13-05-2026

7601CMD303001260002 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Find minimum value of

is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If y = cos x. Then average value of y in interval .

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) = ............

(1) ex(cos x + sin x)

(2) ex(cos x – sin x)
(3) ex(sin x – cos x)
(4) None

4) equal to :-

(1) 1
(2) – 1
(3) 0
(4) 1/2

5) The acceleration a of a particle starting from rest varies with time according to relation
 . The velocity of the particle after time t will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

7)

If y = 4x2 + 2x + 1. Find minimum value of y.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

(1) e4
(2) 5e4
(3) 0

(4)
9) Value of cos (120°) is?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

(1) 3 sin (3x +2)+c

(2) - 3 sin (3x+2)+c

(3)

(4)

11) Find maximum value of y when

y = 3 sin θ + 4 cos θ

(1) 7
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 25

12) The radius of spherical bubble is changing with time. Then rate of change of its volume is given
by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If v = u – at then which is appropiate graph between v and t, both u and a are positive?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) =?

(1)

(2) 0
(3) 1/2
(4) —1

15) If tan θ = then sin θ + cos θ will be

(1)
(2) x + y

(3)

(4)

16) Integrate the following function

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/sec. then find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 11 m/sec.
(2) 8 m/sec.
(3) 6 m/sec.
(4) 7 m/sec.

18) The value of is :-

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 27

19) The average value of alternating current I = I0 sinωt in time interval is :-

(1)

(2) 2i0

(3)

(4)

20) For above graph find =

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None

21) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 > m2

22) The greatest value of the function –5 sinθ + 12 cosθ is

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 17

23) Calculate the minimum value of =?

(1) 3/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/7
(4) 3/2

24) For straight line 2x + 5y = 10, find y – intercept -

(1) 5
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

25) Slope of line AB is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The value of sin780° =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Find suitable graph for given equation y = x – 1

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) Magnitude of slope of curve shown :-

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases, then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

29) The equation of shown straight line is -

(1)

(2)

(3) 4x + 5y = 1
(4) 5x + 4t = 1

30) What is the value of 20 minute angle in radian?

(1)
rad.

(2)
rad.

(3)
rad.

(4)
rad.

31) Value of tan(3°) is equal to :-

(1) 3

(2)

(3)
(4) 3π

32) How does the slope vary in the following graph ?

(1) Continuously decrease

(2) Continuously increase
(3) First increase then decrease
(4) First decrease then increase

33) Which of the following statement is not correct for following straight line graph :-

(1) Line (2) has negative y intercept

(2) Line (1) has positive y intercept
(3) Line (2) has positive slope
(4) Line (1) has negative slope

34) Displacement x of a particle is related to time t as x = at + bt2 – ct3 where a, b and c are
constants of motion. The velocity of the particle when its acceleration is zero is given by :-

(1)
a+

(2)
a+

(3)
a+

(4)
a+

35) The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration is given by Z = bt, which of
the following relation is valid for velocity?

(1) v = u + bt2

(2)
v=u+
(3) v = u + bt
(4) v = u

36) The displacement ‘x’ of a particle moving along a straight line at time t is given by x = a0+a1t +
a2t2. The acceleration of the particle is :-

(1) a1
(2) a2
(3) 2a2
(4) 3a2

37) sec2(15°) – tan2(15°) = ...... :-

(1) 1
(2) –1

(3)

(4)

38) Find value of θ = rad in degree :-

(1) 760°
(2) 560°
(3) 660°
(4) 460°

39)
where, G, m1 & m2 are constants

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Distance between two points (8,4) and (2,a) is 10 unit. Find positive value of a :

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 12
41) (sin 30º) is equal to

(1) cos 30º

(2) cosec 30º
(3) 0
(4) sin 30º

42)

x = at2, y = 2at, then is

(1) t

(2)

(3) 1
(4) None

43) If rate of change of radius is 2 m/s, then find rate of change of area of circle when radius is .

(1) 3 m2/s
(2) 4 m2/s
(3) 2π m2/s
(4) 3 π m2/s

44)

Which of the following identity is not correct

(1) sin2θ – cos2θ = cos2θ

(2) sin(A + B) = sinA cosB + cosA sinB
(3) sin2θ = 2sinθ cosθ
(4) sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ

45)

Find the value of sin(74°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) can't be determined

 CHEMISTRY

1) The mole fraction of solvent in an aq. solution is 0.7. The molality (in mol kg–1) of the aqueous
solution is :

(1) 13.88 mol kg–1

(2) 23.80 mol kg–1
(3) 194.44 mol kg–1
(4) 1.38 mol kg–1

2) The largest number of moles is in :

(1) 36 g of water
(2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
(3) 46 g of ethyl alcohol
(4) 54 g of nitrogen pentoxide

3) Match the following, and select the correct code :-

Column-I Column-II

(P) Same number of atoms (1) 4.25 g NH3 and 4.5 g H2O

(Q) Same number of molecules (2) 2.20 g CO2 and 0.90 g H2O

Same numbers of atoms as well

(R) (3) 4.0 g CH3Cl and 0.5 g NH3
as molecules

Different numbers of atoms as

(S) (4) 3.2 g O3 and 2.80 g CO
well as molecules

(1) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

(2) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-3

(3) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

(4) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

4) Final percentage yield of the given reaction if 1 mole of 'A' react with 2 moles of 'B' to give 0.25
mole of A2B3.
2A + 3B → A2B3

(1) 12.5
(2) 25
(3) 33.33
(4) 50

5) 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 —→ Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCI Maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 formed when 2 moles
each of Na3PO4 and BaCI2 react is:
(1) 4 mole
(2) 2 mole

(3)
mole

(4)
mole

6) 5 mol PQ weigh 150 g and 2 mol P2Q3 weigh 160 g . The atomic mass of P and Q in amu are
respectively :-

(1) 30, 20
(2) 20, 30
(3) 10, 20
(4) 20, 10

7) Zika virus found to contain 1.6% sulphur by mass. Find the minimum molecular weight ?

(1) 1000
(2) 100000
(3) 200000
(4) 2000

8) How much oxygen is required for complete combustion of 560 g of ethene (Mw = 28 g/mol) ?

