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Date : 14/02/2026

A
Test Booklet Series

Test Code
01061426

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GENERAL STUDIES
FULL TEST-6

POLITY + Current Affairs

01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Before attempting paper please read the instructions given on page no. 2 carefully and follow
them.

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct Q.4 Consider the following statements about
post the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India? the Indian Constitution:
(a) Article 21 was amended to bring in 1. The Constitution of India defines the
the due process of law in place of meaning of ‘religion’ in Article 366.
procedure established by law. 2. Article 25 protects both theist as well
(b) Article 21 was interpreted to require as atheist beliefs.
that the procedure established by law 3. Though the Union of India cannot
must be fair, just and reasonable. have an official religion, the State
(c) The phrase procedure established by Governments are allowed to declare a
law was omitted from Article 21. State religion.
(d) None of the above. 4. The neutrality towards religion does
not connote the non-interference of the
100% 75% 50% Guess State in religion.
How many of the statement(s) given above
Q.2 Consider the following statements with
is/are correct?
reference to the Directive Principles of
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
State Policy (Part IV) of the Constitution:
(b) 2 and 4 only
I. These principles are fundamental in
(c) 2 and 3
the governance of the country.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
II. These principles impose legal
obligations on the State, enforceable 100% 75% 50% Guess
by writ jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court. Q.5 Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are considering international migration:
correct? 1. All refugees are migrants.
(a) I only 2. All migrants are stateless.
(b) II only 3. All refugees are stateless.
4. All refugees are illegal immigrants.
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II How many statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
100% 75% 50% Guess (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q.3 The idea of ‘justice’ in India is challenged (c) Only three
in how many of the following statements? (d) All four
1. Rising income inequality in India
2. No right to vote to prisoners in India 100% 75% 50% Guess
3. Caste inequality in India
Q.6 Consider the following situation:
Select the correct answer from the codes
1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha
given below:
is 233 (elected) and 12 (nominated).
(a) Only one
2. The total membership of Lok Sabha is
(b) Only two
543.
(c) All three
3. The number of seats vacant in Rajya
(d) None
Sabha is 5 (elected).
4. The number of seats vacant in Lok
100% 75% 50% Guess
Sabha is 1 (elected).

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2026

Which of the following statement(s) is/are 2. The Vice-President may hold his office
correct with respect to election and removal beyond his term until his successor
of the Vice-President? assumes charge.
1. The electoral college of the Vice 3. Upon the dissolution of Lok Sabha, the
President election would be 770 (total Speaker does not resign from the office
number of elected seats in Rajya Sabha until his successor assumes office.
+ total number of elected seats in Lok How many statement(s) given above is/are
Sabha minus vacancies). correct?
2. The removal of the Vice President (a) Only one
requires a majority of more than (b) Only two
50% of 240 members of Rajya Sabha (c) All three
(majority of total members of Rajya (d) None
Sabha minus vacancies).
Select the correct answer from the codes 100% 75% 50% Guess
given below:
Q.9 Consider the following statements about the
(a) 1 only
ordinance making powers of the President:
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Statement I: Parliament has legislative
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 control over the ordinance issued by the
President under Article 123.
100% 75% 50% Guess Statement II: Every ordinance is required
to be laid before both Houses of Parliament
Q.7 Consider the following statements:
and ceases to operate at the expiration of one
1. Party with absolute majority
month from the reassembly of Parliament.
2. Pre-poll alliances with absolute
majority Statement III: When an ordinance involving
3. Single largest party with support of provisions of a Bill pending before the House
independents is promulgated, a statement explaining
4. Post-poll alliance with absolute the circumstances which had necessitated
majority immediate legislation has to be laid at the
commencement of the session following the
Arrange in order of preference in which
promulgation of the ordinance.
the Governor should call for forming
Government according to Sarkaria Which one of the following is correct in
recommendations: respect of the above statements?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (a) Both Statement II and Statement III
(b) 1-2-3-4 are correct and both of them explain
(c) 2-1-3-4 Statement I
(d) 2-1-4-3 (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and explains Statement I
100% 75% 50% Guess (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
correct and that explains Statement I
Q.8 Consider the following statements: (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III
1. The President may hold his office is correct
beyond his term until his successor
assumes office. 100% 75% 50% Guess

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Q.10 Consider the following statements about (c) Only four

the Governor: (d) All five
Statement I: The Constituent Assembly
100% 75% 50% Guess
opted for appointment of Governor by the
President instead of direct election as opted Q.12 How many of the following parts of the
in the draft Constitution. Constitution consist of only one Article?
Statement II: The mode of direct election 1. Part XX
was more likely to create conflicts between 2. Part IVA
the Governor and the Chief Minister. 3. Part IV

