) 2.6
(4) 3

18) A 150 meter long train is moving towards north with a velocity of 10m/s. A parrot is flying in the
south direction parallel to train at 5m/s. The time taken by the parrot in crossing the train is

(1) 12s
(2) 8s
(3) 15s
(4) 10s

19) A car is going in south with a speed of 5 m/s. To a man sitting in car, a bus appears to move
towards west with a speed of . What is the actual speed of the bus ?

(1) 4 ms–1
(2) 3 ms–1
(3) 7 ms–1
(4) none of these
20) A bus starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration 8 m/s2. At the same time, a car
travelling with constant velocity 16 m/s overtakes and passes the bus. At what distance, bus
overtakes again the car?

(1) 24 m
(2) 32 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 64 m

21) A swimmer can swim in still water with speed v and the river is flowing with velocity v/2. To
cross the river in shortest distance, he should swim making angle θ with the upstream. What is the
ratio of the time taken to swim across the shortest time to that is swimming across over shortest
distance :-

(1) cos θ
(2) sin θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

22)

Match the Column I with Column II :-

Column I Column II
Graph Characteristic

(A) (p) Has v > 0 and a < 0 throughout.

Has x > 0 throughout and has a point with

(B) (q)
v = 0 and a point with a = 0.

(C) (r) Has a point when it is at origin for t > 0.

(D) (s) Has v < 0 and a > 0.

(1) A – p, B – q, C – s, D – r
(2) A – q, B – p, C – r, D – s
(3) A – s, B – r, C – q, D – p
(4) A – r, B – q, C – s, D – p
23) The trajectory of a particle is as shown here and its trajectory follows the equation y = (x–1)3 +1.
Find co-ordinates of the point A on the curve such that direction of instantaneous velocity at A is
same as direction of average velocity for the motion O to A :

(1) (3/2, 9/8)

(2) (2, 2)
(3) (3, 9)
(4) (5/2, 35/8)

24) A rocket is projected upwards. Whose velocity-time graph is shown. The maximum height

attained by rocket from ground is

(1) 80 km
(2) 12 km
(3) 20 km
(4) 30 km

25) When a particle is thrown horizontally with speed u from top of tower, the displacement of the
projectile at any time t is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A particle has a rectilinear motion and the figure gives its displacement as a function of time.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to the motion?

(1) Between O and A the velocity is positive and acceleration is negative

(2) Between A and B the velocity and acceleration are positive
(3) Between B and C the velocity is negative and acceleration is positive
(4) Between C and D the acceleration is positive

27) The distances covered by a freely falling body in its first, second, third, ......, nth seconds of its
motion :-

(1) Forms an arithmetic progression

(2) Forms a geometric progression
(3) Do not form any well defined series
(4) Form a series corresponding to the difference of square root of the successive natural numbers

28) The position vector of a particle is given as . The time after which the
velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-

(1) 1 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3) 1.5 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

29) In which of the graphs the particle moving on straight line is speeding up?

(1) II, III, IV

(2) II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) Only II

30) A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. With the same speed
how much high above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball ?

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 150 m
(4) 200 m

31) A point mass is projected, making an acute angle with the horizontal. If angle between velocity
and acceleration is θ at any time t during the motion, then θ is given by:

(1) 0° < θ < 90°

(2) θ = 90°
(3) θ < 90°
(4) 0° < θ < 180º

32) At a height 0.4m from the ground, the velocity of a projectile in vector form is .
The angle of projection is

(1) 45º
(2) 60º
(3) 30º

(4)

33) A staircase contains three steps height of each step is 'b' and width is 'a'. What should be the
minimum horizontal velocity of a ball rolling off the uppermost plane so as to hit directly the lowest
plane :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Wind is blowing in the north direction at speed of 2 m/s which causes the rain to fall at some
angle with the vertical. With what velocity should a cyclist drive so that the rain appears vertical to
him :

(1) 2 m/s south

(2) 2 m/s north
(3) 4 m/s west
(4) 4 m/s south

35) A flag is mounted on a car moving due North with velocity of 20 km/hr. Strong winds are
blowing due East with velocity of 20 km/hr. The flag will point in direction :-
(1) East
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) South-West

36) Two balls are thrown from a tower as shown in the figure :- Which of the ball
will hit the ground first :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both will strike at the same time
(4) Depends on height of tower

37) A particle is projected from a trolley car with a velocity . If the trolley car moves with an
acceleration towards right, which of the following remain unchanged relative to both ground and

trolley car ?