(1) 6.4 kg
(2) 1.92 kg
(3) 2.8 kg
(4) 9.6 kg

9) The volume of CO2 at STP obtained by heating 1 g of CaCO3 will be

(1) 1 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 0.224 L
(4) 11.2 L

10) Mole fraction of NaOH in aqueous solution will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 20
11) The volume of oxygen required for complete combustion of 2.0 litre methane at NTP is :-

(1) 12.25 litre

(2) 4 litre
(3) 1 litre
(4) 3 litre

12) A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25 g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl.
How much volume of CO2 will be obtained at N.T.P. ?
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(1) 2.24 L
(2) 5.6 L
(3) 11.2 L
(4) 4.48 L

13)

The pair of species having same percentage of carbon is :-

(1) CH3COOH and C6H12O6

(2) CH3COOH and C2H5OH
(3) HCOOCH3 and C12H22O11
(4) C6H12O6 and C12H22O11

14) If vapour density of a gas is 6.5 then volume of its 65 g at NTP is

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 44.8 L
(3) 112 L
(4) 89.6 L

15) How much water should be added into 250 ml of semimolar solution to make it decimolar :

(1) 500 ml
(2) 1 L
(3) 750 ml
(4) 250 ml

16) Mole fraction of methanol in a mixture of methanol and ethanol is 0.40. The percentage (by
mass) of methanol in the mixture is

(1) 31.7%
(2) 41%
(3) 25.32%
(4) 18.6%
17) What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to produce 11.2 litre CO2 :-

(1) 50 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 52.6 g
(4) 25 g

18) What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution if 25.00mL is exactly neutralized by 32.63 mL of 0.164 M
NaOH ?

(1) 0.107 M
(2) 0.326 M
(3) 0.214 M
(4) 0.428 M

19) How many grams of AgNO3 are needed to prepare 500 mL of a 0.240 M solution ? (AgNO3 = 170
g/mol)

(1) 1.42 g
(2) 20.4 g
(3) 120 g
(4) 354 g

20) What will be molality of a solution having 18 g of glucose (Mw = 180) dissolved in 500 g of water

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 0.2 m
(4) 2 m

21) Volume of water which must be added to 8 M NaOH to make 2 lit. of 20% w/v NaOH solution is.

(1) 1.25 lit.

(2) 0.75 lit.
(3) 1 lit.
(4) None of these

22) If the density of 2.5 M solution of NaOH is 1.2 g mL–1. Calculate the molality of the solution.

(1) 1.13 m
(2) 4.54 m
(3) 2.27 m
(4) 3.4 m

23) Which of the following concentration term is temperature dependent

(1) Molality
(2) % w/w
(3) Mole fraction
(4) Molarity

24) In an atom 13Al27. number of protons is (a) electron is (b) and neutron is (c). Hence ratio will be
[in order c : b : a]

(1) 13 : 14 : 13
(2) 13 : 13 : 14
(3) 14 : 13 : 13
(4) 14 : 13 : 14

25) What will be molarity of 20%(w/v) of NaOH?

(1) 5
(2) 0.5
(3) 20
(4) 2

26) At 400K, 1 mol of a hydrocarbon is completely burnt. It gives 132 g of CO2 along with 72 g of
water vapour then hydrocarbon may be :-

(1) CH4
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H4
(4) C4H10

27) Mole fraction of urea in its 0.5 molal aqueous solution is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) An organic compound on analysis give the following data : C = 57.82%, H = 3.6% and rest is
oxygen. Its vapour density is 83, then calculate its molecular formula ?

(1) C8H6O6
(2) C8H6O4
(3) C4H3O2
(4) C6H6O6
29) If 92g of C2H5OH is present in 250 mL of solution. Then molarity of solution will be :-

(1) 8M
(2) 10M
(3) 4M
(4) 2M

30) Calculate the no. of Hydrogen ions present in 500 mL of 0.001 M H2SO4 solution ?

(1) 6.02 × 1020

(2) 3.01 × 1020
(3) 3.01 × 1017
(4) 6.02 × 1017

31) Which of the following mass is least ?

(1) 2.0 mol of H2

(2) 1 mol of O2(g)
(3) 10 g of C
(4) NA atoms of Cu

32) The number of moles of water present in 90 g of water is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

33) X+, Y2+ and Z– are isoelectronic with CO2. Increasing order of protons in X+, Y2+ and Z– is :

(1) X+ = Y2+ = Z–
(2) X+ < Y2+ < Z–
(3) Z– < X+ < Y2+
(4) Y2+ < X+ < Z–

34) The frequency of light for 1.0 Å wavelength is:-

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 Cycles per sec
(4) All of the above

35) For an element, if atomic number (Z) and mass number (A) are 29 and 63 respectively. Then the
number of protons, neutrons and electrons respectively are :-

(1) 29, 63, 29

(2) 29, 29, 63
(3) 29, 34, 29
(4) 29, 29, 29

36) A photon having wavelength 700 nm has energy :-

(1) 1.77 eV
(2) 2.47 eV
(3) 700 eV
(4) 3.57 eV

37)

The ratio of energy of radiation of wavelength 2000Å and 4000Å is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/4

38)

Neutron was discovered by

(1) J.J. Thomson

(2) Goldstein
(3) Chadwick
(4) Rutherford

39)

Out of X-rays, visible rays, ultraviolet rays, radiowaves, the largest frequency is of

(1) X-rays
(2) Visible
(3) Ultraviolet
(4) Radiowaves

40) The energy of a photon of light is _____ proportional to its frequency and ________ proportional to
its wavelength

(1) directly, directly

(2) inversely, inversely
(3) inversely, directly
(4) directly, inversely

41) In one joule of energy, the number of photons with wave number equal to x is -
(1)
(2)
(3) hcx
(4)

42) The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α-particle is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

43) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation
between their frequencies i.e. ν1 and ν2 will be

(1) ν1 = 2ν2
(2) 2ν1 = ν2

(3)
ν1 =
(4) ν1 = 4ν2

44) The average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 U because is a mixture of isotopes which are they?

(1) Cl34 and Cl36

(2) Cl35 and Cl37
(3) Cl35 and Cl36
(4) Cl36 and Cl38

45) How many gram of O2 are produced from 2 mole of KCLO3 ?