Statement III: An elected Governor would Select the correct answer from the codes
naturally belong to a party and would not be given below:
a neutral person and an impartial head. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in (c) All three
respect of the above statements? (d) None
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III
are correct and both of them explain 100% 75% 50% Guess
Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are Q.13 Which of the following statement(s)
correct but only one of them explain correctly distinguishes between Article 29
Statement I and Article 30?
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is (a) Article 29 applies only to minorities,
correct and that explains Statement I while Article 30 applies to all citizens.
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III (b) Article 29 protects cultural rights
is correct for all, while Article 30 protects
educational rights of minorities.
100% 75% 50% Guess (c) Article 29 deals with religious
minorities only, while Article 30 deals
Q.11 Which of the following DPSPs were included with linguistic minorities only.
in Part IV by the 42nd Constitutional (d) Article 29 grants restricted rights,
Amendment Act, 1976? while Article 30 grants absolute rights.
1. Ensuring healthy development and
protection of children and youth from 100% 75% 50% Guess
exploitation.
Q.14 With reference to DPSPs and fundamental
2. Equal justice and free legal aid.
rights, consider the following statements:
3. Living wage for the workers.
1. DPSPs are not enforceable by any
4. Participation of workers in management
statute while fundamental rights are
of industries.
automatically enforceable.
5. Provision for free and compulsory
2. DPSPs are subsidiary to fundamental
education for children below fourteen
rights in their existence.
years of age.
3. DPSPs cannot be used by the judiciary
Select the correct answer from the codes for adjudicating the validity of any law,
given below: but fundamental rights can be utilized
(a) Only two by the courts for adjudicating validity
(b) Only three of any law.

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2026

Which of the statements given above is/are Q.17 The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
not correct? abolished the constitutional obligation
(a) 1 and 2 only of the Government to pay compensation
(b) 2 and 3 only regarding compulsory acquisition of private
(c) 1 and 3 only property except in the case of?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) When the State acquires property
belonging to an educational institution
100% 75% 50% Guess established and administered by a
minority.
Q.15 Consider the following statements about (b) When the State acquires any estate
Article 15: belonging to a person in his personal
1. It only applies to citizens. cultivation within the ceiling limits
2. It states that the State shall provide established.
for special provision for women and (c) When the Union Government acquires
children. any property belonging to that of a
3. It allows the State to provide State Government.
special provisions for socially and (d) Both (a) and (b)
educationally, economically weaker
sections of citizens. 100% 75% 50% Guess

Which of the statement(s) given above is/ Q.18 Consider the following statements:
are correct? 1. The term of Lok Sabha is fixed by
(a) 1 and 2 only the Constitution as five years, unless
(b) 2 and 3 only dissolved earlier.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1978 increased the term of Lok Sabha
to six years.
100% 75% 50% Guess 3. During the proclamation of emergency,
the term of Lok Sabha can be extended
Q.16 How many of the following can make laws
for a period of six months at a time.
under Article 31C implementing principles
specified in Articles 39 (b) and (c) protecting Which of the statement(s) given above is/
them from being void for the violations of are correct?
Article 14 and 19? (a) 1 only
1. Governor (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Parliament
(d) All are correct
3. State Legislature
4. Municipalities and Panchayats 100% 75% 50% Guess
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below: Q.19 Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one Statement I: Whip cannot be issued for
(b) Only two voting in Rajya Sabha elections.
(c) Only three Statement II: Whip can be issued for voting
(d) None inside the Houses of Parliament but not
for elections conducted by the Election
100% 75% 50% Guess
Commission.

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Which one of the following is correct in (c) 1 and 4 only

respect of the above statements? (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct and Statement II is the correct 100% 75% 50% Guess
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II Q.22 Consider the following statements about
are correct but Statement II is not the Secretary General of Lok Sabha:
correct explanation of Statement I 1. He is appointed by the Speaker in
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II consultation with the Leader of the
is not correct House and the Leader of the Opposition.
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I 2. He enjoys complete immunity from
is not correct arrest in civil and criminal cases.
3. He functions as the Secretary of all
100% 75% 50% Guess
parliamentary Committees in Lok
Q.20 How many of the following Bills can be Sabha.
introduced as a private members’ Bill? Which of the statement(s) given above is/
1. Money Bill are correct?
2. Financial Bill-II (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Bill which reorganize States (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer from the codes (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below:
(a) Only one 100% 75% 50% Guess
(b) Only two
Q.23 Consider the following statements about
(c) Only three
(d) All four the President’s address:
1. At the commencement of the first
100% 75% 50% Guess session of every year, the President
customarily addresses both Houses of
Q.21 Consider the following statements regarding
the Parliament assembled together.
motions and resolutions in the Parliament:
2. During the dissolution of Lok Sabha,
1. All motions are resolutions which
Rajya Sabha can have its first session
require voting.
of the year without a President’s
2. All resolutions are motions which
address.
require voting.
3. Some resolutions need not be voted in Which of the statement(s) given above is/
the House. are correct?
4. Some motions need not be voted in the (a) 1 only
House. (b) 2 only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ (c) Both 1 and 2
are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only 100% 75% 50% Guess

