01-06-2026

2111CMD303002260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Plane angle and solid angle have :

(1) Dimensions but no units

(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions

2) If the unit of length and force be increased four times, then the unit of energy is :

(1) Increased 4 times

(2) Increased 8 times
(3) Increased 16 times
(4) Decreased 16 times

3) What are the dimensions of A/B in the relation , where F is the force, x is the
distance and t is time?

(1) L1/2
(2) L3/2
(3) L–3/2
(4) L–1/2

4) If , then angle between and will be :-

(1) 90o
(2) 120o
(3) 0o
(4) 60o

5) The component of a vector along the vector is :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 10

6) Two vectors and of finite magnitude are shown below. Then the can
be represented by [NCERT XI - (I)-68]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following pairs have same dimensions ?

(1) Work & energy

(2) Kilogram & metre
(3) Force & energy
(4) Speed and acceleration

8) If and are two vectors, then the correct statement is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

9) The angle between the vectors and is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

Given that y = a sin , where t represents time in second and x represents distance in meter.
Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Dimension of t is same as that of q
(2) Dimension of x is same as that of p
(3) Dimension of x is same as that of q
(4) Dimension of t is same as that of p

11) The vector is perpendicular to the vector , if =

(1) 0
(2) –1
(3) –2
(4) –3

12)
The given vector in component form is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) A dimensionless quantity :-

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

14) The velocity v (in cm/sec) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the relation

the dimensions of a, b and c are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Two forces 3N and 2N are at an angle θ such that the resultant is R. The first force is now
increased to 6N and the resultant become 2R. The value of θ is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

16) If then find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Two vectors and are parallel. The value of b is:

(1) –1
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) 0

18) If are unit vectors such that , then find the angle between and :

(1) 2π/3
(2) π/3
(3) π/4
(4) π

19)

What is the angle between and the resultant of and ?

(1) 0°

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In the following figure what are the angle between vectors
respectively:

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 60°, 120°, 120°
(3) 120°, 60°, 60°
(4) 120°, 120°, 60°

21) If A, B and C are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can never be a meaningful quantity ?

(i) (ii) (iii) AB–C2 (iv) (A–B)C

(1) (iii, iv)

(2) (i, ii)
(3) (ii, iv)
(4) (ii, iii)

22) The minimum number of vectors of unequal magnitude required to produce a zero resultant is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) more than 4

23) If =3 and = then find a vector whose direction is same as that of and
magnitude is same as that of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If force (F), work (W) and velocity (V) are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
formula of time (t) is :-

(1) [WFV]
(2) [WFV –1]
(3) [W –1F –1V –1]
(4) [WF –1V –1]

25)

Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Electric current
(3) Pressure
(4) Length

26) Which of the following physical quantities is an axial vector ?

(1) Displacement
(2) Force
(3) Velocity
(4) Torque

27) Column-I show vector diagram relating three vectors . Match the vector equation in
column-II, with vector diagram in column-I :

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R)

(D) (S)
(1) A - R, B - S, C - Q, D - P
(2) A - R, B - Q, C - S, D - P
(3) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q
(4) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D - R

28)
Which of the following is true statement:

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

29) If resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Three forces P, Q and R are acting on a particle in the plane, the angle between P and Q and that
between Q and R are 150° and 120° respectively. Then for equilibrium, forces P, Q and R are in the
ratio :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
1:2:
(2)

(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) :2:1

31) Following sets of three forces act on a body. Whose resultant can not be zero ?

(1) 10, 10, 10

(2) 10, 10, 20
(3) 10, 20, 20
(4) 10, 20, 40

32) The direction cosines of are

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 2, 2, 2

(3)

(4)

33) Area of triangle formed by adjacent sides with is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) What is the magnitude of projection of on yz plane ?

(1)
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 8

35) A vector of magnitude a is rotated through an angle θ. What is the magnitude of the change in
the vector:-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2a sinθ
(4) 2a cosθ

36) Two forces each of 50N magnitude is applied on a body as shown. The resultant force will be :-
(1)
(2) 50 N
(3)
(4) 100 N

37) The angle between and is θ their resultant vector makes equal angle of , from and .
Which of the following is true

(1) A = 2B
(2) A = B
(3) AB = 1
(4) 2A = B

38) Angle between and is θ. What is the value of ?

(1) P2Q cos θ

(2) Zero
(3) P2Q sin θ cos θ
(4) P2Q sin θ

39) If and , then the angle which makes with x-axis is

(1)
cos-1

(2)
cos-1

(3)
cos-1

(4)
cos-1

40) A particle moving with velocity is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The
velocity of the particle will :

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) change according to the smallest force

41) If and , then

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

42) If and , then the unit vector along its resultant is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

43) If a vector is multiplied by (−2), then?

(1) Direction reverses and unit changes

(2) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled
(3) Direction remains unchanged and unit changes
(4) None of these

44) The density of mercury is 15600 kg-m–3. Its value in CGS system will be :-

(1) 15.6 g-cm–3

(2) 1560 g-cm–3
(3) 156 g-cm–3
(4) 1.56 g-cm–3

45) A physical quantity is measured and its value is found to be nu where n = numerical value and u
= unit. Then which of the following relations is true :-
(1) n ∝ u2
(2) n ∝ u
(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 10–5 m. Calculate the
uncertainty in its velocity :-

(1) 5.2 × 10–28 m/sec

(2) 3 × 10–28 m/sec
(3) 5.2 × 10–22 m/sec
(4) 3 × 10–22 m/sec

2) The number of waves in the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogn is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 12

3) Nodal planes in dxy orbital will be :-

(1) xz & yz
(2) xy & zy
(3) zy & yx
(4) None of the above

4) Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements.
(I) If electron has magnetic quantum number = 0, then it must be present in s-orbital.
(II) In orbital diagram, Pauli's exclusion principle is violated.
(III) Bohr's model can explain spectrum of the hydrogen atom.
(IV) A d-orbital can accommodate maximum 10 electrons only.

(1) TTFF
(2) FFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) FFTT

5) The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is : –

(1)
2, 0, 0, +
 2, 1, –1,+
(2)

(3)
3, 1, 1,+

(4)
3, 0, 0, ±

6) Which one is a wrong statement?

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.
An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated
(2)
by four quantum numbers.
The electronic configuration of N atom is
(3)

(4) The value of m for dz is zero.

2

7) An atom of Cr [Z = 24] loses 2 electrons. How many unpaired electrons shall be there in Cr+2:

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

8) In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, the number of electrons with m = 0; s = are :-

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 16

9) Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions ?

(At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28):-

(1) Ti3+
(2) Ni2+
(3) Cr3+
(4) Mn2+

10) The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one
of the following?

(1) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

(2) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
(3) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
(4) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)

11) Magnetic moment of an ion M3+ is 5.92 BM. Number of electrons in d-orbital of M will be

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

12) Select the correct options according to Hund's rule and Pauli exclusion principle.

Codes :

(1) Both I and II

(2) Both II and III
(3) Both I and III
(4) Both III and IV

13) Assertion : The ground state configuration of Cr is 3d5 4s1.

Reason : A set of half-filled orbitals containing one electrons each with their spin parallel provides
extra stability.

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong
(4) If A is wrong but R is correct

14) Assertion : The ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen is

Reason : Electrons are filled in orbitals as per Aufbau principle, Hund's rule of maximum spin
multiplicity and Pauli's principle.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

15) Which one of the following represents ground state configuration

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both 2 & 3

16) 2 particles A and B are in motion if λA = 10 Å. Then find out λ of particle B having momentum
half that of A.

(1) 20 Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 40 Å
(4) 2 Å

17)

An electron has a kinetic energy of 2.8 × 10–23 J. de-Broglie wavelength will be nearly :-
(me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 9.28 × 10–24 m

(2) 9.28 × 10–7 m
(3) 9.28 × 10–8 m
(4) 9.28 × 10–10 m

18)

Which one is the wrong statement ?

