03-06-2026

2701CMD303343250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) At what temperature will the root mean square (r.m.s.) speed of oxygen molecules (O2, M= 32 u)
be exactly equal to the r.m.s. speed of Helium atoms (He, M= 4 u) at –173°C?

(1) 200°C
(2) 427°C
(3) 527°C
(4) 800°C

2) The component of a vector is -

(1) Its less than or equal to its magnitude

(2) Always greater than its magnitude
(3) Always equal to its magnitude
(4) None of these

3) A heavy ball is dropped from a height of 5 m above a still lake. It hits the water with velocity v and
then continues to sink to the bottom at this constant velocity v. If it reaches the bottom 5.0 s after it
was dropped, what is the depth of the lake? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 50

4) A system of two springs k1 and k2 connected in series supports a mass M. The system is
compressed by X unit and released. Find the maximum velocity of the mass

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A wire of Young's Modulus Y is stretched such that its strain is s. The energy stored per unit
volume in the wire is U. If the same wire is stretched such that the strain becomes 2s, the new
energy density is:
(1) 2U
(2) 4 U
(3) U/2
(4) U/4

6) An object of uniform density, initially at rest, explodes into two spherical fragments of the same
uniform density. If the kinetic energies of these fragments are in the ratio 1 : 2, what is the ratio of
their radii?

(1) 21/3 : 1
(2) 1 : 21/3
(3)
(4)

7) An air column of length l closed at one end is vibrating in 3rd harmonic mode. The wavelength of
the wave is:

(1) 4l/3
(2) 4l/5
(3) 4l/7
(4) 4l/7

8) A liquid of specific heat 0.8 cal/g°C at temperature 60°C is mixed with other liquid of same mass
having temperature 45°C. If temperature of mixture at equilibrium is 53°C, then specific heat (in
cal/g°C) of the liquid is:

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.8

9) If a vector

(1) A
(2)
(3) Zero vector
(4) Zero

10) An ideal gas follows PV2 = const. If it is compressed to half its volume, its temperature becomes:

(1) 2T
(2) 4T
(3) T/2
(4) T/4

11) A U-tube contains water and oil separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the two arms are
at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of oil in the other as shown. What is

the relative density of oil?

(1) 0.8
(2) 1.0
(3) 1.25
(4) 1.5

12) A body of mass 3 kg is acted upon by a force. The displacement (in m) is given by /,
where t is time in second. Work done by the force in first 2 seconds is:

(1) 24 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 36 J
(4) 48 J

13) Match the bodies and their specified axes of rotation in List I with their corresponding radius of
gyration in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

14) A body is cooling under Newton's Law of cooling. The temperature of the body falls from 60°C to
50°C in 10 minutes. In next 10 minutes the temperature of the body will be: (surrounding
temperature = 20°C)

(1) Equal to 40°C

(2) Greater than 40°C
(3) Less than 40°C
(4) Cannot be determined

15) The dimensional formula of a physical quantity x is [M–1L3T–2]. The error in measuring the
quantities M, L, and T are 2%, 3% and 4%. The maximum percentage of error that occurs in
measuring the quantity x is:-

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 14
(4) 19

16) A projectile with an original horizontal range R explodes into two equal fragments at its highest
point. If one fragment retraces its path and lands at the point of projection, at what distance from
the projection point will the second fragment land?

(1) 1.5R
(2) 2R
(3) 2.5R
(4) 3R

17) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the relationship between the absolute
magnitude of work done (|W|) by an ideal gas and the magnitude of the change in its temperature
(||) during an adiabatic process?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1 mm and 100 divisions on its circular scale. When the two studs
are in contact, the zero of the circular scale is found to be 4 divisions below the reference line of the
main scale. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, the main scale reads 2 mm and the 46th
division of the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The corrected diameter of the wire is:

(1) 2.42 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.46 mm
(4) 2.38 mm

19) When a bus suddenly takes a turn, the passengers are thrown outwards because of

(1) Inertia of direction

(2) Acceleration of motion
(3) Speed of motion
(4) Both (2) and (3)

20) Match the scientific laws in List-I with their corresponding physical statements in List-II and
choose the correct option:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

21) To a stationary person, rain is falling vertically at 4 m/s. When the person runs at speed v, the
rain appears to hit them at 45° with the vertical. If the person doubles their running speed, the new
apparent angle of the rain with the vertical is:

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) tan–1 (2)
(4) tan–1 (1/2)

22) The dimensional formula for Planck's constant is identical to that of:

(1) Linear momentum

(2) Angular momentum
(3) Energy
(4) Power

23) One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is mixed with one mole of an ideal rigid diatomic gas. The
effective specific heat ratio for the mixture is:

(1) 1.50
(2) 1.40
(3) 1.67
(4) 1.33

24) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for a particle executing simple harmonic
motion (SHM)?