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2026

Q.24 Consider the following statements regarding 3. The President of India can pardon
tenure of Governor’s office: cases involving contempt of Court.
1. A Governor holds office for a term of How many statement(s) given above is/are
five years from the date on which he correct?
enters upon his office. (a) Only one
2. This term of five years is subject to the (b) Only two
pleasure of the President. (c) All three
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ (d) None
are correct?
(a) 1 only 100% 75% 50% Guess
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q.27 With reference to the Ninth schedule,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. The Ninth schedule was inserted in the
100% 75% 50% Guess Constitution by the first Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1951.
Q.25 Consider the following statements: 2. Acts added after April 24, 1973 do not
The incumbent ministry may enjoy retrospective protection under
continue in the office until its successor the Ninth schedule.
assumes charge. Which of the statement(s) given above is/
Statement II: The council of ministers must are correct?
always exist to advise the governor, even (a) 1 only
after the dissolution of the state legislative (b) 2 only
assembly or resignation of a council of (c) Both 1 and 2
ministers. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Q.28 With reference to the Verma Committee on
are correct and Statement-II explains
Fundamental Duties, consider the following
Statement-I
statements:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
I. The Committee was constituted to
are correct, but Statement-II does not
explain Statement-I examine the legal enforceability of
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II fundamental duties.
is not correct II. It recommended that the fundamental
(d) Statement-I is not correct, but duties should be made justiciable.
Statement-II is correct Which of the statement(s) given above is/
are correct?
100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) I only
Q.26 Consider the following statements: (b) II only
1. The President of India can pardon all (c) Both I and II
cases of death sentences. (d) Neither I nor II
2. The President of India can pardon court
100% 75% 50% Guess
martial.

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Q.29 Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer from the codes
1. The term of member of Lok Sabha is given below:
five years. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. The term of member of Rajya Sabha is (b) 2 and 3 only
six years. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. The term of member of Lok Sabha is (d) 1, 2 and 3
mentioned in the Constitution.
100% 75% 50% Guess
4. The term of member of Rajya Sabha is
mentioned in the Constitution. Q.32 With reference to the Legislative Council in
How many statement(s) given above is/are a State, consider the following statements:
correct? 1. The maximum size of the Legislative
(a) Only one Council of the State is dependent on
(b) Only two the size of the Assembly.
(c) Only three 2. The minimum strength of the
(d) All four Legislative Council is fixed at 40
members.
100% 75% 50% Guess 3. The State Legislature is authorised to
modify the scheme of composition of
Q.30 Consider the following pair(s): the Legislative Council.
Feature of the Borrowed Which of the statement(s) given above is/
Constitution From are correct?
1. Federation with a Canadian (a) 1 only
strong Union Constitution (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Concurrent list Australian (c) 1 and 2 only
Constitution (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Fundamental duties Irish
Constitution 100% 75% 50% Guess

How many pair(s) given above is/are Q.33 Amendment to which of the following
correctly matched? provisions of the Constitution of India
(a) Only one require a special majority (i.e., a majority
(b) Only two of the total membership of the House
(c) All three and a majority of not less than two-thirds
(d) None of the members present and voting) and
ratification by the legislatures of not less
100% 75% 50% Guess than one-half of the States?
1. Goods and Services Tax Council
Q.31 The National Company Law Appellate 2. Extent of the executive power of the
Tribunal hears appeals under which of the Union and the States
following Act? 3. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
1. Companies Act, 2013 Supreme Court
2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 4. Union List in the Seventh Schedule
2016 5. Formation of new States
3. Competition Act, 2002 6. Fundamental Rights

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2026

Select the correct answer using the code (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
given below: are correct but Statement II is not the
(a) Only two correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Only three (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(c) Only four is not correct
(d) Only five (d) Statement II is correct but Statement I
is not correct
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.34 With reference to the Estimates Committee,
consider the following statements:
Q.37 How many of the following States fall
1. The Estimates Committee was
under both the provisions of the Sixth
established on the recommendation of
Schedule and have Inner Line Permit (ILP)
John Mathai, the then finance minister.
restrictions?
2. The Estimates Committee consists of
30 members drawn from both the Lok 1. Assam
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 2. Nagaland
3. Meghalaya
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
4. Mizoram
are correct?
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer from the codes
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
100% 75% 50% Guess (d) All four
Q.35 Which of the following parts of the
100% 75% 50% Guess
Constitution explicitly mentions the
uniform civil code (UCC)? Q.38 Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Fundamental duties working of collegium system in India:
(b) Fundamental rights 1. The collegium gives weightage to both
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
merit and seniority while considering
(d) None of the above
recommending a person.
100% 75% 50% Guess 2. The Government of India can send the
recommendation of collegium back for
Q.36 Consider the following statements: reconsideration.
Statement I: The non-compliance of Lok 3. If the CJI dissents, no recommendation
Adalats’ award does not amount to contempt shall be given to the Government.
of court. How many statement(s) given above is/are
Statement II: Lok Adalats are not courts correct?
under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. (a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in (b) Only two
respect of the above statements? (c) All three
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (d) None
correct and Statement II is the correct
100% 75% 50% Guess
explanation of Statement I