(1) The uncertainty principle is ΔE × Δt ≥ h/4π

Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
(2)
symmetry and more balanced arrangement.
(3) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
(4) de-Broglies's wavelength is given by , where m = mass of the particle, n = velocity of
the particle

19) Arrange the following in increasing order of energy :-

(i) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = –1, s = +½
(ii) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –1, s = –½
(iii) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +½
(iv) n = 5, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = –½

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(3) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)
(4) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)

20) The valance electrons of P-15 Phosphorus are labelled If the

spin quantum of B and Z is + , the group of electrons with three of the quantum number same are
:-

(1) AB, XYZ, BY

(2) AB
(3) XYZ, AZ
(4) AB, XYZ

21) Which of the following statement is true :-

(a) 6 electrons are present in Mg for which m = 0
(b) Maximum 6 electrons can accomdate in -orbital
(c) Maximum 18 electrons present in M-shell
(d) 3–electron present in phosphorous for which,

l = 0, S =

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b c
(3) a, c, d
(4) c, d

22) n, ℓ and m values of an electron in 3py orbital are:-

(1) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = +1
(2) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = –1
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) None of these

23) Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct ?
(1) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
(2) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbitals
(3) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
(4) 3s orbitals is lower in energy than 3p orbital

24) Match List-I with List-II.

List-II
List-I
Electronic
Species
distribution

(A) Cr+2 (I) 3d8

(B) Mn+ (II) 3d34s1

(C) Ni+2 (III) 3d4

(D) V+ (IV) 3d54s1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
(3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
(4) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III

25) Atomic weight of an element X is 40 and that of element Z is 60. Atomic weight of their
intermediate element Y, as per Dobereiner's triad will be :

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 100

26) Which of the following element was present in mendeleev's periodic table ?

(1) Sc
(2) Tc
(3) Al
(4) Ge

27)

Identify A, B and C respectively in the given curve?

(1) Li, F, Be
(2) Be, Li, F
(3) Li, Mg, Cl
(4) F, K, Ca

28) (a) The long form of periodic table is based on increasing atomic weight
(b) First d-block series starts with element Scandium and ends with Zinc.
(c) Alkali and alkaline earth metals are s-block elements
(d) Chalcogens and halogens are p-block elements
The correct statements are -

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b, c and d
(4) all

29) Which statement is wrong for the long form of periodic table :-

(1) Number of periods are 7 and groups 18

(2) No. of valence shell electrons in a period are same
(3) IIIrd B group contains 32 elements
(4) Lanthanides and actinides are placed in same group

30) X = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2

Find out the group of element X.

(1) 2nd
(2) 8th
(3) 7th
(4) 4th

31) The symbol according to the IUPAC system for the element with atomic number 120 is :-

(1) Ubn
(2) Uub
(3) Uuo
(4) Uup

32) The period number and group number of element of atomic number 51 are respectively :-

(1) 15, 5
(2) 5, 15
(3) 15, 6
(4) 6, 15

33) Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

 0
(1) (n–1) d ns1-2 – s-block
(2) (n+1) s1-2 nd1-10 – d-block
(3) (n–1) d10 ns2 – Transition element
(4) [Rn] 5f7 6d1 7s2 – f-block

34) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

35) If radius of K+ and F– are equal to 0.72 Å then radius of K and F is respectively :-

(1) 0.72 Å, 0.72 Å

(2) 0.56 Å, 1.78 Å
(3) 1.78 Å, 1.78 Å
(4) 1.78 Å, 0.56 Å

36) Which of the following statement is wrong :-

Compared to 1st ionisation enthalpy the value of 2nd ionisation enthalpy of an element is
(1)
greater
(2) In a period atomic size decreases
(3) Screening effect in a period remains constant
(4) In a period atomic radius of inert gas element is maximum

37) Which of the following is correct order of atomic radius ?

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) S > Cl > F > O
(3) S > Cl > O > F
(4) Cl > S > O > F

38) Match the column:

Column I Column II
Element Atomic radius (Pm)

(1) Be (a) 88

(2) N (b) 70

(3) O (c) 111

(4) C (d) 74
(1) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
(2) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
(3) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
(4) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – d

39) The radii of F, F–, O, O–2 are in the order of :-

(1) O–2 > F– > F > O

(2) F– > O–2 > O > F
(3) O–2 > F– > O > F
(4) O > F > F– > O–2

40) In aluminium atom, the screening is due to :-

(1) 3s2, 3p6

(2) 3s1
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6

41) For the following statements use T if true, for False use F.
Statement-A: Size of anion is greater than its parent atom.
Statement-B: Total number of d-electrons in Fe+2 is equal to the total number of s-subshell
electrons in Mg.
Statement-C: Inert gas present in 3rd period is Ar.
Statement-D: Inert gases known as '0' group elements according to IUPAC.

(1) T,F,T,F
(2) F, T, T, F
(3) T, T, T, F
(4) T, T, F, F

42) Which of the following pair of element having approximate equal radius :-

(1) Co, Ni
(2) Fe, Co
(3) Zr, Hf
(4) All of these

43) Assertion :- The atomic size generally decrease across a period.

Reason:- Within the period outer electrons are in same valence shell and Zeff (effective nuclear
charge) increases as the atomic no. increases, resulting in increased attraction of electrons to the
nucleus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
44)

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The radius of 5d series elements is nearly similar to the 4d series elements.
Statement-II : Due to poor shielding effect of 4f electrons, effective nuclear charge of 5d series
elements is greater than that of 4d series elements.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(4) Both statement I & II are incorrect

45) Assertion : The ionic size of O2– is bigger than that of F– ion.
Reason : O2– and F– are isoelectronic ions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) First of all the plants are classified into herbs, Shrubs and tree by :-

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) R.H. Whittakar
(4) Copeland

2) Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organism lacking cell wall are included in which kingdom
:-

(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

3) Statement-I :- The two kingdom system of classification given by linnaeus was not sufficient to
classify a variety of organisms.
Statement-II:- Many organisms did not fell into either of the categories in tow kingdom system

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
4)

According to Whittaker, BGA are included in.

(1) Plantae
(2) Protista
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi

5) The system of classification proposed by Bentham and Hooker is :-

(1) Artificial
(2) Natural
(3) Phylogenetic
(4) Numerical

6) Which one of the following is not a criteria of five kingdom system?

(1) Cell type

(2) Body organisation
(3) Reserve food materials
(4) Phylogeny

7) Two kingdom system of classification distinguishes between [NCERT XI-(I)-16]

(1) Eukaroytes and prokaryotes

(2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) Plants and animals
(4) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms

8) In five kingdom classification of Whittaker, eukaryotes were assigned to :-

(1) 3 of 5 kingdoms
(2) 2 of 5 kingdoms
(3) 4 of 5 kingdoms
(4) All the 5 kingdoms

9) Potato, Brinjal, Makoi, Petunia and Datura have some common characters. So they are placed in
the same :-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Tribe
(4) Family

10) Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat ?

(1) Genus – Triticum, Family – Poaceae, Order – Poales, Class – Dicot
(2) Genus – Triticum, Family – Poaceae, Order – Sapindales, Class – Monocot
(3) Genus – Triticum, Family – Poaceae, Order – Poales, Class – Monocot
(4) Genus – Triticum, Family – Anacardiaceae, Order – Poales, Class – Monocot

11) Ascending/Descending arrangement of categories is called :-

(1) Hierarchy
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Classification
(4) Systematics

12)

Which of the following 'suffixes' used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
category of ‘family’.

(1) -ales
(2) -onae
(3) -aceae
(4) -ae

13) The housefly belongs to which family in taxonomical classification ?

(1) Musca
(2) Diptera
(3) Muscidae
(4) Insecta

14) Match the following columns:

Column II
Column I
(Taxonomic category
(Common name)
order)

(a) Wheat (I) Primata

(b) Mango (II) Diptera

(c) Housefly (III) Sapindales

(d) Man (IV) Poales

(1) a - I, b - II, c - IV, d - III
(2) a - IV, b - III, c - II, d - I
(3) a - II, b - IV, c - I, d - III
(4) a - III, b - IV, c - II, d - I

15) Match Column-I with Column-II for classification of Mango and select the correct option using
the codes given below:-
 Column-I Column-II

(a) Class (i) Anacardiaceae

(b) Division (ii) Dicotyledonae

(c) Order (iii) Angiospermae

(d) Family (iv) Sapindales

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

16) Find the correct statements from the following and give answer :-
(A) Family is a group of related genera with more number of similarities than genus and species.
(B) Every taxonomic category / Rank / Taxon represent a unit of classification.

