03-05-2026

2322CIC404021260001 PI

PART-A

SECTION - I (PHYSICS)

1) A uniform bar of length l m is supported at its ends and loaded by a weight W kgf at its middle. In
equilibrium, find the reactions R1 at the ends.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In equilibrium which equation relating to W, Z, a and b is correct?

(1)

(2) W × Z = a × b
(3) W × a = Z × b
(4) W × (a + b) = Z

3) Assertion (A): The moment of force for force 10 N applied at a distance of 20cm from the pivot
will be 0.02 Nm.
Reason (R): The moment of force is ratio of perpendicular distance of the line of action of the
force for axis of rotation and magnitude of force.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

4) In Figure given below a roller of diameter 0.4 m is raised on the pavement XY by forces F1 and
F2 each of magnitude 10 N. Compare the torques produced by the two forces about point X.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The relation between CGS and S.I. unit of moment of force is:

(1) 1 Nm = dyne cm
(2) 1 Nm = dyne
(3) 1 Nm = dyne cm
(4) 1 dyne cm = Nm

6) A force of 2.5 N with its arm 0.5 m long rotates a spanner in clock wise direction. Find the
torque?

(1) 1.05 N
(2) 1.25 N
(3) 1.35 N
(4) 1.5 N

7) A boy of mass 45 kg is sitting at a distance of 2 m from the middle of a see-saw. Where should a
boy of mass 20 kg sit so as to balance the see-saw?

(1) 1.5 m
(2) 3.5 m
(3) 4.5 m
(4) 9.5 m

8) Centre of gravity of _____________ lies outside its material.

(1) rectangular lamina

(2) circular disc
(3) ring
(4) rod
9) If an object is moving on a circular path,

(1) its acceleration is zero.

(2) its velocity is constant.
(3) its direction of motion is fixed.
(4) its direction of motion changes continuously.

10) Calculate the resultant torque from the following diagram:

(1) –110 Nm
(2) +210 Nm
(3) +50 Nm
(4) –60 Nm

11) A meter scale is kept on a knife edge at 50 cm mark. A weight of 20 gf is hanging at 80 cm mark
and a weight of 50 gf is hanging at 60 cm mark. Where should a weight of 55 gf be placed to make
the meter scale balanced?

(1) 20cm
(2) 30cm
(3) 40cm
(4) 12cm

12) The centre of gravity of a hollow cone of height h is at distance x from its vertex the value of x is:

(1) h/3
(2) h/4
(3) 2h/3
(4) 3h/4

13) The centrifugal force is:

(1) a real force

(2) the force of reaction of centripetal force
(3) a fictitous force
(4) directed towards the centre of circular path

SECTION - II (CHEMISTRY)
1) The electronegativity of elements_______across the period and_____down group.

(1) Increase, increase

(2) Increase, Decrease
(3) Decrease, increase
(4) Decrease, Decrease

2) Which one has largest size ?

(1) Na+
(2) F
(3) F-
(4) N

3) Which of the following statements are correct

(i) Metallic character decreases down a group
(ii) Atomic radii decrease along a period with
increase in atomic number
(iii) The number of valence electrons determines
the valency of the element
(iv) Halogens are least non-metallic in a period

(1) (ii), (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

4) Arrange the following as per instructions given in the brackets: K, Cl, Na, S, Si
(increasing order of ionisation energy)

(1) K < Na < Si < S < Cl

(2) Na < S < Cl < K < Si
(3) K < Na < Si < Cl < S
(4) Si < S < Cl < Na < K

5) Which of the following molecules formation does not include ionic bond ?

(1) NaCl
(2) MgO
(3) H2O
(4) CaCl2

6) In the periodic table, in the same group, the element has:

(1) Same ionization potential

(2) Same electronegativity
(3) Same electron affinity
(4) Same no. of valence electrons

7) Which of the following is not a property of substances with ionic bonding ?

(1) High melting point

(2) Crystalline nature
(3) Conducts electricity when molten
(4) Conducts electricity in the solid state

8) Which one of the following is an incorrect statement.