(1) Range
(2) Maximum range
(3) Time of flight
(4) Horizontal velocity

38) A passenger in a train drops a ball from the window of train running at an acceleration 'a'. A
person standing on the ground, by the side of the rails, observes the ball falling along :-

(1) a parabola with an acceleration 'g'

(2)
a parabola with an acceleration

(3)
a verticle with an acceleration

(4)
a verticle with an acceleration

39)

A stone projected at an angle of 60º from the ground level strikes at an angle of 30º on the roof of a
building of height ‘h’. Then the speed of projection of the stone is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times its initial speed. If the range of the
projectile is n times the maximum height attained by it, n is equal to -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) Consider case of rectilinear motion with the sign convention given in figure. Choose

INCORRECT statement :-

(1) v > 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up

(2) v > 0 , a < 0 particle is slowing down
(3) v < 0, a < 0 particle is speeding up
(4) v < 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up

42) Two balls A and B are thrown vertically upward from the ground with velocities 100 m/s and 40
m/s. At t = 1s, the relative acceleration of B with respect to A is :-

(1) – 20 m/s2
(2) – 10 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) Zero

43) A man standing in an open elevator descending with acceleration 2 m/s2. Now man throws a ball
upwards with speed 4 m/s relative to lift. After what time the ball returns back in his hands :

(1) 2s
(2) 1s
(3) 4s
(4) 5s

44) If and then find value of t if and are parallel to each other.

(1)

(2) 4

(3)

(4) 2

45) The velocity of a body moving along x-axis can be represented by the relation V = 3t2 where 't' is
time in 'seconds'. If the body starts from rest from position x = 2, the average velocity of the particle
in time interval t = 0 to t = 3 sec will be:-

(1) 27 m/s
(2) 18 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) 6 electrons are present in Mg for which m = 0
(b) 6 electrons are present in one p-orbital
(c) Maximum 18 electrons are present in M-shell
(d) 3–electron are present in phosphorous for which, ℓ = 1 and m = 0

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b c
(3) a, c, d
(4) c, d

2) Below given graph is for which orbital.

(1) 2s
(2) 2p
(3) 3d
(4) 3p
3) The quantum no. of 20th electron of Fe(Z = 26) would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Consider the graph of probability density of 1s and 2s orbitals and determine the correct
statements from the following:
(i) 1s and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
(ii) The probability of finding the electron is minimum near the nucleus.
(iii) The probability of finding the electron at a given distance is equal in all directions.
(iv) The probability density of electrons for 2s-orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the
nucleus increases.

(1) (i) & (ii) only

(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) (i) & (iii) only
(4) only (iv)

5) For an equilibrium H2O(s) H2O(l) which of the following statements is true:

(1) The pressure changes do not affect the equilibrium

(2) More of ice melts if pressure on the system is increased
(3) More of liquid freezes if pressure on the system is increased
(4) The degree of advancement of the reaction do not depend on pressure

6) For the reaction A(g)+3B(g) ⇋ 2C(g) at 27°C, 2 moles of A , 4 moles of B and 6 moles of C are
present in 2 litre vessel. If Kc for the reaction is 1.2, the reaction will proceed in :-

(1) forward direction

(2) backward direction
(3) neither direction
(4) none of these

7) Consider the following statements

(a) Metal with higher IP cannot exhibit photoelectric effect.
(b) Diffraction of light can be explained by wave nature of electromagnetic radiation
(c) Work function of lithium is lesser than sodium
The correct statement(s) is/are

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

8) Electron revolving in first orbit of hydrogen with uncertanity in it's velocity is 0.1% then
uncertainity in its position will be :-

(1) 2.66 × 10–8 cm

(2) 2.66 × 10–8 m
(3) 2.66 × 10–6 m
(4) 2.66 × 10–10 cm

9)

Ag2CO3(s) decomposes as

Ag2CO3 2Ag(s) + CO2(g) + O2(g), total pressure set up at equilibrium is 5 atm. Thus Kp is :-
(1) 4.30
(2) 0.23
(3) 5.56
(4) 0.18

10) According of dual behaviour of matter concept by de-Broglie, the correct graph between
wavelength of electron (λ) and momentum of electron (P) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In which of the following reaction, doubling the volume of container causes a shift to right?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)

(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)

12) In which of the following electron distributions in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows in a closed reaction vessel.

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and degree of dissociation of PCl5 is x, the
partial pressure of PCl3 will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) For the reaction 3A(g) + B(g) 2C(g), at a given temperature, Kc is 9.0. What must be the
volume of the flask if a mixture of 2.0 mol each of A, B and C is obtained at equilibrium ?

(1) 2 lit.
(2) 6 lit.
(3) 3 lit.
(4) 10 lit.

15) In H-atom, if ‘x’ is the radius of the first Bohr orbit, de Broglie wavelength of an electron in 3rd
orbit is:

(1) 3πx
(2) 6πx

(3)

(4)

16) The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ SO3(g) is an exothermic reaction. If the
preparation follows the following temperature-pressure relationship for its % yield, then for

temperatures T1, T2 and T3. The correct option is :-

(1) T3 > T2 > T1

(2) T1 > T2 > T3
(3) T1 = T2 = T3
(4) Nothing could be predicted about temperature through given information.