(1) Both (A) and (B)

(2) only (B)
(3) only (A)
(4) None

17) Who gave biological concept of species :

(1) Aristotle
(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) John Ray
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

18) According to two kingdom system of classification Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed
under:-

(1) Kingdom – Protista

(2) Kingdom – Monera
(3) Kingdom – Fungi
(4) Kingdom – Plantae

19)

Artificial classification on the basis of stamens was given by ?

(1) John Ray

(2) Earnst Mayr
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Bentham & Hooker

20) Evolutionary classification is called :–

(1) Artificial system
(2) Natural system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) None of the above

21) The term taxon refers to:

(1) Name of a species

(2) Name of genus
(3) Name of family
(4) A taxonomic group of any rank

22) The classification system of Linnaeus was mainly based on the stamen structure therefore it was
a/an :-

(1) Natural classification

(2) Numerical classification
(3) Artificial classification
(4) Phylogenetic classification

23) Which is true about numerical classification ?

(a) Equal importance is given to each character
(b) Based on all observable characters
(c) Easily carried out by using computers
(d) At the same time only few characters can be considered

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c

24) Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic categories, from broadest to narrowest?

(1) Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

(2) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family
(3) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family
(4) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Family, Order

25) Which of the following is true for wheat :-

(1) Order – Poales, Class – Monocotyledonae

(2) Order – Poales, Kingdom – Spermatophyta
(3) Class – Monocotyledonae, Kingdom – Angiospermae
(4) Order – Sapindales, Class – Monocotyledonae

26) Wheat grasses, monocotyledonae and plantae shows?

(1) Same taxa of different categories
(2) Different taxa of same category
(3) Same taxa of same category
(4) Different taxa of different category

27) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Bentham & Two kingdom system of

A i
Hooker classification

Gave classification
B Ernst Mayr ii
of spermatophyta

C Aristotle iii Father of Zoology

Biological concept
D C. Linnaeus iv
of species
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

28) How many domains are assigned to prokaryotes in three domain classification ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Six

29)

Periplasmic space in bacteria is analogous to :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

30) An order can be best defined as :-

(1) A group of related species and genera of differant taxa

(2) A group of related families which exhibit a few similar characters
(3) A group of related classes which exhibit a few similarites
(4) An assemblage of genera related to different classes

31) Lion, leopard and tiger are the species of the genus:
(1) Felis
(2) Panthera
(3) Canis
(4) Musca

32) Which taxon is not related to wheat :-

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

33) Three domain system was given by :-

(1) Carl Woese

(2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Theophrastus
(4) Linnaeus

34) Basis of two kingdom system was :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Nucleus
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Pigments

35) How many obligate taxonomic categories are there for plant and animals, respectively ?

(1) 4, 7
(2) 6, 7
(3) 7, 7
(4) 6, 4

36) What scientific evidence was used by Carl Whose to determine there should be a separate
domain for Archaea?

(1) a sequence of DNA

(2) a sequence of rRNA
(3) a sequence of mRNA
(4) a sequence of tRNA

37) Which of the classification, group plants on the basis of their economical importance ?

(1) Natural
(2) Practical
(3) Empirical
(4) All the above

38) In which year Whittaker proposed the five kingdom classification?

(1) 1960
(2) 1961
(3) 1969
(4) 1994

39) Arrange the following events in the history of biological classification in chronological order:
(i) Linnaeus’ Two Kingdom Classification.
(ii) Aristotle’s classification of plants into herbs, shrubs, and trees.
(iii) Whittaker’s Five Kingdom Classification.
(iv) Three-domain system by Carl Woese.

(1) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)

(2) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(3) (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (iv)
(4) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)

40) Select the incorrect statements:-

(1) Cat and dog are included in same order

(2) Cat and tiger are included in same family
(3) Gorilla and Gibbon are placed in same class
(4) Petunia and Datura are placed in same genus

41) The bacterial cell is very simple in ___A___ but very complex in ___B___.
Select the option in which A and B are correctly identified.

A B

(1) Behaviour Structure

(2) Reproduction Structure

(3) Shape size

(4) Structure Behaviour

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Which of the following correctly pairs the scientist with their specific contribution to biological
classification ?

(1) Aristotle – First to propose classification based on phylogenetic relationships

(2) R.H. Whittaker – Developed the initial Two Kingdom classification system
(3) Carolus Linnaeus – Developed a Two Kingdom system comprising Plantae and Animalia
(4) Carolus Linnaeus – Classified animals based on the presence or absence of red blood

43) Genetic material without nuclear membrane is found in :

(1) Blue green algae and Red algae

(2) Mycoplasma and Fungi
(3) Archaebacteria and Blue green algae
(4) Green algae and Red algae

44) In the five kingdom classification which kingdom occupies intermediate position from
phylogenetic point of view :-

(1) Monera
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Protista

45) In Whittaker's s-kingdom system, chlamydomonas and chlorella are placed in :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantal

46) Which of the following is incorrect about bone ?

(1) Hard and non-pliable ground substance

(2) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) Present in the tip of nose
(4) Osteocyte ae present in lacunae

47) Choose the correct statements :

(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones.
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells.
(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
(e) Tendons attach one bone to another.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (e) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (e) only

48) Which statements are true?

(A) In loose connective tissue, cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground
substance.
(B) Areolar connective tissue provide support for epithelium beneath the skin.
(C) Adipose tissue located mainly beneath the skin

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) B, C
(4) A, C

49) Which of the following structure always found in Bundle :

(1) Elastic fibres

(2) Reticular fibre
(3) Collagen fibre
(4) Basophil

50) Select the correct option about the figure given below :

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) Compound epithelial tissue

51) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D from given below diagram and select the right option

about them : Options :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Fibroblast Mast cell Collagen fibres Macrophage

(2) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

(3) Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage Mast cell

(4) Macrophage Mast cell Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) How many statement are incorrect regarding bones :

(A) Bones have non-pliable matrix
(B) Bones cells are called osteocytes
(C) Some bones produces blood cells
(D) Bones are rich in calcium salts and elastin fibres
(E) Bones are type of specialised connective tissue

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

53) Yellow , White & Reticular fibres made up of protein

(1) Elastin , Reticulin , Collagen respectively

(2) Reticulin , Elastin, Collagen respectively
(3) Collagen , Elastin , Reticulin protein
(4) Elastin , Collagen, Reticulin protein

54) Chief matrix producing cells are ?

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) Mast cells
(3) Plasma cells
(4) Adipose cells

55) Statement 1: Tendons connect muscles to bones.

Statement 2: They are made of white fibrous connective tissue.

(1) Both statements true and statement-2 explains statement-1.

(2) Both statements true but statement-2 not explanation.
(3) Statement-1 true, statement-2 false.
(4) Both statements false.

56) In all connective tissues except ____________, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin or reticulin.

(1) blood
(2) bone
(3) areolar connective tissue
(4) cartilage

57) Cartilage present between bones of vertebral column indudes ?

(1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) Elastocartilage
(3) White fibrocartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

58) Which of the following is correct about the figure given below -

(A) (B)

(1) A is bone having solid and pliable ground substance which resists compression.
B is Dense regular connective tissue and collagen fibres are present in rows between many
(2)
parallel bundles of fibres.
(3) A is cartilage provides structural frame to the body.
(4) B is dense irregular where fibroblast and many fibres are oriented differently.

