Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3

SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MODEL TEST - 3

GENERAL/ FINANCIAL AWARENESS
1. In April 2026, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi
approved the proposal for creation of a domestic insurance pool, named Bharat
Maritime Insurance Pool (BMI pool) with a sovereign guarantee of Rs.12,980 crore.

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Which of the following ministry is primarily associated with the Bharat Maritime
Insurance Pool (BMI)?
1) Ministry of Finance 2) Ministry of Defence
3) Ministry of External Affairs 4) Ministry of Commerce and Industryc
5) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
2. Which is the first state in India to constitute the 8th State Pay Commission even before

3.
1) Assam
ha
the term of the 7th Pay Commission expired, as part of government wage reforms?
2) Maharashtra 3) Gujarat 4) Kerala 5) Rajasthan
‘CDR’ is a voluntary framework through which financial institutions and banks

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restructure the debt of firms that are experiencing financial difficulties owing to a
variety of circumstances to give timely assistance. What is the abbreviation of “CDR”?
1) Capital Debt Restructuring 2) Current Debt Restructuring
d
3) Compound Debt Restructuring
4) Corporate Debt Restructuring 5) Committee Debt Restructuring
4. Which Union Territory served as the inaugural location for the Digital Food
Currency pilot on February 26, 2026?
ee

1) Chandigarh 2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 4) Puducherry 5) Lakshadweep
5. In which year did the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (Hilton
C
Young Commission) formally recommend the establishment of a central bank for
India to separate the control of currency and credit from the Government?
1) 1931 2) 1934 3) 1935 4) 1921 5) 1926
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6. “World Cancer Day” is observed annually on February 4th to raise awareness

and encourage cancer prevention. Under the theme "United by Unique," which
specific color ribbon is used as the official symbol for the 27th edition of this
global event in 2026?
1) Lavender ribbon 2) Gold ribbon 3) Pink ribbon 4) Orange ribbon 5) Blue ribbon
7. To accelerate power sector reforms through digital metering, by which year has
the Ministry of Power extended the deadline for installing 25 crore smart meters
under the Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS)?
C
1)August 2026 2) March 2028 3) April 2027 4) June 2029 5) February 2030
8. Which of the following banks has launched the FD-backed credit card named
“Hello Cashback Credit Card”?
1) State Bank of India 2) IDFC First Bank 3) HDFC Bank 4) ICICI Bank 5) Axis Bank
9. Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a 77-feet-tall bronze statue of Lord Ram at the
historic Shree Samsthan Gokarn Partagali Jeevottam Math in Goa during the Math’s
550th anniversary celebrations. Who crafted the 77-feet tall bronze statue of Lord Ram?
1) Ram V. Sutar 2) Amar Nath Sehgal 3) Jatin Das 4) Subodh Gupta 5) Anish Kapoor
10. Which of the Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of “Golf”?
1) Federations Cup 2) Charminar Trophy 3) Singhania Trophy
4) B.C. Gupta Trophy 5) Eisenhower Trophy
11. In the Union Budget 2026, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the
Bio Pharma Shakti programme to strengthen India’s biopharmaceutical sector.
With a focus on domestic manufacturing, innovation, and production of biosimilars,
what is the total allocation proposed for this programme over the next five years?
1) Rs.20,000 crore 2) Rs.5,000 crore 3) Rs.25,000 crore 4) Rs.10,000 crore 5) Rs.15,000 crore
12. Who has been named TIME magazine’s “2025 CEO of the Year”?
1) Satya Nadella 2) Shantanu Narayen
3) Neal Mohan 4) Parag Agrawal 5) Sundar Pichai

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
13. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s Italy visit in May 2026 marked the conclusion of
his five-nation tour across Europe and the Middle East. Which of the following
countries was NOT part of this five-nation visit?
1) United Arab Emirates 2) Netherlands 3) Sweden 4) Norway 5) France
14. The India-Mongolia joint military exercise, “Nomadic Elephant”, commenced on May
31, 2025, at the Special Forces training center in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia. The exercise
is scheduled to run until June 13, 2025. What edition of the exercise was this?
1) 20th edition 2) 16th edition 3) 17th edition 4) 18th edition 5) 19th edition
15. Which of the following is the Oldest Credit Rating Agency in India?
1) SMERA Ratings 2) India Ratings and Research Private Limited
3) Credit Analysis and Research Limited (CARE)
4) Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency (ICRA)
5) Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL)

