E- mail : gpccnamakkal@[Link] Website : [Link].

com

Long Term & Regular –YEARWISE FULL TEST (1st Year)- (Answer Key)-04.04.26(AN)
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
PHYSICS Solution :
1. A body starts from rest with uniform AB = 1 cm
acceleration ‘a’ its velocity after ‘n’ seconds is 1
tAB = 15 min = hour
‘v’. The displacement of a body in last 3s 4
(assume total time of journey from 0 to n vb/r = 5 kmph
seconds) Speed of the boat along AB
v(6n  9) 2v(6n  9)
1) 2)
2n n
v2b  v2r
2v(n  1) 2v(n  1) r
3) 4)
n n
v(6n  9)
Ans : 1)
2n [Link] ground is v 2b  v r2 = vb
r
Solution :
AB = vb tAB
v 1 1v vn
a ; s n  an 2    n 2  AB  v 2b/r  v2r  t AB 
n 2 2n 2
1 1
s(n-3) = a(n  3)2 1  52  v 2r  
2 4
displacement in last 3s will be vr = 3 kmph
1 2 1  3. A particle moves along a straight line such
s = sn – sn-3 = an   a(n  3) 2  that its displacement at any time ‘t’ is
2 2 
3
s = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) meter’s the velocity
v (n  3)  when the acceleration is zero is
= n  
2 n 
1) 3 m/s 2) – 9 m/s
 6n  9  v 3) – 12 m/s 4) 4 m/s
= 
 n 2 Ans : 2) – 9 m/s
2. A boat has the speed of 5 kmph in still water Solution :
crosses a river of width 1 km in shortest ds
v = 3t2 – 12t + 3
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of dt
river in km/h is dv
a = 6t – 12
1) 3 2) 2 dt
3) 4 4) 41 a=0t=2
Ans : 1) 3 v = 3(2)2 – 12(2) + 3 = -9
 2
4. Which of the following pair of three forces 1) 30o 2) 60o
can give resultant as zero? 3) 90o 4) 45o
1) 1 N, 2N, 4 N 2) 5 N, 5 N, 15 N Ans : 4) 45o
3) 10 N, 20 N, 25 N 4) 8 N, 12 N, 24 N Solution :
Ans : 3) 10 N, 20 N, 25 N
R 
Solution : 4H = R tan    200, R  400 
2 
Fmax = 10 + 20 = 30
4(100) = 400 tan 
Fmin = 20 – 10 = 10
tan  = 1   = 45o
So, resultant of 10 N and 20 N can be
anywhere from 10 N to 30 N. 7. A bomb of mass 2 kg initially at rest explodes
So, resultant of 10 N and 20 N can be 25 N and breaks into three fragments of masses in
also. the ratio 1 : 1 : 3, the two pieces of equal mass
fly off perpendicular to each other with a
Hence resultant will be zero.
speed 15 m/s each the speed of heavier
5. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction
fragment is
make an angle 60o with horizontal direction
with velocity of 147 m/s. The time after which 1) 15 m/s 2) 45 m/s
its inclination with the horizontal is 45o is 3) 5 2 m/s 4) 10 2 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2)
Ans : 3) 5 2 m/s
1) 15 s 2) 10.98 s
Solution :
3) 5.38 s 4) 2.745 s
mv 2
Ans : 3) 5.38 s P1   (15) = 6 kgm/s
5 5
Solution :
m 2
vy P2  v  (15) = 6 kg m/s
tan   5 5
vx  
Resultant of P1 & P2 = 2P  2 x 6  6 2
u sin   gt
tan 45o  From conservation of linear momentum
u cos    
u sin 60o – gt = u cos 60o P1  P2  P3  0

3
P2
1
147 x - 10 t = 147   P12
2 2
147
2
 
3  1 = 10 t P1

147  0.732  P3
t   = 5.38 sec 
2  10  2
P3  m3 v3  3 x v
6. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed ‘u’ 5
  
at an angle  with horizontal. It just crosses a P3  (P1  P2 )  6 2
tower horizontally at its maximum height. The
6v
tower is 100 m high and the foot of the tower 6 2
is at 200 m from the point of projection. The 5
angle of projection  is v  5 2 m/s
 3
8. Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. mv 2
If they are moving at the same initial speed, For B, N – mg =
R
the minimum stopping distance
1) is smaller for heavier car
2) is smaller for lighter car
3) is same for both cars
4) depens on the volume of car
Ans : 3) is same for both cars
Solution : mv 2
N = mg +
m1g R
Deceleration of car 1, a1   g
m1 mv 2
mg 
m 2 g NA R
Deceleration of car 2, a 2   g 
m2 NB mv 2
mg 
R
Both a1 = a2 so, both car’s have same stopping
distance. gR  v2 10 x 20  100 100
=  
1 gR  v 2 10 x 20  100 300
W = KE  mgd = mu 2
2 NA 1
2

u NB 3
d (u is same,  is same)
2g 10. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is displaced from
9. Two identical cars A and B are moving at 36 position r1 (2, 3, 1)m to r2 (4, 3, 2)m by
kmph. A goes on a bridge convex upward and applying a force of magnitude 30 N which is
B on concave upward. If the radius of acting along (iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ the work done by the
curvature of bridge is 20 m, the ratio of
force is
normal forces exerted on the car’s when they
are at middle of the bridge (g = 10 m/s2) 1) 10 3 J 2) 30 3 J
1) 1 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 30 J 4) 15 J
3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 5
Ans : 2) 30 3 J
Ans : 1) 1 : 3
Solution : Solution :
Unit vector corresponding to
mv 2
For A, mg – N = ˆi  ˆj  kˆ
R ˆi  ˆj  kˆ is
N 3
30 ˆ ˆ ˆ
So, (i  j  k)  10 3 (iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ
A 3
  
W = F.r = F.(r2  r1 )

mg W = 10 3(iˆ  ˆj  k).(2i
ˆ ˆ  k)
ˆ

W = 10 3 (2  1)  30 3 J
mv 2
N = mg -
R
 4
11. A 2 kg block slides on horizontal floor with 13. A ball is dropped onto a fixed horizontal
speed of 5 m/s. If strikes an uncompressed surface from a height ‘h’. The coefficient of
spring and compresses it till the block is restitution is ‘e’. The average speed of the ball
motionless. The kinetic frictional force is 15 N is
and spring constant is 20 N/m. The spring 1  e gh  1  e2  gh
1) 2)  2 
compressed by 1 e 2  1 e  2
1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m (1  e) 2
1  e2 gh gh
3) 3 m 4) 2 m 3) 4)
(1  e) 2 2 1  e2 2
Ans : 2) 1 m
1  e2 gh
Solution : Ans : 3)
(1  e) 2 2
(KE)ini = (PE)SP + (W)f
Solution :
1 1
(2)52  (20)x 2  15x Average speed =
total dis tan ce
2 2 total time
10x2 + 15x – 25 = 0
 (1  e 2 ) 
2x2 + 3x – 5 = 0 H 2 
=  (1  e ) 
3  9  40 3  7 2H  1  e 

2x2 4  
g  1 e 
3  7 3  7
= , = 1 (or) – 2.5  1  e2 gh
4 4  v 
(1  e)2 2
12. A car starts from rest along straight level
R
frictionless road by an engine delivering 14. A uniform disc of diameter is put over
2
constant power, then velocity is directly
another uniform disc of diameter R of same
proportional to thickness and density, the peripheries of the
1 two discs touch each other. The centre of mass
1) t 2)
t of the system from centre of big disc is
3) t 4) t3/2 R R
1) 2)
10 20
Ans : 3) t 9R 11R
3) 4)
Solution : 10 10
P = Fv R
Ans : 2)
P = mav 20
dv p Solution :
P= m .v  vdv  dt
dt m Mass  Area
v t
p R2 R2
m1   , m2  
0 vdv  0 m dt 4 16
R2 R
v2 p m2d
x
R
 t  v t
2 m x cm  = 16
2
4 ; xcm =
m1  m 2 R R2 20