59) The spaces in which osteocytes are present are called

(1) Osteoclast
(2) Sinuses
(3) Lacunae
(4) Canaliculi

60) Assertion : The ground substance of bones is rich in Ca salts and collagen fibres.
Reason : These substance make bone hard, non pliable and give strength to the bone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Bone marrow takes part in

(1) Controlling blood pressure

(2) As haemopoitic tissue
(3) Formation of structural frame to the body
(4) Storage of minerals and white fat

62) Statement-I :- Areolar tissue is termed as loose connective tissue.

Statement-II :- Cells and fibres of areolar tissue are loosely arranged in solid ground substance.

(1) Both statements I & II are incorrect.

(2) Both statements I & II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

63) Match the column I and II and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

(1) a-1, b-3, c-2

(2) a-3, b-2, c-1
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

64) In the given list how many phylum have bilateral symmetry and are acoelomates?
Porifera, Ctenophora, Cnidaria, Annelida, Platyhelminthes

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

65) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the symmetry found in the phylum
Echinodermata?

(1) Echinodermata exhibits only radial symmetry.

(2) Echinodermata exhibits only bilateral symmetry.
Echinodermata exhibits radial symmetry during one stage and bilateral symmetry during
(3)
another stage.
(4) Echinodermata exhibits asymmetry.
66) Animal in which notochord is present are called chordates which is formed during
embryogenesis on.

(1) Dorso-ventrally
(2) Ventro-Dorsally
(3) Anterior side
(4) Dorsal side.

67) Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer for it.

Column I Column II
I Tissue level of organization A Aschelminthes
II Close circulatory system B Arteries, veins and capillaries
III Chordate C Coelenterata
IV Pseudocoelomates D Notochord present
(1) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
(2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
(4) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B

68) Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option :

A B C

(1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla

(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon

(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia

(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges
70) Statement - I :- In poriferans sexes are not separate.
Statement - II :- The body of poriferans is supported by exoskeleton.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Both statement - I is correct - II incorrect.
(4) Statement - II is correct but - I incorrect.

71) Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, true coelom and open circulatory system are the
characterstic features of which phylum ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Platyhelmnthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthopoda

72) Segments with a serial repetition of atleast some organs. This phenomena is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metamerism
(3) Metagenesis
(4) Metachrosis

73) The most distinctive feature of porifers is the presence of water canal system that does not help
in

(1) Locomotion
(2) Transport of food
(3) Respiration
(4) Excretion

74) In the given list, segmentation is present in how many of the following ?
Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata, Mollusca, Aschelminthes

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

75) Read the following statements about the phylum Porifera :-

(i) Commonly known as sponges
(ii) Are generally found in fresh water and mostly symmetrical animals
(iii) Possess water transport system
(iv) The body is supported by endoskeleton made up of spicules and spongin fibres
(v) Fertilization is external
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (iii), (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (v)

76)

Fill in the blanks :

Sponges reproduces ....a.... by fragmentation and ....b.... by formation of gametes.

(1) a-sexually, b-asexually

(2) a-asexually, b-sexually
(3) a-vegetatively, b-asexually
(4) a-sexually, b-vegetatively

77) Correct flow of water current in sponges is :-

(1) Ostia - Osculum - Spongocoel - Outside

(2) Osculum - Spongocoel - Ostia - Outside
(3) Ostia - Spongocoel - Osculum - Outside
(4) Osculum - Ostia - Spongocoel - Outside

78) Correctly identify the animals which fall in the categories of Coelomates, Pseudocoelomates and
Acoelomates :-

Coelomates Pseudocoelomates Acoelomates

(1) Aschelminthes, Annelids, Molluscs Chordates, Hemichordates Platyhelminthes

(2) Platyhelminthes, Annelids Aschelminthes, Molluscs Chordates Hemichordates

(3) Chordates, Hemichordates Molluscs, Platyhelminthes Annelids

(4) Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms, Chordates Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Assertion (A) – Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult echinoderms are said to be radially
symmetrical.
Reason (R) – Their body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

80) Coelom is a cavity between the body wall and alimentary canal and is lined by:

(1) ectoderm and endoderm.

(2) ectoderm and mesoderm.
(3) endoderm on both sides.
(4) mesoderm on both sides.

81) Which of the following is incorrect match of the phylum, its coelom type, segmentation and
presence or absence of notochord?

Phylum Coelom Segmen-tation Notochord

(1) Platyhelminthes Coelomate Absent Absent
(2) Annelida Coelomate Present Absent
(3) Aschelminthes Pseudo-coelomate Absent Absent
(4) Chordata Coelomate Present Present
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Complete the following chart by choosing correct option for A , B ,C and D

A B C D
Cellular
1 Bilateral Aschelminthes Acoelomate
level
2 Bilateral Cellular level Aschelminthes Acoelomate
Cellular
3 Bilateral Acoelomate Aschelminthes
level
4 Acoelomate Aschelminthes Bilateral Cellular level
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Which among the following phylum member have cells that are arranged as loose cell
aggregates.

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Ctenophora
(4) All of these
84) Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as

(1) Unicellular or acellular

(2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
(3) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(4) Multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity

85) The skeleton of animals of porifera consists of :-

(1) Spicules
(2) Spongin fibres
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

86) Infectious spore like stage is found in life cycle of:-

(1) Euglena
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Amoeba

87) The organism which cause sleeping sickness disease in human is included in :-

(1) Amoeboid protozonas

(2) Sporozoans
(3) Flagellated protozoan
(4) Ciliated protozonas

88) Amoeboid protozoans

(1) Live in fresh water, sea water or moist soil

(2) Capture prey by forming pseudopodia.
(3) Marine forms have shells on their surface
(4) All of these

89) Protozoans are primitive relative of animals, they are heterotrophic i.e., they live as-

(1) Parasite and saprophyte

(2) Parasite and predator
(3) Holophytic
(4) Absorptive only

90) Protozoans are not included in kingdom Animalia because-

(1) Mostly asymmetrical

(2) Unicellular eukaryotes
(3) Heterotrophic nature
(4) Multicellular prokaryotes
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 4 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Units but no dimensions

2) [E] = [F] . [L]

3)

4)

120o

5)

6)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part I, Page No.68

7)

Work & energy

8) Vector addition follows commutative law

9)

10)

Dimension of t is same as that of p

11)

NCERT BASED (-2)

13)

Correct answer is : May have a unit

14)

15) A = 3N, B = 2N the R =

R= ……(i)
Now A = 6N, B = 2 N then
2R = ……(ii)
From (i) and (ii) we get

cos θ = – ∴ θ = 120°

16)
ab cosθ = ab sinθ

tanθ = ⇒ θ = 30°

17)

Here m = 2 and –b = m ⇒ b = –2

18) Given :

Also
Let angle between and =θ
∴
∴ cosθ = –1/2 ⇒ θ = 120° = 2π/3

21) Explaining : To check which among the given physical quantity is not meaningful.
Concept : This question is based on Principle of homogeneity.
Solution : We cannot add or subtract two physical quantities of different dimensions.
Final Answer : (3) (ii, iv)

23) Explain the Question : In this question, we need a vector that has direction same as
.
Magnitude same as .
Concept : This question is based on magnitude of vector and unit vector.
Solution : A vector with magnitude and direction of is
Step-1
Magnitude of

Step-2
Magnitude of

Step-3 : Unit vector along

Step-4 : Required vector,

Final Answer : Option (2)

24) [T1] = k[M1 L1 T –2]a [ML2 T –2]b [L1 T –1]c

comparing
a + b = 0 ; a + 2b + c = 0, –2a –2b – c = 1

25) Explain Question:

The problem asks to identify which of the given physical quantities is not a fundamental (base)
quantity.

Concept:
Fundamental quantities are independent physical quantities that cannot be expressed in term
of other quantities.

Solution:
The seven fundamental quantities are Length, Mass, Time, Electric current, Temperature,
Amount of substance, and Luminous intensity.
Pressure = Force / Area
Force = Mass × Acceleration
Pressure = (Mass × Length × Times–2) / Length2
Pressure = Mass × Length–1 × Time –2
Since pressure is derived from other fundamental quantities, it is a derives quantity ​

Final Answer: Option (3)

26) Torque is an Axial Vector

27)

A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q

29)

30) 1. Question Explain :

Three forces and are acting on a particle in the plane, and the angles between the
forces are given as :
• The angle between and is 150°.
• The angle between and is 120°.
The problem asks for the ratio of the magnitudes of the forces, , and that satisfies the
condition of equilibrium.