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 96
(4) 128

BIOLOGY

1) Elaioplasts help in storage of :-

(1) Fats and oils

(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids
2) Several ribosomes attach to a single m-RNA & form a chain called as :-

(1) Polysome
(2) Microsome
(3) Axoneme
(4) Mesosome

3) The ribosome of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria & plastids are respectively :-

(1) 80 S, 70 S & 70 S
(2) 70 S, 70 S & 80 S
(3) 50 S, 30 S & 70 S
(4) 70 S, 80 S & 70 S

4) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

A B C D

Peripheral Central Radial Central

(1)
microtubule sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Central Central Central

(2)
bridge microtubule sheath bridge

Interdoublet Central Radial Central

(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Radial Central Central

(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Arrangement of microtubule in centrosome is :-

(1) 9+1
(2) 9+2
(3) 9+0
(4) 8+1

6) An elaborate network of filamentous......structure present in the cytoplasm is collectively referred

to as the........ :-

(1) Cytoskeleton, Proteinaceous

(2) Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton
(3) Lipoidal, Mitochondria
(4) Lipoidal, Plasma membrane

7) Which of the following combination is correct for the enzyme of lysosome ?

(1) Hydrolytic, Active at basic pH

(2) Reductive, Active at acidic pH
(3) Synthetic, Active at basic pH
(4) Hydrolytic, Active at acidic pH

8) Amyloplast store :-

(1) Fat
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamin

9) Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function ?

(1) Mitochondria – Photosynthesis

(2) Nucleus – Aerobic respiration
(3) Ribosome – Synthesis of Lipids
(4) Vacuole – Storage

10) Which of the following statement is correct.

(1) Cell wall found in all cells.

(2) Centriole found in all eukaryotic cells.
(3) Vacuoles found in all eukaryotic cells.
(4) Ribosomes found in all cells.

11) Stacks of thylakoids are called as _________.

(1) Lamellae
(2) Frets
(3) Grana
(4) Stroma

12) The type of plastids which don't have pigments are_________.

(1) Leucoplast
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Chromoplast
(4) Both (2) & (3)

13) Which of the following is not membrane bound ?

(1) Vacuole
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

14) Centriole is associated with –

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Reproduction
(3) Spindle formation
(4) Respiration

15) The axoneme of cilia and flagella consists of :-

(1) Radial spokes

(2) 9 peripheral doublet
(3) 2 Singlet microtubules
(4) All of the above

16) Cell organelle with cart wheel like organisation :-

(1) Has nine peripheral doublets

(2) Has 27 microtubules in peripheral region
(3) Has ATPase activity in dyenin protein
(4) Helps in cell division by cell plate formation

17) Ribosomes are made of :-

(1) rRNA + tRNA + Protein

(2) rRNA + mRNA + Protein
(3) rRNA + Protein
(4) mRNA + Protein

18) The complex liquid matrix of chloroplast is called

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Cytosol
(3) Protoplasm
(4) Stroma

19) The inner membrane of mitochondria forms a number of infoldings called

(1) Cisternae
(2) Cristae
(3) Microtubules
(4) Mesosomes

20) Number of chloroplast present in a mesophyll cell

(1) 5–10
(2) 10–15
(3) 20–40
(4) > 100

21) The number of chloroplast in alga chlamydomonas is -

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 20 to 40
(4) 5 to 10

22) What is a tonoplast :-

(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(3) Membrane boundary of the sap vacuole of plant cells
(4) Cell membrane of plant cell

23) Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi
apparatus and filled with hydrolytic enzymes, are called :-

(1) Vacuoles
(2) Transitional vesicles
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Centrosome

24) In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto ...............% of the volume of the cell :-

(1) 30
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) 90

25) The two subunits of 80S ribosomes and 70S ribosomes are respectively :-

(1) 40S & 40S ; 35S & 35S

(2) 50S & 30S ; 40S & 30S
(3) 60S & 40S ; 50S & 30S
(4) 50S & 30S ; 60S & 40S

26) Assertion (A): Outer mitochondrial membrane is more permeable than inner membrane.
Reason (R): Outer mitochondrial membrane has porin proteins.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

27) 'Power house of the cell' is :

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Nucleus
(4) ER

28) George Palade observed granular structure under electron microscope which is composed of :

(1) RNA & DNA

(2) RNA & Carbohydrates
(3) RNA & Proteins
(4) RNA & Amino acids

29) Select the correct option with its function :

(1) Golgi apparatus – processing, packaging and transportation of proteins

(2) Lysosome – water storage
(3) RER – lipids synthesis
(4) Cell membrane – permeable

30) Who observed ribosomes as dense particles ?

(1) George Palade

(2) Flemming
(3) R. Brown
(4) C. Golgi

31) The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are :-

(1) Smaller than the prokaryotic ribosomes

(2) Larger than the mitochondiral ribosomes
(3) Similar to the cytoplasmic ribosomes of Eukaryotic cell.
(4) Smaller than the ribosomes attached on over surface of ER

32) Core of cilium is :-

(1) Shaft
(2) Axoneme
(3) Blepheroplast
(4) Diplosome

33) Which one cell organelle is same in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell :-

(1) Plasmid
(2) Cell wall
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mitochondria

34) Which of the following non-membranous cell organelle is found in animal cells and helps in cell
division -

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centriole
(3) Microtubule
(4) Nuclear envelope

35) Eukaryotic flagella has :-

(1) 9 + 11 Structure
(2) 9 + 0 Structure
(3) 9 + 2 Structure
(4) 9 + 1 Structure

36)

___________contains water, sap, excretory product and occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the
plant cell.

(1) Plastids
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Vacuole

37)

Which statement is not correct with respect to vacuole?

(1) Tonoplast is membrane of vacuole.

(2) Tonoplast facilitates active transport into the vacuole.
(3) Vacuoles have lower solute concentration.
(4) Vacuoles can occupy up to 90% of volume of the cell.

38) The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C)
and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.

(1) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for respiratory chain enzymes
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane - less permeable
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes

39) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) A–Stroma, B–Granum, C–Thylakoid, D–Stroma lamella

(2) A–Granum, B–Stroma, C–Thylakoid, D–Stroma lamella
(3) A–Thylakoid, B–Stroma, C–Stroma lamella, D–Granum
(4) A–Thylakoid, B–Stroma, C–Granum, D–Stroma lamella

40) Assertion (A): Mitochondria are the sites of anaerobic respiration.

Reason (R): Inner membrane has many foldings called cristae.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

41) Assertion (A): Chloroplast and mitochondria are semi-autonomous cell organelles.
Reason (R): Both of these organelles have their own genetic material and protein synthesis
machinery but still depend upon nuclear genes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

42) Assertion :- Plastids are easily observed under the microscope.