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16. Which legendary cricketer has been featured in Bank of Baroda’s ‘Masterstroke’
campaign launched in December 2025?
1) Virat Kohli 2) MS Dhoni 3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Sourav Ganguly 5) Rahul Dravid
17. Which of the following organization is responsible for developing India’s first Bee Corridors?
1) National Biodiversity Authority 2) National Highways Authority of India
3) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
4) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
18.
ha
5) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Who is the author of the book “Golden Threshold”?
1) S.K. Banerjee 2) Mohan Rakesh 3) K. R. Malkani 4) Dr. Bimal Jalan 5) Sarojini Naidu

E
19. Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN)’ is a unique and portable number
provided to each subscriber under NPS and remains with him/ her throughout.
How many digit of code is the ‘Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN’)?
1) 12 -digit 2) 10 -digit 3) 09 -digit 4) 14 -digit 5) 16 -digit
d
20. What is the revised Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast for India for
FY27 by Moody’s Ratings?
1) 5.5% 2) 6.0% 3) 6.7% 4) 7.7% 5) 6.5%
ee

21. “Ambubasi Festival” celebrated in which state of India?

1) Assam 2) Telangana 3) Chhattisgarh 4) West Bengal 5) Maharashtra
22. With which IIT has National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) signed an
MoU in December 2025 to enhance cybersecurity and adopt digital technologies
C
in mining operations?
1) IIT Madras 2) IIT Kharagpur 3) IIT Kanpur 4) IIT Bombay 5) IIT Delhi
23. Karnataka Grameena Bank (KGB) was honoured with a National Award in May
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2026 for its remarkable achievement under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY). Who
received the National Award on behalf of Karnataka Grameena Bank?
1) M. Rajeshwar Rao 2) Shreekant M. Bhandiwad
3) Sanjay Malhotra 4) S. S. Mallikarjuna Rao 5) Rakesh Sharma
24. ‘Global Information Technology Report (GITR)' is released annually by which of
the following organization?
1) World Economic Forum (WEF) 2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
3) Credit Suisse Research Institute (CSRI)
4) International Labor Organization (ILO) 5) United Nations Population Fund (UNPF)
C
25. In the Indian Money Market ecosystem, as per the prevailing RBI Master Directions,
which of the following correctly identifies the maximum duration for which funds
can be transacted under the 'Notice Money' market segment?
1) 7 days 2) 14 days 3) 30 days 4) 90 days 5) 180 days
GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (26-30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Historically, Indian coins have played a crucial role in documenting political and
economic changes over time. A secretly hidden stock of coins was found in India
which threw light on the Indian trade patterns in ancient, medieval and late pre-
colonial times. The first documented coinage began with an introduction of 'punch
marked' coins which were issued between the 7th and 6th century BC and the 1st
century [Link] silver coins were called 'punch marked' because of their
manufacturing technique. In 2nd century BC and 2nd century AD unique coins of the
Indo-Greeks, the Saka-Pahlavas and the Kulshans were in circulation. These coins
were molded in silver with the portraits of Greek gods and goddesses. The Saka
coinage of Western Kshatrapas was the earliest among the coins. The essential cultural
feature of Saks-Pahlavas has been revealed from their art of coinage. They merely
copied the Indo–Greek technique in the art without adding their own innovations. The
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
copper and silver coins bore the essence (A) of Indo-Greek style and 3 were used for
extensively (B) transactions. The Greek legends were monetary (C) used in the
coins. The Indian Republic has been following the Saka era as its official calendar.
The Kushan gold coins had portraits of Siva, Buddha and Kartikeya. The coins of
Satavahana, who ruled India during 270 BC to 30 BC, were predominantly of copper,
lead and silver. These coins had motifs of elephants, lions, bulls, horses etc. The
silver coins of Satavahanas also carried portraits and bilingual legends. Between 1st
and 4th century AD the coins of Western Kshatraps generally had legends in Greek
and Brahmi. The Gupta coinage during 4th to 6th centuries (D) AD had the king’s
portrait on one side and a deity (E) on the reverse of the coin. The Harsha, Kalachuri
and early medieval (F) Rajputs in 6th to 12th centuries AD did not make any change
in the prevailing (G) coinage. It only revived when Gangeyadeva, a Kalachuri issued a