(1) The frequency of kinetic energy oscillation is twice the frequency of displacement
(2) At half the maximum amplitude, kinetic energy is three times the potential energy
(3) The average kinetic energy over one time period equals the average potential energy
(4) The total mechanical energy is directly proportional to the amplitude

25) When the speed of a moving body is doubled

(1) Its acceleration is doubled

(2) Its momentum is doubled
(3) Its kinetic energy is doubled
(4) Its potential energy is doubled

26) A body is dropped from a height in the absence of air resistance. It strikes the ground elastically
and rebounds back upwards. The correct velocity (v) vs time (t) graph for its motion would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) A massless rope is suspended from a rigid support with weight 12 N hanging as shown in figure
A. It is then tied to another rope and pulled with a force of 5N such that it makes an angle and T2

in the two cases is:

(1) 12 : 13
(2) 13 : 12
(3) 12 : 5
(4) 5 : 12

28) Find the coordinates of COM for the given system of three small particles

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two particles of masses m and 4m are moving in horizontal circles. The heavier mass moves in a
circle of radius R/4, while the lighter mass moves in a circle of radius R. If both particles experience
the exact same centripetal force, the speed of the lighter particle is k times the speed of the heavier
particle. Find the value of k.

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 16

30) A uniform circular hoop of mass 3m and radius R rotates freely about its central axis with an
initial angular velocity /. Two small beads, each of mass m, are gently attached to diametrically
opposite points on its rim. What is the new angular velocity of the system?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) In the given arrangement, all surfaces are smooth and string are ideal. What acceleration should

be given to the block M so that the block m2 does not slide down?

(1)

(2)

(3) g

(4)

32) An ideal liquid exhibits steady flow through a horizontal tube of varying cross-section. The
widest and narrowest parts of the tube have diameters of 7.5 cm and 3.0 cm, respectively. Find the
ratio of the minimum fluid velocity to the maximum fluid velocity in the tube.

(1) 25/4
(2) 4/25
(3) 2/5
(4) 5/2

33) If are two vectors satisfying the relation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A highly elastic wire has a Poisson's ratio of 0.4. Upon applying a longitudinal stretching force,
its cross-sectional area decreases uniformly by 2.4%. What is the corresponding percentage
elongation of the wire?
(1) 1.5%
(2) 3.0%
(3) 4.8%
(4) 6.0%

35) Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of constants K1
and K2 respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of the
amplitude of A and B is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane
without slipping. they start from rest. The radii of the bodies are identical. Which of the bodies
reaches the ground with maximum velocity?

(1) Ring
(2) Solid cylinder
(3) Solid sphere
(4) All reach the ground with same velocity

37) A string firmly fixed at both ends oscillates in its 5th harmonic. The profile of the standing wave
is given by y = 0.4sin(0.314x)cos(300πt), where all parameters are in SI units. Calculate the total
length of the string.

(1) 40 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 60 m

38) A system consists of mass M and m (m < M). The centre of mass of the system is: -

(1) At the middle

(2) Nearer to M
(3) Nearer to m
(4) At the position of larger mass

39) A tuning fork of frequency 440 Hz produces 6 beats/sec when sounded together with a vibrat ing
guitar string. When the tension in the guitar string is slightly increased, the beat frequency is
observed to increase to 8 beats/sec. What was the original frequency of the guitar string?
(1) 434 Hz
(2) 446 Hz
(3) 448 Hz
(4) 432 Hz

40) A solid sphere and a thin hollow sphere of same mass and same external radius are rotating
about their respective diameters. If both possess identical rotational kinetic energy, what is the ratio
of the angular momentum of the solid sphere to that of the hollow sphere?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Two distinct open organ pipes measuring 50 cm and 50.5 cm in length respectively produce 3
beats per second when sounded together in their fundamental mode of vibration. Based on this
observation, what is the velocity of sound in the air?

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 303 m/s
(3) 300 m/s
(4) 340 m/s

42) In a hypothetical new system of physical units, if linear velocity v, linear acceleration A, and
absolute mechanical force F are chosen as the primary fundamental quantities, what would be the
derived dimensional formula for mass?

0
(1) [FA–1V ]
(2) [FAV–1]
(3) [FAV–2]
0
(4) [F2A–1V ]

43) A stationary explosive device on a frictionless surface detonates into three fragments. Two
fragments, each of mass 3 kg, fly off at right angles to each other, both with a speed of 4 m/s. If the
third fragment moves with a speed of m/s, calculate the total original mass of the device before
the blast

(1) 6 kg
(2) 8 kg
(3) 10 kg
(4) 12 kg

44) Two moles of Helium gas, initially at 27°C, undergo a sudden adiabatic compression. If the work
done on the gas during this process is 22.5 kJ, to what fraction of its original volume was the gas
compressed? (Take the universal gas constant R = 25/3 J mol–1 k–1)

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/8
(4) 1/16

45) A mass is suspended separately by two different springs having spring constant k1 and k2 and
their time periods of oscillation are t1 = 3s and t2 = 4s respectively. If the same mass is connected to

both springs as shown in the figure, what is the new time period t ?