Reason :- Plastids are large sized structure.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Assertion : Green colour of plants is due to presence of chloroplasts in their cells.
Reason : Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) Assertion : The stroma of chloroplast is the site of carbohydrate and protein synthesis.
Reason : The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of
carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Statement-I : Ribosome are composed of protein and lipid only.

Statement-II : Sedimentation coefficient is direct measure of size and density.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

46) Which of the following statements is incorrect about this organism?

A field biologist records an organism with jointed appendages, segmented body, a chitinous
exoskeleton & well-developed compound eyes.

(1) It belongs to Phylum Arthropoda

(2) Circulation is closed type
(3) Malpighian tubules help in excretion by removing nitrogenous wastes.
(4) Body division into head, thorax & abdomen.

47) Phylum __________ (1) is the largest in the animal kingdom, characterized by jointed appendages,
a __________ (2) circulatory system, and body segmentation into head, thorax, and __________ (3).

(1) (1) Arthropoda, (2) Open, (3) Abdomen

(2) (1) Annelida, (2) Closed, (3) Segments
(3) (1) Mollusca, (2) Closed, (3) Mantle
(4) (1) Nematoda, (2) Open, (3) Pseudocoel

48) Body organization in aschelminthes is

(1) Tissue level

(2) Organ level
(3) Organ system level
(4) Cellular

49) Flame cells present in platyhelminthes are specialized in

(1) Respiration and absorption

(2) Osmoregulation and circulation
(3) Respiration and excretion
(4) Osmoregulation and excretion

50) In ctenophora, the body bears _______ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in
locomotion.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

51) Statement-I : Arthropods have chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.

Statement-II : Circulation is of open type in arthropoda.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

52) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

53) The property of a living organism to emit light is found in :

(1) Sycon
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Hydra
(4) Taenia

54) True segmentation of body is first observed in the:-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

55) Which of the following group of animals exhibit bilateral symmetry only ?

(1) Pennatula, Adamsia, Pleurobrachia

(2) Euspongia, spongilla, Taenia
(3) Ascaris, Nereis, Scorphion
(4) Echinus, Gorgonia, Sycon

56) Which of the following is a triploblastic and acoelomate animal ?

(1) Ctenoplana
(2) Fasciola
(3) Ascaris
(4) Hirudinaria

57) In which of the following animals possess high regeneration capacity ?

(1) Taenia
(2) Fasciola
(3) Planaria
(4) Schistosoma

58) Open blood vascular system without any respiratory pigment is found in :-

(1) Earthworm
(2) Cockroach
(3) Neries
(4) Hydra

59) Pick the odd pair:-

(1) Cellular level - Porifera

(2) Tissue level - Aschelminthes
(3) Organ level - Platyhelminthes
(4) Organ system level - Annelida

60) Find out incorrect match

1. Bombyx - Silk worm

2. King crab - Living Fossil

3. Culex - Gregarious pest

4. Laccifer - Lac insect

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Which statements about Arthropoda are correct?

1. Largest phylum of Animalia.
2. Excretion by green glands, Malpighian tubules or coxal glands.
3. Blood vascular system is closed.
4. Body is segmented into head, thorax and abdomen.

(1) Only 1,2,4

(2) Only 3
(3) Only 1, 2
(4) All of these

62) Find incorrect statements about Annelida:

(1) First phylum with segmentation.

(2) Closed circulatory system present.
(3) Excretion by Malpighian tubules.
(4) Nephridia perform osmoregulation.

63) Nereis is _ but earthworms and leeches are_.

Choose correct fillings for blanks in respective order.

(1) Monoecious, Dioecious

(2) All Annelids are dioecious.
(3) All Annelids are monoecious.
(4) Dioecious, Monoecious

64) Aschelminthes are called roundworms because:

(1) Their body is round and segmented

(2) Their body is dorso-ventrally flattened
(3) Their body is circular in cross section
(4) They are known to cause ringworm disease

65)

Female Ascaris differs from male Ascaris in all the following features except one

(1) Presence of anus

(2) Presence of pineal spicules
(3) Long body
(4) Both the ends are straight

66) First triploblastic phylum is–

(1) Platyhelminthese
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Anelida
(4) Arthropoda

67) Digestive system is complete first in which phylum ?

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

68)

Respiratory organs in Arthropoda are:

(a) Gills (b) Book gills
(c) Book lungs (d) Tracheal system

(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a and d
(4) All a,b,c and d

69) Identify the correct matching pair?

(1) Vector–Silkworm
(2) Economically important insect –Anopheles
(3) Gregarious pest – Culex
(4) Living fossil – King crab

70)

Which of the following character is/are considered as parasitic adaptation in platyhelminthes.

(1) Presence of suckers

(2) Hooks
(3) Absence of gut
(4) Both (1) and (2)

71)

Phylum Arthropoda considered as the largest phylum among the kingdom animalia. They possess
which of the following common characters?

(1) They have jointed appendages

(2) Open blood circulation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Excretion takes place through flame cells.

72)

Which of the following statement is incorrect about Annelida?

(1) They are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and coelomate animals

(2) They possess both longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion
(3) A closed circulatory system is present
(4) All are monoecious only

73) Members of phylum Arthropoda lack one of the following feature :-

(1) External skeleton made of chitin

(2) Compound eyes
(3) Excretion by malphigian tubules
(4) Usually a close type of blood vascular system

74) The all animals of which option belong to same phylum ?

(1) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma

(2) Ascaris, Fasciola, Pheretima
(3) Wuchereria, Neries, Limulus
(4) Aplysia, Ascaris, Ancylostoma

75) Which of the following pairs of animals comprise 'Combjellies'?

(1) Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus

(2) ​Pleurobranchia and Ctenoplana
(3) Sea anemone and sea pen
(4) Sea lily and brittle star

76) In the given list how many are included in platyhelminthes ?

Planaria, Fasciola, Taenia solium, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

77)

Identify the figures and select the correct option :

 A B
(1) Liver fluke Tapeworm
(2) Tapeworm Liver fluke
(3) Liver fluke Planaria
(4) Earthworm Roundworm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida ?

(1) Metamerism
(2) Closed blood vascular system
(3) Comb plates for locomotion
(4) Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion

79) Plathyhelminthes called flat worms because :-

(1) They are triploblastic

(2) They are without coelom
(3) They have organ level of organization
(4) Their body is dorso-ventrally flattened

80) Animals showing metameric segmentation are-

(1) Porifera
(2) Annelids
(3) Tape-worms
(4) Nemathelminthes

81) Phylum Arthropoda considered as the largest phylum among the kingdom Animalia. They
possess which of the following common characters?