4 16
 5
15. Identify the increasing order of radius of 2 2
1) 2)
gyration of following bodies of same radius 3 5
I) About natural axis of circular ring 2 2
3) 4)
II) About diameter of circular ring 8 7
III) About diameter of circular plate 2
Ans : 4)
IV) About diameter of solid sphere 7
1) II, III, IV, I 2) III, II, IV, I Solution :
3) III, IV, II, I 4) II, IV, III, I tan 
Ans : 3) III, IV, II, I 
 R2 
Solution : 1  2 
k 
Conceptual
1 2
16. A particle of mass 5 g is moving with uniform   
5 7
speed of 3 2 cm/s in the xy plane along the 1
2
line y = x + 4. Magnitude of its angular
18. Gravitational potential energy of mass ‘m’
momentum about origin is g cm2s-1 is
placed at centre of earth is (If mass of the
1) zero 2) 30
earth is M and radius is R)
3) 30 2 4) 60
GMm
Ans : 4) 60 1) 2) 0
R
Solution :
GMm 3 GMm
L = mvr 3) 4) 
2R 2 R
4 3 GMm
x+ Ans : 4) 
= 2 R
y
Solution :
(0, 4)
3 GM
v(C) = 
2 R
(0, 0) u=vxm
(-4, 0)
3 GMm
4 u= 
r  4 cos 45  2 R
2
19. An object is taken to a height 3R above the
|004| 4 surface of earth. The increase in potential
r  
2 2 energy is (R is radius of earth)
 4  mgR 5
L  5(3 2)   1) 2) mgR
 2 3 4
L = 60 CGS unit 2 3
3) mgR 4) mgR
17. A solid sphere rolls down without slipping on 3 4
an inclined plane of inclination 45o. The 3
minimum coefficient of static friction to Ans : 4) mgR
4
support pure rolling is
 6
Solution :
mgh mg(3R)
u  
h 3R
1 1
R R
3
u = mgR A A
4 sin =  A' 
A' sin 
20. There are four point masses ‘m’ each on the
corners of a square side length l. What is the Fcos 
Shearing stress =
moment of inertia of the system about one of A'
its diagonals? F cos .sin 
Shearing stress =
1) 2 ml2 2) ml2 A
22. A steel wire is stretched by 1 [Link]. If the
3) 4 ml2 4) 6 ml2
radius of the wire is double, its Young’s
Ans : 2) ml2
modulus will
Solution :
1) remain unchanged
I = m(AO)2 + m(OC)2
2) becomes half
3) become double
4) become four times
Ans : 1) remain unchanged
2 2 Solution :
 l   l 
I = m   m  Conceptual
 2  2
23. The cylindrical tube of spray pump has radius
I = ml2
R, one end of which has ‘n’ fine holes, each of
21. Two equal and opposite forces F and F act on radius ‘r’ of the speed of liquid in a tube is ‘v’,
a rod of uniform cross sectional area A, as the speed of the ejection of the liquid through
shown in the figure. Find the shearing stress the hole is
on the section AB.
v2R vR 2
1) 2)
nr n 2r 2
vR 2 vR 2
3) 4)
nr 2 n3r 2
Fsin  cos  F
1) 2) vR 2
A A cos  Ans : 3)
nr 2
F cos  Fsin  Solution :
3) 4)
A A Equation of continuity, A1v1 = A2v2
Fsin  cos 
Ans : 1) R2v = nr2v2
A
vR 2
Solution : v2 =
nr 2
 7
24. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a 26. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3 cm
viscous liquid. As a result heat is produced and another soap bubble in vacuum has a
due to viscous force. The rate of production of radius of 4 cm. If the two bubbles coalesce
heat when the sphere attains its terminal under isothermal condition, then the radius of
velocity is proportional to new bubble is
1) r3 2) r2 1) 2.3 cm 2) 4.5 cm
3) r5 4) r4 3) 5 cm 4) 7 cm
5
Ans : 3) r Ans : 3) 5 cm
Solution : Solution :
dQ  2r 2  r  r12  r22 = 9  16 = 5 cm
 Fv v T  vT  (  )g 
dt  9  27. A glass is full of water at 4oC when it is
= 6rvT x vT ( vT  r2) a) cooled b) heated then, which one of the
dQ following is correct?
 r v T2
dt 1) water level decreases, increases
dQ 2) water level increases, decreases
 r r 4  r5
dt 3) water level decreases, decreases
25. A large number of water drops each of radius 4) water overflow in both cases
‘r’ combine to have a drop of radius R. If the Ans : 4) water overflow in both cases
surface tension is T and mechanical equivalent
Solution :
of heat is J, then the rise in temperature will be
Due to Anamalous expansion of water at 4oC
2T 3T
1) 2) water occupies minimum volume.
rJds RJds
28. If 10 g of ice at 0oC is mixed with 10 g of
3T  1 1  2T  1 1  water at 10oC. The final temperature is (Lice =
3)    4)   
Jds  r R  Jds  r R  80 cal/g)
3T  1 1  1) 2.5oC 2) 0oC
Ans : 3)   
Jds  r R  3) 5oC 4) 7.5oC
Solution : Ans : 2) 0oC
1 1  Solution :
T4R 3     (ms)J
r R Q1 = mL = 800 cal
1 1  4  Q2 = ms t = 10 x 1 x 10 cal
T4R 3       R 3  (s) J
r R 3  Q1 > Q2 So t = 0oC
1 1  29. Six identical conducting rods are joined as
3T     (s)J
r R shown in figure. Points A and D are
maintained at temperatures 200oC and 20oC
Rise in temperature
respectively. The temperature of junction B
3T  1 1 
     will be
Jsd  r R 
 8
32. The molar heat capacity in a process of a
Q
diatomic gas if it does a work of when a
4
1) 120oC 2) 100oC heat of Q is supplied to it is
3) 140oC 4) 80oC 2 5
1) R 2) R
Ans : 3) 140oC 5 2
Solution : 10 6
3) R 4) R
Let R is thermal resistance 3 7
RAB = R 10
Ans : 3) R
RBD = 2R 3
If temperature of junction B is T Solution :
200  T T  20
Then,  5
R 2R dU = nCVdT =   R(dT)
o
2
T = 140 C
2 dU
30. Choose the correct graph which represents dT 
Wein’s displacement law (symbols have their 5 R
usual meaning) From 1st law, dU = dQ – dW
Q 3Q
= Q 
4 4
1) 2)
dQ Q
So, C  
dT  2dU 
 
