23-05-2026

9610WMD801490250049 MD

PHYSICS

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In an LCR series circuit, current is maximum at resonance.
Statement II : Current in a purely resistive circuit can never be less than that in a series LCR
circuit (using same resistance) when connected to same voltage source.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

2) A square wave current switching rapidly between + 0.5 ampere and –0.5 ampere is passed
through an A.C ammeter. Then the reading shown by it, is

(1) 0.25 ampere

(2) 0.5 ampere

(3)

(4)

3) A point object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 25 cm. When it is at a distance
of 20 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 5 cm/sec. Find velocity of image at that instant :-

(1) 10 cm/sec
(2) 125 cm/sec
(3) 25 cm/sec
(4) 5 cm/sec

4) Light waves travel in vaccum along the y-axis. Which of the following may represent the
wavefront ?

(1) x = constant
(2) y = constant
(3) z = constant
(4) x + y + z = constant

5) The equations of two interferring waves are Y1 = b cos ωt and Y2 = b cos (ωt+ϕ) respectively.
Destructive interference will take place at the point of observation for the following value of ϕ :–

(1) 0°
(2) 360°
(3) 180°
(4) 720°

6) Refractive index of a prism is cosec(A/2). Then minimum angle of deviation is :-

(1) 180°–A
(2) 180°–2A
(3) 90°–A
(4) A/2

7) Which of the following statement is not correct when a junction diode is in forward bias :-

(1) The width of depletion region decrease

(2) Free electrons on n-side will move towards the junction
(3) Holes on p-side move towards the junction
(4) Electrons on n-side and holes on p-side will move away from junction

8) In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage source, voltage drop VAB(t) across the

resistance R is :-

(1) Is half wave rectified

(2) If full wave rectified
(3) Has the same peak value in the positive and negative half cycles
(4) Has different peak values during positive and negative half cycle

9) A circular plate of diameter a is kept in contact with a square plate of edge a as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be :-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

10) Figure represents a graph of maximum kinetic energy (KEmax) of photo-electrons and frequency
for a metal used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. The work function (ϕ0) of metal is :-
(1) 1 eV
(2) 1.5 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 3 eV

11) Which reaction is not the part of proton-proton cycle ?

(1) 1H + 1H → 1H + β + ν + Q
1 1 2 +

2 2 3 1
(2) 1H + 1H → 2He + 0n + Q
2 1 3
(3) 1H + 1H → 2He + Q
3 3 4 1
(4) 2He + 2He → 2He + 2(1H ) + Q

12) The correct relation between frequencies of x-rays, γ-rays, heat rays and radio waves :-

(1) γ-rays < x-rays < heat rays = radio waves.

(2) γ-rays > x-rays > heat rays = radio waves.
(3) γ-rays > x-rays > heat rays > radio waves.
(4) γ-rays < x-rays < heat rays < radio waves.

13) Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2 (f1 > f2 > f0). If the velocities of
the photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2 then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Velocity of a particle depend on time t according to equation,

V= + bt + The a, b, c and d represents the following quantities in order :-

(1) Distance, distance, acceleration, time
(2) Acceleration, distance, time, distance
(3) Acceleration, distance, distance, time
(4) Distance, acceleration, distance, time

15) if find percentage error in x

(1) 1%
(2) 3%
(3) 6%
(4) 4.5%

16) A car starts with constant acceleration a = 2 m/s2 at t = 0. Two coins are released from the car
at t = 3 & t = 4 seconds. Each coin takes 1 second to fall on ground. Then the distance between the
two coins (in metre) will be : (Assume coin sticks to the ground)

(1) 9 m
(2) 6 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 12 m

17) Two trains one of length 100 m and another of length 125 m, are moving in mutually opposite
directions along parallel lines, meet each other, each with speed 10 m/s. If their acceleration are 0.3
m/s2 and 0.2 m/s2 respectively, then the time they take to pass each other will be :

(1) 5 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 20 s

18) A person running horizontally observes that rain is falling on his head vertically with speed 10
m/s. He stops and observes that rain is coming at an angle 30° with vertical. Find the speed of rain
w.r.t. ground

(1) 20 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Two blocks of 7 kg and 5 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. An upward force of
200N is applied as shown in the diagram. The tension at the top of heavy rope at point P is- (g = 10
m/s2)

(1) 2.27 N
(2) 112.5 N
(3) 87.5 N
(4) 360 N

20) A force acting on a particle moving in the xy-plane is given by where x and y
are in m. The particle moves along a straight line from the origin to (5, 5). The work done by F is :-

(1) 125 J
(2) 66.7 J
(3) 35 J
(4) 25 J

21) A particle of mass 'm' describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle

is . The momentum of the particle is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A circular plate of diameter a is kept in contact with a square plate of edge a as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be :-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

23)

Find moment of inertia I of the system (Axis is perpendicular to the the plane passing through O) :

(1)

(2) 5mℓ2

(3)

(4)

24) For the wheel-and-axle system shown, which of the following expresses the condition required

for the system to be in static equilibrium?