(1) Water molecule has polar covalent bond

(2) Generally, covalent bond is formed between non-metal atoms
(3) Ionic bond is formed between metal and non-metal atoms
(4) Ionic bonds formed due to repulsive forces

9) Identify the compound that is good conductor of electricity

(1) NaCl (Solid state)

(2) PbCl2 (Molten state)
(3) KCl (aqueous state)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

10) An atom 'X' has three electrons more than a noble gas configuration. The ion that can be formed
by element 'X' is _____

(1) X+
(2) X+3
(3) It can not form ion
(4) X+2

11) The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral isolated gaseous atom and convert it
into a positively charged gaseous ion is called ..........

(1) ionisation potential

(2) valency
(3) electronegativity
(4) electron affinity

12) Which of the following is the most reactive element of the group 17?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Fluorine
(3) Sodium
(4) Magnesium
13) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity because

(1) The Ions are held in fixed positions

(2) The Ions are able to move in liquid and molten stale
(3) The electrons are able to move
(4) The atoms are able to move in liquid and molten stale

SECTION - III (BIOLOGY)

1) The name of the discipline dealing with the study of inheritance is:

(1) Cytology
(2) Evolution
(3) Genetics
(4) Anatomy

2) The chromosome is most distinct during:

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

3) RNA differs from DNA in having which of the following nitrogenous base?

(1) Adenine
(2) Guanine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Uracil

4) Number of histone proteins forming the core of a nucleosome is:

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

5) Watson and Crick are credited with finding:

(1) DNA is the carrier of genetic information

(2) DNA is a double-stranded helix
(3) RNA is a double-stranded helix
(4) DNA is composed of sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base

6) The correct sequence of the four phases of the cell cycle is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) In a diploid cell, at which stage of the cell cycle is the amount of DNA doubled?

(1) G1
(2) G2
(3) S
(4) M

8) Significance of meiosis is:

(1) Production of identical cells

(2) Increase in body size
(3) Mixing of genes
(4) Repair of damaged cells

9) The centromere of a chromosome divides into two in which phase of mitosis?

(1) Early prophase

(2) Late prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

10) The total number of autosomes in each body cell of humans is:

(1) 44
(2) 46
(3) 48
(4) 50

11) Alleles of a gene are located on:

(1) Different positions on homologous chromosomes

(2) Same position on homologous chromosomes
(3) Different positions on non-homologous chromosomes
(4) Same position on non-homologous chromosomes

12)

The carriers of heredity units are:

(1) Alleles
(2) Genes
(3) Chromosomes
(4) DNA

13) Which of the following conditions exhibits X-linked inheritance?

(1) Attached ear lobes

(2) Polydactyly
(3) Colour blindness
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

14) The genotypic ratio in the F₂ generation of a monohybrid cross is:

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

SECTION - IV (MATHEMATICS)

1) If (x + 1) is a factor of then k = ?

(1) –3
(2) –2
(3) 2
(4) 4

2) Discriminant of the equation is

(1) –92
(2) –29
(3) 39
(4) 49

3) If which of the following statements is false?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x(x – 1)(x – 2) are

(1) 0
(2) 0, –1, –2
(3) 0, 1, –2
(4) 0, 1, 2

5) The equation has no real roots if :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

6) When is divided by (2x – 1), the remainder is

(1) 0
(2) –5
(3) –2
(4) 2

7) If is divided by x + 1, the remainder is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 49
(4) 50

8) Which of the following quadratic expression can be expressed as a product of real linear factor?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

9) If is divisible by (x + 1), then the value of k is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) –3

10) If and then the value of is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

11) The factors of are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Determine k such that the quadratic equation has equal roots:

(1) 2, 7
(2) 7, 5

(3)

(4) None of these

13) If x = 2, y = 1, z = –3, then is equal to

(1) 6
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 8

14) The value of k for which x – 1 is a factor of the polynomial is

(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) –3

15) The roots of are:

(1) Equal
(2) Non-real
(3) Unequal
(4) None of these

16) Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation has equal roots:

(1)

(2) 3, 5

(3)

(4)

17) If for all x, then the value of k is

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 5
(4) 3

18) A plane left 40 minutes late due to bad weather and in order to reach it's destination, 1600 km
away in time, it had to increase it's speed by 400 km/h from it's usual speed. Find the usual speed of
the plane.