 5R 
5 QR 10
3) 4) Both (1) & (3) C  R
2  3Q  3
 
 4 
Ans : 4) Both (1) & (3)
33. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
Solution :
pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is
mT = constant (hyperbola)
1) 5 : 3 : 2 2) 5 : 2 : 3
So both (1) & (3)
3) 7 : 5 : 2 4) 7 : 5 : 3
31. Newton’s law of cooling is applied in
laboratory for the determination of Ans : 3) 7 : 5 : 2
1) specific heat of gases Solution :
2) latent heat of gases Q : U : W
3) specific heat of liquids = nCPT : nCVT : n(CP – CV)T
4) latent heat of liquids CP C  CV
= :1: P
Ans : 3) specific heat of liquids CV CV
Solution :
=  : 1 : ( - 1)
Using Newton’s law of cooling specific heat
capacities of different liquids can be 7 2
= :1:  7 : 5 : 2
calculated. 5 5
 9
34. A container is filled with 20 moles of an ideal 36. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule
diatomic gas at absolute temperature T. When can be determined by knowing
heat is supplied to gas, temperature remains 1) the number of molecules in the gas
constant but 8 moles dissociates into atoms. 2) the pressure of the gas only
Heat energy given to gas is 3) the temperature of the gas only
1) 3 RT 2) 4 RT 4) volume of the gas
3) 6 RT 4) 5 RT Ans : 3) the temperature of the gas only
Ans : 2) 4 RT
Solution :
Solution :
KE  Temperature
Heat supplied U = Ufinal - Uinitial
37. The mean free path of molecules of gas
 f  (radius ‘r’) is inversely proportional to
 U  nRT 
 2  1) r3 2) r2
5 3) r 4) r
Uinitial = 20 (RT) = 50 RT
2 2
Ans : 2) r
5 3
Ufinal = (20 – 8) RT + (2) (8) RT Solution :
2 2
1
= 54 RT m  ( d = 2r)
2 nd 2
U = 54 RT – 50 RT
1
= 4 RT m 
r2
35. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure
38. A particle is executing SHM along a straight
P and absolute temperature T obeys P  T3
line. Its velocity at x1 and x2 displacements
during adiabatic process, the adiabatic bulk
from the mean positions are v1 and v2
modulus of the gas is
respectively. Its time period is
2
1) P 2) P x12  x 22 x 22  x12
3 1) 2 2 2) 2 2
v1  v 22 v1  v 22
3
3) P 4) 2P
2 v12  v 22 v12  v 22
3) 2 2 4) 2 2
3 x1  x 22 x1  x 22
Ans : 3) P
2
x 22  x12
Solution : Ans : 2) 2
v12  v 22
P1- T = constant
 Solution :
1
PT = constant v   A 2  x 2  v2 = 2(A2 – x2)
 3
Given,  3    v12 = 2 (A2 – x12)
1  2
v22 = 2  A 2  x 22 
3
Adiabatic bulk modulus k = P = P
2 v 22  v12  2  x12  x 22 
 10
v 22  v12 x12  x 22 n1l1  n 2 l2
  T  2  Ans : 1)
x12  x 22 v 22  v12 2(n 2  n1 )
Solution :
x2  x2
(or) T  2 22 12
v1  v 2 v
l1 + 2e =
n1
39. The time period of a particle in SHM is 8 sec.
At t = 0 it is at the mean position the ratio of v
l2 + 2e =
the distances travelled by it in the first and in n2
the second second is
n1(l1 + 2e) = n2(l2 + 2e)
1 1
1) 2) n1l1 – n2l2 = 2e(n2 – n1)
2 2
1 n1l1  n 2 l2
3) 2 4) e
2(n 2  n1 )
2 1
1 41. Assertion : The change in air pressure effect
Ans : 4)
2 1 the speed of sound.
Solution : Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is
y = A sin t, T = 8 proportional to square root of absolute
2 A temperature.
t = 1, y = A sin x1 , y 
8 2 1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
2 reason is the correct explanation of the
t = 2, y = A sin x 2, y = A
8 assertion
Distance in 2nd second, 2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
 2 1  reason is not the correct explanation of the
A
A  A   assertion
2  2 
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
A 4) Assertion is incorrect, but reason is correct
y1 2 1
  Ans : 4) Assertion is incorrect, but reason is
y 2  A( 2  1)  2 1
  correct
 2 
Solution :
40. In a pipe open at the both ends n1 and n2 be the
frequencies corresponding to vibrating air Speed of sound is independent of pressure
column lengths l1 and l2 respectively. The end P
because v  . At constant temperature, if
correction is 
n1l1  n 2 l2 n 2 l2  n1l1 P
1) 2) P changes then  also changes. So, ratio
2(n 2  n1 ) 2(n 2  n1 ) 
n 2 l2  n1l1 n1l1  n 2 l2 constant so, no effect of pressure as speed of
3) 4)
2(n1  n 2 ) (n1  n 2 ) sound. Speed of sound is proportional to
square root of absolute temperature.
 11
42. Match Column- I and Column – II. 9
1VSD = MSD
Column – I Column - II 10
LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
A) Velocity gradient P) M0L0T-1
9
B) Linear mass Q) ML-1T-1 1 MSD  MSD
10
density
1
0 -1 0 LC = MSD
C) Rydberg constant R) ML T 10
D) Coefficient of S) ML-1T0 1mm
LC = = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm
viscosity 10
l = MSR + VC x LC
1) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D - S
= 6.4 + 8(0.01) = 6.48 cm
2) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D - P
44. Which of the following groups has different
3) A – Q, B – R, C – P, D - S
dimensions?
4) A – P, B – S, C – R, D - Q 1) potential difference, emf, voltage
Ans : 4) A – P, B – S, C – R, D - Q 2) pressure, stress, young’s modulus
Solution : 3) heat, energy, work done
dv 4) dipole moment electric flux, electric fields
Velocity gradient = M0L0T-1
dx Ans : 4) dipole moment electric flux, electric
Mass fields
Linear mass density = = ML-1T0
length Solution :
Rydberg constant = M0L-1T0 A) V = M1L2T-3 = Voltage = emf
F B) Pressure stress, Young’s modulus
Coefficient of viscosity   A = ML-1T-1 =M1L2T-2
dV
dx C) Heat, energy, work done = M1L2T-2
43. Length of 9 MSD of vernier calipers are equal D) Dipole moment = L1T1A1
to 10 VSD and 1 MSD = 1mm. For measuring Electric flux = M1L3T-3A-1
the length of rod, reading on main scale is 6.4 Electric field = M1L3T-3A-1
cm and 8th division on Vernier scale is 45. Four persons A, B, C and D initially at corners
coinciding with marking on main scale of square of side length ‘d’, if each person
division. There is no zero error then find out starts moving with same speed ‘v’ such that A
length of rod. towards B, B towards C, C towards D the
1) 6.23 cm 2) 6.58 cm persons will meet after a time
3) 6.48 cm 4) 6.83 cm d 2d
1) 2)
Ans : 3) 6.48 cm v v
d d
Solution : 3) 4)
2v 2v
10 VSD = 9 MSD
 12
d 1) 2035 kJ mol–1 2) 1017.5 kJ mol–1
Ans : 1)
v 3) –2035 kJ mol–1 4) –1017.5 kJ mol–1
Solution : Ans : 3) –2035 kJ mol–1
Solution :
3
2M (s)  O(g)  M 2 O3(s)  1273 kJ --- (i)
2
1
H 2(g)  O(g)  H 2 O( l )  286 kJ --- (ii)
v 2
v1 = v cos 45o =
2 44 kJ  H 2O ( l )  H 2O (g) --- (iii)
d 36 kJ  2M (s)  3H 2(g)  M 2 H 6(g) --- (iv)
t
OA
 2  td
H = i + 3 (ii) + 3 (iii) – (iv)
v1  v  v
  H = –1273 – 858 + 132 – 36
 2
= –2035 kJ mol–1
CHEMISTRY
46. How many significant figures should be 48.
present in the mass of CaCO3 is required to
react completely with 25 mL of 0.75M HCl?
Correct statement is
1) one 2) four
1) W, Y are homomers
3) three 4) five
2) X, Z are positional isomers
Ans : 2) four
3) W, Y are functional isomers
Solution :
4) X, Z are homomers
CaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)CaCl2(aq)+ H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Ans : 4) X, Z are homomers
 W  N  Vml
  = Solution :
 GEW CaCO3 1000
W is
W  0.75  1  25