(1) 5.0 s
(2) 2.4 s
(3) 7.0 s
(4) 1.2 s

CHEMISTRY

1) Increasing order of electron withdrawing power of following functional groups is: a. –CN
b. –COOН c. –NO2 d. –I

(1) d < b < a < c

(2) c > b < d < a
(3) a < b < c < d
(4) c < a < b < d

2) The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is:

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

3) The number of geometrical isomers of the compound CH5 – CH = CH – CH = CH – COOH is

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

4) The correct order of the basis strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

5) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) (E)-5-hepten-3-yne
(2) (Z)-2-hepten-4-yne
(3) (E)-2-hepten-4-yne
(4) (Z)-5-hepten-3-yne

6) Glycerol is separated in soap industries by

(1) Distillation under reduced pressure

(2) Differential distillation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Steam distillation

7) Statement-I:- Reaction of HCl on propene in presence of peroxide shows Anti-markovnikov's

effect.
Statement-II:- HCl and HBr both shows Kharasch effect in presence of peroxide

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true

8) Match the columns

(1) A-(s), B-(p), C-(r), D-(s)

(2) A-(q), B-(p), C-(s), D-(r)
(3) A-(r), B-(p), C-(s), D-(q)
(4) A-(p), B-(q), C-(r), D-(s)

9) What is IUPAC name of given compound?

(1) 5-Bromo pent-1-en-3-01

(2) 1-Bromo pent-4-en-3-ol
(3) 3-Bromo-1-vinyl propan-1-ol
(4) 1-bromo-3-vinyl propan-3-0l

10) Which of the following does not involve in Friedel-Craft reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) 3-methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in the presence of peroxide forms on addition product
(A) the no. of possible stereoisomers for ‘A’ is_______

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

12) Which major product is formed when excess of methane is treated with chlorine in the presence
of U.V. light?

(1) Chloromethane
(2) Tetrachloromethane
(3) Trichloromethane
(4) Dichloromethane
13) The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is:

(1) Na/liquid NH3

(2) Zn/HCl
2+ +
(3) Hg /H , H2O
(4) H2, Pd/C, quinoline

14) Statement-I:- Kjeldahl method is applicable to estimate nitrogen in pyridine.

Statement-II:- The nitrogen present in pyridine can easily be converted into ammonium sulphate in
Kjeldahl method

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(3) Both statement-I and Statement-II are true
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

15) Which one of the following reaction does not given benzene as the product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Assertion:- is criterion for a process to be spontaneous.

Reason:- is related to by the relation .

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect

17) Consider the following statements for mentioned graph

 (a) x = Activation energy of forward reaction (b) y =
Activation energy of backward reaction (c) z = Enthalpy of reaction (d) Given reaction
is endothermic (e) x + z = Threshold energy
The incorrect statements are

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (d) and (e) only
(3) (b) and (e) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

18) Mass of 80% pure CaCO3 required to neutralise 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI solution according to
following reaction is
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

(1) 0.505 g
(2) 0.625 g
(3) 0.745 g
(4) 0.895 g

19) Match the following:

(1) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)

(2) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)
(3) a - (iv), b - (iii), с - (i), d - (ii)
(4) a - (ii). b - (iii), c- (iv), d- (i)

20) Match list-I with list-II.

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

21) Which of the following statements are not true about VSEPR theory? (i) Lone pair-lone
pair repulsion is maximum (ii) Lone pair and double bond occupy axial position in trigonal
bipyramidal structure. (iii) More electronegative atom occupies axial position in trigonal
bipyramidal structure. (iv) Bigger atoms occupy axial positions in trigonal bipyramidal
structure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (ii) and (iv) only

(2) (i) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iv) only

22) The equilibrium constants for the following are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Consider the following statements a. Pb2O3 is a mixed oxide of PbO and PbO2. b.
The correct order of positive oxidation states of sulphur in given species is
c. In CrO5 molecule, Cr is in +10 oxidation state.
Choose the incorrect statement(s).

(1) a, b and c
(2) b only
(3) a and c only
(4) b and c only

24) Which of the following orbital diagrams violates both Pauli's exclusion principle as well as
Hund's rule?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) For the equilibrium the equilibrium constant at 25°C is

(Given:

(1) 1.8 × 10–4

(2) 1.8 × 10–6
(3) 1.8 × 10–5
(4) 1.8 × 10–7

26) In the following reaction

Which pair can act as Bronsted base only?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Entropy change during the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 mol ideal gas from 10 L to 100 L
at 100 K is nearly

(1) 2.3 R
(2) 4.6 R
(3) –2.3 R
(4) –4.6 R

28) Select the molecular orbital(s) having two or more total nodal planes:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Maximum number of electrons present in sodium atom having quantum numbers m = 0 and

is:-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 7

30) Which of the following halides is least stable and has doubtful existence?

(1) CCl4
(2) Snl4
(3) Gel4
(4) Pbl4

31) 8 g of hydrogen and 32 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Volume of gaseous
substance available after reaction at STP is

(1) 22.4L
(2) 89.6L
(3) 44.8L
(4) 33.6L

32) Ksp of following salts have been given as

Identify the salt which will precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the solution containing
equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na2CrO4

(1) Ag2CrO4
(2) AgI
(3) AgCl
(4) AgBr

33) Which of the following expressions is not applicable to the following hydrolysis equilibrium?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Statement-I:- The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field is called, Stark
effect.
Statement-II:- The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of strong electric field is called
Zeeman effect.