17) The initial pressue of COCl2 is 100 torr. The total pressue of the system becomes 150 torr. When
the equilibrium COCl2 (g) ⇌ CO (g) + Cl2 (g) is attained at constant temperature. The value of kp for
this reaction is:

(1) 500
(2) 0.5
(3) 50
(4) 0.2

18) What should be the value of KC for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g). If the amounts
are SO3 = 48 g, SO2 = 12.8 g and O2 = 9.6 g at equilibrium and the volume of the container is one
litre :-

(1) 64
(2) 30
(3) 42
(4) 8.5

19) For the synthesis of ammonia by reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) in the Haber's process, then
correct equilibrium curve :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)

Which of following cannot be isoelectronic :-

(1) two different cations

(2) two different anions
(3) cation and anion
(4) two different atoms

21) If of 1 mole of HI is dissociates, the equilibrium constant of disintegration of acid (HI) at same
temperature will be (V = 1 L) :–

(1) 64

(2)

(3) 49

(4)

22) Ratio of number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ and Ti is

(1) 1.2
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
23) Attainment of the equilibrium gave the following graph. Find the correct

option. (% dissociation = fraction dissociated × 100)

2
(1) At t = 5 sec equilibium has been reached and KC = 40 (mol/ litre)
(2) At t = 5 sec equilibrium has been reached and % dissociation of A is 20%
(3) At t = 5 sec. equilibrium has been reached and % dissociated of A is 30%
(4) None of these

24) In the equilibrium A2 (g) + 2B (g) 2AB (s). If the equilibrium concentration of A2 is doubled.
then equilibrium concentration of B would become.

(1) twice
(2)

(3)

(4) Half

25) For sodium atom, the number of electron with m = 0 will be :

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 8

26) Identify the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Value of Azimuthal quantum number is same for 3d, 4d & 5d subshells.
Electron distribution in dxy orbital & px orbital is in between the axis & along the axis
(2)
respectively.
(3) Ψ520 represents 5dz orbital
2

(4) In an Hydrogen atom, energy of 5d & 4f subshell are same.

27) Shortest wavelength in paschen series of Li+2 ion will be :-

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) Consider the reaction,
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
in a closed container at equilibrium. What would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on the
equilibrium concentration of CO2?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unaffected
(4) Data is not sufficient to predict it

29) What is likely to be the orbit number for a circular orbit of diameter 2.65 nm of the hydrogen
atom

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

30) Assertion : In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant pressure and temperature addition of helium at
equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl5.
Reason : Helium removes Cl2 from the field of action.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion .
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

31) For chemical equilibrium the correct plot is .

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

32) At constant temperature the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the decomposition reaction, N2O4

2NO2 is expressed by where P = pressure x = extent of decomposition. Which one of

the following statement is true?

(1) Kp increases with increase of P

(2) Kp increases with increase of x
(3) Kp increases with decrease of x
(4) Kp remains constant with change in P and x

33) For the gas phase reaction, (ΔH = –32.7 kcal), carried out in a vessel. The
equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by:-

(1) adding H2
(2) increasing pressure
(3) removing some H2
(4) None of these

34) The relation + 2 log RT = 0 is true for which reaction

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

(2) 2 NO2(g) N2O4(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(4) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

35) Which of the following pairs of orbitals possess two nodal planes ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) How many statements are correct from following-

(i) Splitting of spectral lines in presence of electric field is given by Stark's effect.
(ii) Orbital angular momentum for 3s is zero.
(iii) Total nodes in 2p are zero.
(iv) Nodal plane in an 2p orbital is one.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following statement are correct :-

(a) Hund's rule application starts from carbon
(b) Reason for hund's rule is exchange of electron of same spin and less electron–electron repulsion
(c) Electronic configuration of chromium violates Hund's rule
(d) According to Bohr model, 2πr = nλ

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a,b, c, d

38) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one
of
the following?

(1) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

(2) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
(3) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
(4) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)

40) A 25 watt bulb emitted light of 0.57 µm then No. of photon per sec will be :-

(1) 7.17 × 1019

(2) 3.02 × 1019
(3) 6 × 1019
(4) 6 × 1023

41) Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to:-

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(2) Fe(s) + S(s) FeS(s)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

42) The value of (n2 + n1) and for He⊕ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The
wavelength of emitted photon on transition of electron from n2 to n1 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) At 444°C HI was dissociated to the extent of 30% If. 5 moles of HI was taken initially what would
be the moles of HI at equillibrium :-

(1) 2.4
(2) 3.5
(3) 3
(4) 5

44) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), K1

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g), K2

H2(g) + O2(g) H2O(g), K3

The equilibrium constant of the reaction

2 NH3(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) + 3H2O(g), (K4)

in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) K1 K2 K3

45)

The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below :

I. n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = –2, s =
II. n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1, s =

III. n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, s =

IV. n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = –1, s =
The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is :

(1) IV > II > III > I

(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) I > II > III > IV

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I : Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of
inclusion bodies.
Statement-II : The bacterial cells have a chemically complex cell membrane.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

2) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

Genus Name Character Class

Sexual stage
(1) Tricoderma Deuteromycetes
is absent

Endogenous
(2) Claviceps Ascomycetes
ascospores

Septate
(3) Ustilago Basidiomycetes
mycelium

Aseptate and
(4) Puccinia coenocytic Phycomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of :-

(1) Sporangiospore, Oospore and Ascospore

(2) Zoospore, Oospore and Ascospore
(3) Sporangiospore, Ascospore and basidiospore
(4) Oospore, Ascospore and basidiospore

4) Match List-I List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum

(B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum

(C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum

(D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

5) Which of the following structure is responsible to attach the bacteria to host tissues and to rocks
in streams ?