50 1000
W = 0.9375g
47. A compound M2H6 undergoes combustion 49. Correct match among the following is
according to the reaction ; IUPAC Symbol Element belongs to
M2H6(g) + 3O2(g) M2O3(s) + 3H2O(g), from the A) Unu i) s-block
following data, calculate the enthalpy change
B) Une ii) p-block
for the combustion of M2H6.
C) Uus iii) d-block
3
2M (s)  O(g)  M 2 O3(s)  1273 kJ D) Ubn iv) f-block
2
1 1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
H 2(g)  O(g)  H 2 O( l )  286 kJ
2 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
44 kJ  H 2O ( l )  H 2O (g) 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
36 kJ  2M (s)  3H 2(g)  M 2 H 6(g) 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
Ans : 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
 13
Solution : Solution :
Unu (101)  f-block
Une (109)  d-block
Uus (117)  p-block
Ubn (120)  s-block
50. Dipole moment of NH3 is X than NF3,
52. Statement I : H+ ion concentration in H2SO4
o-nitrophenol boiling point is Y than
[PH = 3] is 103N.
p-nitro phenol and n+l value of 4d subshell is
Statement II : The normality of the resulting
Z to 5p subshell.
solution which is formed by mixing of 0.1N,
1) X = lesser, Y = greater, Z = equal
200 mL H2SO4 and 0.1N, 100 mL of Ba(OH)2
2) X = lesser, Y = lesser, Z = equal
1
3) X = greater, Y = lesser, Z = equal is .
3
4) X = greater, Y = greater, Z = equal
1) Both statements I and II are correct
Ans : 3) X = greater, Y = lesser, Z = equal 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Solution : 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
 NH3   NF3 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
OH OH Ans : 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
NO2 Solution :
Boiling point of pH = log [H+]  [H+]
N  = 10pH = 103
N V  N 2 V2 20  10 1
NO2 Ne = 1 1 = =
V1  V2 300 30
Subshell energy  n + l  4d and 5p
53. Match the column I with column II
= 4 + 2, 5+1
=6 =6 Column I Column II
51. Which of the following molecule can exhibit
Geometrical isomerism? Subshell with
I A
one radial node
1)
Subshell with
2) 2-Methyl -2-butene
II B two angular
nodes
3)

A subshell
4) III C which has three
orientation

Ans : 4)
 14
Solution :
Subshell with
3Mg + N2  Mg3N2 - Combination
IV D energy (n + l)
Cl2 + 2KI  2KCl + I2 - Non metal
value = 1
displacement
I II III IV PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 - Decomposition
1) D A C B 3HNO2  HNO3 + 2NO + H2O –
2) D A B C Disproportination reaction
3) D C B A 55. In the reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) 2AB3(g), the
entropies in (J k–1 mol–1) of A2(g), B2(g) and
4) A B D C
AB3(g) are 190, 130 and 195 respectively and
Ans : 2) D A B C enthalpy change for the reaction is –95 kJ/mol.
Solution : The temperature at which the reaction
spontaneous is
1) 500 K 2) 400 K
3) 1300 K 4) 600 K
Ans : 2) 400 K
Solution :
A2(g) + 3B2(g) 2AB3(g)
S = 2 x SAB3 –  SA 2  3SB2 
= 2 x 195 – [190 + 3 x 130]
dxy pz = –190 J K–1 mol–1
54. Choose the correct matching H = –95 kJ/mol
Column – I (Reaction) G = H - TS
i) 3Mg + N2  Mg3N2 H 95 x103
Teq = 
ii) Cl2 + 2KI  2KCl + I2 S 190
iii) PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 Teq = 500 K
If S is –ve, H is –ve then the reaction is
iv) 3HNO2  HNO3 + 2NO + H2O
spontaneous at below equilibrium temperature.
Column – II (Type of redox reaction) 56. IUPAC name of
A) Non metal displacement
B) Decomposition
should be
C) Combination
D) Disproportination reaction
1) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
1) 5-Bromo-3-carbamoyl-2-chlorocarbonyl-4-
2) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
formylhexanoic acid
3) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
2) 2-Bromo-4-carbamoyl-5- chlorocarbonyl-3-
4) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B formylhexanoic acid
Ans : 3) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
 15
3) 2- chlorocarbonyl-3-carbamoyl-4-formyl-5- 59. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion
bromohexanoic acid from (10 atm, 1L) to (1atm, 10L) either by
4) 4-Formyl-2- chlorocarbonyl-3-carbamoyl- path –I [infinite stage expansion] or by path –
II [first against 5 atm and then against 1atm)
5-bromohexanoic acid
 q path  I 
Ans : the value of   is
1) 5-Bromo-3-carbamoyl-2-chlorocarbonyl-4-  q path II 
formylhexanoic acid 1) 1.77 2) 0.56
Solution : 3) 0.177 4) 5.6
Ans : 1) 1.77
Solution :
V2
2.303PV log
q path  I (rev)  w rev V1
 
q path  II (irri)  w irri (PV)1  (PV) 2
5-Bromo-3-carbamoyl-2-chlorocarbonyl-4-
 10 
formylhexanoic acid 10 x1 x 2.303 x log  
=  1   10 x 2.303 = 1.77
57. The standard hydrolysis constant of anilinium
5(2  1)  1(10  2) 13
acetate Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.8 x 10-5 M, Kb
60. A mixture of XHC2O4 and YHC2O4.H2C2O4
(Aniline) = 4.6 x 10-10 M at 25oC is
required equal volumes of 0.2N KMnO4 and
1) 1 2) 1.21 0.12N NaOH separately. The molar ratio of
3) 1.35 4) 2.6 x 10-2 YHC2O4.H2C2O4 and XHC2O4 in the mixture
Ans : 2) 1.21 is? [X, Y are having outermost electronic
Solution : configuration of ns1]
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 6
Kw
Kh = 3) 6 : 1 4) 1 : 3
Ka x Kb
Ans : 4) 1 : 3
1.0 x 1014 Solution :
=
1.8 x105  4.6 x1010  Let the number of moles of XHC2O4 and
= 1.21 YHC2O4.H2C2O4 are a, b
58. Which of the following is incorrect order? N1V1(L)  n2 x nf2

1) Al < Al+ < Al2+ (Ionisation energy) KMnO4 (vs) XHC2O4 + YHC2O4.H2C2O4
2) Cl– < S2– < P3– (Ionic radii) 0.2 x V = a x 2 + b x 4  2a + 4b ----(1)
NaOH (vs) XHC2O4 + YHC2O4.H2C2O4
3) B < C < S < I (Electronegativity)
0.12 x V = 1 x a + 3 x b  a + 3b ----(2)
4) Ne > Kr > Xe > He (Magnitude of egH)
From (1) / (2)
Ans : 3) B < C < S < I (Electronegativity)
2a  4b 0.2V 5
Solution :  
a  3b 0.12V 3
Order of electronegativity: 6a + 12b = 5a + 15b
B<C=S=I b
2 2.5 2.5 2.5
a = 3b   1: 3
a
 16
61. The molecular formula of the compound,
which contains 6 x 1023 atoms of carbon,
22.4L of H2 gas at STP and 16g of oxygen
atom can be
Ans : 4)
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3OCH3
3) CH3COOH 4) CH3CH2OH
Ans : 3) CH3COOH
Solution : Solution :

6 x 1023 atoms  C1 Structure (4) carbocation does not have octet

configuration.
22.4L H2 (STP)  H2 EF is CH2O
16g of oxygen  O Stability of RS  Number of bonds