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coin with an inscription of seated goddess Lakshmi. The coins of the Vijayanagar
empire period during 14th to 16th century AD had decorative features.
26. According to the given passage, who ruled India between 270 BC to 30 BC ?
1) Kartikeya 2)Satavahana 3) Buddha 4) Siva 5) None of these
27. In the passage three words highlighted in bold (A, B&C). Select the option that
gives the correct set of words as a replacement to the bold words. In case the
sentence is correct, select “No correction required”
28.
1) CBA 2)ACB
ha 3) CAB 4) BAC
According to the given passage, when was art of coinage changed?
5) No correction required
1) the king’s portrait on one side and a deity on the reverse of the coin.
2) silver with the portraits of Greek gods and goddesses.

29.

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3) issued a coin with an inscription of seated goddess Lakshmi
4) 1&2 5) None of the above
In the passage four words highlighted in bold (D,E,F and G).Choose the one
d
which is wrongly spelled.
1) centuries 2) deity 3)medival 4) prevailing 5) all correct
30. According to the given passage, when was documented coins begun with?
ee

1) punch marked coins 2) copper coins 3) lead coins 4) bronze coins 5) gold coins
Directions (31-35): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by (A), (B),
(C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If
C
there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the errors of punctuation of any.
31. Swarms of small earthquakes, /A/ which may be caused by a rising plug of
dense, /B/ viscous magma oscillating against a sheath of /C/ most-permeable
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magma. /D/. No error /E/

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
32. In some cases, magma rises in conduits to /A/ the surface as a thin and fluid
lava, /B/ neither flowing out continuously or /C/ shooting straight up in glowing
fountains or curtains. /D/. No error /E/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
33. In other cases, entrapped gases /A/ tear the magma in /B/ shreds and hurl
viscous clots /C/ of lava into the air. /D/. No error /E/
C
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
34. In more violent eruptions, /A/ the magma conduit is /B/ cored out by /C/ an
explosive blast, /D/. No error /E/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
35. The task force were (A) given the goal of catching (B) the rogue agent who was (C)
working for a terrorist. (D)No error /E/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions: (36-40) in the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
The moon had already arisen when they reached a hill on which they saw a
crowd of little men and women, who had taken each other’s hands, and were
___36____ round in the dance with the greatest ___37____and delight. They sang
to it most____38____, and that was the music which the travellers had heard. In
the midst of them sat an old man who was rather taller than the rest. He wore a
parti-coloured coat, and his ___39____ beard hung down over his chest. The two
remained standing full of____40___, and watched the dance. The old man made a
sign that they should enter, and the little folks willingly opened their circle.
36. 1) still 2) whirling 3)clear 4) aware 5) heavy
37. 1) discontent 2)bore 3)bummer 4)pleasure 5)downer
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
38. 1) charmingly 2)horrid 3)mean 4)callous 5)vicious
39. 1)fashion 2) clear 3)current 4) culty 5) hoary
40. 1) calm 2) unexcited 3) astonishment 4)contempt 5)intimacy
Directions (41-45): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
(A) This information is transmitted back to Earth.
(B) The light bounces off the primary mirror and heads to a secondary mirror
which directs the light to equipment and high-resolution cameras on the Hubble
telescope.
(C) The Hubble Space Telescope is a satellite which orbits Earth at a distance of
about 600 kilometres.