2 Concept Based : Sine Rule (or Lami's theorem)

3. Formula Used :
We can use the law of cosines and sine rule to find the correct ratio of forces. Consider the
forces acting on the particle :
• The angle between and is 150°.
• The angle between and is 120°.
• Using the vector addition approach, we can solve this as a triangle and apply the sine rule to
find the magnitude ratios.

4. Calculation (In Brief) :

Let the magnitudes of the forces be P, Q and R. We will analyze the angles between them to
use the sine rule and law of cosines:
• The force vectors form a triangle, and the angles between the forces are :
• Angle between and is 150°.
• Angle between and is 120°.
The third angle, between and , can be calculated :
Angle between and = 360 – (150 + 120) = 90°
Using the sine rule for a triangle formed by the forces :

We know :

• ,
• sin 90° = 1

• sin 150° = .
Now, setting up the ratios :

Thus ;

This simplifies to the ratio ;

Conclusion :
The correct ratio of the forces P : Q : R is ..

31)

Question Asking About:

Which set of three forces cannot produce a zero resultant.

Key Concept:
Three forces can result in zero only if they form a closed triangle - applies Triangle
Inequality.

Formula
For any three sides a, b, c:

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
• option1 (10, 10, 10): Valid triangle → Resultant can be zero
• option2 (10, 10, 20): 10 +10 =20 → Not strictly greater → Invalid
• option3 (10, 20, 20) Valid triangle → Resultant can be zero
• option4 (10, 20, 40): 10 + 20 = 30 < 40 → Cannot form triangle → Resultant cannot be zero

Calculation
Hence option (4) is correct

32) Conceptual

33) Conceptual

34) Explanation: In this question magnitude of projection of vector on yz plane is asked.

Concept: Protection of vectors.
Solution:
On yz plane x component will become zero.

= = 10
Final Answer: Magnitude of projection is 10, Option (2)

35)
Also a2 = a1 = a
Therefore,
Hence, Δa =
=
 = [2a2 (1–cosθ)]1/2 = 2a sin

37)

A=B

38)

zero

39)

cos-1

40) ⇒ ⇒ = constant

41)

NCERT BASED (5)

42)

43)

Conceptual.

45) P = nu ∴ n ∝

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain Question:

We are asked: For a bullet of mass 10g, if uncertainty in position is 10–5 m, calculate
uncertainty in velocity using Heisenberg's principle.

Concept:
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle:

where Δp = m · Δv.
So,
Solution:
Mass of bullet = 10g = 0.01 kg
Δx = 10–5 m
Planck's constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 J-s

Final Answer: Option(1)

47)

48)

Question Explanation: The nodal plane is the plane where the probability of finding an
electron is zero. In d-orbitals, nodal planes depend on the orientation of lobes.

Concept: nodal planes

Solution:
The dₓᵧ orbital lies between the x and y axes, so electron density vanishes along xz and yz
planes. These become nodal planes.

Final Answer: Option 1

49)

Question Explanation: Check validity of statements using quantum numbers, Bohr model,
and electron configuration rules.

Concept: Quantum numbers, Pauli’s exclusion principle, Bohr model, and orbital electron
capacity.
Solution:

(I) m = 0 is possible in s, p, d, f orbitals → not only s

So statement is False (F)

(II) Orbital diagrams always obey Pauli principle

So statement is False (F)

(III) Bohr model explains hydrogen spectrum correctly

So statement is True (T)

(IV) A d-orbital can accommodate maximum 2 electrons not 10 electrons

So statement is True (F)

Sequence = F F T F

Final Answer: Option (2)

50)

Question Explanation
We need the quantum numbers of the unpaired electron in Cl atom.

Concept: Quantum numbers

Solution:
Atomic number of Cl = 17
Electronic configuration = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
Unpaired electron present in 3p orbital so, n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = −1/0/+1, s = +1/2
Correct option = (3, 1, 1, +1/2)

Final Answer: Option (3)

51) Explain Question :

We need to find wrong statement.
Concept : This question is based on Electronic configuration and Hund's Maximum
multiplicity principle.

Solution :
Electronic Configuration of N-atom is-

Final Answer : option (3)

52)

Explain Question :
Find the number of unpaired electrons in Cr+2 ion after it loses 2 electrons from the neutral Cr
 atom.

Concept : Atomic number of Cr (Z) = 24

Electronic configuration of Cr (neutral):

Cr → [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (due to extra stability of half-filled d-orbital).

Solution :

Cr+2 ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s°

Total 4 unpaired electrons.

Final Answer : option (1)

53)

2K, 8L, 8M, 2N

Number of e¯ is 20
Z = 20

6 electrons ⇒ m = 0

S=+

54)

Question Explanation :
We need to find which ion has μ = 2.83 BM.

Concept :
Magnetic moment (μ) = . B. M. where n = no. of unpaired electrons.

Solution :
μ = 2.83 BM → n(n+2) = (2.83)² = 8 ≈ n=2.
So ion must have 2 unpaired electrons.

Check ions:

A. Ti³⁺ (Z=22 → 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d¹): 1 unpaired → μ ≈ 1.73 BM.

B. Ni²⁺ (Z=28 → [Ar]3d⁸): 2 unpaired → μ ≈ 2.83 BM
C. Cr³⁺ (Z=24 → [Ar]3d³): 3 unpaired → μ ≈ 3.87 BM.
D. Mn²⁺ (Z=25 → [Ar]3d⁵): 5 unpaired → μ ≈ 5.92 BM.

Final Answer :
 Option (2)

55) Question Explanation :

Determine which species does not have the same number of electrons as the d-electrons in
Fe2.

Concept :

A. Fe2+ → Atomic number Z = 26

B. Fe2+ → loses 2 electrons (from 4s orbital first)
C. d-electrons in Fe2+ = number of electrons in 3d orbitals

Compare with number of p- or s-electrons in given elements.

Solution :
1. Fe2+ (Z = 26):

A. Neutral Fe → [Ar] 3d6 4s2

2+ 6
B. Fe → loses 2 electrons → [Ar] 3d
C. Number of d-electrons = 6

2. Compare with other species:

A. p-electrons in CI (Z = 17):

Cl→ [Ne] 3s2 3p5 → p-electrons = 5 → Not equal to 6

A. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26):

Fe → [Ar] 3d6 4s2 → d-electrons = 6 → Equal

A. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10):

Ne → 2s2 2p6 → p-electrons = 6 → Equal

A. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12):

Mg → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 → s-electrons = 4 → Not equal (but only 1 choice allowed, see options)
The option that does not equal 6: p-electrons in Cl = 5

Final Answer : option (1)

56)

Explain Question: Given magnetic moment (μ) of M3+ ion is 5.92 BM, find how many
electrons are in its d-orbital of M.
Concept: Magnetic moment is given by the formula: BM
Solution:
Given:
So , After solving n = 5
⇒ The ion M has 5 unpaired electrons, which corresponds to a d5 configuration.
3+

Therefore, the neutral atom M must have 6d-electrons[(n - 1)d6 ns2 configuration], because M
has lost 3 electrons to form M3+.
Final Answer: Option 3

57) Figure given in option (d) follow the Hund's rule and Pauli exclusion principle.

58)

Explain Question : This question checks your understanding of electronic configuration

anomalies and stability of half-filled orbitals using chromium (Cr) as an example.

Concept : Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity

Solution : Expected configuration of Cr: [Ar] 3d4 4s2, Actual configuration of Cr: [Ar] 3d5
4s1
Reason: Half-filled d-orbitals (3d5) offer extra stability due to exchange energy and
symmetry.
Assertion (A) is correct: Cr has 3d5 4s1 ground state configuration.
Reason (R) is also correct: Half-filled orbitals do give extra stability.
Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Final Answer : option (1)

59)

Question Explanation

It asks whether the given configuration is correct and whether the reason provided (Aufbau
principle, Hund’s rule, Pauli’s principle) correctly explains it.