MF can be CH3COOH
62. Identify the incorrect combination in the
following
64.
1) Hypo-valent molecules  AlCl3, BeCl2
2) Odd electron molecule  NO, NO2
3) Super octet molecules  PF5, SF6 Identify incorrect statement about electrophilic
4) Octet molecules  SF4, XeF2 substitution and Benzene?
Ans : 4) Octet molecules  SF4, XeF2 1) P has meta directing group
Solution : 2) Q has o & p-directing group
SF4, XeF2 are does not obey’s octet rule. 3) -electron density : P > Q > R
63. Which among the following is less stable 4) Reactivity towards ESR : Q > R > P
resonating structure of p-nitro phenol?
Ans : 3) -electron density : P > Q > R
Solution :
COOH
P is and Q is
1) 2)
65. What is the oxidation state of ‘A’ in the
molecule ABO3, in which oxidation state of
‘B’ is equal to the lowest oxidation state of
individual ‘Br’ in Br3O8? [Group valency of
‘A’ is 7]

3) 4) 1) 4 2) 2
3) 2.5 4) 7
Ans : 2) 2
 17
Solution : 3
AB3(g)  A(g) + B2(g)
2
Br3O8 : 300 0 0
3
300-p p p
Lowest oxidation state of individual 2
Br is 4 3 3
PT = 300 – p + p + p = 300 + p = 650
Then, ABO3 2 2
x+4–6=0 700
p= = 233 (approx.)
x=2 3
66. Which is the incorrect reaction? 233
=  100
300
1) α = 77.7%
68. ‘X’ mole of photons would contain sufficient
energy to raise the temperature of 100gr of
water from 75oC to 100oC. The value of ‘X’ is
[Specific heat of water is 4.18 J g–1 k–1 and
2)
frequency of light used is 1.0 x 1010 Hz]
1) 3.8 x 10–4 2) 2618
Br
3) 1577 x 1024 4) 15.77 x 1020
3) Br2/H2O
Ans : 2) 2618
OH Solution :
E = mC T
4) E = 100 x 4.18 x 25 = 10,450 Joule
E = nh
E 10450
n= 
Ans : 4) h 6.625 x1034 x1010
= 1577 x 1024
Solution :
n 1577 x1024
Addition of Br2 / CCl4 is anti-addition X = moles of photon = 
No 6.023 x1023
3
67. AB3(g) dissociates as AB3(g)  A(g) + B2(g). If = 2618
2
the initial pressure of AB3 is 300 torr and the 69. The IE1 of 2nd period elements plotted against
total pressure developed at equilibrium is 650 atomic numbers shown below
torr, what fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated?
1) 22.3% 2) 77.7%
3) 25% 4) 50%
Ans : 2) 77.7%
Solution :
 18
Select the correct option about X, Y, Z and A
1) X, Y are Be, N respectively 71.
2) Z, A are N, F respectively
3) X, Y, Z are Be, N, C respectively
4) Y, A are N, F respectively
A, B and C are in the given equation
Ans :
respectively
2) Z, A are N, F respectively
1) 2-bromo-2, 3-dimethyl butane, 2, 2-
Solution : dimethyl propanoic acid, isobutane
IE1 order of second period elements is
2) 2-bromo-3, 3-dimethylbutane and 2, 2-
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne dimethyl propanoic acid, ethane
3) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-bromo butane and ethanoic
acid, isobutane
4) 2-bromo-2, 3-dimethyl butane and 2, 2-
dimethyl propanoic acid, ethane
Ans : 4) 2-bromo-2, 3-dimethyl butane and 2,
2-dimethyl propanoic acid, ethane
Solution :

70. Select the true statement from the following

a) Ca, Sr, Ba are Dobereiner triads
b) Eka – aluminium is Germanium and
Eka – silicon is Gallium
c) According to Newland octaves Be and Mg
have similar properties
d) Dubnium (Db) is the official IUPAC name
of an element with atomic number of 108
1) a, b, c, d 2) Only a and c
3) only a and b 4) Only b and d 72. Choose the incorrect graph from the given
Ans : 2) Only a and c below.

Solution :
Eka – aluminium  Gallium
1)
Eka – Silicon  Germanium
Z  105  Dubnium
 19
Solution :
NaOH CaO
CH3CH2CH2COONa  
2)
CH3CH2CH3 + Na2CO3
 8
C3 H8(g)   3   O 2(g)  3CO 2  4H 2 O( l )
propane  4
74. Given that,
Ksp of AB2 = 4  109 M3
3)
Ksp of AB3 = 2.7  1011 M4
Ksp of AB4 = 2.56  1018 M5
Calculate the solubility of the salt [which has
lowest solubility from given above] in 0.2M
XB2 salt solution?
4)
[Assume that ‘B’ in all given compounds is
uninegative ion]
1) 108M 2) 1014M
3) 1016M 4) 1015M
Ans : 3) 1016M
Ans : 4)
Solution :
1
 K sp AB2  3
Ksp AB2 sS   
 4 
Solution :
1
 4  109  3 3
  = 10 M
 4 
1
 K sp AB3  4
Ksp AB3 sS   
 27 
1
NaOH  CaO
73. X 

 Y  Na 2 CO3 .  2.7  1011  4 3
(Alkane)   = 10 M
 27 
One mole of ‘Y’ in the given reaction on
1
complete combustion required 5 moles of  2.56  1018  5
oxygen. Then compound ‘X’ is Ksp AB4 sS  
 256 
1) Sodium ethanoate = (1020)1/5 = 104M
2) Sodium propanoate So ‘S’ of AB4 is less
3) Sodium butanoate Hence
4) Sodium farmate Ksp AB4 = [A+4][B]4 = S(S + 0.4)4 = S(0.4)4
K sp AB4 2.56 1018
Ans : 3) Sodium butanoate S= 4   4 = 1016 M
4
4  10 256 10
 20
75. According to photo electric effect concept, Ans : 1) (A) is false (R) is true
which of the following is incorrect? Solution :
1) Number of electrons ejected increases with In the equilibrium process H2O(s)  H2O(l), If
increase in brightness of incident light
pressure of the system increases, more
quantity of water is present and boiling point
of water increase.
2) Density of ice less than density of water,
hence increase in pressure, equilibrium shifted
towards forward direction.
electrons are ejected from both metal A and B 77. N2 and O2 are converted into mono cations,
3) There is no time lag between the striking of N 2 and O 2 respectively. Which of the
light beam [with suitable frequency] and the following is wrong statement?
ejection of electrons from the metal 1) In N 2 formation, N – N bond length
4) Both (1) and (3) increases
Ans : 2)In O 2 formation, O – O bond order
increases
3)In O 2 formation, para-magnetism decreases
2)
4) N 2 becomes diamagnetic
Ans :4) N 2 becomes diamagnetic
electrons are ejected from both metal A and B Solution :
Solution :
N2  N 2
Condition for the ejection of electrons is  >
B.O = 3 B.O = 2.5
o and λo > λ
Diamagnetic Paramagnetic
76. Assertion (A) : In the equilibrium process
78. The equilibrium constant for the following
H2O(s)  H2O(l), If pressure of the system reactions are given at 25oC.
increases, more quantity of water is present 2A  B + C K1 = 1.0
and boiling point of water decrease.
Reason (R) : Density of ice less than density 2B  C + D K2 = 16
of water, hence increase in pressure 2C + D  2P K3 = 25
equilibrium shifted towards lesser volume
The equilibrium constant for the endothermic
side.
1
1) (A) is false (R) is true reaction : P  A + B at 35oC is
2
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
1
correct explanation of the (A) 1) 2) > 0.05
20
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
1
4) Both (A) and (R) are false 3) 4) 0.01
42
 21
Ans : 2) > 0.05 80. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
Solution : ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5J is
2A  B + C K1 = 1.0 1) 6.626  1010 ym 2) 6.626  1010 Ym