(1) m1 = m2
(2) am1 = bm2
(3) am2 = bm1
2 2
(4) a m1 = b m2

25)

A ball of mass m is fired vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with velocity nve, where ve
is the escape velocity and n < 1. Neglecting air resistance, to what height will the ball rise ? (Take
radius of the earth as R) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Rn2

26) Eight equal drops of water each of radius r = 2 mm are falling through air with a terminal
velocity of 16 cm/s. The eight drops combine to form a big drop. The terminal velocity of the bigger
drop will be :

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 64 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

27) A wire of length ℓ, radius R is stretched by force F and a second wire of same material, with
length 2ℓ and radius 2R, is stretched with a force 2F; then the ratio of elongations in the two wires
is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) none of these

28) One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is expanded. During expansion, volume and temperature of

gas vary such that = constant. Find heat transfer during expansion if temperature of the gas
increases by 50K.

(1) 225R
(2) 125R
(3) 100R
(4) None of the above

29) The heat absorbed by the system in going through cyclic process is:

(1) 20000 J
(2) 39000 J
(3) 31400 J
(4) 10000 J

30) In the given figure, the initial and final states of a gas are shown by points i and f. The internal
energy of the gas at i is 10J. For the path iaf : dQ = 50J and dW = 20J. for the path ibf, if dQ = 36J
the value of dW will be equal to.

(1) 4J
(2) 12J
(3) 18J
(4) 6J

31) Time period of a pendulum suspended inside a lift descending with acceleration g/3 will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time period T. Find the time taken
in oscillation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) The equation for the displacement of stretched string is given by y = 4sin2π
where x and y are in cm and t in sec. Then frequency and velocity of the wave are :-

(1) 50 Hz; 50 m/s

(2) 60 Hz; 20 m/s
(3) 80 Hz; 80 m/s
(4) 50 Hz; 30 m/s

34) A tunning fork produce 5 beats/sec with 250 Hz, and 2 beats/sec with 257 Hz then its frequency
is :-

(1) 245 Hz
(2) 259 Hz
(3) 255 Hz
(4) 256 Hz

35)

If on the concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R(>r) the charge Q is distributed such that their
surface densities are same then the potential at their common centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

36)

The mathematical form of Gauss' law is In this reference which of the following is
correct ?

(1) E depends on the charge q which is enclosed within the Gaussian surface only
(2) E depends on the charge which is inside and outside the Gaussian surface
(3) E does not depend on the magnitude of charge q
(4) All of the above

37) A charged capacitor is connected with a resistor. After how many time constants; does the

energy of capacitor becomes of its initial value?

(1) 2.3
(2) 1.15
(3) 0.69
(4) 4.6

38) Figure shows three similar lamps L1,L2 and L3 connected across a power supply. If the lamp L3

fuses, how will the light emitted by L1 and L2 change?

(1) No change
(2) Brilliance of L1 decreases and that of L2 increases
(3) Brilliance of both L1 and L2 increases
(4) Brilliance of both L1 and L2 decreases

39) In the circuit, each resistance is 20Ω. The readings of A1, A2 and A3 are respectively :-

(1) 3A, 1.8 A, 1.2 A

(2) 3A, 1.2 A, 0.6 A
(3) 3A, 0.6 A, 1.2 A
(4) 3A, 0.6 A, 0.6 A

40) In the following figure, the reading of an ideal voltmeter V is zero. Then, the relation between R,

r1 and r2 is :-

(1) R = r2 – r1
(2) R = r1 – r2
(3) R = r1 + r2

(4)

41) Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 > i2. When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 10µT. If the direction of i2 is
reversed, the field becomes 30µT. The ratio i1/i2 is :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

42) A plane metallic sheet is placed with its face parallel to lines of magnetic induction B of a
uniform field. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected with a velocity v from a distance d from
the plane normal to the lines of induction. Then, the maximum velocity of projection for which the
particle does not hit the plate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) If a proton, deutron and α-particle on being accelerated by the same potential difference enters
perpendicular to the magnetic field, then the ratio of their kinetic energies is

(1) 1 : 2 : 2
(2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 2

44) A wire carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the form of the curve

The force acting on the wire is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