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(D) It uses a large mirror to gather light from objects in space.
(E) It is a reflecting telescope and operates in a similar way to reflecting telescopes
on Earth.
41. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
42. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
43.
1) A 2) B
ha 3) C 4) D
Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
5) E

5) E
44. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

45.
1) A 2) B

E 3) C 4) D
Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
5) E
d
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (46-47): In each of the questions given below four words are given in
bold these four words may or may not be in their correct position. Find the
correct combination of words that interchange one another.
ee

46. Nothing in life possessed (A) to him of much importance, and under the influence
of the resolution (B) that seemed (C) him he valued neither his liberty nor his
depression (D) to punish his wife.
C
1) BDCA 2) DBAC 3) ADBC 4) CBDA 5) CDAB
47. The seamlessly (A) had to fit costumes (B) into the film, telling a story of their
own but not plot (C) with or distracting from the competing (D).
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1) BCDA 2) BCAD 3) BACD 4) BDCA 5) BADC

Direction (48): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as (A),
(B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either inappropriate
in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding alphabet of
that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly-
spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All caorrect’ as the answer.
When she stopped screaming (A) again – the idea of touching the plastic spider was
enough to make her scream – she touched it. At first she touched it for just one second.
C
She shivered (B) all over, but at lest (C) she managed (D) to touch it. All correct (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (49-50): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No replacement required’ as your answer.
49. Most of the members on this list are willing to put out of the way no longer
needed items in order to eliminate household clutter.
1) give away 2) lock up 3) hang in 4) stow in 5) No replacement required
50. The attackers had to push on a series of castle defenses before reaching this
inner sanctum of the castle.
1) lead astray 2) lead on 3) pull wool over eyes 4) get through 5) No replacement required
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
51. A train is running at a speed of 71.99 km/hr (approximately) and crosses a platform
in 20 sec and a pole in 14 second. Find the length of the platform (in meter).
1) 140 2) 120 3) 160 4) 180 5) 100
52. Hussain invested Rs. X at 8% simple interest for three years in a scheme and he
invested the same sum for four years at 4% simple interest in another scheme.
If the total interest get by Hussain from both the schemes is Rs.398, then find X.
1) Rs.796 2) Rs.970 3) Rs.450 4) Rs.995 5) Rs.495

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
53. The present age of A and B is 5:4. Age of A 2 years ago was equal to the age of B
four year hence. Find the present age of B (in years).
1) 30 2) 24 3) 12 4) 18 5) 36
54. Ratio of the downstream speed of boat to the upstream speed of boat is 3: 1 and the
time taken by a boat to cover 143.96 km (approximately) in downstream is 8 hours.
Find the time taken by the boat to cover same distance in still water. (In hours)
1) 18 2) 16 3) 12 4) 24 5) 9
55. A container contains mixture of milk and water in which milk is 50% more than
that of water. If four liter of milk added in the vessel, then milk becomes 100%
more than water in the resultant mixture. Find the initial quantity of mixture.
(in liters)
1) 20 2) 40 3) 25 4) 15 5) 30

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Direction (56-60): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the
following questions?
56. 38% of 350 + 400% of 16 =? % of 50
1) 304 2) 254 3) 398 4) 137 5) 394
57. 12 × 184 ÷ 23 + 26 – 73 =? + 2
1) 42 2) 44 3) 51 4) 47 5) 53
58.

59.
(63 × 92) ÷ (24 + 8) =?
1) 576
ha
2) 525
{(3654 + 1346)× 2} ÷ 200 =?
3) 625 4) 729 5) 784

1) 75 2) 50 3) 25 4) 100 5)125
60.

E
22 × 24 + 125 × 12 = 32 % of? +1221
1) 2522.875 2) 2521.775 3) 2521.875 4) 2521.945 5) 2521.675
d
Direction (61-65): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions.
The table given shows the number of accounts opened by four different branches
(A, B, C and D) in four different months.
ee