2B  C + D K2 = 16 3) 6.626  1010 am 4) 6.626  1010 Em

Ans : 1) 6.626  1010 ym
2C + D  2P K3 = 25
Solution :
Required reaction
1 h 6.626  1034
PA+ B   = 6.626  1034m
2 2mKE 2 1 0.5
1 1 1 a  atto  1018
K4 = x x
K 3 K 2 K1 E  exa  1018
1 1 1 Y  yotta  1024
= x x
25 16 1 y  yocto  1024
1 81. Match the following
K4 = = 0.05
20 Column – A
For endothermic reaction KEq  T Cl
2  C H CH Cl
A) C6H5CH3  6 5 2
h
79. The decreasing order of the stability of the
KMnO4
following carbocations is B) C6H5CH3 
H 2SO4
C6H5COOH
ZnHg,HCl
C) C6H5COCH3   C6H5CH2CH3
HBr
A) D) C6H5CH = CH2 
Peroxide
C6H5CH2CH2Br
HBr
E) CH3 – CH = CH2    CH 3  CH  CH3
|
Br
B)
Column – B
p) Oxidation
C) q) Electrophilic addition
r) Free radical substitution
1) A > B > C 2) B > C > A s) Free radical addition
3) C > B > A 4) A > C > B t) Reduction
Ans :3) C > B > A 1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s, E-t
Solution : 2) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-q, E-s
Decreasing order of stability of carbocation 3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s, E-q
4) A-q, B-p, C-s, D-t, E-q
Ans :3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s, E-q
Solution :
Cl
2  C H CH Cl - Free radical
Electron donating group increase stability of C6H5CH3 
h
6 5 2

carbocation substitution
 22
KMnO4
C6H5CH3  C6H5COOH -Oxidation Ans : 4) (a – b) kJ mol–1
H 2SO4

ZnHg,HCl
Solution :
C6H5COCH3   C6H5CH2CH3 -
solH = H(Lattice) + H(Hyd)
Reduction
= (a) + (–b)
HBr
C6H5CH = CH2 
Peroxide
C6H5CH2CH2Br - = (a – b) kJ mol–1
Free radical addition
HBr
CH3 – CH = CH2    CH 3  CH  CH3 -
|
Br
Electrophilic addition
82. The sum of the number of dative bonds
85. Which of the following reaction will lead to
present in all the given species are
the creation of two chiral centres in the
Al2Cl6, [Al(H2O)6]+3, CO, NH 4 product?
1) 5 2) 9 CCl
4
1) CH3CH = CHCH3 + Br2  
3) 8 4) 10
CCl
4
Ans :4) 10 2) CH3CH2CH = CH2 + Br2  

Solution : H
3) CH2 = CH2 + HBr  
Number of dative bonds in the given species
H
 4) CH3CH = CHCH3 + HBr  
Al2Cl6 = 2, CO = 1, [Al(H2O)6]+3 = 6, NH = 1 4
CCl
4
Ans : 1) CH3CH = CHCH3 + Br2  
83. Given
xNa2HAsO3 + yNaBrO3 + zHCl  NaBr + Solution :
Br2 / CCl4
H3AsO4 + NaCl CH3CH = CHCH3  
The values of x, y and z in the above redox * *
reaction are respectively CH3 CH CH CH3
1) 2, 1, 3 2) 3, 1, 6 | |
Br Br
3) 2, 1, 2 4) 3, 1, 4
(2 chiral carbons)
Ans :2) 3, 1, 6
86. Which of the following mixture gives a buffer
Solution :
solution with pH = 4.75 [Given that pKb of
3Na2HAsO3 + 1NaBrO3 + 6HCl 
CH3COOH is 9.25]
NaBr + 3H3AsO4 + 6NaCl
1) 0.2M, 0.4ml CH3COOH and [Link], 0.1ml
84. Consider the dissolution of MX(s). Calculate
NaOH
the enthalpy of solution of MX(s) from the
2) 0.2M, 0.5ml CH3COOH and [Link], 0.5ml
following
NaOH
 
M (g)  X (g)  MX (s) + a kJ mol–1
3) 0.5M, 0.2ml CH3COOH and 0.2M, 0.5ml

M (g)  X (g)  M (aq)
 
 X (aq) + b kJ mol–1 NaOH

1) (a – b) J mol–1 2) (a + b) kJ mol–1 4) 0.4M, 1L CH3COOH and [Link], 1L HCl

3) (b – a) kJ mol–1 4) (a – b) kJ mol–1
 23
Ans : 2) 0.2M, 0.5ml CH3COOH and [Link], Ans : 3) Statement I is true, II is false
0.5ml NaOH Solution :
Solution : 2H2 + O2  2H2O
CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COONa + H2O 2 : 1
0.2M, 0.5ml 0.1 x 0.5 30 ml : 15 ml  30 ml H2O + 5ml of O2
0.1 millimole 0.05 milli 0.05 milli Limiting reagent completely consumed
[CH 3COONa] 89. The heat of formation of ethane is -19.5
pH = pKa + log
[CH 3COOH] kcal/mol. Bond energies of H-H, C-H and C-C
0.05 bonds are 104.2, 99 and 80 kcal/mol
 4.75  log respectively. Calculate the heat of atomization
0.05
of graphite
pH = 4.75
1) 171 kcal 2) 271 kcal
87. Choose the incorrect from the following
3) 100 kcal 4) can’t be predicted
a) Pb3O4 proceeds differently with HCl and
HNO3 Ans : 1) 171 kcal
b) PbO2 reaction with HCl is a redox reaction Solution :
where as PbO2 with HNO3 is an acid-base 2C(s) + 3H2(g)  C2H6(g)
reaction fH = HB.E (Reactants) - HB.E (Products)
c) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is an example for fH = (2Hatomization(c) + 3BEH-H)-(BEC-C + 6BEC-H)
disproportination reaction -19.5 = 2x + 3(104.2) – 80 – (6 x 99)
d) In a reaction 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s)  6Cu(s) + -19.5 = 2x – 361.4
SO2(g) ; Cu2O is act as reductant and Cu2S is 2x = 361.4 – 19.5 = 341.9
act as an oxidant
x = 171 kcal
1) a, c, d 2) b, c
90. A, B, C, D are represents excited states at
3) c, d 4) a, d which the molecules CH4, PCl5, XeF2 and SF4
Ans : 3) c, d are formed. The values of A, B, C, D
Solution : respectively are
XeF6 + 3H2O  XeO3 + 6HF [Neither 1) 1, 1, 1, 1 2) 1, 2, 1, 1
oxidation nor reduction] 3) 1, 1, 2, 1 4) 2, 1, 1, 2
Cu2O is oxidant, Cu2S is reductant Ans : 1) 1, 1, 1, 1
88. Statement I : At STP if 30 ml of H2 gas and Solution :
20 ml of O2 gas react to form water, 5 ml of Molecule At which it formed
O2 is left at the end of reaction. CH4  st
1 excited state (A)
Statement II : Limiting reagent will remains
PCl5  1st excited state (B)
at the end of reaction.
XeF2  1st excited state (C)
1) Both statements are true
2) Both statements are false SF4  1st excited state (D)