(1) Both statements I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

35) Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Electromagnetic radiations have both magnetic field as well as electric field components
(2) In vacuum, all types of electromagnetic radiations travel with speed of light
(3) In the electromagnetic spectrum, the wavelength of -rays is more than that of X-rays
(4) Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for their propagation

36) At equilibrium 60% of HBr undergoes decomposition to H2 and Br2 at 400 K

(1) 1.9 kJ/mol

(2) 0.87 kJ/mol
(3) 2.82 kJ/mol
(4) 4.88 kJ/mol

37) On a weight to weight basis, the electrical conductivity of Al ______is that of copper

(1) Twice
(2) Thrice
(3) Four times
(4) One half

38) Match the following:

(1) a-(iv), (p); b-(iii), (s); c-(i), (q); d-(ii), (r)
(2) a-(ii), (p); b-(iii), (q); c-(iv), (r); d-(i), (s)
(3) a-(iv), (p); b-(ii), (s); c-(iii), (q); d-(ii), (r)
(4) a-(i), (p); b-(ii), (s); c-(iii), (q); d-(iv), (r)

39) Match Column-I with column-II.

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

40) Statement-I:- For nth orbit, the product of velocity of electron and the radius is inversely
proportional to mass of electron.
Statement-II:- Velocity of electron in 1st orbit of H atom is equal to the velocity of electron in third
orbit of Li2+ ion

(1) Both statements I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

41) Which of the following statements are correct for group 14 elements? (a) The common
oxidation states exhibited by these elements is +4 and +2. (b) Carbon also exhibits negative
oxidation states. (c) Compounds in +4 oxidation state are generally covalent. (d)
(heavier members, the tendency to show +2 oxidation state increases in the sequence Ge < Sn < Pb.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

42) Which of the following statements are false? (i) The order of repulsion between different pair
of electrons is lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp. (ii) As the number of lone pair of electrons on central
atom increases, value of bond angle from normal bond angle also increases. (iii) The number of
lone pairs on O in H2O is 2 while on N in NH3 is 1. (iv) The structures of xenon fluorides and xenon
oxyfluorides could not be explained on the basis VSEPR theory.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (ii) and (iv) only

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only

43) Based on the given data, the multiple bond energy (in kJ mol–1) of a C = C bond in C2H4 will be

(1) 524 kJ mol–1

(2) 482 kJ mol–1
(3) 618 kJ mol–1
(4) 396 kJ mol–1

44) Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded isothermal and reversibly from 2 litre to 8 litre at 27°C.
Work done by the gas and enthalpy change for the process respectively are:

(1) –3.25 kJ and +3.25 kJ

(2) –3.44 kJ and 0
(3) –4.25 kJ and –6.12 kJ
(4) –6.89 kJ and 0

45) Consider the following statements (a) The energy of an isolated system is constant
(b) Heat capacity and temperature are intensive properties (c) Standard enthalpy of
formation of S8 rhombic and P4, white are zero.
The correct statement(s) is/are

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

BIOLOGY

1) Choose the incorrect statement

(1) All bryophytes are homosporous

(2) Floridean starch is stored food in the members of Phaeophyceae
(3) Motile stage is absent in Rhodophyceae
(4) Chlorella is used as food supplement even by space travellers

2) Mosses are different from liverworts as the former

(1) Have gametophyte as predominant stage of their life cycle

(2) Have unicellular, unbranched rhizoids
(3) Have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal
(4) Are first embryophytes

3) The flattened, thick and fleshy photosynthetic stem of Opuntia is called

(1) Bulb
(2) Phylloclade
(3) Rhizome
(4) Corm

4) The correct sequence of electron carriers in electron transport chain of mitochondria is

(1) FMN→ UQ → Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Cyt c → Cyt a-a3

(2) FMN→ Cyt b → UQ → Cyt a-a3 → Cyt c → Cyt C1
(3) FMN → UQ → Cyt b → Cyt c → Cyt C1 → Cyt a-a3
(4) FMN→ Cyt a-a3 → Cyt c → Cyt C1 → Cyt b → UQ

5) Which of the given statements is/are not true w.r.t. growth in living beings? (A) It is an
irreversible process. (B) It is a permanent increase in the size of an organ or its parts or even
of an individual cell. (C) Occurs without expense of energy.
(D) It is accompanied by anabolic process only but not catabolic process

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (C) and (D) only
(3) Only (A)
(4) Only (C)

6) Tracheids differ from vessels in

(1) Having lignified wall
(2) Being water conducting
(3) Being imperforated
(4) Lacking protoplasm

7) If fatty acids are respiratory substrates, then the first intermediate of their degradation that
enters the respiratory pathway is

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) Glucose 6 phosphate
(3) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid

8) How many of the following do/does not show secondary growth? (a) Monocot stem
(b) Dicot root (c) Gymnosperm root (d) Gymnosperm stem (e) Dicot stem

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) Which of the following is not a reason that causes seed dormancy?