Branches January February March April

A 15 18 30 35
B 20 25 40 32
C
C 22 12 42 40
D 25 24 45 16
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61. In branch X, total number of accounts opened in month of March is 25% more
than the number of accounts opened by D in month of April. Find the sum of the
accounts opened by X in month March and number of accounts opened by C in
the month of February.
1) 24 2) 32 3) 22 4) 28 5) 30
62. Find the ratio of the number of accounts opened by A and B together in January
to the number of accounts opened by D in March.
1) 9:7 2) 3:7 4) 11:9 4) 7:9 5) 7:3
C
63. Find the difference between the number of accounts opened by A and B in all the months.
1) 9 2) 29 3) 19 4) 15 5) 13
64. The number of accounts opened by C in month of April is what percentage more/
less than the number of accounts opened by D in January?
1) 60% 2) 40% 3) 50% 4) 75% 5) 45%
65. Find the average number of accounts opened by C in all months together.
1) 39 2) 24 3) 34 4) 19 5) 29
Direction (66-70): In the following question, two equations I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and give answer.
66. I: x2+12x+35 = 0 II: y2+9y+20 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation established
67. I: y2 - 23y+132 = 0 II: x2-15x+54 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x = y or no relation established 5) x  y
68. I: 6x2+5x+1 = 0 II: 15y2+11y+2 = 0
1) x < y 2) x  y 3) x > y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation established
69. I: 4y2-7y+3 = 0 II: 2x2-7x+3 = 0
1) x > y 2) x = y or no relation established 3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x  y
70. I: 10x2+13x-140 = 0 II: y2+5y-6 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x = y or no relation established

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
Direction (71-75): Read the following information carefully and answer the
following question.
The following pie chart gives the marks obtained by a student in an examination
in six subjects.
Note: The total marks obtained are 475. Maximum marks per subject are 100.
Obtained Marks

14% 16% Telugu

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Hindi
18% 14% English
Maths
Science
ha 20% 18% Social

71.
2) 78%

E
What percent of the total marks were obtained by student?(approximately)
1)75% 3) 85% 4) 80% 5) 92%
d
72. What ratio of marks obtained by student in Telugu, science and social together
and that of Hindi, English and Maths together?
1)12: 13 2) 13: 12 3) 1: 1 4) 13: 14 5) 14: 13
ee

73. What is the difference between the marks obtained by student in maths and
Science together and marks obtained by student in Telugu and Hindi together?
1)36 2) 38 3) 39 4) 41 5) 37
74. What is the sum of marks obtained by student in Social, maths and Science
C
together?
1)245 2) 246 3) 247 4) 248 5) 249
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75. What is the central angle of obtain marks in English?

1)54.6° 2) 64.8° 3) 72° 4) 84.6° 5) 105°
REASONING ABILITY AND COMPUTER APTITUDE
Direction (76-80): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Seven people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G bought seven different things
consecutively one after the other on different occasions. No person other than
C
the given people bought a thing on the given occasions or on any other occasion.
Only three people bought a thing between B and A. No one bought a thing after B.
G bought a thing immediately after D. Only one person bought a thing between F
and E. F bought a thing one of the occasions after D. E didn’t buy immediate to B.
76. Who bought a thing immediately before F?
1) B 2) G 3) A 4) C 5) D
77. How many people bought a thing between G and E?
1) Two 2) No one 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
78. Who amongst the following people bought at first?
1) G 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) D
79. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
1) G bought a thing one of the occasions before C.
2) Only one person bought a thing between E and G.
3) E bought immediately after A.
4) D doesn’t buy immediate to F. 5) All the given statements are true
80. The number of people bought a thing between E and B is one more than the
number of people bought a thing between _____ and _____.
1) G, B 2) D, A 3) F, G 4) B, F 5) C, G

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
Direction (81-83): In this question relationship between different elements is
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
81. Statements: U  N > V = F  B; G < F  T = D < K
Conclusion I: D  B Conclusion II: N > G
1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Only Conclusion I is true
4) Either Conclusion I or II is true 5) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
82. Statements: S  N < C  R = A; H  B = W > N  V
Conclusion I: R > W Conclusion II: S  V
1) Only Conclusion II is true 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true

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3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Either Conclusion I or II is true
83. Statements: Q < X  G > E = K  M; T  N < G  P = H
Conclusion I: N < K Conclusion II: H  Q
1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) Only Conclusion I is true
ha
4) Either Conclusion I or II is true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
Direction (84-88): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:
Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table.
Four of them are sitting at four corners of the table while four are sitting in the

E
middle of each sides of the table. The ones sitting at corners face the centre while
the ones sitting in the middle of the sides face outside (i.e. opposite to the centre).
d
P sits second to the right of W. Only three people sit between W and S. U
sits third to the left of V. P doesn’t sit adjacent to V. Only two people sit between
V and T (either from left or right). Q sits at one of the sides of the table. Q doesn’t
sit adjacent to W.
ee