(1) 600 km/h

(2) 750 km/h
(3) 800 km/h
(4) None of these

19) Find the value of a, if is a factor of

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

20) A shopkeeper buys a number of books for Rs. 80. If he had bought 4 more for the same amount,
each book would have cost Re. 1 less. How many books did he buy?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 28

PART-B

SECTION - I (ENGLISH)

1) Which among the following is NOT waiting on the road for Caesar to pass?

(1) Lucius
(2) Soothsayer
(3) Popilius
(4) Artemidorus

2) Why does Artemidorus urge Caesar to go through his letter first?

(1) It concerns Rome.

(2) It is concerned with the conspiracy against Caesar.
(3) It concerns a matter of national importance.
(4) He came first to Caesar.

3) What does Cassius say he would do if their purpose is revealed?

(1) Make another plan

(2) Kill Casca
(3) Kill himself
(4) Kill the one who revealed it

4) With whom does Caesar compare himself in Act 3 scene 1 of the play?

(1) Lion
(2) Sun
(3) Moon
(4) The Pole Star

5) Which attitude of Caesar is seen in his act of denying Metellus Cimber’s petition?

(1) Pride
(2) Arrogance
(3) Honesty
(4) Modesty

6) What appears as the main cause of Brutus’s failure in this scene of the play?

(1) Lack of experience

(2) Errors of judgement
(3) Lack of brutality
(4) None of the above

7) According to Antony, how was Caesar brought down by the conspirators?

(1) Like a goat by butchers

(2) Like a dog by hunters
(3) Like a stag by hounds
(4) None of the above

8) Who said, “I have neither wit, nor words, nor worth…”?

(1) Brutus
(2) Cassius
(3) Caesar
(4) Antony

9) Who has been referred to by Mark Antony as ‘Caesar’s angel’?

(1) Brutus
(2) Calpurnia
(3) Octavius
(4) None of the above

10) After Brutus’s speech at Caesar’s funeral, what do the citizens of Rome want to do?

(1) Take revenge on the murderers

(2) Crown Brutus as king
(3) Fight for the freedom of Rome
(4) Crown Mark Antony as king

SECTION - II (SOCIAL SCIENCE)

1) Who was the leader of the revolt in Kanpur?

(1) Rani Lakshmibai

(2) Nana Sahib
(3) Kunwar Singh
(4) Tantia Tope

2) The immediate cause of the revolt of 1857 was:

(1) Heavy taxes

(2) Annexation policy
(3) Introduction of greased cartridges
(4) Doctrine of lapse

3) Under the Government of India Act 1858, who gave up the direct administration of India?

(1) The East India Company

(2) The British Crown
(3) Lord Mountbatten
(4) The Mughal Emperor

4) Assertion (A): Mangal Pandey is considered one of the first heroes of the revolt.
Reason (R): He led the rebellion in Kanpur.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5) By the provisions of which of the following, 20,000 estates of the landlords were confiscated by
the East India Company?
(1) The Hunter Commission
(2) Frazer Commission
(3) The Inam Commission
(4) The Woods' Dispatch

6) How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected?

(1) Directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise
(2) Indirectly by the representatives of the people on the basis of single transferable vote
(3) Directly by all citizens of the country
(4) Indirectly by members of State Legislatures

7) The strength of a House is 570. What would be the Quorum of the House?

(1) 114
(2) 112
(3) 285
(4) 57

8) Question Hour in the Parliament is generally held:

(1) At the end of the sitting

(2) At the beginning of the sitting
(3) In the middle of the sitting
(4) At night

9) An Adjournment Motion can be moved only with the permission of:

(1) Prime Minister

(2) President
(3) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) Chief Justice

10) After completing their term, members of the Rajya Sabha:

(1) Cannot be re-elected

(2) Can be re-elected
(3) Must retire permanently
(4) Become judges

SECTION - III (MENTAL ABILITY)

1) Find the correct pattern which will complete the given series.
ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb

(1) abab
(2) abba
(3) aabb
(4) baba

2) Find the next term in the given series :

12, 25, 53, 111, 229, ?