(1) Lack of endosperm

(2) Immature embryo
(3) Presence of abscisic acid
(4) Extreme temperature and low O2

10) Heartwood differs from sapwood as the former

(1) Is lighter in colour

(2) Is actively involved in conduction of water
(3) Provides mechanical support to the stem but does not involve in conducting water
(4) Has lignified cell walls of tracheids

11) Which of the following is/are correct for protonema of mosses? (a) Juvenile stage
(b) Reproduce vegetatively
(c) Sexually reproduces by gametes formation

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)

12) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in

(1) Cytosol of mesophyll cell
(2) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell
(3) Cytosol of bundle sheath cell
(4) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell

13) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. photosynthesis

(1) CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis

(2) The dark reactions being enzymatic are temperature controlled
The primary CO2 acceptor in the Calvin cycle is a 2-carbon compound, so the first product is a 3-
(3)
C acid
Photosynthesis is a physico-chemical process in which green plants use light energy to drive
(4)
synthesis of organic compounds

14) The net gain of ATP during glycolysis in an aerobic organism, if respiration stops at glycolysis
only, is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10

15) Assertion:- In gymnosperms, male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent
free-living existence.
Reason:- Male and female gametophytes are diploid in conifers.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

16) ATP synthesis in chloroplast takes place

(1) In the intermembrane space

(2) When there is movement of protons from stroma to thylakoid lumen
(3) Towards the stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(4) Towards the cytoplasm through outer membran

17) Select the wrong statement w.r.t. ethylene

(1) Inhibits senescence

(2) Breaks seed and bud dormancy
(3) Induces flowering in mango
(4) Accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits like cotton, cherry & walnut

18) Which phytohormone helps in chloroplast production in leaves and promote the nutrient
mobilisation?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

19) Product of glycolysis when entering mitochondria, first undergoes

(1) Carboxylation
(2) Phosphorylation
(3) Oxidative carboxylation
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation

20) Read the given statements and select the correct option. (A) Gibberellin promotes bolting in
beet, cabbages prior to the reproductive stage.
(B) Kinetin does not occur naturally in plants

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) Only A is incorrect
(3) Only B is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

21) Number of female flowers in cucumber can be increased with the help of

(1) Auxin
(2) ABA
(3) Ethylene
(4) Kinetin

22) Which of the given plant hormone stimulates root formation on stem cutting?

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Ethylene

23) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of thylakoid membrane and accepts

(1) Electrons from PS II and protons from stroma

(2) Electrons from PS II and protons from thylakoid lumen
(3) Electrons from PS I and protons from stroma
(4) Both electrons and protons from stroma

24) Which of the following hormones is a terpene derivative?

(1) IAA
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellic acid

25) In final stage of prophase-I of meiosis

(1) Chiasmata formation occurs

(2) Chiasmata formation occurs
(3) Recombinase enzyme gets fully activated
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place

26) The first decarboxylation in Krebs cycle occurs during conversion of

(1) Oxalosuccinic acid into -ketoglutaric acid

(2) Citric acid into isocitric acid
(3) -Ketoglutaric acid into succinyl Co-A
(4) Malic acid into oxaloacetic acid

27) Find the mismatched pair w.r.t. plants

(1) Bryophyta – Embryophytes

(2) Pteridophyta – Seedless vascular plants
(3) Gymnosperms – Naked seeded plants
(4) Angiosperms – Archegoniate spermatophytes

28) The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is a _i_ molecule and is present in the _ii_.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii)

(1) (i) 4-carbon; (ii) Mesophyll cells

(2) (i) 3-carbon; (ii) Mesophyll cells
(3) (i) 4-carbon; (ii) Bundle sheath cells
(4) (i) 5-carbon; (ii) Bundle sheath cells

29) A feature which is common between sieve tube element and vessel element is

(1) Thick secondary walls

(2) Being dead at maturity
(3) Being enucleate at maturity
(4) Providing mechanical support

30) The transmembrane channel embedded into the thylakoid membrane that carries out facilitated
diffusion of protons across the membrane into the stroma of the chloroplast is

(1) CF1 -particle

(2) CF0-particle
(3) Cytochrome b6f
(4) PQ

31) The binomial name of garden pea is Pisum sativum Linn. What does Pisum represents?

(1) Generic name

(2) Specific epithet
(3) Species
(4) Author citation

32) Select the odd one w.r.t. bundle sheath cells of C4 plants

(1) No intercellular spaces

(2) Lack double membraned cell organelles
(3) Grana are absent in the chloroplast
(4) Thick wall of the cells

33) Gas vacuoles (a) Are found in all aquatic eukaryotes. (b) Are membraneless. (c) Provide
buoyancy to the cell

(1) Only (a) is true

(2) (a) and (b) are true
(3) (b) and (c) are true
(4) (a) and (c) are true

34) Leaf `A' of initial size 10 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per year and leaf `B' of 25 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per year.
The relative growth rates of leaf A & B respectively are