45) A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field with plane perpendicular to magnetic field
which changes from B0 to 4B0 in a time interval t. The average emf induced in the coil will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Mass of substance Number of atoms

A. 1.8 mg water I. 2 × 10–4 × NA

B. 9.8 mg sulphuric acid II. 1.5 × 10–4 × NA

 –4
C. 1.8 mg carbon III. 3 × 10 × NA
–4
D. 5.85 mg salt (NaCl) IV. 7 × 10 × NA

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2) If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of O2 gas formed at the anode under
identical conditions in electrolysis of water is

(1) 0.224 L
(2) 0.448 L
(3) 0.112 L
(4) 1.12 L

3) The plot of lnk vs for the following reaction gives a straight line with
the slope of line equal to –3.0 ×10 K. Activation energy for the reaction in J mol–1 is -
–5

(R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)

(1) 1.7 × 10–4

(2) 8.6 × 10–4
(3) 4.1 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–4

4) 0.05 M ammonium hydroxide solution is dissolved in 0.001 M ammonium chloride solution. What
will be the OH– ion concentration of this solution Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5

(1) 3.0 × 10–3 M

(2) 9.0 × 10–4 M
(3) 9.0 × 10–3 M
(4) 3.0 × 10–4 M

5) For the reaction

KP = 5 × 10–5 at 25°C. ΔG° for the reaction will be: (R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 24.5 kJ
(2) 40.5 kJ
(3) –7.3 kJ
(4) –40.5 kJ

6) When 25% CO2 reacted the equilibrium pressure developed is 6 atm for the reaction C(s) +
CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g), KP for the given reaction is :

(1) 2 atm
(2) 1.6 atm
(3) 3.2 atm
(4) 4.3 atm

7)

In a 0.5 molal solution of KCl, KCl is 50% dissociated. The freezing point of solution will be (Kƒ =1.86
K kg mol–1) :-

(1) 274.674 K
(2) 271.60 K
(3) 273 K
(4) 273.60 K

8)

Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) First line of Lyman series (P) n6 → n4 transition

(b) Third line of Balmer series (Q) n7 → n3 transition

(c) Fourth line of Paschen series (R) n5 → n2 transition

(d) Second line of Brackett series (S) n2 → n1 transition

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) S Q R P

(2) P Q R S

(3) S R P Q

(4) S R Q P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

10) One mole of an ideal gas at STP expands from 30 L to 40 L in vacuum then work done by the gas
will be :-

(1) 10 L-atm
(2) 101 J
(3) Zero
(4) 30 J

11) At 298 K and constant pressure the heat of formation of C2H2(g) and C6H6(g) is 230 and 85 kJ
mol–1. What will be the change in enthalpy for the reaction ?
3C2H2(g) → C6H6 (g)

(1) –605 kJ mol–1

(2) –205 kJ mol–1
(3) +205 kJ mol–1
(4) +605 kJ mol–1

12) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and
6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same partial
pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

13) For the following cell

Zn(s) | ZnSO4(aq) || CuSO4(aq) | Cu(s) ; = 1.1 V
When the concentration of Zn is 10 times the concentration of Cu+2, find ΔG in terms of Faraday ?
+2

(1) 1.1 F
(2) –1.1 F
(3) –2.14 F
(4) 2.14 F

14) The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order
respectively. Which of the following is correct?

(1) if [A] = 1 then r1 = r2 = r3

(2) if [A] < 1 then r1 > r2 > r3
(3) if [A] > 1 then r3 > r2 > r1
(4) All of these
15) The energy of an electron in an excited H-atom is –1.51 eV. Angular momentum of electron in
the given orbit will be

(1) 3h/
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) The transition metal having highest 3rd ionisation enthalpy is :

(1) Cr
(2) Mn
(3) V
(4) Fe

17) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
Reason (R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic configuration is observed than incompletely
filled electronic configuration.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

18) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Both metal and non-metal exist in p and d-block elements.
Statement (II): Non-metals have higher ionisation enthalpy and higher electronegativity than the
metals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

19) Select the compound from the following that will show intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

(1) H2O
(2) NH3
(3) C2H5OH
(4)

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
Statement (II) : Allotropic forms of carbon are due to property of catenation and pπ-dπ bond
formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

21) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six-membered covalent chelate when treated with NiCl2
solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In
the light of the above statements.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

22) Which order of dipole moment is correct ?

(1) CCl4 < CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3

(2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) BF3 > NH3 > NF3
(4) o-dichlorobenzene < m-dichlorobenzene < p-dichloro benzene

23) Which of the following is correct on the basis of MOT ?