Concept
Electronic configuration rules.

Solution

Nitrogen (Z = 7): configuration = 1s² 2s² 2p³, it is based on all the three rules so, The reason
correctly explains why electrons fill this way.

Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

Final Answer→ Option (1)

60) Ground state configuration means lowest possible energy level of all electrons

61)

Question Explanation :
Given that particle A has a wavelength of 10 Å, find the wavelength of particle B whose
momentum is half that of particle A.
Concept :
According to de Broglie's hypothesis, wavelength λ is inversely proportional to momentum p:

If momentum decreases, wavelength increases proportionally.

Solution :

If PB = PA, then:

Since λA = 10 Å,

λB = 2 × 10 = 20 Å

Final Answer : Option (1) 20 Å

62)

K. E. = 2.8 × 10–23 J
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg

λ =

=
λ = 9.28 × 10–8 m.

63) Question Explanation :

Identify the incorrect statement among given options about quantum mechanics and atomic
structure.

Concept :
Hydrogen-like atoms (single-electron species): energy depends only on principal quantum
number (n).
Degeneracy: orbitals with same n (e.g., 2s and 2p) have the same energy.
Heisenberg uncertainty principle, de Broglie wavelength, and exchange energy rules are valid.

Solution :
Option 1: ΔE × Δt ≥ h/4π → Correct (Heisenberg uncertainty principle).
Option 2: Half-filled and fully filled orbitals more stable → Correct.
Option 3: Energy of 2s < 2p in hydrogen-like atoms → Incorrect
- For single-electron species: E2s = E2p (degenerate orbitals).
Option 4: de Broglie wavelength λ = h / (mv) → Correct.

Final Answer : option (3)

64) From (n + ℓ) Rule

65) Question Explanation:
Find valance electrons with same three quantum number.

Concept:
This question is based on quantum number.

Solution:
P = [Ne] 3s2 3p3

For AB → n ℓ M
XYZ → n, ℓ, s same

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4)

66)

(b) One orbital occupied maximum 2e–

(c) M shell n = 3, no. of e– = 2n2 = 2 × 32 = 18
(d) P = 1s22s22p63s23p3

l = 0 for s orbital, so 6e–, in s, so for 3e, s =

and for 3e, s =

67) 3py
n = 3, ℓ = 1 m = –1 or +1

68) For hydrogen the energy order of orbital is

1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f.

69) 24Cr → [Ar] 3d54s1; Cr2+ → [Ar] 3d4

5 2 + 5 1
25Mn → [Ar] 3d 4s ; Mn → [Ar] 3d 4s
8 2 2+
28Ni → [Ar] 3d 4s ; Ni → [Ar] 3d8
 V → [Ar] 3d34s2; V+ → [Ar] 3d34s1
23

70) Explain Question: Calculate atomic weight of intermediate element in Dobereiner’s triad.
Concept: This question is based on Dobereiner’s triad → middle atomic weight ≈ average of
extremes
Solution: Atomic weight of Y = (Atomic weight of X + Atomic weight of Z)/2
= (40 + 60)/2 = 100/2 = 50
Final Answer: 2

71) Explain Question:

Identify the element that was present in Mendeleev’s periodic table.

Concept:
This question is based on Mendeleev's periodic table.

Solution: Mendeleev's table included elements known at the time. Aluminium was discovered
at that time, while Scandium, Germanium, and Technetium were predicted by him but found
later.
Final Answer: option (3)

72) Explain Question:

Identify the elements corresponding to points A, B, and C.

Concept:
This question is based on Lothar Meyer Curve.

Solution: On this curve, alkali metals like Li occupy peaks (A). Alkaline earth metals like Mg
are on descending slopes or troughs (B). Halogens like Cl are on ascending slopes (C).
Final Answer: option (3)

73) Explain Question: Identify the set of correct statements about the periodic table.
Concept: This question is based on periodic table facts
Solution: The modern periodic table is based on atomic number, not weight, so (a) is
incorrect. Statements (b), (c), and (d) are all correct descriptions of element blocks and series.
Final Answer: 3

74)

Ans. (2)
(1) Period = 7 & group = 18
(2) number of valence shell electrons in a group are same.
(3) III–B group → 32 elements
14 + 14 + 4 = 32
Lanthanoids actinoids (Sc, Y, La, Ac)
(4) Lanthanides and actinides are placed in III–B group.

75) Explain Question: Determine the group number from the given electronic configuration.
Concept: d-block grouping

Solution: The element has configuration 3d54s2, meaning five d-electrons and two s-electrons.
For
transition metals, group number = (n-1)d-electrons + ns-electrons = 5 + 2 = 7.

Final Answer: Option (3)

76) Explain Question: What is the IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 120 ?
Concept: This question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature
Solution: The IUPAC systematic symbol is derived from the digits of the atomic number: 1
(un), 2 (bi), and 0 (nil), which combine to form the symbol Ubn.
Final Answer: 1

77)

Z = 37 to 54 belongs to 5th period.

group = 51 (Z) – 36 (previous inert gas)
= 15 (nitrogen family group)

78) Explain Question: Identify the incorrect match of configuration with block type.
Concept: This question is based on Electronic configuration and block classification
Solution: Transition elements are defined as having an incomplete d-subshell. The
configuration (n–1)d10ns2 represents elements like Zinc (Zn) and Cadmium (Cd), which have a
full d-subshell, and are therefore not considered transition elements.
Final Answer: 3

79) Explain Question: Arrange the given isoelectronic ions in order of increasing size.
Concept: This question is based on Ionic Radii
Solution: All species have 10 electrons. For isoelectronic ions, radius decreases as nuclear
charge (protons) increases. Cations are smaller than anions, so Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–.

Atomic/Ionic Radius ∝
Final Answer : 2

80) Explain Question: Find the radii of neutral K and F atoms.

Concept: This question is based on atomic and ionic radii
Solution: A neutral atom (K) is always larger than its cation (K+), and a neutral atom (F) is
always smaller than its anion (F–). Thus, K > 0.72 Å and F < 0.72 Å.
Final Answer: 4

81)

Explain the Question : Identify the false statement regarding periodic tends and effective
nuclear charge.
Concept : This question is based on periodic properties.
Solution : In a period, the screening effect increases because electrons are added to the same
shell.
Statement 3 is wrong.
Option-1 : Correct : according to salter's rules, Zeff changes almost constant down a group.
Option-2 : Correct : increasing nuclear charge pulls electrons closer, reducing the radius.
Option-4 : Correct : noble gases have the largest radii in their period due to vander waals
radii measurements.
Final answer : 3

82)

Concept

83)

Theoretical.

84) Explain Question: Arrange F, F–, O, O2– in correct order of atomic size.
Concept: This question is based on ionic and atomic radii
Solution: Adding electrons increases repulsion and size. O2– gains 2 electrons, making it
largest. F is smallest due to high nuclear charge with fewer electrons.

Atomic/Ionic Radius
Final Answer: 3

85) Explain Question: Identify the electrons that shield the outermost electron in aluminum.
Concept: This question is based on screening effect.
Solution: Aluminium has the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1. The screening
(shielding) of the outermost 3p electron is produced by all electrons in inner shells and
subshells, namely 1s2, 2sv, 2p6 and 3s2. Hence the screening is due to 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2.
Final Answer: 3

86) Explain Question: Determine if each of the four given chemical statements is true or
false.
Concept: This question is based on effective nuclear charge, electronic configuration.
Solution:
A. σ (screening constant) increases slightly (~0.35 ) across the 3rd period → True
B. Fe2+ has 6 d-electrons; Mg has 1s22s23s2 = 6 s-electrons in total → True
C. The noble gas of period 3 is argon (Ar) → True
D. IUPAC no longer uses “Group 0”; inert gases are Group 18 → False
Final Answer: 3. TTTF

87) Explanation : element having equal radius is asked.