(1) 467
(2) 657
(3) 576
(4) 476

3) D1Z, M3Q, U8I, ____, H42V

(1) C18B
(2) C19B
(3) B19B
(4) B18B

Common Content for Question No. 4 to 5

There is a series. In each case terms follow a pattern. One place is left-blank in each series. Only one
of the four alternatives is correct.

4) 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, ?

(1) 81
(2) 91
(3) 88
(4) 95

5) B88Y, C21W, D6U, E2S,?

(1) F1R
(2) F1Q
(3) F2R
(4) E1Q

6) WAY, ZDB, ? , FJH, IMK, LPN

(1) BFD
(2) CGE
(3) AEC
(4) CDF

7) 11, ? , 17, 25, 41, 73, 137

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 18

Common Content for Question No. 8 to 9

There is a letter/number series from which some of the letters/numbers are missing. The missing
letters/numbers are given in proper sequence in one of the alternatives among the four given under
each question.

8) abc __ c __ c __ ba __ cb __ a

(1) baabc
(2) abacb
(3) babca
(4) bacba

Common Content for Question No. 9 to 10

Find the wrong term

9) 14, 916, 2536, 4690, 81100

(1) 4690
(2) 2536
(3) 916
(4) 14

10) Find the wrong term.

3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116

(1) 10
(2) 32
(3) 136
(4) 4116
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-A

SECTION - I (PHYSICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
A. 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 3

SECTION - II (CHEMISTRY)

Q. 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
A. 2 3 1 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 1 2 2

SECTION - III (BIOLOGY)

Q. 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 3

SECTION - IV (MATHEMATICS)

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 2

PART-B

SECTION - I (ENGLISH)

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2

SECTION - II (SOCIAL SCIENCE)

Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 3 1 3 3 1 4 2 3 2

SECTION - III (MENTAL ABILITY)

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PART-A

1)

In equilibrium R1 + R2 = W

and

kgf and kgf

2) In equilibrium
W×a=Z×b

3) The moment of force is the product of perpendicular distance of the line of action of the
force for axis of rotation and magnitude of force.
F = 10N, r = 20cm = 0.2m
F = F x r=10 x 0.2=2Nm
Thus, both assertion and reason are false.

4) Given, F1 = F2 = 10 N
Perpendicular distance of point of rotation X from the force F1 is d1 = 0.4 m while that of force
F2 is

5)

1 Nm = dyne cm

6)

The correct answer is (2) 1.25 N

7)

8)
Correct option is (3) ring

9)

its direction of motion changes continuously.

10) Total torque acting in clockwise direction.

Total torque acting in anticlockwise direction

Torque due to 200 N will be zero because its is passing through point O about which torque is
calculated.
Net resultant torque = (Clockwise direction)

11) Let the position of 55 gf weight

be x cm on meter scale. It is clear from the figure that 55 gf weight must be placed on the side
other than the side containing 50 gf and 20 gf weights.
Applying principle of moments Anti-clockwise moment = clockwise moment

Hence the weight of 55 gf must be placed at 30 cm mark.

12)

13)

a fictitous force

14) Increase, Decrease

15) F- has largest size

16)

Atomic radii decreases along a period with increase in atomic number.

17)

Correct Answer : (1) K < Na < Si < S < Cl

18)

19)

In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in vertical columns called groups and
horizontal rows called periods.

A. Valence Electrons: Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in
their outermost shell (valence shell). This is why they exhibit similar chemical
properties. For example, all Group 1 elements (alkali metals) have 1 valence electron.

B. Ionization Potential (Energy): This decreases as you move down a group because the
atomic radius increases and the effective nuclear charge on the outer electrons weakens.

C. Electronegativity: This generally decreases down a group because the increased

distance between the nucleus and the valence shell reduces the atom's ability to attract
a shared pair of electrons.

D. Electron Affinity: This generally decreases (becomes less negative) down a group as
the incoming electron is further away from the nucleus.

20)

Conceptual

21)

Conceptual

22) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molter/aqueous states

23)
24)

The definition provided in the question describes the process of creating a cation by
overcoming the nuclear attraction holding an electron in place.

A. Ionisation Potential (or Ionisation Energy): This is specifically defined as the

minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an
isolated neutral gaseous atom.

A. Equation:

B. Valency: This refers to the combining capacity of an atom, not an energy measurement.

C. Electronegativity: This is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a shared

pair of electrons in a chemical bond.