(1) Bond strength of NO > CO

+ –
(2) Bond length order : O2 > O2 > O2
(3) Number of unpaired electrons order : O2 > NO > N2
–
(4) Number of ABMO electrons order : Be2 < O2 < N2

24) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Br2 is liquid metal

(2) I.E. of Na is greater than Mg
(3) Electron affinity of O is greater than S
(4) Electron affinity of Cl is greater than F

25) Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)2Cl2] ⇒ Hetroleptic complex

(2) [Pt(NO2)(NH3)(H2O)Cl] ⇒ Show optical isomerism
–3
(3) [Fe(OX)3] ⇒ Paramagnetic, show optical isomerism
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] ⇒ Show fac-mer isomer

26) Match the lists-

List-I List-II

(i) B < Ga < Al (a) I.E

(ii) Li < Na = K (b) Zeff

(iii) C<O<N<F (c) E.A

(iv) P < Si < S < Cl (d) Atomic size

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a

27) Which of the following order is not correct ?

(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 - Lewis acidic strength

(2) O(CH3)2 > O(SiH3)2 - Lewis basic strength
(3) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 - Acidic strength
(4) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 - Oxidising strength

28) Which of the following has banana bond :

(1) Si2(CH3)6
(2) C2(CH3)6
(3) Al2(CH3)6
(4) Al2Cl6

29) Select the correct statement :-

(a) Mn+3 act as stronger oxidising agent than Cr+3 & Fe+3
(b) MnF7, & all are known flouride
+3 +3
(c) La & Lu both are diamagnetic
(d) When K2Cr2O7 react with H2O2 in acidic medium it forms dark orange (CrO5) compound
(1) a,b,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c,d

30) Which of the following is correct :-

(1) German silver – Cu + Zn + C

(2) Brass – Cu + Sn
(3) Gun metal – Cu + Zn + Sn
(4) All of these

31) Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards SN2 reaction.
(I) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(II) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3
(III) (CH3)2CHCH2Cl
(IV) (CH3)3CCl

(1) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)

(2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(4) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)

32) Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is:

(1)

in presence of H2, Pd-BaSO4

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Amine) (pKb values)

(a) N-methylmethanamine (i) 9.30

(b) Ammonia (ii) 9.38

(c) N-methylaniline (iii) 4.75

(d) Benzenamine (iv) 3.27

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

35) The major products formed in the following reaction are

→?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 4-methylhex-3-en-2-one
(2) 4-ethylpent-3-en-2-one
(3) 3-methylhex-3-en-4-one
(4) 2-ethylhex-3-en-4-one

37)
Compound (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The most stable enolic form of 2,4-pentanedione is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in
alkali :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following compound is most reactive in electrophilic aromatic substitution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following is a basic amino acid:

(1) Lysine
(2) Serine
(3) Alanine
(4) Tyrosine

42) The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Chlorine is an electron withdrawing group but it is ortho, para directing in
electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Reason (R) : Inductive effect of Cl is more dominating compair to + M
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

44)

The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions :

The product 'C' is

(1) m–bromotoluene
(2) o–bromotoluene
(3) 3–bromo–2,4,6–trichlorotoluene
(4) p–bromotoluene

45) The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is :

(1) Chromatography
(2) Crystallisation
(3) Steam distillation
(4) Sublimation

BIOLOGY

1)
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the above given figure ?

One petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female bumble bee in size, colour
(1)
and markings.
(2) The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the flower.
(3) The flower employs 'Sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a particular species of bumble bee.
(4) Male bumble pseudocopulates with the flower.

2) Assertion :- Mycorrhiza is a parasitic association.

Reason :- In lichen, both partners are negatively affected.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Which of the following processes of decomposition involves the formation of a dark-coloured

amorphous substance called humus?

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Humification
(4) Mineralization

4) Which cell is spindle shaped and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell :-
(1) Archesporial cell
(2) Sporogenous cell
(3) Pollen mother cell
(4) Generative cell

5) Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example?

(1) XX type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper.

(2) XO condition in humans as found in Klinefelter’s syndrome, determines female sex.
(3) XX condition produces female fly in Drosophila.
(4) ZZ determine female sex in birds.

6) Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a Turner’s
syndrome in humans?

(1) Two X chromosomes

(2) Only one Y chromosome
(3) Only one X chromosome
(4) One X and one Y chromosome

7) Which of the following statements is not true for two genes that show 50 % recombination?

(1) The genes may be on non-homologous chromosomes.

(2) The genes are very tightly linked.
(3) The genes are showing independent segregation.
(4) The genes are present far apart at opposite ends of the same chromosome.