(1) They have jointed appendages

(2) Open blood circulation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Excretion takes place through flame cells.

82) (a) Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic forms

(b) Some of them absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body surface
(c) Specialised cells called flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation
(d) Sexes are separate
Which of the above given charater /s is /are not related with diagram given below ?
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

83)

What is common among Taenia (tapeworm), Fasciola (liver fluke) and Planaria :

(1) All are coelomate

(2) All are found in gut
(3) All have flattened bodies
(4) All are free living

84)

Identify the figures given below :-

(1) (a) male ascaris; (b) female ascaris

(2) (a) female ascaris; (b) male ascaris
(3) (a) and (b) both are males
(4) (a) and (b) both are females

85) Sexes are seperate in _____ :-

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Porifera
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

86) Wuchereria commonly known as

(1) Round worm

(2) Filaria worm
(3) Hook worm
(4) Ring worm

87) See the following diagrams carefully,these animals are

(1) Sycon, Leucosolenia

(2) Hydra, Aurelia
(3) Nereis, Hirudinaria
(4) Fasciola, Taenia

88) What is common to Earthworm, Nereis and Leech ?

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Metamerism
(3) Coelomate
(4) All of the above

89) Blood sucking animal is

(1) Nereis
(2) Earthworm
(3) 1 & 2
(4) Leech

90) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 3 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

y = 5x2 – 2x + 1

10x – 2 = 0

2)

Correct answer is option (3)

3) Question Explanation : Determine the value of =?

Concept :
(1.) Product Rule of Differentiation
(2.) Differentiation of Exponential Functions, Trigonometric Functions
Formula :

Solution :

= ex.[–sin(x)] + [cos(x)].ex
= ex [–sin(x) + cos(x)]
= ex [cos(x) – sin(x)]
Final Answer : Option (2)

4)
5)

6)

= –[cos 2π – cos π]
= –[1 + 1] = –2

7)

Correct option (1)

8)

Correct answer is option (3)

9)

Correct answer is option (4)

10)

11)

12)

Correct answer is option (1)

13)

v = u — at is similar to y = mx + c where m = — a , c = 4

14)
Correct answer is option (3)

15)

sin θ =

cos θ =

16)

17)

18) Explain the question : In this question, we have to find the value of
Concept : This question is based on definite integration.

Solution :

=
Final answer : 3

19)

20)

Correct answer is option (2)

21)

m1 < m2 < m3

22)

Correct answer is option (2)

23) we know that maximum value of

a sinθ + b cosθ is
here a = 3, b = 4
So maximum value of 4 cosθ + 3 sinθ is '5'

24)

Question Explanation :
To find y – intercept
Given 2x + 5y = 10

Concept :
Equation of straight line.

Solution :
2x + 5y = 10

5y = –2x + 10

So y – intercept c=2

Final Answer :
Option (2)
25)
Here,
So

m = slope = tan (30°) =

26)

Correct answer is option (2)

27)

28)
tan θ decreases initially then becomes zero.
After C tan θ increases

29)

Correct answer is option (1)

30)
 31)

32)

Check slope with help of tangent.

33)

Line (1) has negative slope

34)

Correct answer is option (3)

35)

36)

Correct answer is option (3)

37)

From identity sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ

or sec2θ – tan2θ = 1

38) Question Explanation : We are supposed to convert the angle θ = in

degrees.
Concept : Radian to Degree conversion.

Formula: 1 radian = degrees

Solution:

∵ 1 radian = degrees

∴ radians = × degrees = 660 degrees

Final Answer : Option (3)

39)
 40)

Correct answer is option (4)

41)

Correct answer is option (3)

42)

43)

Correct answer is option (2)

44)

sin2θ – cos2θ = cos2θ

45) Question Explanation:

We are asked to determine the value of sin(74⁰) from the given options.
Concept: Value of trigonometric functions
Solution:
By the identity, sin(2θ) = 2sinθcosθ

sin(74º) = sin(2 × 37º) = 2 sin37º cos37º = 2 × =

Final Answer: Option (1)

CHEMISTRY

46)

mol kg–1
47) Amount of water, ;

Amount of carbon monoxide = 1 mol

Amount of ethyl alcohol = = 1 mol;

Amount of nitrogen pentoxide = = 0.5 mol

Larger the amount of substance, larger the number of molecules.

48)

(1) 4.25 g NH3

moles = = 0.25
4.5 g H2O

moles = = 0.25
(2) 2.2 g CO2

moles = = 0.05
0.90 g H2O

moles = = 0.05
(3) 4 g CH3Cl

moles = = 0.079
0.5 g NH3

moles = = 0.029
(4) 3.2 g O3
moles = 0.066
2.8 g CO

moles = 0.1

49)

Correct answer is option (4)

50)

Correct answer is option (3)

51)

Correct answer is option (3)

52)

Correct answer is option (4)

53)

C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)

= 1.92 kg

54)

Correct answer is option (3)

55)

Correct answer is option (1)

56) Explanation :
Determine the volume of oxygen gas required for the complete combustion of a given volume
of methane gas at normal temperature and pressure (NTP)

Given Data
Volume of methane (CH4) = 2.0 liters

Concept
Balanced chemical equation :
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
This equation represents the stoichiometric relationship between methane and oxygen in the
combustion reaction.

Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes

For gases at constant temperature and pressure, the volumes of reacting gases and the
products bear a simple whole-number ratio to one

Mathematical calculation
From the balanced equation, 1 volume of methane reacts with 2 volumes of oxygen.
Therefore, for 2.0 liters of methane, the volume of oxygen required is :
Volume of O2 = 2.0 liters CH4 × (2 liters O2 / 1 liters CH4) = 4.0 liters O2

Final Answer
The volume of oxygen required for complete combustion of 2.0 liters of methane at NTP is 4
liters.

57) 4.48 L4.48 L

 58)

CH3COOH and C6H12O6

59)

Correct answer is option (3)

60)

5 × 250 = 0.1 × v
v = 1250 m l
∴ Volume added = 1250 – 250 = 1000 ml = 1 L

61) Explaining the question:

The question gives the mole fraction of methanol in a methanol-ethanol mixture and asks for
the percentage by mass of methanol.