D. Electron Affinity: This is the energy change (usually released) when an electron is
added to a neutral gaseous atom to form a negative ion (anion).

Since the question asks for the energy to remove an electron to form a positive ion, (1) is the
only correct choice.

25)

To determine the most reactive element in Group 17, we need to look at both the group
membership and the periodic trends:

A. Group Identification: Group 17 elements are known as the Halogens. The members of
this group are Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), Iodine (I), and Astatine (At).

A. Oxygen belongs to Group 16.

B. Sodium belongs to Group 1.

C. Magnesium belongs to Group 2.

D. Therefore, Fluorine is the only element in the list that actually belongs to Group
17.

B. Reactivity Trend: In Group 17, reactivity decreases as you move down the group.
 A. Halogens react by gaining an electron to achieve a stable noble gas configuration.

B. Fluorine is at the top of the group. It has the smallest atomic radius and the
highest electronegativity. This means its nucleus has the strongest pull on
electrons, making it the most chemically reactive element not just in its group, but
in the entire periodic table.

Conclusion: Because Fluorine is at the top of Group 17 and has the highest tendency to
attract electrons, it is the most reactive element.

26)

Ionic compounds are electrically conducting due to presence of mobile ions.

27) Genetics is the branch of biology that studies inheritance and variation of traits from
parents to offspring.

28) Chromosomes are most condensed and clearly visible in metaphase, making it the
best stage for studying them.

29) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine, which is present in DNA.

30) A nucleosome contains 8 histone proteins (two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4).

31) In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick proposed the double helix model of DNA.

32) The cell cycle follows this order:

G1 (growth) → S (DNA synthesis) → G2 (preparation for division) → M (mitosis).

33) DNA replication occurs in the S phase (Synthesis phase).

34) Meiosis causes genetic variation through crossing over and independent assortment.

35) During anaphase, the centromere splits and sister chromatids move toward opposite
poles.

36)

Humans have 46 chromosomes in total:

A. 44 autosomes
B. 2 sex chromosomes
 37) Alleles are different forms of the same gene located at the same locus on
homologous chromosomes.

38)

To understand why chromosomes are considered the "carriers," it helps to look at the
hierarchy of genetics:

A. Genes (The Units): These are the actual functional units of heredity. They are specific
segments of DNA that code for proteins.

B. DNA (The Material): This is the chemical molecule that makes up the genes.

C. Alleles (The Variations): These are different versions of the same gene (e.g., a gene
for eye color might have a "blue" allele and a "brown" allele).

D. Chromosomes (The Carriers): These are thread-like structures located inside the
nucleus of plant and animal cells. Each chromosome is made of protein and a single
molecule of DNA. Because genes are located on the DNA, and the DNA is packed into
chromosomes, the chromosomes act as the physical "vehicles" or carriers that transport
this genetic information from parents to offspring during cell division.

39) Colour blindness is a sex-linked trait carried on the X chromosome.

40) In a monohybrid cross (Aa × Aa):

A. AA : Aa : aa = 1 : 2 : 1

41)

42)

= –92

43)

Thus, is false.

44)

45) D < 0
46)
= –2

47)

48) has D > 0

49)

50)
=2+3=5

51)

52)

53) x + y + z = 0

54)

55)
Roots are Real and Unequal

56)

57)
 58) km/h

59)

60)

PART-B

61) Lucius is the servant of Marcus Brutus and is not present on the road waiting for
Caesar.
However, the Soothsayer, Popilius Lena, and Artemidorus are waiting near the Capitol to
meet Caesar. Artemidorus wants to warn Caesar about the conspiracy against him.

62) Artemidorus had discovered the plot against Julius Caesar. In his letter he names the
conspirators and warns Caesar to beware of them. He urges Caesar to read it immediately so
that he can save himself from the planned assassination.

63) Cassius fears that their conspiracy might be discovered. He declares that if the plan fails
or becomes known, he would rather kill himself than be captured and punished by Caesar.

64) When Metellus Cimber requests Caesar to free his banished brother, Caesar refuses and
says he is constant like the Northern Star (Pole Star). By this comparison, Julius Caesar
suggests that he is firm, unchanging, and cannot be persuaded easily.