3) Statement I is true, II is false

4) Statement I is false, II is true
 24
TYPE – S1 [Test ID : 750]
BIOLOGY
1. 4) Polymoniales 31. 2) 90
2. 3) Ernst Mayr 32. 4) Drupe
3. 2) All except F 33. 4) Both (1) and (3)
4. 3) Chemoautotrophic bacteria 34. 2) Ground tissue system
5. 3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 35. 2) RV
6. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and 36. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
medusa form the polyp sexually explanation of A
7. 2) B and C 37. 1) a and b
8. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia 38. 4) all the above
9. 3) U = 3, C = 1 39. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
10. 3) A is true but R is false 40. 4) Collecting duct
11. 2) Epithelial tissue 41. 1) only v
12. 3) Heart is without SA node 42. 3) Dicot stem
13. 4) both 2 and 3 43. 3) All except E
14. 4) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena 44. 3) Presence of bundle sheath cells
15. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 45. 3) 36 and 24
correct explanation of A 46. 3) Lysosome
16. 4) They follow indefinite growth pattern and 47. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
adults have a definite shape and size 48. 4) A, B and C
17. 2) Two 49. 4) All of the above
18. 3) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III 50. 2) ii and iii are false
19. 3) Independent sporophytes 51. 1) easy passage of water from collecting duct
20. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true there by concentrating urine
21. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 52. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure
22. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture 53. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q
23. 3) A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein, 54. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril
D – renal portal vein (myofilaments)
24. 4) one 55. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
25. 3) 7, 2 explanation of A
26. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 56. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
27. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 57. 3) Link reaction
correct explanation of A 58. 4) All of the above
28. 4) Gymnosperms 59. 4) Active proliferation
29. 2) Presence of nodes and internodes 60. 4) Phellogen
30. 4) Thorn – Pumpkin 61. 4) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
 25
62. 3) A, B, C and D only 77. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
63. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals 78. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true
64. 2) F T T F 79. 2) three
65. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 80. 3) Centrifugal manner
+ +
66. 1) i – K , ii – Na 81. 1) Lecithin
67. 3) pons 82. 2) Palmitic acid
68. 1) i and iii 83. 4) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin
69. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 84. 2) Proteins
70. 2) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek 85. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen
71. 4) A, B, C and D 86. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV
72. 4) Four 87. 2) 4500 ml
73. 3) Intercellular transport 88. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
74. 2) Proteins 89. 3) Anaphase I
75. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 90. 3) Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein
explanation of A and carbohydrate composition
76. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus,
R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system

TYPE – S2 [Test ID : 751]

BIOLOGY
46. 2) Epithelial tissue 61. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
47. 3) Heart is without SA node explanation of A
48. 4) both 2 and 3 62. 1) a and b
49. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 63. 4) all the above
50. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 64. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
51. 2) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena 65. 2) Ground tissue system
52. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 66. 3) Dicot stem
correct explanation of A 67. 3) A, B and C
53. 4) They follow indefinite growth pattern and 68. 4) All of the above
adults have a definite shape and size 69. 1) Link reaction
54. 2) Two 70. 4) All of the above
55. 3) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III 71. 2) Active proliferation
56. 4) 90 72. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
57. 4) Drupe explanation of A
58. 4) Both (1) and (3) 73. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
59. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 74. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals
60. 2) RV 75. 2) F T T F
 26
76. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 108. 4) Thorn – Pumpkin
+ +
77. 1) i – K , ii – Na 109. 4) All except E
78. 3) pons 110. 3) Presence of bundle sheath cells
79. 1) i and iii 111. 3) 36 and 24
80. 4) Four 112. 1) Lysosome
81. 3) Intercellular transport 113. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
82. 4) Proteins 114. 2) Phellogen
83. 3) Centrifugal manner 115. 4) one
84. 1) Lecithin 116. 3) 7, 2
85. 2) Polymoniales 117. 1)easy passage of water from collecting duct
86. 3) Ernst Mayr there by concentrating urine
87. 4) Collecting duct 118. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q
88. 1) only v 119. 1)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
89. 2) ii and iii are false explanation of A
90. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 120. 4) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
91. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus, 121. 3) A, B, C and D only
R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system 122. 2) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
92. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true 123. 2) A, B, C and D
93. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV 124. 2) Palmitic acid
94. 2) 4500 ml 125. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure
95. 2) All except F 126. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril
96. 3) Chemoautotrophic bacteria (myofilaments)
97. 3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 127. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
98. 2) Independent sporophytes 128. 2) three
99. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 129. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
correct explanation of A 130. 4) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin
100. 1) Gymnosperms 131. 2) Proteins
101. 3) Presence of nodes and internodes 132. 4) Anaphase I
102. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and 133. 3)
Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein
medusa form the polyp sexually and carbohydrate composition
103. 2) B and C 134. 3)
A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein,
104. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia D – renal portal vein
105. 3) U = 3, C = 1 135. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen
106. 3) A is true but R is false
107. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture
 27
TYPE – S3 [Test ID : 752]
BIOLOGY
46. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true 77. 3) A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein,
47. 2) three D – renal portal vein
48. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen 78. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
49. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV 79. 1) only v
50. 2) 4500 ml 80. 3) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena
51. 1) Palmitic acid 81. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
52. 4) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin correct explanation of A
53. 4) Proteins 82. 1) They follow indefinite growth pattern and
adults have a definite shape and size
54. 4) Anaphase I
83. 2) Two
55. 3) Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein
and carbohydrate composition 84. 3) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III
56. 4) Polymoniales 85. 4) Phellogen
57. 1) Ernst Mayr 86. 2) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
58. 2) All except F 87. 3) A is true but R is false
59. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 88. 2) Epithelial tissue
60. 1) i – K+, ii – Na+ 89. 3) Heart is without SA node
61. 3) pons 90. 4) both 2 and 3
62. 1) i and iii 91. 4) Collecting duct
63. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 92. 1) easy passage of water from collecting duct
there by concentrating urine
64. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A 93. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
65. 3) Chemoautotrophic bacteria 94. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals
66. 2) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 95. 3) A, B, C and D only
67. 4) Four 96. 3) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
68. 4) Intercellular transport 97. 4) A, B, C and D
69. 2) Proteins 98. 4) Independent sporophytes
70. 4) Centrifugal manner 99. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A
71. 1) Lecithin
100. 2) Gymnosperms
72. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and
medusa form the polyp sexually 101. 2) Presence of nodes and internodes
73. 2) B and C 102. 2) RV
74. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia 103. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
75. 3) U = 3, C = 1
104. 1) a and b
76. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture
 28
105. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 120. 4) Drupe
explanation of A 121. 4) Both (1) and (3)
106. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus, 122. 3) Ground tissue system
R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system 123. 3) Dicot stem
107. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 124. 4) 36 and 24
108. 4) Thorn – Pumpkin 125. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
109. 4) A, B and C 126. 4) all the above
110. 4) All of the above 127. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure
111. 4) Link reaction 128. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q
112. 4) All of the above 129. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
113. 4) Active proliferation 130. 3) Lysosome
114. 4) 90 131. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
115. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 132. 3) All except E
116. 4) one 133. 3) Presence of bundle sheath cells
117. 3) 7, 2 134. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril
118. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (myofilaments)
119. 2) ii and iii are false 135. 2) F T T F

TYPE – S4 [Test ID : 753]