Concept:

A. Mole fraction
B. Mass = moles x molar mass

C. Percentage by mass

Solution:
Mole fraction of CH3OH = 0.40 → moles of CH3OH = 0.40 mol
Mole fraction of C₂H₂OH = 0.60 → moles of C₂H₂OH = 0.60 mol
Molar mass of CH3OH = 32 g/mol mass of CH3OH = 0.40 × 32 = 12.8 g
Molar mass of C₂H₂OH = 46 g/mol → mass of C₂H₂OH = 0.60 × 46 = 27.6 g
Total mass = 12.8 + 27.6 40.4 g

Percentage of CH3OH = × 100% ≈ 31.7%

Final answer: Option (1).

62) Explain the Question :

Calculate the weight of a 95% CaCO3 sample need to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at STP.
Concept : This question is based on Stoichiometry (CaCO3 → CO2), Molar volume (22.4 L/mol
at STP).
Solution :

1.
2. Mass of pure CaCO3 :
Ratio is 1 : 1, so 0.5 mol of CaCO3 is needed.
Mass = 0.5 mol × 100 g/mol = 50 g
3. Weight of 95% sample (W) :
50 g is 95% of W.
Final Answer : 3

63)

Question Explanation : We need molarity of H2SO4 when 25.00 mL is neutralized by 32.63

mL of 0.164 M NaOH using law of equivalents.
Concept :
This question is based on the law of equivalents in acid-base neutralization.
Solution :
Given
Volume of H2SO4 = 25.00 mL = 0.025 L
Volume of NaOH = 32.63 mL = 0.03263 L
Molarity of NaOH = 0.164 M
According to Law of equivalents:
N1V1 = N2V2
Formula of Normality:

N=
Normality of NaOH = 0.164 × 1 = 0.164 N

For H2SO4 N = 2M ⇒ M =
Final Answer : Option (1)

64)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many grams of silver nitrate (AgNO₃) are
needed to make 500 milliliters of a solution with a concentration of 0.240 moles per liter.

Underlying Concept: This problem uses the concept of molarity, which is the number of
moles of solute per liter of solution. To find the mass needed, we use the relationship between
moles, molarity, volume, and molar mass.

Relevant Formulas: Moles of solute: where = moles, = molarity (mol/L), =

volume (L). Mass of solute: where = molar mass (g/mol).

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Convert volume from milliliters to liters: 500 mL = 0.500 L. 2.

Calculate moles required: 3. Calculate mass of

AgNO₃ needed:

Tips and Tricks: Keep track of units when calculating moles; molarity is always in mol per
liter, so volume must be in liters.

Common Mistakes: Not converting milliliters to liters before multiplying by molarity, or

confusing molar mass units leading to incorrect mass calculation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 1.42 g is too small because it corresponds to far less
than the calculated moles. 120 g and 354 g are too large because they imply much more than
the required amount of moles.

65)

66)

∴ Amount of water added = 0.75 l

67)

Explanation the Question:

We are asked to calculate the molality of a 2.5 M NaOH solution given its density.
Concept:
This question is based on
• Molality (m) = moles of solute / mass of solvent (kg)
• Moles of solute = Molarity × Volume (L)
• Mass of solvent = total mass of solution – mass of solute
Solution:
• Molarity = 2.5 M → 2.5 mol/L
• Assume 1 L solution:
• Mass of solution = density × volume = 1.2 g/mL × 1000 mL = 1200 g = 1.2 kg
• Mass of NaOH = 2.5 mol × 40 g/mol = 100 g
• Mass of solvent = 1200 – 100 = 1100 g = 1.1 kg
• Molality = moles / kg solvent = 2.5 / 1.1 ≈ 2.27 m
Final Answer: (3)

68) Question Explanation : We need to identify which concentration term is affected by

temperature changes.
Concept : Concentration terms.
Solution :

Molality (m) = → depends on mass → not T-dependent.

%w/w = → depends on mass → not T-dependent.

 Mole fraction (X) = → depends on moles → not T-dependent.

Molality (M) = (in L) → Volume changes with T → T-dependent.

Final Answer : Option (4)

69) Question Explanation: Determining the ratio of the number of neutrons, electrons, and
protons in the atom 13​Al27.

Concept: Subatomic Particle Calculation and Ratios

Solution: The atom is neutral, so protons and electrons equal Z. Neutrons equal A-Z. The ratio
is requested in the order (c : b : a), which is (neutrons : electrons : protons).
Calculation:

A. Atom: 13​Al27
B. (a) No. of protons = Z=13
C. (b) No. of electrons = Z=13
D. (c) No. of neutrons = A−Z=27−13=14
E. Required ratio (c : b : a) = No. of neutrons : No. of electrons : No. of protons =14:13:13

Final Answer: Option (3)

70) 20g of NaOH dissolved in 100 ml of solution

molarity = × 1000 = 5M

71)

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)

1 mol 5 mol 3 4
44 g = 132 g = 72 g

72) Explain the question : Calculate urea's mole fraction in a 0.5 molal aqueous solution.
Concept : This question is based on molality relates moles of solute to kg of solvent mass.
Solution : A 0.5 molal solution means 0.5 moles of urea are present in 1 kg (1000 g) of water.

nwater = = 55.55 mol

Xurea =

Xurea ≈
Final answer : 1

73)
 74)

Correct answer is option (1)

75)

Question Explanation:
We need to find no. of h+ ions present in 500 mL of 0.001 M H2So4 solution.

Concept:
Number of moles.

Solution:
Moles of H2SO4 = Molarity × Volume (L)

Moles of H2SO4 = 5 × 10–4

Molecules of H2SO4 = 5 × 10–4 × NA H+
∵ In one Molecules of H2SO4 → 2 H+ present
∵ 5 × 10–4 Molecules of H2SO4 → 2 × 5 × 10–4 NA H+
Number of H+ ions = 10 ×10–4 NA = 10–3 NA
= 6.02 × 1023 × 10–3
= 6.02 × 1020

Final Answer: Option (1)

76)

Option 1:

A. Mass of H2 = 2.016 g/mol = 4.032 g

Option 2:

A. Mass of O2 = 1 mol × 32.00 g/mol = 32.00 g

Option 3:

A. Mass of C = 10 g (given)

Option 4:

A. Mass of Cu = (6.022 × 1023 atoms) × (63.55 g/mol) / (6.022 × 1023 atoms/mol) = 63.55 g.
Final Answer:

Hence, option (1) is correct.