Concept : lanthanoid & Zeff = σ
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

All have approx same size

 lanthanoid contraction
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

88)

Explain Question : Explaining why atomic size decreases across a periodic table period.

Concept : This question is based on effective nuclear charge, Atomic size.

Solution : Across a period, electrons enter the same shell while nuclear charge increases.
This stronger attraction (higher Zeff) pulls the electron shell closer, thus reducing atomic size,
So, Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

Final Answer : option (1)

89) Explain Question: Evaluate two statements on 4d and 5d element atomic radii.
Concept: This question is based on lanthanide contraction
Solution: Both statements are correct. The poor shielding by 4f electrons increases the
effective nuclear charge on 5d elements, making their radius similar to 4d elements.
Final Answer: 1

90) O–2 has larger size than F– due to its lower ENC value.

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question : The question asks who first classified plants into herbs, shrubs, and trees,
which refers to a morphological classification based on plant size a structure.

Concept : This question is based on Biological Classification : Introduction

Solution : The correct answer is 2 - Aristotle

Aristotle, the Greek philosopher, was one of the earliest to attempt biological classification.
He classified plants based on their morphology (external features) into:
Herbs – small, soft-stemmed plants
Shrubs – medium-sized, woody plants
Trees – large, woody plants

Final Answer : option (2) Aristotle

92) NCERT, Pg. # 11

93) NCERT (XI) page -10

 94)

Explain Question: Question asking about according to Whittaker, BGA are included in which
kingdom
Concept: Five Kingdom Classification-R.H. Whittaker
Solution:
All the prokaryotes are included in the Monera Kingdom. BGA are prokaryotes organisms ,so
BGA included in Monera
Final answer: Monera

95)

Allen module.

96)

Question Explanation: Question asks which feature is NOT used by R.H. Whittaker as a basis
for the five-kingdom classification system

Concept: Five Kingdom classification

Solution: Whittaker's used 5 criteria:

1. Cell type
2. Cell organization
3. Body organization
4. Mode of nutrition
5. Reproduction
He did not use reserve food materials as a criterion.

Final Answer: option (3)

97) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 16

98) NCERT Pg. # 17

99) NCERT XI, Page # 9, Para 1.3.3

100) Explanation:

A. Genus: Triticum (wheat)

B. Family: Poaceae (grass family)
C. Order: Poales
D. Class: Monocotyledonae (wheat is a monocot)

101)

NCERT [Link].-08
102)

NCERT [Link].-14

103)

NCERT XI Page # 11, Table 1.1

104)

Question explanation– The question asks to match common organisms in Column I with their
correct taxonomic order in Column II.

Concept – Based on Taxonomic categories

Solution – Correct Match of column-I with column-II :-

Column-I (Common name) Column- II (Taxonomic category order)

(a) Wheat IV (Poales)

(b) Mango III (Sapindales)

(c) Housefly II (Diptera)

(d) Man I (Primata)

Final answer – a - IV, b - III, c - II, d - I

105) Explain Question:

The question asks to correctly match the taxonomic classification of Mango (Mangifera indica).

Concept:
Taxonomic hierarchy of Mango

Solution:
(a) Class → (ii) Dicotyledonae
(b) Division→ (iii) Angiospermae
(c) Order → (iv) Sapindales
(d) Family → (i) Anacardiaceae

Final answer: Option (4)

106) Question Explanation – The question is asking to identify the correct statements
regarding taxonomy. Concept – Based on taxonomy and hierarchical categories. Solution –
(A) Family is a group of related genera with more number of similarities than genus and
species. → Incorrect.
Family has fewer similarities than genus and species. Genus and species are more specific, so
similarities are greater at those levels. (B) Every taxonomic category / Rank / Taxon represent
a unit of classification. → Correct. Each rank (species, genus, family, etc.) is a unit of
classification. Thus, only statement (B) is correct. Final answer – Option (2) only (B)

107)

Allen module.

108)

Explain Question :
The question asks: According to the Two Kingdom System of classification (by Linnaeus),
where are Chlamydomonas and Chlorella placed?

Concept :
This question is based on Two Kingdom System.

Solution :
The correct answer is 4 – Kingdom Plantae
In the two Kingdom system by Linnaeus, all autotrophic organisms (including unicellular algae
like Chlamydomonas and Chlorella) were placed under Kingdom Plantae, as only plants and
animals were recognized.

Final Answer : option (4) Kingdom Plantae.

109)

Allen module page no. 10

110)

Question Explanation: The question asks for the classification system that groups organisms
based on evolutionary relationships.

Concept: The Living World → Natural vs Phylogenetic (Evolutionary) Classification.

Solution: Phylogenetic system → Groups organisms according to evolutionary history and

common ancestry.

Final answer: Phylogenetic system

111)

NCERT Page No. 8

112) NCERT Page # 29

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 8

115) NCERT Pg. # 10

116)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 8

117)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 16-18

118)

NCERT page no.11

119)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 89-91

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 10

121) NCERT Page No 9.

122)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 8-10

123) Solution/Explanation :
Cart Woese proposed the Three-Domain System, classifying life into Bacteria, Archaea,
and Eukarya, based on genetic differences.

124) Solution/Explanation :
The Two-Kingdom System, proposed by Linnaeus, classifies organisms into Plantae (plants)
and Animalia (animals). Based on the presence or absence of a cell wall

125)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 8

126)
NCERT-XI; Page No. # 17

128)

Question Explanation: In which year did R.H. Whittaker proposed the five-kingdom
classification?

Concept: Five-kingdom system

Solution: Whittaker's well-known five-kingdom system (Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and
Animalia) was proposed in 1969.

Final Answer: option (3)

129) Solution : Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a scientific basis for classification.
Linnaeus followed with two kingdoms, Whittaker proposed five kingdoms in 1969, and Carl
Woese later proposed the three-domain system.
Final Answer : (1)

130)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 8-10

131)

Explain Question : The bacterial cell is very simple in A but very complex in B. You are to
select the correct pair (A and B) that completes this statement accurately

Concept : This question is based on Kingdom Monera

Solution : The correct answer is 4. A = Structure, B = Behaviour

Explanation: Bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour Bacteria
are structurally simple:
–No nucleus or membrane-bound organelles
Prokaryotic cell structure
So, A = Structure

Despite their simplicity, bacteria show complex behavior:

– Adaptation, resistance, gene exchange (conjugation, transformation)
So, B = Behaviour

Final Answer : option (4) A = Structure, B = Behaviour

132) Question Explanation: The question asks which scientist is correctly paired with their
contribution to classification.

Concept: Early classification systems (Aristotle, Linnaeus, Whittaker)

 Solution:

A. (1) Aristotle – phylogenetic relationships: Incorrect; Aristotle used simple morphological

characters.

B. (2) Whittaker – Two Kingdom system: Incorrect; Whittaker proposed the Five Kingdom
system.

C. (3) Linnaeus – Two Kingdom system: Correct; Linnaeus classified organisms into Plantae
and Animalia.

D. (4) Linnaeus – animals based on red blood: Incorrect; this was Aristotle’s criterion.

Final Answer: Option 3: Carolus Linnaeus – Developed a Two Kingdom system comprising Plantae
and Animalia

133)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 18

134)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 17

135) NCERT (XI) Page 12

136)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 104

137)

Correct answer: 1. (a), (b) and (d) only

Explanation

(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.

True — Bones form the framework of the body and protect internal organs (e.g., skull
protects brain, ribs protect heart/lungs).

(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones.

True — Limb bones like the femur and tibia bear the weight of the body.

(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.

True — Adipose tissue stores energy in the form of fat and provides insulation.
138)

Question Explanation: Which of the given statements about loose connective tissue are
correct?

Concept: The question is based on types and functions of connective tissues

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. (A) Correct – In loose connective tissue, cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi-
fluid ground substance.

B. (B) Correct – Areolar connective tissue supports epithelium beneath the skin.

C. (C) Correct – Adipose tissue is mainly located beneath the skin and stores fat.

All three statements are correct.

Final Answer: Option 1.