BIOLOGY
1. 4) Independent sporophytes 16. 3) 36 and 24
2. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 17. 3) Lysosome
correct explanation of A 18. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
3. 4) Gymnosperms 19. 3) Four
4. 2) Presence of nodes and internodes 20. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
5. 1) Thorn – Pumpkin explanation of A
6. 2) B and C 21. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
7. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia 22. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals
8. 4) both 2 and 3 23. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
9. 4) one 24. 1) i – K+, ii – Na+
10. 3) 7, 2 25. 3) pons
11. 2) RV 26. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus,
12. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system
explanation of A 27. 4) Intercellular transport
13. 1) only v 28. 2) Proteins
14. 3) All except E 29. 3) Centrifugal manner
15. 4) Presence of bundle sheath cells 30. 1) Lecithin
 29
31. 4) Polymoniales 62. 2) Proteins
32. 1) Ernst Mayr 63. 1) i and iii
33. 2) All except F 64. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
34. 1) Chemoautotrophic bacteria explanation of A
35. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and 65. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
medusa form the polyp sexually 66. 2) three
36. 3) U = 3, C = 1 67. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen
37. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture 68. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV
38. 3) A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein, 69. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
D – renal portal vein 70. 4) Anaphase I
39. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 71. 3) Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein
40. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i and carbohydrate composition
41. 2) ii and iii are false 72. 3) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena
42. 1) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 73. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
43. 2) 90 correct explanation of A
44. 2) Drupe 74. 4) They follow indefinite growth pattern and
adults have a definite shape and size
45. 4) Both (1) and (3)
75. 3) A is true but R is false
46. 2) Ground tissue system
47. 4) Dicot stem
76. 2) Epithelial tissue
77. 3) Heart is without SA node
48. 4) A, B and C
78. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
49. 4) All of the above
79. 4) Collecting duct
50. 1) a and b
80. 3) Two
51. 4) all the above
81. 3) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III
52. 1) easy passage of water from collecting duct
there by concentrating urine 82. 3) Phellogen
53. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure 83. 4) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
54. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q 84. 2) A, B, C and D only
55. 2) F T T F 85. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
56. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 86. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril
(myofilaments)
57. 2) Link reaction
87. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true
58. 4) All of the above
88. 2) 4500 ml
59. 4) Active proliferation
89. 4) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
60. 2) Palmitic acid
90. 4) A, B, C and D
61. 2) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin
 30
TYPE – S5 [Test ID : 754]
BIOLOGY
91. 3) All except E 122. 3) Chemoautotrophic bacteria
92. 1) Presence of bundle sheath cells 123. 3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
93. 3) 36 and 24 124. 4) Independent sporophytes
94. 2) Link reaction 125. 2) B and C
95. 4) All of the above 126. 3) U = 3, C = 1
96. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia 127. 4) both 2 and 3
97. 2) Epithelial tissue 128. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
98. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 129. 3) 7, 2
99. 3) A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein, 130. 2) RV
D – renal portal vein 131. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
100. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 132. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
101. 1) a and b correct explanation of A
102. 4) Collecting duct 133. 4) Gymnosperms
103. 1) easy passage of water from collecting duct 134. 3) Presence of nodes and internodes
there by concentrating urine 135. 4) Thorn – Pumpkin
104. 4) Active proliferation 136. 2) Lysosome
105. 4) A, B, C and D 137. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
106. 2) Four 138. 4) A, B and C
107. 3) Intercellular transport 139. 4) All of the above
108. 2) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin 140. 1) only v
109. 2) Proteins 141. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q
110. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril 142. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(myofilaments) explanation of A
111. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals 143. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
+ +
112. 1) i – K , ii – Na 144. 3) pons
113. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 145. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus,
114. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system
115. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen 146. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true
116. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV 147. 1) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
117. 4) Anaphase I 148. 3) A, B, C and D only
118. 3) Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein 149. 4) Proteins
and carbohydrate composition 150. 3) Centrifugal manner
119. 4) Polymoniales 151. 1) Lecithin
120. 4) Ernst Mayr 152. 2) Palmitic acid
121. 2) All except F
 31
153. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and 166. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure
medusa form the polyp sexually 167. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
154. 3) A is true but R is false 168. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
155. 3) Heart is without SA node explanation of A
156. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture 169. 2) 4500 ml
157. 4) one 170. 1) 90
158. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 171. 2) Drupe
explanation of A 172. 4) Both (1) and (3)
159. 4) all the above 173. 3) Ground tissue system
160. 4) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena 174. 1) Dicot stem
175. 2) three
161. 3) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A 176. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
162. 4) They follow indefinite growth pattern and 177. 2) F T T F
adults have a definite shape and size 178. 1) i and iii
163. 2) Two 179. 4) Phellogen
164. 3) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III 180. 3) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
165. 2) ii and iii are false

TYPE – S6 [Test ID : 755]

BIOLOGY
91. 2) 90 105. 4) Phellogen
92. 2) Drupe 106. 4) Auxins – Xylem differentiation
93. 4) Both (1) and (3) 107. 2) Proteins
94. 4) Link reaction 108. 3) Centrifugal manner
95. 4) All of the above 109. 2) Lecithin
96. 1) i and iii 110. 3) IRV is 6 times of TV
97. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 111. 3) Aldosterone, Na+, Blood pressure
98. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 112. 4) i - r, ii - s, iii - p, iv - q
explanation of A 113. 1) Muscle, muscle cell, myofibril
99. 4) P – somatostatin, Q – hypothalamus, (myofilaments)
R – pituitary, S – portal circulatory system 114. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
100. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true explanation of A
101. 4) i, ii, iii and iv are true 115. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
102. 2) three 116. 4) Gliding joint – between tarsals
103. 4) a – GnRH, b – FSH, c – oestrogen 117. 4) Polymoniales
104. 4) Active proliferation 118. 3) Ernst Mayr
 32
119. 2) All except F 150. 3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
120. 1) Chemoautotrophic bacteria 151. 4) Flagellated protozoan – Euglena
121. 4) They follow indefinite growth pattern and 152. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
adults have a definite shape and size correct explanation of A
122. 2) Two 153. 3) A is true but R is false
123. 4) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III 154. 2) Epithelial tissue
124. 3) Presence of bundle sheath cells 155. 3) Heart is without SA node
125. 3) pons 156. 4) both 2 and 3
126. 2) 4500 ml 157. 4) one
127. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true 158. 3) 7, 2
128. 4) Polyp produce medusa asexually and 159. 4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
medusa form the polyp sexually 160. 2) Independent sporophytes
129. 2) B and C 161. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
130. 3) I – Aedes, II – Ascaris, III – Taenia correct explanation of A
131. 3) U = 3, C = 1 162. 2) Gymnosperms
132. 1) 36 and 24 163. 2) Presence of nodes and internodes
133. 3) Lysosome 164. 4) Thorn – Pumpkin
134. 2) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek 165. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
135. 2) A, B, C and D 166. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
136. 4) Four 167. 1) a and b
137. 1) Intercellular transport 168. 4) all the above
138. 4) Palmitic acid 169. 2) ii and iii are false
139. 4) Complex heteropolysaccharide – Inulin 170. 3) Ground tissue system
140. 2) passes out through cloacal aperture 171. 3) Dicot stem
141. 3) A – kidney, B – renal artery, C – renal vein, 172. 1) All except E
D – renal portal vein 173. 2) Both the statements are incorrect
142. 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 174. 4) A, B and C
143. 2) RV 175. 2) F T T F
144. 4) Collecting duct 176. 1) Both statement I and statement II are true
145. 1) only v 177. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
146. 1) easy passage of water from collecting duct explanation of A
there by concentrating urine 178. 1) i – K+, ii – Na+
147. 1) Proteins 179. 4) All of the above
148. 3) Anaphase I 180. 2) A, B, C and D only
149. 3) Inner and outer layers differ in lipid, protein
and carbohydrate composition