(1) 50% and 25%

(2) 50% and 20%
(3) 10% and 20%
(4) 20% and 25%

35) Select the correctly matched pair

(1) Auxin – Apical dominance

(2) Ethylene – Delay in senescence
(3) Cytokinin – Suppress stem elongation
(4) ABA – Breaking of seed dormancy

36) The giant red wood tree is

(1) Sequoia, a gymnosperm

(2) Ficus, an angiosperm
(3) Eucalyptus, an angiosperm
(4) Selaginella, a pteridophyte
37) Lax is

(1) Compact strobilus or cone in bryophytes

(2) Sporangium having spores
(3) Loosely and spirally arranged sporophylls along an axis
(4) Female gametophyte in gymnosperms

38) Respiratory pathway would be better to consider as an amphibolic pathway because

(1) In this pathway, the intermediates do not form any link with breakdown of proteins and fats
(2) Its end products are not any organic molecules
(3) It involves the synthesis of organic products from inorganic substrates
(4) It is involved in both anabolism and catabolism

39) Water splitting complex

(1) Is associated with PS II

(2) Maintains a continuous electrons supply to reaction centre of PS II
Is associated with cyclic photophosphorylation and is situated on outer side of the thylakoid
(3)
membrane
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct

40) Hypogynous flowers have/show

(1) Half inferior ovary

(2) Floral parts situated at the rim of thalamus
(3) Gynoecium occupying the highest position
(4) Thalamus enclosing the ovary completely

41) The number of GTPs produced by 2 acetyl CoA molecules during TCA cycle of aerobic respiration
is

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 38
(4) 4

42) Select the correct option to fill in the given blanks

(1) A - Chlorophyceae, B – Starch

(2) B - Laminarin, C - Chlorophyll a and b
(3) B - Mannitol, C - Chlorophyll a and d
(4) A - Phaeophyceae, B - Starch

43) Identify A to D in the following figure

(1) A : Petals, B : Carpel, C : Basal, D : Androccium.

(2) A : Androecium, B : Basal, C : Carpel, D : Petals
(3) A : Basal, B : Androccium, C : Petals, D : Carpel
(4) A : Carpel, B : Basal, C : Androecium, D : Petals

44) All of the following are tissues of stele, except

(1) Pith
(2) Pericycle
(3) Vascular bundles
(4) Endodermis

45) In plants, ethylene

(1) Is a derivative of carotenoids

(2) Causes dormancy in seeds and buds
(3) Is the only gaseous hormone
(4) Is responsible for bolting

46) Scapula is situated in the __A__ part of the thorax between the __B__ and the __C__ ribs

(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)
3
(4) 4

47) How many organism in the list given below do respiration by general body surface.
Insects, Sponges, Flatworm, Fishes, Birds, Coeleterates, Reptiles

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5

48) The muscles located in the inner walls of the digestive tract are __A__ and __B__.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Match the source gland with respective hormone :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Match the correct points from List-I & List-II

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

51) Among vertebrates which of the following can respire through skin ?

(1) Birds
(2) Mammals
(3) Reptiles
(4) Amphibians

52) Choose the correct option for given diagram of myosine monomer –

(1) 01
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Assertion:- Diabetes insipidus caused by deficiency of ADH.

Reason:- ADH is Released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

54) In resting condition the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a ___A___ while its inner
surface becomes ___B___ and therefore is Polarised
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of impulse conduction through an axon

Select the option with the incorrect information about impulse conduction at points A and B

An electric current flow son the inner surface from site A to B and on outer surface, from site B
(1)
to A to complete the circuit
An electric current flow son the inner surface from site A to B and on outer surface, from site B
(2)
to A to complete the circuit
(3) Polarity at the site-B is reversed and hence called Hyperpolarisation
(4) The rise in the stimulus induced permeability to Na is extremely short lived at site-A

56) Which respiratory capacity is correctly matched with its formula :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right when:

(1) pO2 increases

(2) pCO2 decreases
(3) pH decreases
(4) Temperature decreases

58) Choose the correct statement :-

 RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute
(1)
quantities of the same is present in the plasma too
RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and much higher
(2)
quantities of the same is present in the plasma too
(3) Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes irreversible reactions
(4) Carbonic anhydrase is a Ca+2 containing enzyme

59) Feature are not related to cyclostomes is

(1) 6-15 pairs of gill slits

(2) Mouth sucking & with jaws
(3) Shows migration for spawning
(4) Devoid of scales

60) Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Hormone can accelerate & retard a specific reaction

(2) Hormone are not species specific and non-antigenic substance
(3) All hormone can be stored in the body
(4) Hormone is always secreted in a small quantity

61) Hormone is always secreted in a small quantity

(1) A-Pisces, B-Tetrapoda

(2) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces
(3) A-Tetrapoda, B-Pisces
(4) A-Pisces, B-Cyclostomata

62) Assertion:- Hemichordates are considered as a subphylum under phylum chordata.