(1) Longer Pili

(2) Flagella
(3) Capsule
(4) Fimbriae

6) Which is incorrect ?

(1) Asexual reproduction in liverwort take place by gemma

(2) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal
(3) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purpose and as a soil binders
(4) All pteridophytes are homosporous in nature

7) Algal component in lichen is known as ___A____ and fungal component is ___B___.

(1) A-Mycobiont, B-Phycobiont

(2) A-Phycobiont, B-Mycobiont
(3) A-Ascobiont, B-Basidiobiont
(4) A-Ascobiont, B-Phycobiont

8) Assertion : Pteridophytes are limited in geographical distribution.

Reason : Prothallus require cool, damp and moist place to grow.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) Which of the following are correct :

(A) Methanogens are an archaebacteria produce methane in marshy place
(B) Nostoc is blue green algae fix atmospheric N2
(C) Chemosynthetic bacteria form cellulose from glucose
(D) Mycoplasma is a wall less organism that can survive without oxygen

(1) B and C
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

10) Match List - I with List - II

List – I List – II

(a) Cedrus (i) Pteridophyte

(b) Adiantum (ii) Gymnosperm

(c) Sphagnum (iii) Liverwort

(d) Marchantia (iv) Moss

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

11) Which of the following statements are true about deuteromycetes ?

(a) Most of the members are decomposers
(b) Commonly known as imperfect fungi
(c) Most of the members are parasites
(d) Sexual phase of these fungi are known

(1) a & c
(2) a & d
(3) a & b
(4) c & d

12) Statement-I : Thallus of liverworts is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substratum.
Statement-II : Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by fragmentation of thalli 'or' by the
formation of gamme.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

13) Assertion(A) : Bacteria reproduce by sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive type of
DNA transfer from one bacteria to the other.
Reason(R) : Bacteria are helpful in making curd and production of antibiotics.

(1) A & R both are correct but R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A & R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

14) The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to extreme conditions due to all, except :-

(1) Needle like leaves

(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken Stomata
(4) Coralloid roots

15)

Which one of the following is not a ecological importance of moss plants ?

(1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous mammals birds and other animals
(2) Very high water holding capacity of mosses is useful for trans-shipment of living materials
(3) Mosses along with lichens are the pioneering organism to colonise rocks
(4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and reduce the impact of falling rain

16) Identify the brown algae given below labelled as A, B and C and select the correct option:

(1) A-Fucus, B-Dictyota, C-Laminaria

(2) A-Dictyota, B-Laminaria, C-Fucus
(3) A-Laminaria, B-Dictyota, C-Fucus
(4) A-Laminaria, B-Fucus, C-Dictyota

17) Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes.

I. They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic.
II. Include unicellular and multicellular forms.
III. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
IV. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important examples of Ascomycetes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are false?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and III

18) Stored food of red algae is :-

(1) Floridean starch

(2) Glycogen
(3) Cyanophycean starch
(4) Leucosin

19)

Read the following statements :-

(A) The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered by coating of algin
(B) Vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation
(C) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous
(D) The gametes are pyriform (Pear shaped) and bear two laterally attached unequal flagella
Which algal group represents these characteristics ?

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

20) Which classes of algae possess pigment fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively ?

(1) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae

21) Embryophyta includes :

(A) Thallophyta (B) Bryophyta
(C) Pteriodophyta (D) Angiosperm

(1) Only A
(2) Only D
(3) Only A and D
(4) B, C and D

22) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below
 Column-I Column-II
(A) Chief producers in oceans (i) Slime moulds
(B) Red Tides (ii) Diatoms
(C) Plasmodium (iii) Euglenoids
(D) Mixotrophic nutrition (iv) Dinoflagellate
(1) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(i)
(2) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(3) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iv)

23) Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B, C and D).

(1) A–Equisetum, B–Selaginella, C–Fern, D–Salvinia

(2) A–Selaginella, B–Equisetum, C–Fern, D–Salvinia
(3) A–Fern, B–Salvinia, C–Equisetum, D–Selaginella
(4) A–Salvinia, B–Equisetum, C–Fern, D–Selaginella

24) Unbranched stem is character of which gymnosperm :-

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Cedrus
(4) Lycopodium

25) Fungi shows asexual reproduction by all of the following kinds of spores except :-

(1) Conidia
(2) Oospore
(3) Sporangiospore
(4) Zoospore

26) Assertion (A): The walls of diatoms are indestructible.