84. Who amongst the following people sits immediate right of V?

1) Q 2) S 3) W 4) R 5) P
85. What is the position of S with respect to T?
C
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right
3) Fourth to the right 4) Fifth to the left 5) Third to the right
86. How many people sit between W and Q from left of W?
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1) More than three 2) One 3) Two 4) No one 5) Three

87. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
1) V doesn’t sit at any corners of the table.
2) Only three people sit between R and P. 3) S sits immediate left of U.
4) T sits second to the right of R. 5) All the given statements are true
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
C
1) W – V 2) Q – R 3) P – S 4) U – W 5) T – R
89. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the first, the
third, the fourth and the seventh letters of the word “TELEGRAM” using each letter
only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will be the second
letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be formed give ‘Y’ as
your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give ‘Z’ as your answer.
1) L 2) E 3) Y 4) T 5) Z
Direction (90-92): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions
I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
90. Statements: All Cameras are Photos Only a few Photos are Albums
No Gallery is Album
Conclusion I: Some Cameras are not Gallery
Conclusion II: All Albums can be Cameras
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Only conclusion II follows 5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI & BOB APPRENTICE MT - 3
91. Statements: Only a few Dancers are Directors
Some Directors are Producers All Singers are Dancers
Conclusion I: No Singer is Producer Conclusion II: Some Producers are Singers
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Both conclusions I and II follow
3) Only conclusion I follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) Only conclusion II follows
92. Statements: No Tractor is Car All Bikes are Cars No Cycle is Bike
Conclusion I: Some Tractors are Bikes Conclusion II: No Car is Cycle
1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Either conclusion I or II follows
3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
4) Only conclusion I follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow

r’s
Direction (93-97): The given information is based on the following five 3-letter
words:
HAT BIN DOG VOW FLY
93. If ‘C’ is added before the first letter of each word then how many meaningfull
words can be formed?
1) Three 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) More than three
94. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to the previous

2) Three
ha
letter and each vowel is changed to the next letter as per the English alphabetical
order, in how many words thus formed will no vowel appear?
1) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three

E
95. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the first
letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the
word which is second from the left of the given words?
d
1) Thirteen 2) Eleven 3) Ten 4) Fourteen 5) Twelve
96. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary
from left to right, which of the following will be third from the right end?
ee

1) HAT 2) BIN 3) VOW 4) FLY 5) DOG

97. If first alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English
alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels)
will be formed?
C
1) More than three 2) One 3) Two 4) None 5) Three
Direction (98-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Sr

Point S is 8m south of point B. Point T is 10m west of point S. Point N is 7m

north of point T. Point K is 5m west of point N. Point A is 3m north of point K. Point
G is 9m east of point A. Point V is 6m south of point G. Point R is 12m east of point
V.
98. In which direction is point G with respect to point R?
1) South-East 2) North 3) North-West 4) South-West 5) North-East
99. What is the distance between point N and point G?
C
1) 6m 2) 5m 3) 8m 4) 7m 5) 9m
100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their directions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) B – N 2) G – K 3) R – S 4) V – T 5) A – V

KEY
1.5 2.1 3.4 4.4 5.5 6.1 7.2 8.2 9.1 10.5 SCAN QR FOR
11.4 12.3 13.5 14.3 15.5 16.3 17.2 18.5 19.1 20.2 OUR RESULTS
21.1 22.3 23.2 24.1 25.2 26.2 27.2 28.3 29.3 30.1
31.4 32.3 33.2 34.5 35.1 36.2 37.4 38.1 39.5 40.3
41.3 42.5 43.4 44.2 45.3 46.5 47.5 48.3 49.1 50.4
51.2 52.4 53.2 54.3 55.1 56.5 57.4 58.4 59.2 60.3
61.2 62.4 63.3 64.1 65.5 66.4 67.3 68.5 69.1 70.5
71.4 72.1 73.2 74.3 75.2 76.4 77.3 78.5 79.5 80.2
81.1 82.1 83.2 84.4 85.1 86.3 87.3 88.4 89.5 90.4
91.1 92.3 93.4 94.1 95.5 96.4 97.3 98.3 99.2 100.5