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Q.39 Consider the following statements: Q.41 Against the orders of which of the following,
1. The Supreme Court has original the Supreme Court cannot grant special
jurisdiction on disputes between the leave to appeal?
Government and the States arising 1. Armed forces tribunal
out of a pre-Constitutional treaty or 2. Inter-state river water tribunal
agreement. 3. Central administrative tribunal
2. The Supreme Court has original 4. High court
jurisdiction on issues related to Select the correct answer from the codes
elections to the Lok Sabha. given below:
3. The Supreme Court has original (a) 1 only
jurisdiction on disputes between the (b) 1 and 2 only
Government of India and all Union (c) 2 and 4 only
territories. (d) None
4. The Supreme Court has original
jurisdiction on criminal cases involving 100% 75% 50% Guess
crimes against the State.
Q.42 Which of the following statements is correct
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
about additional Judges of the High Court?
are not correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) No additional judge can be appointed
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only for a period of more than one year.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) Additional Judges are appointed by the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Governor.
(c) No additional judge can hold the office
100% 75% 50% Guess after attaining the age of sixty-two
years.
Q.40 Which of the following best describes the (d) All are correct.
Supreme Court as the final interpreter of the
Constitution? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) The Supreme Court has the exclusive
authority to apply the ‘Basic Structure Q.43 Consider the following statements:
doctrine’ to judicially review a Statement I: India’s Copyright Act, 1957
constitutional amendment. is not equipped to address AI-specific use
(b) The Supreme Court has the final cases, such as derivative AI outputs or
appellate authority in cases which training data rights.
involve substantial questions of law as
to the interpretation of the Constitution. Statement II: India lacks a regulatory
(c) All cases involving disputes related to framework to oversee how AI companies
the constitutionality of laws fall under access and use web content.
the original and exclusive jurisdiction Which one of the following is correct in
of the Supreme Court. respect of the above statements?
(d) The President can seek the Supreme (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Court’s opinion on any constitutional correct and Statement II is the correct
matter which the Court is bound to explanation of Statement I
provide. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct but Statement II is not the
100% 75% 50% Guess
correct explanation of Statement I

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Prelims Booster Test Series 2026

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II Q.46 With reference to the Prime Minister Dhan
is not correct Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY),
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I consider the following statements:
is not correct 1. The scheme aims to promote
sustainable agricultural practices and
100% 75% 50% Guess
increase farmers’ income through the
adoption of modern technologies.
Q.44 Consider the following statements: 2. The scheme provides financial
1. UPI enables both push and pull assistance for setting up micro-
irrigation facilities to enhance water-
transactions using a virtual payment
use efficiency.
address (VPA) with two-factor 3. One of the key components of the
authentication. scheme is to provide interest-free loans
2. UPI is built on IMPS (Immediate for procuring high-quality seeds.
Payment Service) and integrates 4. Under this scheme, subsidies are
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System provided for purchasing fertilizers to
(AePS). boost agricultural productivity.
How many of the statement(s) given above
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
is/are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.47 Consider the following statements regarding
Q.45 Consider the following statements regarding the NAMASTE scheme:
1. It is jointly initiated by the Ministry of
millets:
Social Justice and Empowerment and
1. Millets are small-grained, annual,
the Ministry of Housing and Urban
warm-weather cereals belonging to the Affairs.
grass family. 2. It aims to eliminate hazardous cleaning,
2. Millets have a tolerance for poor soil stop deaths of sewer and septic tank
and drought conditions. workers and ensure their safety and
3. The Food and Agriculture dignity.
Organization(FAO) declared 2023 as 3. The scheme is to be implemented in
all urban local bodies (ULBs) of the
the International Year of Millets.
country.
How many of the statement(s) given above
Which of the above given statement(s) is/
is/are correct? are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2, and 3

100% 75% 50% Guess 100% 75% 50% Guess

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 Polity + Current Affairs 01 - 31 July 2025 (Science and Tech, Art and Culture and Others)