Reason(R): The walls of diatoms are embedded with abundant silica.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

27)

Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Both conidia and basidiospores are endogenous in origin

(2) Both zoospores and ascospores are exogenous in origin
(3) Both zoospores and conidia are exogenous in origin
(4) Both aplanospores and ascospores are endogenous in origin

28) Assertion : Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason : Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Green algae usually have:

(1) Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-d

(2) Cell wall made of murein
(3) A rigid cell wall is made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
(4) All are correct

30)

Sporophyte of Pinus is :-

(1) Heterosporous and dioecious

(2) Homosporous and monoecious
(3) Heterosporous and monoecious
(4) Homosporous and dioecious

31) Match column-I and column-II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Prions (i) Single stranded RNA

 (B) TMV (ii) Free infectious RNA

ϕ × 174 Proteinaceous
(C) (iii)
Bacteriophage infectious agent

(D) Viroids (iv) Single stranded DNA

(1) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)

32) Leafy gametophyte occurs in:-

(1) Liver worts

(2) Horn worts
(3) Moss
(4) Fern

33) Analyse the following characteristics and identify the group of organisms :
(A) They reproduce sexually by the fusion of non-motile gametes
(B) They show complex developmental changes after fertilization
(C) Majority of organisms are marine with greater concentration found in warmer areas.
(D) They have chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin as major pigments

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cynophyceae

34) Choose the correctly matched pairs :-

A Volvox - Oogamous
B Fucus - Isogamous
C Spirogyra - Isogamous
D Ulothrix - Anisogamous
E Eudorina - Isogamous
(1) A, B & C only
(2) B, C & D only
(3) A & C only
(4) A, B, C, D & E

35) Statement-I: Generally plant viruses have single stranded RNA.

Statement-II: Bacteriophages are usually double stranded DNA viruses.

(1) Statements I is true, II is false.

(2) Statements II is true, I is false.
(3) Both statements are true.
(4) Both statements are false.

36) Statement-I :- The cyanobacteria are unicellular colonial or filamentous, fresh water/marine or
terrestrial algae.
Statement-II :- Cyanobacteria are chemosynthetic autotrophic eubacteria.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

37) (A) Slime moulds are saprophytic found on decaying twigs.

(B) Silica present in Diatom
(C) Lichens are pollution indicator
(D) Citric acid can produced form Aspergillus niger.

(1) A, B, C, D all are correct

(2) Only B, C, D are correct
(3) Only A, B, D are correct
(4) Only A, C, D are correct

38) Read the following point carefully.

(a) Nitrogen fixation ability
(b) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(c) Colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
(d) Cause water bloom
These points are related with-

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Green algae
(4) Cyanobacteria

39) In which of the following sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompained by complex post
fertilization developments :-

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) Ectocarpus

40) Select odd one out with respect to plant group?

(1) Cycas, Pinus and Cedrus

(2) Funaria, Sphagnum and Marchantia
(3) Spirogyra, Volvox and Ulothrix
(4) Selaginella, Polytrichum and Porphyra
41) Example of unicellular algae :-

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Chlorella
(4) Fucus

42) Identify the pair of pteridophytes which show the events precursor to the seed habit ?

(1) Selaginella and Equisetum

(2) Salvinia and Lycopodium
(3) Selaginella and Salvinia
(4) Equisetum and Adiantum

43) Find the correct statement :-

(1) Ulothrix and Spirogyra show Oogamy type of syngamy

(2) Red algae have a dominant pigment r-phycocyanin
(3) Red algae produce gametes with two equal lateral flagella
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

44) Statement-1: Members of chrysophytes are found only in marine environments.

Statement-2: They are macroscopic and float passively in water currents.

(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct

(2) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect
(3) Statement (1) is correct but statement (2) is incorrect
(4) Statement (1) is incorrect but statement (2) is correct

45) Pyrenoids are found in

(1) Mitochondria of green algae

(2) Chloroplast of green algae
(3) Chloroplast of all vascular plants
(4) Chloroplast of all seed plants

46) Valency of Fe in oxyhaemoglobin is ?

(1) Fe+3
(2) Fe+4
(3) Fe+2
(4) can be Fe+3 or Fe+4

47) Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other partaining to feature stated
against them?
(1) Pteropus and ornithorhyncus = viviparity
(2) Garden lizard & crocodile = 4 chamber heart
(3) Ascaris & Ancylostoma = Metameric segmentation
(4) Sea horse & flying fish = Poikilothermal

48) How many among following characteristics are common between chondricthyes and
osteichthyes?
a. Streamlined body b. Four pair gills
c. Two chambered heart d. Poikilothermal
e. Internal fertilization f. Dioecious

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

49) Select the correct option for inspiration :-

(1) inspiration is a passive process.

(2) during this process diaphragm and EICM contracts.
(3) intra pulmonary pressure is slightly above the atmospheric pressure.
(4) intra alveolar pressure is slightly more than the atmospheric pressure.