Reason:- Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure called stomochord, similar to notochord

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Assertion is false but the Reason is True

63) Match the following columns:-

(1) 1 – IV, 2 – III, 3 – I, 4 – II
(2) 1 – IV, 2 – I, 3 – III, 4 – II
(3) 1 – IV, 2 – III, 3 – II, 4 – I
(4) 1 – I, 2 – III, 3 – II, 4 – IV

64) Find out the incorrect statement :

(1) Find out the incorrect statement :

(2) In diabetes mellitus patients are can be treated with insulin therapy
(3) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is secreted to increase B.P.
(4) Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake and utilisation

65) Choose the incorrect statement:-

(1) In amphibia and reptiles incomplete double circulation present

(2) In arthropods and molluscs closed circulatory system present
(3) In joint diastole stage semilunar valves are closed
(4) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the liver

66) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals
B. They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body
C. They range from soft connective tissues to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone,
adipose and blood
D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate between
cells and fibres and act as matrix How many of the following statements are correct :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Three
(4) One
67) Select the correct option :

(1) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

(2) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

68) Statement-I:- Frog respires on land and in water by skin.

Statement-II:- In male and female frogs, ureters act as urinogenital tract which open into cloaca

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are false
(3) Statement-II is true and Statement-I is false
(4) Statement-II is false and Statement-I is true

69) Fill in the blanks There is (a) between flat skull bones. There is (b) between adjacent vertebra in
vertebral column

(1) a-Fibrous joint, b-cartilaginous joint

(2) a-cartilaginous joint, b-fibrous joint
(3) a-ball and socket joint, b-fibrous joint
(4) a-fibrous joint, b-ball and socket joint

70) Match the following columns :-

(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

71) Assertion:- Inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tube is mainly lined by
compound epithelium.
Reason:- Cilliary movement is responsible to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over
the epithelium

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

72) Match the following with respect to cockroach:-

(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(vi)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(v)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(v)

73) In the cockroach the sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles and are glued together in the
form of bundles called _______.

(1) Ootheca
(2) Ovarioles
(3) Spermatophores
(4) Seminal vesicles

74) Generally the cotton fibre and arthropods exoskeletons are made up of respectively :-

(1) Starch and chitin

(2) Cellulose and starch
(3) Cellulose and chitin
(4) Starch and cellulose

75) Origin of heartbeat and its conduction is represented by:-

(1) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

(2) Purkinje fibres → AV node → SA node → Bundle of His
(3) SA node → Purkinje fibres → AV node → Bundle of His
(4) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres

76) In the given diagram, choose the correct for labelled parts :-

(1) P→ is afferent arteriole of renal artery

(2) Q→Carry glomerular filtrate from glomerulus
(3) R→ Malpighian tubules
(4) S→ Loop of Henle

77) Statement-I:- Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.

Statement-II:- Certain factors released by tissues at the site of injury also can initiate coagulation

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

78) The enzymes needed in biological systems for joining two molecules, are called:

(1) Lyases
(2) Ligases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Hydrolases
79) Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately
and mark the correct answer from options given below :–

(1) D-i, C-ii, B-iii, A-iv

(2) D-i, B-ii, A-iii, C-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, D-iii, C-iv
(4) B-i, C-ii, A-iii, D-iv

80) Following diagram is related with:-

(1) Tendon
(2) Ligament
(3) 1 & 2 both
(4) Tissue present in the skin

81) Assertion:- Na+-K+ pump always remains open/active except depolarization.

Reason:- Na+-K+ pump always try to maintain resting stage or normal polarised state.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

82) Which of the following statements are correct ? A. Hepatic caecae is present at the
junction of foregut and midgut. B. Gizzard used for storing of food. C. Oesophagus is
a narrow tubular passage.
D. Excretion is performed by 100-150 malpighian tubules

(1) Only A, D
(2) Only A, B
(3) Only A, C, D
(4) All A, B, C, D

83) Read the following statements from A to D. A. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians
and marine fishes mainly excrete urea B. Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of
the insects including cockroaches. C. Each kidney in humans has nearly one million
nephrons. D. Human kidneys can produce erythropoietin hormone.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

84) Which one increases strength of heart contraction?

(1) Thymosin
(2) ACTH
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Melatonin

85) Which one is not a cofactor?

(1) Coenzyme
(2) Apoenzyme
(3) Prosthetic group
(4) Metal ions

86) The characteristic of class Reptilia are :-

Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by tympanum,
(1)
alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract open into a common cloaca
(2) Fresh water, animals with bony endoskeleton, airbladder to regulate buoyancy
(3) Marine animals with cartilagineous endoskeleton.
(4) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, with epidermal scales or scutes

87) Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening between:-

(1) Right atrium and Right ventricle

(2) Left atrium and Left ventricle
(3) Right atrium and Left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and Right ventricle

88) Which is a true fish?