Q.48 Consider the following: frozen corals are shallow-water corals

1. Measuring biomass and carbon stock preserved under polar ice sheets.
of a forest. (b) Super corals refer to heat-tolerant
2. Monitoring agricultural patterns such coral species or genotypes that survive
marine heatwaves, while frozen corals
as crop extent and growth cycles
are cryopreserved coral specimens
3. Tracking ground deformation caused
stored for future reef restoration.
by earthquake and volcanic activity
(c) Super corals are genetically modified
4. Generating atmospheric temperature corals developed in laboratories,
and humidity profiles for operational whereas frozen corals are naturally
weather forecasting. occurring corals that enter dormancy
Which of the above are the possible during colder ocean cycles.
(d) Super corals are coral communities
applications of the NISAR satellite mission?
growing near hydrothermal vents,
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
while frozen corals are fossilised reef
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only structures formed during past glacial
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only periods.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.51 Consider the following statements about
Q.49 Consider the following statements regarding judicial review in India:
deepfake technology: 1. It is defined under Article 13 of the
1. Deepfakes are part of a deep synthesis Constitution.
that uses deep learning and augmented 2. It enforces the principle of judicial
reality. supremacy.
2. Non-removal of deep fakes enabling Which of the statement(s) given above is/
impersonation or morphed content are correct?
when alerted, will result in the loss (a) 1 only
of safe harbour protection for online (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
platforms.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
are correct? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) 1 only
Q.52 Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. The acting Chief Justice of a High
(c) Both 1 and 2 Court must be appointed from within
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the existing Judges of the same Court.
2. Any person, duly qualified, can be
100% 75% 50% Guess
appointed as acting Judge of the High
Court, other than the Chief Justice of
Q.50 Which one of the following best
the High Court.
distinguishes “super corals” from “frozen
corals”, as used in recent climate and marine Which of the statement(s) given above is/
science research? are correct?
(a) Super corals are deep-sea corals (a) 1 only
adapted to high pressure, whereas (b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2 Q.55 Consider the following statements:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement I: The writ jurisdiction of the
High Courts is much wider than the writ
100% 75% 50% Guess
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Q.53 Consider the following statements: Statement II: Unlike the Supreme Court,
1. Biomanufacturing refers to usage of the High Courts can issue writ for the
engineered microbial, plant, and animal enforcement of statutory rights in addition
to produce commercially important to the fundamental rights.
products on scale. Which one of the following is correct in
2. This also includes the use of human respect of the above statements?
cells. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. All bioproducts are biodegradable correct and Statement II is the correct
4. It is a component of the BioE3 Policy explanation of Statement I
that aligns with the LiFE mission and (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
India’s Net zero carbon economy are correct but Statement II is not the
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
are correct?
is not correct
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
is not correct
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 100% 75% 50% Guess

100% 75% 50% Guess Q.56 Consider the following statements:

1. The High Courts have superintendence
Q.54 Consider the following pairs:
over all courts within the territory of
Components Associated with Namame the State except the tribunals.
Ganga Programme Interventions 2. The High Courts cannot use the writ
1. Nirmal Ganga Setting up sewage of certiorari against an order from an
treatment plants (STPs) administrative tribunal.
2. Aviral Ganga Wetland Conservation
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
and aquifer mapping
are correct?
3. Gyan Ganga Scientific research to
(a) 1 only
craft evidence-based policies for river
(b) 2 only
management.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statement(s) given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one 100% 75% 50% Guess
(b) Only two
Q.57 Which of the following petitions were
(c) All three evolved by the Supreme Court as a “court
(d) None of last resort” which are admitted only
when there is a grave error of judgment or
100% 75% 50% Guess
abuse of process?

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(a) Review petition How many statute(s) given above enable

(b) Curative petition Public Interest Litigations (PILs) in India?
(c) Special leave petition (a) Only one
(d) Writ petition (b) Only two
(c) Only three
100% 75% 50% Guess
(d) All four
Q.58 The law declared by the Supreme Court
shall be binding on all courts within the 100% 75% 50% Guess
territory of India. In this, the word ‘all
Q.61 Which of the following statements is correct
courts’ include:
(a) All courts except the Supreme Court. with respect to tribal and scheduled areas?
(b) All courts including the Supreme (a) The Governor can increase the area
Court. of the scheduled area in a State under
(c) All courts except the family Courts Schedule V.
established by the State Government. (b) The President can increase the area
(d) All courts except the courts established of the autonomous district in a State
by the Parliament under Article 247. under Schedule VI.
(c) Only six States in India have tribal
100% 75% 50% Guess areas under Schedule VI.
Q.59 Consider the following statements about (d) Only ten States in India have scheduled
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities areas under Schedule V.
(Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities):
100% 75% 50% Guess
1. It is a constitutional office given under
Article 350B of the Constitution.
Q.62 Consider the following Union territories:
2. The primary role is to oversee the
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
working of safeguards provided to
linguistic minorities under Article 29 2. Lakshadweep
and 30. 3. Chandigarh
3. No linguistic minority can have any of 4. National Capital Territory of Delhi
the Scheduled languages as its mother For how many of the above Union territories,
tongue. the President cannot make regulations for
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ peace, progress and good government?
are correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All four
(d) 1, 2 and 3
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.63 Which of the following is necessary to
Q.60 Consider the following statutes: provide the power to levy certain taxes to
1. Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 the Panchayats?
2. Public Interest Litigation Techniques (a) Parliament can confer, by law, such
Act, 1986 powers to the Panchayats.
3. Right to Information Act, 2005 (b) Article 243 must be amended to provide
4. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 such powers to the Panchayats.