139)

Question Explanation: The question asks which structure is always found arranged in
bundles.

Concept: Types of fibres

Solution: Collagen fibres are characteristically present in the form of bundles, providing
tensile strength to tissues like tendons and ligaments.

Final answer: Option – 3

140) NCERT-XI, Pg # 103, Para.-7.1.2, Fig.-7.5(b)

141) NCERT-XI, Pg # 103, Para.-7.1.2 figure 7.4(a)

142) NCERT, Pg # 104

143)

Question explanation: Yellow, White & Reticular fibers made up of protein?

Concept: fiber of connective tissue.

Solution: The correct order of proteins making up the yellow, white, and reticular fibers is:
 A. Yellow fibers: Elastin

B. White fibers: Collagen

C. Reticular fibers: Reticulin

Final answer: Option (4)

144)

Fibroblast cells

145) Explaining : Tendons are dense regular connective tissue with collagen fibres,
connecting muscle to bone.
Final Answer : (1)

146)

Question explanation : The question is asking which connective tissue does not have cells
that secrete structural fibres like collagen, elastin or reticulin.

Concept : Connective tissue types

Solution : Blood is a connective tissue in which the cells do not secrete fibres. Other
connective tissues like bone, areolar and cartilage have cells that produce fibres.

Final answer : blood

147) Explain Question :

Identify the type of cartilage between vertebrae.

Concept :
This question is based on Connective Tissue.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 3, as white fibrocartilage is present between vertebrae.

A. Fibrocartilage is tough, dense, and rich in collagen fibers, which helps in shock absorption and
support.

Final answer: Option (3)

148) OLD NCERT XI Page # 103-104

149) Question explanation:

To identify the structure in bone where osteocytes are located.
Concept:
 Bone - Connective tissue.
Solution:
Bone matrix contains small cavities called lacunae which house osteocytes (mature bone cells).
These lacunae are interconnected by tiny channels called canaliculi for nutrient exchange.
Other options like osteoclast are cells, not spaces.
Final Answer:
Option (3)

150) NCERT-XII, Pg.#104

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104

152)

Question Explanation: The question checks whether the two statements about areolar tissue
are correct.

Concept: Types of connective tissue

Solution: Areolar tissue is correctly termed as a loose connective tissue, so Statement-I is

correct. However, in Statement-II it is mentioned that cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a
solid ground substance, which is incorrect. The ground substance of areolar tissue is semi-
fluid, not solid. So Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Final answer: Option 3

153) NCERT XI, Page # 48

154) Explain question: The question asks to count the number of phyla from a given list that
are both bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate.
Concept: Symmetry-Coelom-basis of classification of animals.
Solution:
only the phylum Platyhelminthes is both bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate.
The other phyla are either asymmetrical (Porifera), radially symmetrical (Cnidaria,
Ctenophora), or coelomate (Annelida).
Final answer: option (2)

155)

Explain Question :
Identify the correct statement regarding symmetry in phylum Echinodermata.
Concept : Symmetry
Solution : The correct answer is option 3 .

A. Echinodermata exhibits radial symmetry during one stage and bilateral symmetry during
another stage.

Larval stage: Bilateral symmetry

Adult stage: Radial symmetry

Final answer : 3

156) NCERT XI, Page # 40

Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during
embryonic development in some animals.

157) NCERT XI, Page # 43

Tissue level of organization- Coelenterata
Close circulatory system- Arteries, veins and capillaries
Chordate- Notochord present Psedocoelomate- Aschelminthes

158)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

159)

Question Explanation: Identifying the correct characteristic-phylum match.

Concept: Animal Classification Features.
Solution: Coelenterates (Cnidaria) are characterized by radial symmetry. Aschelminthes are
pseudocoelomates, not true coelomates. Molluscs do not exhibit true metamerism. Sponges
(Porifera) lack true germ layers and are considered the most primitive multicellular animals,
not triploblastic.

Final Answer: Option(1)

160)

NCERT Pg.#108

161) Explain the Question : This question is asking about identifying the phylum that shows
bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, a true coelom, and an open circulatory system.
Concept : This question is based on animal kingdom – characteristics of major phyla.
Solution : Arthropods are bilaterally symmetrical, show metameric segmentation, possess a
true coelom (reduced to haemocoel), and have an open circulatory system.
Final answer : 4

162)

Question Explanation: The question asks the term used for serial repetition of body
segments, each containing similar organs.

Concept: SEGMENTATION
 Solution: Metamerism is the phenomenon in which the body of an organism is externally and
internally divided into a series of similar, repeating segments, with each segment containing
atleast some similar organs arranged serially.

Final answer: Option 2

163) NCERT Reference: Biology-XI, Page No.- 49

164)

A. Annelida: This phylum is characterized by true metameric segmentation.

B. Arthropoda: Arthropods exhibit segmentation, but it is often more specialized, with

segments grouped into distinct body regions like the head, thorax, and abdomen.

C. Chordata: Chordates show segmentation primarily in the mesoderm during embryonic

development, forming structures which give rise to vertebrae, muscles, and nerves. In
adults, this segmentation is evident in the vertebral column and musculature.

Therefore, segmentation is present in 3 of the listed phyla.

The correct option is 2.

165)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct statements about Porifera.

Concept: Porifera
Solution: The correct statements are (i) commonly known as sponges , (iii)possess water
transport system , and (iv)body is supported by endoskeleton made up of spicules and
spongin fibres.

A. (ii) is incorrect: They are mostly marine andmostly asymmetrical.

B. (v) is incorrect: Fertilization is internal.

Final Answer: 3

166) NCERT XIth Pg.#49, Last Para

167) NCERT XI Pg.#40, Last Para

168) Question Explanation:

This question is asking about correctly classifying animal groups into coelomates,
pseudocoelomates, and acoelomates based on the type of body cavity present.

Concept :
Animal Kingdom – Classification based on body cavity (coelom).
 Explanation:
Coelomates possess a true coelom (Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms, Chordates).
Pseudocoelomates have a false coelom (Aschelminthes), while acoelomates lack a body cavity
(Platyhelminthes).

Final Answer: Option 4

169) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Reason is false. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body
divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : -
Final Answer : (4)

171)

Solution : The incorrect match is given in option 1.

A. In option (1) Phylum Platyhelminthes -

Coelom: Incorrect given – They are acoelomate

Segmentation: Absent
Notochord: Absent

Final Answer : (1) Platyhelminthes are acoelomate, not coelomate, so this is the incorrect
match.

172) Question Explanation: Completing a chart on animal [Link]: Animal

Body Plan
Solution: A. Porifera has a Cellular level of organization. B. Platyhelminthes have
Bilateral symmetry. C. Animals with no body cavity are called Acoelomate. D. The phylum
with a false coelom is Aschelminthes.
Final Answer: Option 3

173) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 46

174)

Sycon belongs to phylum Porifera. Sponges are multicellular animals with cellular level of
organization.

175) Solution/Explanation:
Spiculaes & spongih fibre form porifera skeleton
Ans 3
176)

Explanation / Solution:
Plasmodium, the parasite responsible for malaria, has an infectious spore-like stage called the
sporozoite in its life cycle.
• Sporozoites are transmitted from the mosquito's salivary glands into the human bloodstream
during a bite.
• They travel to the liver, where they infect liver cells and multiply before entering red blood
cells, continuing the malaria infection cycle.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

177) Explanation :
The question seeks to identify the correct classification of the organism responsible for
causing sleeping sickness in humans

Concept :
This question is based on Classification of protozoan parasites

Solution :
Trypanosoma is a flagellated protozoan, possessing a single flagellum for movement.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

178)

Question Explanation – The question asks about the characteristics of amoeboid protozoans.

Concept – Based on correct descriptions of amoeboid protozoans.

Solution – Amoeboid protozoans are found in fresh water, sea water, and moist [Link]
capture prey by forming pseudopodia (extensions of their cytoplasm).Marine forms (e.g.,
foraminiferans) have calcareous shells on their surface.

Final Answer – Option 4

179) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 18

180) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : a
Final Answer : (2)