50)

Consider the following statements and give correct answer :-

(a) Euspongia is known as bath sopange
(b) In adamsia polyp stage is found

(c) Meandrina is known as brain coral

(d) Fasciola is known as liver fluke
(1) All are correct
(2) Only (2) statements are correct
(3) Only (3) statements are correct
(4) Only (1) statements are correct

51) Spiracles are part of respiratory passage in :-

(1) Insects
(2) Frong
(3) Human
(4) Sponges

52) Digestive system consists of a mouth and anus in which animals

(1) Ancylostoma
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Adamsia
(4) Both (1) and (2)

53) Larynx is a cartilagenous box which help in sound production. Which one is not true for Larynx :-

(1) Thyroid cartilage – one pair – C shaped

(2) Cricoid cartilage – single – signet ring shaped
(3) False vocal cord – Anterial pair – Membranous
(4) True vocal cord – Posterior pair – Yellow fibrous connective Tissue

54) Partial pressure of O2 is higher :-

(1) At tissue level

(2) At alveolar level
(3) In oxygenated blood
(4) In atmosphere

55) Process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cell is called :-

(1) Breathing
(2) Diffusion
(3) Digestion
(4) Utilisation (cellular respiration)

56) Match the column–

Column–I Column–II

(i) Gorgonia (a) Comb jelly

(ii) Pleurobrachia (b) Metagenesis

(iii) Obelia (c) Sea fan

(d) Sea pen

(1) (i)–c, (ii)–d, (iii)–b
(2) (i)–c, (ii)–b, (iii)–a
(3) (i)–d, (ii)–b, (iii)–a
(4) (i)–c, (ii)–a, (iii)–b

57) Air bladders are present in :-

(1) Dog fish

(2) Electric fish
(3) Devil fish
(4) Clarias fish

58) Assertion :- Members of phylum Nemathelminthes are also known as round worms.
Reason :- They are dorsoventrally flattened.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

59) Shifting of HbO2 dissociation curve to right take place in the case of :-

(1) Rise in Pco2

(2) Fall in pH
(3) Rise in temperature
(4) All of the above

60) Cnidarians exhibits two basic forms-polyp and medusa, which of the following animals are found
in medusoids form ?
(a) Hydra (b) Adamsia
(c) Aurelia (d) Jellyfish

(1) only a and b

(2) only a and c
(3) only a and d
(4) only c and d

61) In chordates, nerve chord is :-

(1) Dorsal, solid, double, tubular

(2) Ventral, hollow, single, cylindrical
(3) Ventral, solid, single, tubular
(4) Dorsal, hollow, single, tubular

62) Double layered bag like structure covering the lungs is called as :-

(1) Pericardium
(2) Peritoneum
(3) Pleura
(4) Mysentery

63) Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders

64) Which one of the following statement regarding coelom is correct ?

(1) Round worms are pseudocoelomate
(2) Mollusca are acoelomate
(3) Arthropods are acoelomate
(4) Flatworms are coelomate.

65) With reference to human respiration, which is correct ?

(1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation.

(2) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary ventilation.
(3) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary ventilation.
(4) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar ventilation.

66) Corals have skeleton composed of–

(1) Chitin
(2) Silica
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) All of above

67) Which one of the following features is not present in the phylum - Arthropoda ?

(1) Metameric segmentation

(2) Parapodia
(3) Jointed appendages
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

68) Cavity found in Echinodermata is known as -

(1) Schizocoelom
(2) Enterocoelom
(3) Pseudocoelom
(4) Gastrovascular cavity

69) How many of these are examples of cartilagenous fishes :-

Scoliodon, Trygon, Carcharodon, Exocoetus, Pristis, Torpedo

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) One

70) Saturation of Hb with oxygen when partial pressure of oxygen is more than 100 mm of Hg is ?

(1) 100% (at tissue level)

(2) 97% (at tissue level)
(3) 100% (at alveolar level)
(4) 97% (at alveolar level)

71) Following animals belongs to which classes ?

A-Petromyzon, B-Scoliodon, C-Pristis

A-Cyclostomata, B-Chondrichthyes,
(1)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(2)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(3)
C-Osteichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(4)
C-Cyclostomata

72) Conchae are located in

(1) trachea
(2) bronchioles
(3) ventricle
(4) nasal chambers

73) Lecithin is secreted by :-

(1) Pneumocyte-I (Simple squamous epithelium)

(2) Pneumocyte-II (Simple squamous epithelium)
(3) Pneumocyte-I (Simple cuboidal epithelium)
(4) Pneumocyte-II (Simple cuboidal epithelium)

74) By the contraction of EICM, rib and sternum shifts upwards and outwards to increase thoracic
volume in :-

(1) Anterio-posterior axis

(2) Lateral side only
(3) No change in thoracic volume
(4) Dorso-ventral axis

75) Alternation of generation is also called ?

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metastasis
(3) Metazoun
(4) Metagenesis

76) Which of the following blood vessel have blood with 95 mm of Hg O2 ?

(1) systemic vessels

(2) pulmonary vein
(3) pulmonary vessels
(4) systemic vein

77) Hook worm is common name of :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Ancylostoma
(3) Limulus
(4) Fasciola

78) Whenever P50 value increase, oxygen dissociation curve shift towards.

(1) always shift towards right

(2) always towards left
(3) sometime towards right
(4) no effect

79) How much amount of CO2 is transported by plasma ?

(1) 75% to 78%

(2) 5% to 7%
(3) 20% to 25%
(4) 93%

80) Which of the following organism neither have notochord nor vertebral column in adult stage?