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(c) State Legislature can confer, by law, Q.66 Consider the following statements:
such powers on the Panchayats. 1. All major ports in India are administered
(d) State Government by gazette by Port Trust Boards.
notification can confer such powers to 2. The chairperson of a Port Trust Board
the Panchayat. is compulsorily directly elected.

100% 75% 50% Guess Which of the statement(s) given above is/
are not correct?
Q.64 Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Municipal Corporations are established (b) 2 only
to oversee the urban governance in big (c) Both 1 and 2
cities and metropolitan areas. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Nagar Panchayats are established to
govern areas that are transitioning 100% 75% 50% Guess
from rural areas to urban areas.
3. The Constitution specifies a population Q.67 With reference to the Speaker of the Lok
range for the establishment of Nagar Sabha, consider the following statements:
Panchayats, Municipal Corporations, While any resolution for the removal of
and Municipalities. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under
How many of the statement(s) given above consideration
is/are correct? 1. He shall not preside.
(a) Only one 2. He shall not have the right to speak.
(b) Only two 3. He shall not be entitled to vote on the
(c) All three resolution in the first instance.
(d) None Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) 1 only
Q.65 Consider the following statements: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The Chief Justice of India can transfer a (c) 2 and 3 only
judge of the High Court for disciplinary (d) 1, 2 and 3
action.
2. The Chief Justice of India can establish 100% 75% 50% Guess
an in-house Committee to conduct an
Q.68 With reference to the Parliament of India,
inquiry into allegations of misconduct
consider the following statements:
without impeachment procedure
1. Prorogation of a House by the President
initiated in the Parliament.
of India does not require the advice of
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ the council of ministers.
are correct? 2. Prorogation of a House is generally
(a) 1 only done after the House is adjourned sine
(b) 2 only die but there is no bar to the President
(c) Both 1 and 2 of India prorogating the House which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done
100% 75% 50% Guess by the President of India who, save in

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exceptional circumstances, does so on (c) Both 1 and 2

the advice of the council of ministers. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
100% 75% 50% Guess
correct?
(a) 1 only Q.71 Which of the following statements are
(b) 1 and 2 only correct in respect of a money Bill in the
(c) 2 and 3 only Parliament?
(d) 3 only 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure
in respect of money Bills.
100% 75% 50% Guess
2. A money Bill shall not be introduced in
Q.69 With reference to the Union Government, the Council of States.
consider the following statements: 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve
1. The Department of Revenue is the Bill or suggest changes but cannot
responsible for the preparation of the reject it.
Union Budget that is presented to the 4. The amendments to a money Bill
Parliament. suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Consolidated Fund of India without Select the correct answer from the codes
the authorization from the Parliament given below:
of India. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. All the disbursements made from Public (b) 2 and 3 only
Account also need the authorization (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
from the Parliament of India. (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.72 Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Preamble has been amended once
(c) 2 only
till date.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Article 368 has been amended twice
100% 75% 50% Guess till date.
3. Till date, four Delimitation
Q.70 Regarding the Legislative Assembly of Commissions have been set up.
a State in India, consider the following Which of the statements given above is/are
statements:
correct?
1. The Governor makes a customary
(a) 1 and 2 only
address to members of the House at the
(b) 2 and 3 only
commencement of the first session of
(c) 1 and 3 only
the year.
(d) None
2. When a State Legislature does not have
a rule on a particular matter, it follows
100% 75% 50% Guess
the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.73 Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. The Parliament has the exclusive
(a) 1 only powers to make laws in respect of
(b) 2 only goods and services tax (GST).

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2. The Parliament has the exclusive Select the correct answer from the codes
powers to make laws in respect given below:
to residuary subjects (matters not (a) 1 and 2 only
mentioned in any of the Lists under (b) 2 and 3 only
Schedule VII). (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
are correct? 100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q.76 Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
Statement I: The Governor is not answerable
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
to the court for actions under Article 200.
100% 75% 50% Guess Statement II: Article 361 provides personal
immunity to the Governor for exercise and
Q.74 Consider the following statements: performance of powers and duties of his
Statement I: A State, in its discretion, office.
makes grants for implementation of a State- Which one of the following is correct in
sponsored scheme on the matter of “X”, a respect of the above statements?
Union subject. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement II: The State can make correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
discretionary grants, even beyond their
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
respective legislative competency, for any
are correct and Statement-II is not the
‘public purpose’.
correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement III: The recommendations of the (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
Finance Commission are required to make is not correct
any such discretionary grants. (d) Statement-I is not correct but
Which one of the following is correct in Statement-II is correct
respect of the above statements?
100% 75% 50% Guess
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III
are correct and both of them explain Q.77 Consider the following statements:
Statement I 1. A national emergency under Article
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement- 352 can be proclaimed even on the
III are correct but only one of them grounds of imminent danger of war,
explains Statement-I external aggression or armed rebellion.
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is 2. The President’s satisfaction under
correct and that explains Statement I Article 352 cannot be judicially
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III reviewed.
is correct 3. While the President can proclaim
national emergency, he does not
100% 75% 50% Guess
have the power to revoke any such
Q.75 Which of the following are not liable to be proclamation.
shared between the Centre and the States? How many statement(s) given above is/are
1. Surcharges correct?
2. Dividends from CPSUs (a) Only one
3. Cesses (b) Only two