(1) Angel fish

(2) Jelly fish
(3) Cuttle fish
(4) Silver fish

89) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon and is commonly found in:-

(1) Autonomous neural system

(2) Central neural system
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) Both (1) & (3)

90)

Hormones of fight and flight are responsible for:-

(1) Inhibition of sweating

(2) Pupilary contraction
(3) Piloerection
(4) Decrease strength of heart contraction
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 4 2 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 4 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 527°C

2) Its less than or equal to its magnitude

3) 40 m

4)

5) 4 U

6) 21/3 : 1

7) 4l/5

8) 0.7

9) Zero vector

10) 2T

11) 0.8

12) 24 J

13) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

14) Greater than 40°C

15) 19

16) 2R
17)

18) 2.42 mm

19) Inertia of direction

20) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

21) tan–1 (2)

22) Angular momentum

23) 1.50

24) The total mechanical energy is directly proportional to the amplitude

25) Its momentum is doubled

26)

27) 12 : 13

28)

29)

Two particles of masses m and 4m are moving in horizontal circles. The heavier mass moves in
a circle of radius R/4, while the lighter mass moves in a circle of radius R. If both particles
experience the exact same centripetal force, the speed of the lighter particle is k times the
speed of the heavier particle. Find the value of k.

30)

31)

32) 4/25

33)

34) 3.0%

35)

36) Solid sphere

37) 50 m

38) Nearer to M

39) 446 Hz

40)

41) 303 m/s

0
42) [FA–1V ]

43) 8 kg

44) 1/8

45) 2.4 s
CHEMISTRY

46) d < b < a < c

47) 5

48) 4

49) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

50) (E)-2-hepten-4-yne

51) Distillation under reduced pressure

52) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect

53) A-(r), B-(p), C-(s), D-(q)

54) 5-Bromo pent-1-en-3-01

55)

56) 4

57) Chloromethane

58) H2, Pd/C, quinoline

59) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

60)

61) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of assertion
62) (a), (b) and (c) only

63) 0.625 g

64) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)

65) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

66) (ii) and (iv) only

67)

68) b and c only

69)

70) 1.8 × 10–5

71)

72) 4.6 R

73)

74) 7

75) Pbl4

76) 44.8L

77) Ag2CrO4

78)

79) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

 80) In the electromagnetic spectrum, the wavelength of -rays is more than that of X-rays

81) 1.9 kJ/mol

82) Twice

83) a-(iv), (p); b-(iii), (s); c-(i), (q); d-(ii), (r)

84) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

85) Both statements I and statement II are correct.

86) a, b, c and d

87) (ii) and (iv) only

88) 618 kJ mol–1

89) –6.89 kJ and 0

90) (a) and (c) only

BIOLOGY

91) Floridean starch is stored food in the members of Phaeophyceae

92) Have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal

93) Phylloclade

94) FMN→ UQ → Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Cyt c → Cyt a-a3

95) (C) and (D) only

96) Being imperforated

97) Acetyl CoA

98) One

99) Lack of endosperm

100) Provides mechanical support to the stem but does not involve in conducting water

101) Only (a) and (b)

102) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell

103) The primary CO2 acceptor in the Calvin cycle is a 2-carbon compound, so the first product
is a 3-C acid

104) 2

105) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

106) Towards the stroma side of thylakoid membrane

107) Inhibits senescence

108) Cytokinins

109) Oxidative decarboxylation

110) Both (A) and (B) are correct

111) Ethylene

112) Auxin

113) Electrons from PS I and protons from stroma

114) Gibberellic acid

115) Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place

116) Oxalosuccinic acid into -ketoglutaric acid

117) Angiosperms – Archegoniate spermatophytes

118) (i) 3-carbon; (ii) Mesophyll cells

119) Being enucleate at maturity

120) CF0-particle

121) Generic name

122) Lack double membraned cell organelles

123) (b) and (c) are true

124) 50% and 20%

125) Auxin – Apical dominance

126) Sequoia, a gymnosperm

127) Loosely and spirally arranged sporophylls along an axis

128) It is involved in both anabolism and catabolism

129) Both (1) & (2) are correct

130) Gynoecium occupying the highest position

131) 2

132) B - Mannitol, C - Chlorophyll a and d

133) A : Carpel, B : Basal, C : Androecium, D : Petals

134) Endodermis

135) Is the only gaseous hormone

136) 3

137) 3

138) 3

139) 2

140) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

141) Amphibians

142) 3

143) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

144) 2

145) Polarity at the site-B is reversed and hence called Hyperpolarisation

146) 1

147) pH decreases

148) RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute
quantities of the same is present in the plasma too

149) Mouth sucking & with jaws

150) All hormone can be stored in the body

151) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces

152) Assertion is false but the Reason is True

153) 1 – IV, 2 – III, 3 – II, 4 – I

154) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is secreted to increase B.P.

155) In arthropods and molluscs closed circulatory system present

156) Four

157) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

158) Statement-II is false and Statement-I is true

159) a-Fibrous joint, b-cartilaginous joint

160) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

161) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

162) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(vi)

163) Spermatophores

164) Cellulose and chitin

165) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

166) P→ is afferent arteriole of renal artery

167) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

168) Ligases

169) D-i, C-ii, B-iii, A-iv

170) Tissue present in the skin

171) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

172) Only A, C, D

173) Four
174) Adrenaline

175) Apoenzyme

176) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, with epidermal scales or scutes

177) Left atrium and Left ventricle

178) Angel fish

179) Both (1) & (3)

180)

Piloerection