77)

No. of moles

78)

x+, y+2, z– are isoelectronic means all have same number of electrons i.e. 22 but they are ions of
different atom, so number of protons
Z < X+ < Y+2

79)

n = 3 × 1018 s–1 or 3 × 1018 Hz or

3 × 1018 cycles per second

80) Atomic number = Number of Proton

neutron (n) = A – Z
So check options

81)

82)

Correct answer is option (1)

83)

Chadwick

84)

X-rays

85)
 directly, inversely

86)

Correct answer is option (1)

87) MD12PCAS01THT

88)

Correct answer is option (2)

89)

Cl35 and Cl37

90) Mole ratio KClO3 : O2 is 2 : 3

Moles O2 = 2 × 3/2 = 3 moles
Mass = 3 × 32
Mass = 96 grams

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question: Question asking about type and function of plastid?

Concept: This question is based on plastid.

Solution: Elaioplasts store oils and fats

Final answer: 1

92) Explain Question:

Question asking about formation of polysome in prokaryotic cell.

Concept:
This question is based on Prokaryotic cell.

Solution:
Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form a chain called polyribosomes or
polysome. The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA into proteins. Inclusion bodies

Final answer: 1
93) NCERT-XI Pg#98

94) Explain the Question : to identify four labeled parts (A, B, C, D) in a typical 9+2
axoneme diagram of cilia/flagella.
Concept : This question based on cilia/flagella.
Explanation :
A usually points to the link between adjacent peripheral doublets → Interdoublet bridge
B points to the covering around the central pair → Central sheath
C points to the projections from doublets toward the center → Radial spoke
D points to one of the two central microtubules → Central microtubule
Final Answer : Option 3

95) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 100

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136, Para–5

97)

Question Explanation: choose the correct statement with respect to lysosomes

Concept: lysosomes
Solution: lysosome have hydrolytic enzyme that’s active at acidic PH

Final answer: 4

98)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the primary storage function of amyloplasts,
which are a type of plastid found in plant cells.
Concept : This question is based on amyloplasts - a type of plastid
Explanation : Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (particularly starch)
Final answer : 2

99)

Explain Question : asked to find the correct match between a cell organelle and its function.
Concept : This question is based on
Mitochondria → Site of aerobic respiration, ATP synthesis (not photosynthesis).
Nucleus → Stores genetic material, controls cell activities (not aerobic respiration).
Ribosomes → Site of protein synthesis (not lipid synthesis).
Vacuole → Stores water, nutrients, wastes, pigments, and other substances.
Explanation :
Mitochondria – Photosynthesis → Wrong, photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts.\
Nucleus – Aerobic respiration → Wrong, aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria.
Ribosome – Synthesis of Lipids → Wrong, ribosomes make proteins; smooth ER makes lipids.
Vacuole – Storage → Correct, vacuoles store water, ions, pigments, waste, and food.
Final answer : 4

100)

NCERT XI Pg. # 88

101) Fact.

102) Chromoplasts are the colourful pigments that are responsible for red, yellow and orange
colours in petals and fruits.

103) Option - (3) Ribosome

They are membrane less organelles, rest all are membrane bound.

104) Centrioles initiate cell division by arranging spindle fibres between two poles of cell.

105) Module 1 Pg. # 186

106) NCERT XI Pg.# (E) 137,138 para 4,1 line 4,1,2,3

107) NCERT XI Pg. # 136

108)

The complex liquid matrix of chloroplast is called stroma.

109)

NCERT Pg # 135

110)

Number of chloroplast present in a mesophyll cell is 20–40.

111)

The number of chloroplast in alga chlamydomonas is 1.

112) NCERT XI pg.# 134

113) NCERT XI pg.# 134

114)

Explain Question : The question asks what percentage of a plant cell’s total volume can be
occupied by vacuoles.

Concept : This question is based on Vacuole.

Solution : In plant cells, the vacuole can occupy up to 90% of the cell's volume.

Final Answer : option (4)

115)

Explain Question : The question asks you to identify the subunit composition of the 80S
(eukaryotic) and 70S (prokaryotic) ribosomes.

Concept : This question is based on Ribosome.

Solution :

80S (Eukaryotic) = 60S (large) + 40S (small)

70S (Prokaryotic) = 50S (large) + 30S (small)

Final Answer : option (3)

116)

NCERT Pg. - 126

117)

Explanation:
The mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because they are responsible for
producing ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the energy currency of the cell, through cellular
respiration.

118)

Explain Question : The question asks what the granular structures observed by George Emil
Palade under the electron microscope were made of

Concept : This question is based on Ribosome.

Solution : ribosome = rRNA + proteins.

Final Answer : option (3)

119)
120)

NCERT XI (E), Pg. # 136

121) XI NCERT Pg. # 98

122) NCERT XI pg.# 137

123) Explain Question : “Which organelle is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells?”
Concept : Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Cell Organelles
Explanation : Ribosomes → present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, but differ in
type: Prokaryotes → 70S ribosomes Eukaryotes → 80S ribosomes (in cytoplasm), but also have
70S inside mitochondria & chloroplasts.
Final answer : Option 3 – Ribosome

124)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to identify which non-membranous organelle

present in animal cells plays a role in cell division, from a given list of options.

Underlying Concept: In cell biology, organelles can be classified as membranous or non-

membranous. Non-membranous organelles lack a surrounding membrane. The centriole is a
pair of non-membranous cylindrical structures found only in animal cells that organize
microtubules during cell division, assisting in forming the spindle apparatus essential for
separating chromosomes.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis and are non-
membranous but unrelated to cell division; centrioles are key in cell division in animal cells;
microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton; nuclear envelope is membranous.

Common Mistakes: Confusing ribosomes with centrioles since both are non-membranous, or
thinking the nuclear envelope is non-membranous.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ribosomes synthesize proteins but do not aid in cell
division. Microtubules are components of the cytoskeleton, not organelles themselves. The
nuclear envelope is a membrane-bound structure, not non-membranous.