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(c) All three Select the correct answer from the codes
(d) None given below:
(a) Only one
100% 75% 50% Guess (b) Only two
(c) Only three
Q.78 The right to move to any court for the
(d) All four
enforcement of which of the following
fundamental rights can be suspended by the 100% 75% 50% Guess
President during the operation of national
emergency? Q.81 Consider the following statements:
(a) Article 14 1. Article 3
(b) Article 20 2. Article 367
(c) Article 21 3. Article 370
(d) All of the above 4. Article 368
How many Article(s) given above was/were
100% 75% 50% Guess utilized for the purpose of abrogation of
Article 370 and reorganization of the State
Q.79 Consider the following statements regarding
of Jammu and Kashmir?
constitutional amendment Bills requiring
(a) 1 and 4 only
States ratification:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. For a Bill that requires ratification by
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
the States, the Constitution does not
(d) All are correct
prescribe a time limit within which the
State Legislatures must provide their 100% 75% 50% Guess
consent.
2. The ratification of such a Bill by the Q.82 Consider the following statements:
State Legislatures requires a simple I. India never followed a multi-member
majority in each of those States. constituency system in elections.
II. Until 1996, there was no restriction
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
on the number of constituencies from
are correct?
which a candidate could contest.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Which statement(s) given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) I only
(b) II only
100% 75% 50% Guess (c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor 2
Q.80 How many of the following words have
been added to the Constitution by the 42nd 100% 75% 50% Guess
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
Q.83 Consider the following statements:
1. Socialist
1. The High Courts have the original
2. Secular
jurisdiction in hearing the disputes
3. Unity related to the elections of members of
4. Integrity Parliament.

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2. The High Courts, at the conclusion Select the correct answer from the codes
of the trial of an election petition, given below:
can declare election of the returned (a) 1 and 2 only
candidate void and any other candidate (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
duly elected. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
are correct?
(a) 1 only 100% 75% 50% Guess
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q.86 Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Announce the dates and timetables
for Lok Sabha elections in India and
100% 75% 50% Guess scrutinize nomination documents.
2. Deregister political parties and allot
Q.84 Consider the following statements about
election symbols to them.
corrupt practices under the Representation
3. Appoint officers to investigate disputes
of People Act, 1951 (RPA, 1951):
concerning electoral arrangements.
1. The President can disqualify any
4. Cancel elections in case of rigging,
candidate for a maximum period of
6 years on the grounds of corrupt booth capturing, violence, or other
practices. irregularities.
2. The term “corrupt practices” is not 5. Disqualify candidates from fighting
defined under the RPA, 1951. elections for failure to lodge accounts
3. Any person who is disqualified on the of election expenses.
grounds of corrupt practices (Section 6. Create a schedule for broadcasting
8A) is also disqualified from voting political parties’ policies on radio and
during the period of disqualification. TV during election periods.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ Which of the above are powers and functions
are not correct? of the Election Commission of India ?
(a) 2 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
(d) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.85 Which of the following election(s) do not
Q.87 Consider the following statements about the
have NOTA (none of the above) as one of
Registrar General & Census Commissioner
the choices?
1. Elections of members of Rajya Sabha of India:
2. Elections of the President of India 1. He is entrusted with responsibility
3. Election to municipal corporations of coordinating the compulsory
across the country registration of births and deaths under
4. Bye-elections of members of State Registration of Births & Deaths (RBD)
Legislative Assemblies Act, 1969.

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2. He is responsible for planning, (c) 1 and 3 only