(1) Cephalochordates
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Herdmania
(4) Scoliodon

81) Minute quantity of enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present in :-

(1) RBC
(2) Plasma
(3) Both
(4) Absent in plasma

82) When 1200 ml air is left in the lungs, it is called?

(1) Tidal volume

(2) IRV
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Residual volume

83) In fever breathing rate :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) no effect
(4) 12-16/min

84) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around how much ml of O2 to the tissue under
heavy excercise ?

(1) 5 ml (approx)
(2) 10 ml (approx)
(3) 15 ml (approx)
(4) 19.4 ml (approx)

85) Lungs are made up of air filled sacs, the alveoli, They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration, because of :-

(1) IRV
(2) TV
(3) ERV
(4) RV

86) What level trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi ?

(1) 4th thoracic vertebrae

(2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(3) 6th thoracic vertebrae
(4) Just below neck in thoracic cavity

87)

Which of the following is a mismatched pair?

(1) Curvus Crow

(2) Psittacula Parrot

(3) Struthio Peacock

(4) Neophron Vulture

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which of the following part of respiratory system is not a part of conducting zone ?

(1) external nostrils to terminal bronchioles

(2) alveoli and their ducts
(3) larynx to primary bronchi
(4) primary bronchi to terminal bronchioles

89) Characteristic feature of phylum-Echinodermata is :

(1) Radial symmetry

(2) Water vascular system
(3) Mantle cavity
(4) All of these

90) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs is :-

(1) more than the atmospheric pressure

(2) same as the atmospheric pressure
(3) less than the atmospheric pressure
(4) higher than the intrapulmonary pressure
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 2 4 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

α = 30°
angle of swim with flow = α + 90°
= 30° + 90° = 120°

2)

Correct Answer : (3)

3)

x = (ucosθ)xt = 36t ⇒ ucosθ = 36 ....(1)

y = 48t – 4.9t2 ⇒ usinθ = 48 ....(2)

using (1) and (2) tanθ =

4)

∵ Time of flight

For projectile '1' angle of projection is small so time of flight will be less.

5)

Correct Answer : (4)

6)

Let
7)

8)

Correct Answer : (1)

9)

Correct Answer : (3)

10)

Correct Answer : (1)

11)

12)

ux = 10 m/s & uy = 10 m/s

t=

h = (uy t) – (uy t – gt2)

h= gt2

h= g = 1.25 m
13)

tan θ = θ = 53°

14) Ktop = Kcos245°

Ktop =

15)

When horizontal distance between particles is zero then they take equal time

x – a = ucos60° × t

a + (x – a) =

16) R must same

H = 15 m

17)
Given Time t = 1 sec

⇒ x = 40 m

and also
y = 25 m

∴
18)

Correct Answer : (4)

19)

20)

Let the bus overtakes the car after time t and at distance d.

Bus,

...(1)
Car : S = vt
d = 16 t ...(2)

by (1) & (2) t = 4 sec, d = 64 m.

21)

Correct Answer : (2)

22)

Correct Answer : (4)

23)

Correct Answer : (1)

24)

25) Explanation:
A particle is projected horizontally with initial speed is from the top of a tower. This
displacement of a projectile at any time t is asked.

Concept:
This question based on Displacement of projectile motion.
Solution:

x = ut

Displacement

Correct option:

(2)

26) Slope of x-t graph gives velocity & rate of change of slope gives acceleration.

27)

Correct Answer : (1)

28)

Correct Answer : (1)

29)

Correct Answer : (3)

30)

Correct Answer : (1)

31)

Correct Answer : (4)

32)

v2 = u2 – 2gh or u2 = v2 + 2gh
or
as
or
uy =
ux = vx = 6 m/s

°
33)

2a = vt

34)

Correct Answer : (2)

35)

Correct Answer : (3)

36)

37)

Correct Answer : (3)

38)

Correct Answer : (1)

39)

Correct Answer : (3)

40)

Correct Answer : (3)

41) If and are in opposite direction, particle slows down.

42)

Correct Answer : (4)

 43)

t=

44)

45)

Correct Answer : (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Theory based

47)

Correct Answer : (4)

48)

Correct Answer : (3)

49)

Correct Answer : (3)

50)

Correct Answer : (2)

51)

Correct Answer : (1)

52)

Correct Answer : (2)

53) (V1)H = 2.18 × 106 ×
= 2.18 × 106 m/s

ΔV = 2.18 × 106 ×
= 2.18 × 103 m/s

Δx × m × ΔV =
Δx × 9.1 × 10–31 × 2.18 × 103

=
Δx = 2.66 × 10–8 m.

54)

Correct Answer : (1)

55) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46, Part-1

∵
⇒ λP = h (constant)

So plot will be a rectangular hyperbola.

56)

Correct Answer : (3)

57)

Correct Answer : (1)

58)

Correct Answer : (1)

59)

Correct Answer : (2)

60)

Correct Answer : (2)

61) For exothermic process as T ↑ yield ↓
so T1 > T2 > T3

62)

Correct Answer : (3)

63)

Correct Answer : (2)

64)

Correct Answer : (1)

65)

Correct Answer : (4)

66)

Correct Answer : (4)

67)

Correct Answer : (3)

68)

Correct Answer : (2)

69)

Correct Answer : (3)

70) m = 0 for 5 electrons in s-orbital and 2e– in p-orbital.