125)

Eukaryotic flagella have a " 9 + 2 " arrangement of microtubules, where:

A. 9 peripheral doublet microtubules form a ring.
B. 2 central single microtubules are present.

126)

NCERT Page # 134

127)

NCERT page no. 134

128)

Explain Question : Question checks if you can identify the structural parts of mitochondria
and correctly match them with their functions.
Concept : This question is based on mitochondria.
Explanation : Matrix – contains enzymes for Krebs’ cycle, circular DNA, 70S ribosomes. But
respiratory chain enzymes are on inner membrane, not matrix.
Outer membrane – smooth, permeable to small molecules, does not split to form inner
membrane.
Inner membrane – folds inward to form cristae, which house the electron transport chain
(ETC) enzymes.
Cristae – only folds of inner membrane, do not contain DNA/ribosomes (these are in the
matrix).
Final answer : 3

129) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136

130) NCERT, Pg. # 97

131)

Explain Question : The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept : This question is based on Chloroplast and mitochondria

Solution : Chloroplasts and mitochondria are semi-autonomous because they can perform
some functions independently. They have their own DNA, ribosomes, and machinery for
protein synthesis, which supports their partial independence.

Final Answer : option (4)

132) Explain Question :

Question is asking whether plastids (cell organelles like chloroplasts, chromoplasts,
leucoplasts) can be easily observed under a microscope and if this visibility is due to their
large size.
Concept :
 This question is based on Cell organelles – Chloroplasts
Explanation :
Assertion: Plastids are easily observed under the microscope → True, because they are large
organelles.
Reason: Plastids are large sized structure → True, correct explanation.
Plastids appear clearly in plant cells under light microscope because of their comparatively
large size.
Final answer : (1)

133) NCERT Pg#140

134) NCERT XI Pg#136

135) Question Explanation : Identify which statements about ribosome composition and
sedimentation coefficient are correct or incorrect.
Concept : The question is based on ribosome
Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. Statement I: Ribosome are composed of protein and lipid only

A. Incorrect. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and proteins, not lipids.
B. Statement II: Sedimentation coefficient is direct measure of size and density
A. Incorrect. Sedimentation coefficient (Svedberg unit, S) depends on size, shape, and
density, not a direct measure of size and density alone.

Final Answer : Option 2

136) Explanation: While arthropods exhibit segmentation, calling it “metamerism” in the

strict sense (true serial repetition of internal and external structures as in annelids) is
debated; arthropod tagmatization is a specialized form. In NEET context, metamerism is
classically for annelids, so B is a subtle incorrect statement. Other statements are correct.

137) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

138)

Organ system level

139)

Osmoregulation and excretion

140)

Correct answer is option (4)

141) NCERT Pg #44

142)

Question Explanation: Identifying the animal with a muscular pharynx.

Concept: Digestive System in Aschelminthes.
Solution: Ascaris (roundworm), a member of Phylum Aschelminthes/Nematoda, is
characterized by a distinctive, straight, alimentary canal with a highly developed, muscular
pharynx. This muscular pharynx is specialized for the rhythmic pumping of food into the
intestine.

Final Answer: Ascaris

143) Pleurobrachia

144)

Explain Question :Identify the phylum in which true segmentation, or metamerism, first
appeared.

Concept: Segmentation - Basis classification of animal

Solution: The correct answer is option 3. Annelida (segmented worms) are the first phylum in
the animal kingdom to exhibit true metameric segmentation, where the body is divided both
externally and internally into a series of repeated segments. Arthropods also show
segmentation, but annelids represent its first appearance in the animal kingdom.

Final answer : 3

145)

Ascaris, Nereis, Scorphion

146)

Fasciola

147)

Planaria

148)

Correct answer is B

149)
Explain Question: Pick the odd pair?

Concept: This question is based on Animal kingdom.

Solution: Phylum Aschelminths have organ system level of organisation.

Final Answer: (2)

150) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44

151) Explanation: Arthropods have open circulation.p

Final Answer : (1)

152) Explanation: Malpighian tubules are in arthropods; annelids have nephridia.

​Final Answer : (3)

153)

Dioecious, Monoecious

154) Answer

155)

Presence of pineal spicules

156)

Platyhelminthese

157)

Question explanation: A complete digestive system has two openings: mouth and anus.
Concept: Basis of classification - Digestive system

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 → Aschelminthes

A. Aschelminthes (roundworms) are the first phylum to show a complete digestive

tract with mouth and anus.

B. Platyhelminthes have an incomplete gut (only mouth).

C. Annelida and Arthropoda have complete systems, but they appear later evolutionarily.

Final Answer: 4
 158)

Question Explanation : What are the respiratory organs found in Arthropoda?

Concept : The question is based on arthropoda

Solution : Arthropods have diverse respiratory organs depending on their group and habitat
— including gills, book gills, book lungs, and tracheal systems.

A. (a) Gills – Found in aquatic arthropods like crustaceans (e.g., prawns).

B. (b) Book gills – Present in horseshoe crabs (marine chelicerates).
C. (c) Book lungs – Found in arachnids like spiders and scorpions.
D. (d) Tracheal system – Main respiratory system in insects (e.g., grasshopper).

All four types are indeed present in different arthropod groups.

Final Answer : option (4) All a, b, c and d

159) NCERT XI Pg.# 53, Ist para

160)

NCERT Page # 51

161)

Both (1) and (2)

162)

NCERT Pg. No. 43

163)

NCERT Page 53.

164) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 52

165)

​Pleurobranchia and Ctenoplana

166) NCERT–XI, Pg # 51, 52

167)
NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

168)

Comb plates for locomotion

169)

Their body is dorso-ventrally flattened

170) Question Explanation: Phylum with metameric segmentation

Concept: Metameric Segmentation

Solution: Metameric segmentation (serial repetition of body parts) is a characteristic

feature found in phyla starting with Annelids (like the earthworm) and extending to
Arthropoda and Chordata.

Final Answer: Annelids

171)

Both (1) and (2)

172)

Correct answer is option (4)

173)

All have flattened bodies

174)

(a) male ascaris; (b) female ascaris

175) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 52

176) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 52

177) Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the two animals shown in the
figures.

Concept: This question is based on common examples of Phylum Annelida.

 Solution:
Figure (a) is a Nereis (a marine segmented worm) and Figure (b) is a Hirudinaria ( leech).
Both annelids.

The final Answer is option (3)

178) Allen Module Page No. 59.

179)

Question Explanation :
Identify the blood-sucking animal.

Concept :
This question is based on Annelida.

Solution :

Leech : Leeches are well-known for their blood-sucking behavior. They have adapted
specialized structures called suckers and salivary glands to attach to their hosts and consume
their blood.

Nereis and earthworms are not blood-sucking animals. Nereis are carnivorous and feed on small
invertebrates, while earthworms are detritivores and feed on organic matter in the soil.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : Leech

180) NCERT Pg. # 53