coordination and supervision of census (d) 1, 2 and 3
under Census Act, 1948.
3. His concurrence is necessary for 100% 75% 50% Guess
inclusion of any tribe/caste in the list of
Q.90 Consider the following statements about
Scheduled Tribes or Scheduled Castes.
University Grants Commission (UGC):
How many statement(s) given above is/are 1. UGC was established as a statutory
correct? Commission under the University
(a) 1 and 2 only Grants Commission Act, 1956.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. UGC has the power to make grants to
(c) 1 and 3 only eligible colleges and universities.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. UGC has been replaced by Higher
Education Commission of India
100% 75% 50% Guess
(HECI).
Q.88 Consider the following statements about How many statement(s) given above is/are
the Chief Information Commissioner: correct?
1. He is appointed by the President on the (a) Only one
advice of a Committee consisting of the (b) Only two
Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition (c) All three
of Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of (d) None
India.
2. His term of office is five years. 100% 75% 50% Guess
3. He cannot be removed from the office
except in like manner and on the like Q.91 Consider the following indices:
grounds as a judge of the Supreme 1. Contribution to GDP
Court. 2. Quality of Expenditure
3. Debt Index
How many statement(s) given above is/are
4. Debt Sustainability
correct?
(a) Only one How many sub-indices are used in NITI
(b) Only two Aayog’s Fiscal Health Index (FHI)?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) Only three
100% 75% 50% Guess (d) All four
Q.89 The fundamental right to menstrual health 100% 75% 50% Guess
and hygiene can be considered as a part of
which of the following fundamental rights? Q.92 Match the options mentioned in List-I with
1. Article 14 List II:
2. Article 21
3. Article 21A Initiatives Objectives
A. SVEEP 1. To report violations
Select the correct answer from the codes
of Model Code of
given below:
Conduct (MCC) or
(a) 1 and 2 only
election malpractices.
(b) 2 and 3 only

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B. cVIGIL 2. To increase voter (c) 2 and 3 only

turnout, educate (d) 1, 2 and 3
citizens about voting,
100% 75% 50% Guess
reduce invalid votes.
C. ECINET 3. To report voter turnout Q.95 Consider the following statements regarding
timely on election Gig economy in India:
day. 1. Gig economy is a labour market based
Select the correct answer from the codes on short-term, flexible, and task-based
given below: work.
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3 2. While Union Budget 2025-26 formally
(b) A-2, B-1, C-3 recognised gig and platform workers,
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2 there is no legal framework in India
(d) A-2, B-3, C-2 that defines a gig worker.
3. The Periodic Labour Force Survey
100% 75% 50% Guess (PLFS) has a dedicated classification
for Gig workers.
Q.93 Which of the following office(s) do not fall How many of the above statement(s) is/are
under the jurisdiction of the Chief Vigilance correct?
Commission? (a) Only one
1. Members of Parliament (b) Only two
2. Members of the All India Services (c) All three
3. CPSE Executives (d) None
4. Prime Minister
100% 75% 50% Guess
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below: Q.96 Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. A sovereign credit rating is an
(b) 1 only independent evaluation of a country’s
(c) 1 and 4 only creditworthiness, providing investors
(d) 3 and 4 only with insights into the risk level of
investing in its debt.
100% 75% 50% Guess 2. Inflation, political stability, and public
debt levels are key parameters to assess
Q.94 Some modern Olympic sports trace their
the sovereign credit rating.
origins to traditional games played in the 3. India’s sovereign credit rating stands
Indian subcontinent. Which of the following at AAA grade, according to all the
sports originated in India and are part of the popular credit rating agencies.
modern Olympic Games?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
1. Field Hockey
are correct?
2. Badminton
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Archery
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 1 and 3 only
below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 100% 75% 50% Guess

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Q.97 Which one of the following best describes Statement II: Reduction in lithostatic
the RECLAIM Framework, recently pressure on magma chambers allows
launched by the Ministry of Coal? trapped gases and magma to expand.
(a) A regulatory framework to assess Which one of the following is correct in
and monetise abandoned coal mines respect of the above statements?
through private sector participation (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
under the National Monetisation correct and Statement II is the correct
Pipeline explanation of Statement I
(b) A scientific and community-centric (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
framework for ecological restoration are correct but Statement II is not the
and sustainable land use of mined-out correct explanation of Statement I
coal areas after closure (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(c) A national carbon-offset mechanism is not correct
that allows coal companies to (d) Statement II is correct but Statement I
compensate emissions through is not correct
afforestation and carbon trading
(d) A safety compliance framework to 100% 75% 50% Guess
reduce occupational hazards and
improve labour welfare in active coal Q.100 Consider the following pairs:
mining regions Components Interventions
Associated with
100% 75% 50% Guess
Namame Ganga
Q.98 Consider the following statements: Programme
1. Maratha Military Landscapes was 1. Nirmal Ganga Setting up sewage
recently inscribed on the UNESCO treatment plants
World Heritage List. (STPs)
2. It consists of a group of forts located 2. Aviral Ganga Wetland Conservation
in the states of Maharashtra and and aquifer mapping
Tamilnadu, that supported Maratha 3. Gyan Ganga Scientific research to
military power, trade, and territorial craft evidence-based
control. policies for river
Which of the statement(s) given above is/ management.
are correct? How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) 1 only is/are correctly matched?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
100% 75% 50% Guess
100% 75% 50% Guess
Q.99 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Rapid melting of glaciers and nnnn
ice sheets can increase volcanic activity in
regions with sub-glaciated volcanoes.

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