65) Pride is the Correct answer for this question.

66) Marcus Brutus makes several wrong decisions. He allows Mark Antony to speak at
Caesar’s funeral and believes Antony will not oppose them. This misjudgment leads to Antony
turning the Roman citizens against the conspirators.

67) In his funeral speech, Mark Antony compares Caesar to a stag hunted by hounds. This
metaphor shows how the conspirators surrounded and attacked Caesar mercilessly.

68) This line is spoken by Mark Antony during his famous funeral speech. Antony pretends to
be a simple speaker with little ability. This humble tone helps him gain the sympathy of the
Roman crowd before he gradually turns them against the conspirators.
69) Antony refers to Marcus Brutus as “Caesar’s angel.” This means Caesar trusted Brutus
deeply. Brutus’s betrayal hurts Caesar the most and leads to the famous line “Et tu, Brute?”

70) After listening to Brutus’s explanation, the Roman citizens believe that Caesar’s death was
necessary for Rome’s freedom. They praise Marcus Brutus and even express the desire to
crown him as the new ruler of Rome.

71) During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the revolt in Kanpur was led by Nana Sahib. He
was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II and was angry because the British refused to
grant him his father's pension.

72) The immediate cause was the use of greased cartridges in the Enfield Rifle. Soldiers had
to bite the cartridges before loading them, and it was believed the grease contained cow and
pig fat, which offended Hindu and Muslim soldiers.

73) According to the Government of India Act 1858, the administration of India was
transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown after the revolt of 1857.

74) Mangal Pandey is regarded as one of the earliest heroes of the Indian Rebellion of
1857 because he revolted against the British at Barrackpore. However, he did not lead the
rebellion in Kanpur; that was led by Nana Sahib.

75) The Inam Commission was established by the British to examine land grants. Many
landlords failed to prove ownership of their tax-free lands, resulting in the confiscation of
about 20,000 estates.

76) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected directly by the citizens of India through Universal
Adult Franchise, where every citizen aged 18 years and above has the right to vote.

77) Quorum means the minimum number of members required to conduct a meeting.
In the Parliament of India, quorum is 1/10 of the total strength.

78) In the Parliament of India, Question Hour is held at the beginning of the sitting,
where members ask questions to ministers to hold the government accountable.

79) An Adjournment Motion is used to discuss urgent matters of public importance and
requires the permission of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

80) Members of the Rajya Sabha serve a term of 6 years, and one-third of the members
retire every two years. Retiring members can contest elections again and be re-elected.

81)
 82) Patten is → × 2 + 1, × 2 + 3, × 2 + 5, × 2 + 7, × 2 + 9

83)

Z→ Q→I→B→V

84) Difference is of consecutive square no.

85)

1st term: consecutive letter.

2nd term: 1×1+1= 2, 2×2+2= 6, 6×3+3=21 & so on

86)

1st term: +3, +3, +3 & so on

2nd term: +3, +3, +3 & so on

3rd term: +3, +3, +3 & so on

87) Pattern is: +2 , + 4, + 8, + 16, +32, +64 & so on.

88) abc/bca/cab/abc/bca

89) Question Explanation: Identify the specific number in the series that does not follow the
established mathematical sequence.
Concept: The terms in the series are formed by writing the squares of consecutive natural
numbers side by side.
Solution:
The pattern follows the squares of consecutive numbers joined together:

A. 1st Term: Square of 1 and 2 → 1² and 2² → 1 and 4 → 14

B. 2nd Term: Square of 3 and 4 → 3² and 4² → 9 and 16 → 916
C. 3rd Term: Square of 5 and 6 → 5² and 6² → 25 and 36 → 2536
D. 4th Term: Square of 7 and 8 → 7² and 8² → 49 and 64 → Should be 4964
E. (But the given term is 4690)
F. 5th Term: Square of 9 and 10 → 9² and 10² → 81 and 100 → 81100

Therefore, 4690 is the wrong term.

Final Answer : option (1)

90) 3 × 1 + 1 = 4
4 × 2 + 2 = 10
10 × 3 + 3 = 33 → Right term
33 × 4 + 4 = 136
136 × 5 + 5 = 685
685 × 6 + 6 = 4116