71) In H-atom energy depends only on value of n. Energy of 5d is greater than 4f.

72)

Correct Answer : (3)

73)
Correct Answer : (3)

74)

Correct Answer : (2)

75)

Correct Answer : (3)

76)

Correct Answer : (1)

77)

KP depend only on temperatures

78)

Correct Answer : (3)

79)
Put, Δng = –2

80)

Correct Answer : (2)

81)

Correct Answer : (3)

82)

Correct Answer : (2)

83) NCERT, Pg.# 58

84)

Correct Answer : (1)

 85)

Correct Answer : (1)

86)

Correct Answer : (2)

87) n2 + n1 = 4 .....(i) and

2 2
n2 – n1 = 8 ....(ii)
therefore n2 = 4 – n1
and from equation (ii) (4 – n1)2 – n12 = 8
16 – 8n1 + n12 – n12 = 8
or n1 = 1
and n2 = 4 – 1 = 3

λ=

∴λ=

88)

Correct Answer : (2)

89)

Correct Answer : (2)

90) ↑(n+ℓ) ↑Energy so correct one is I > III > II > IV

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 90, 91

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 23, 24

93)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 23

94)
 Solution.
(A) Pteropsida - (iii) Adiantum
(B) Lycopsida - (iv) selaginella
(C) Psilopsida - (i) Psilotum
(D) sphenopsida - (ii) equisetum

95) NCERT XI pg.# 129

96) NCERT Page No. # 35, 36

97) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 27

98)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

99)

NCERT XI pg.# 19, 20

100)

Correct Matching:

A. (a) Cedrus → (ii) Gymnosperm

B. (b) Adiantum → (i) Pteridophyte
C. (c) Sphagnum → (iv) Moss
D. (d) Marchantia → (iii) Liverwort

101) Explain Question: asked to identify the correct statements about Deuteromycetes,
Concept: Deuteromycetes
Explanation: Deuteromycetes are called imperfect fungi because their sexual stage is not
observed. If and when the sexual stage is discovered, they are reclassified into Ascomycetes or
Basidiomycetes
Final answer: Deuteromycetes

102)

NCERT-XI Pg#35

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 19-20

104) NCERT XII Pg. # 38

105)

Correct Answer : (2)

106)

Correct Answer : (4)

107) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 23

108)

Correct Answer : (1)

109)

Correct Answer : (2)

110) Explanation:
Fucoxanthin is the brown pigment found in Phaeophycease (brown algae). Phycoerythrin in the
red pigment found in Rhodophycease (red algae).
The correct answer is: 2
Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

111)

Correct Answer : (4)

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20,21

113) NCERT Pg. # 37

114) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

115)

Correct Answer : (1)

116)

NCERT-XI Pg.20
117) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 23, 24

118) NCERT Page No. 34

119)

Correct Answer : (3)

120)

Correct Answer : (3)

121)

Correct Answer : (3)

122)

Correct Answer : (3)

123)

Correct Answer : (3)

124)

Correct Answer : (3)

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 26

126) NCERT, Pg. # 13

127)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 21,25

128)

Correct Answer : (4)

129)

Correct Answer : (3)

130)

Correct Answer : (4)

131) NCERT XI 3.1.1 Pg # 32

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

133)

Correct Answer : (4)

134)

NCERT-XI Pg.20

135)

Correct Answer : (2)

136)

Correct Answer : (3)

137)

NCERT XI Pg.# 48

138) NCERT Pg. # 56, 57 (a,c,d,f are common)

139)

Correct Answer : (2)

140)

Correct Answer : (1)

141)

Correct Answer : (1)

142)
Correct Answer : (4)

143)

Correct Answer : (1)

144)

Correct Answer : (4)

145)

Correct Answer : (1)

146)

Correct Answer : (4)

147)

NCERT XI Pg.# 48

148)

Correct Answer : (4)

149)

Correct Answer : (4)

150) NCERT Pg. # 50

151)

Correct Answer : (4)

152)

Correct Answer : (3)

153)

Correct Answer : (2)

154)

NCERT XI Pg.# 43

155)

Correct Answer : (2)

156)

Corals have a skeleton composed of calcium carbonate.

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 53

158)

Correct Answer : (2)

159)

Correct Answer : (3)

160)

Correct Answer : (4)

161)

Correct Answer : (1)

162)

Correct Answer : (4)

163)

Correct Answer : (4)

164)

Correct Answer : (4)

165) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

166)

Correct Answer : (2)

167) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 51

168)

Correct Answer : (1)

169)

Correct Answer : (1)

170)

NCERT XI Pg.# 46

171)

Correct Answer : (2)

172)

Correct Answer : (4)

173)

Correct Answer : (2)

174)

Correct Answer : (3)

175)

Correct Answer : (4)

176)

Correct Answer : (2)

177) NCERT–I Pg. # 59

178)

Correct Answer : (2)

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45

180)

Correct Answer : (3)