8) Apical hook formation in dicot seedling is the function of which of the following phytohormones?

(1) NAA
(2) Ethylene
(3) IBA
(4) Cytokinin

9)

Which one is correct option which is related to photosynthesis in sugarcane plant?

Mesophyll Bundle Sheath

(1) PEPCase OAA RuBisCO C3 - Cycle

(2) PEPCase Calvin Cycle RuBisCO OAA

(3) RuBisCO OAA PEPCase C3 - Cycle

(4) RuBisCO C2 - Cycle PEPCase C3 - Cycle

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The electron flow from PSII to NADP via ETS and PSI follows :-

(1) Uphill → Downhill → Uphill → Downhill

(2) Downhill → Uphill → Downhill → Uphill
(3) Downhill → Uphill → Uphill → Downhill
(4) Uphill → Downhill → Downhill → Uphill

11) The shape of guard cells occurs in stomata of grass leaf

(1) Dumb-bell shaped

(2) Kidney shaped
(3) Rectangular
(4) Barrel shaped

12) In a given diagram of cell membrane which letter represents a molecule of integral protein,

cholesterol and sugar respectively :-

(1) S, P, T
(2) T, P, S
(3) Q,R,P
(4) S,P,R

13) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is -

(1) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid

(2) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids
(3) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid
(4) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids

14) Assertion : Lion and tiger, the top carnivores are the most vulnerable organisms in an
ecosystem.
Reason : Only 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next trophic level.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15)

A – National park
B – Botanical garden
C – Sacred groves

D – Wild life safari parks E – Seed bank

I = Ex situ conservation,
II = In situ conservation
Select correct option which give correct information regarding question.
I II

1 B, D, E A, C

2 A, D B, C, E

3 B, C A, D, E

4 A, C B, D, E
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Identify the correct set of statements :-

(a) is the floral formula of Liliaceae family.

(b) Sun flower is an ornamental plant belongs to compositae family.
(c) Epipetalous androecium is found in Liliaceae and epitepalous androecium is found in Solanaceae.

(d) is the floral formula of Malvaceae family.

Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) एवं (d)

17) Which statement is incorrect ?

C4 plants show higher rate of photosynthesis at higher temperatures while C3 plants have lower
(1)
temperature optimum.
(2) Tropical plants have higher optimum temperature than the plants from temperate climate.
(3) Light reactions are more sensitive to temperature than dark reactions.
(4) The effect of water on photosynthesis is mainly indirect rather than direct.

18) Identify A, B, C and D in the developmental process in plant cell shown below :-

A B C D

Plasmatic Cell
(1) Maturation Senescence
growth division

Plasmatic Cell
(2) Maturation Senescence
growth division

Cell Plasmatic
(3) Maturation Senescence
division growth

Plasmatic Cell Cell

(4) Senescence
growth division maturation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Find the correct statements about fungi :-

(A) Most of the fungi are saprophytes
(B) Fungi can also survive as symbionts
(C) Sexual reproduction in fungi involves three steps
(D) Reduction division in fungi occurs in fruiting bodies which forms haploid spores

(1) A, B are correct

(2) C, D are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct
(4) A, B, C & D are correct

20) Which of the following are contrivances or adaptations for self pollinations ? :-
(a) Monocliny (b) Cleistogamy
(c) Chasmogamy (d) Protandry

(1) a, c
(2) a, b
(3) c, d
(4) b, c

21) Assertion : In an area, if there are 200 Parthenium plants and one huge banyan tree with large
canopy, biomass is more meaningful measurement of Population Density.
Reason : Pug marks and fecal pellets are used to estimate tiger census in our national parks and
tiger reserves.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) If you were to count the number of insects feeding on a big tree and number of small birds
depending on the insects as also the number of larger birds eating the smaller. What kind of energy
pyramid would you get for above food chain ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Assertion : Humus undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.

Reason : Humus is highly resistant to microbial action.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) In above pie-chart of vertebrates A represents Birds & D represents fishes then what will be C &

E respectively :-

(1) Reptiles & Amphibians

(2) Mammals & Crustaceans
(3) Mammals & Reptiles
(4) Amphibians & Mammals
25) Five carbon intermediate molecule of TCA cycle is :-

(1) Citric acid

(2) Succinyl CoA
(3) α–Ketoglutaric acid
(4) Fumaric acid

26) Statement-I : Kranz anatomy present in C4 plants.

Statement-II : The bundle sheath cells may form several layers around the vascular bundles of C4
plants.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

27) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A ⊕ i Inferior ovary

B % ii Zygomorphic

C iii Superior ovary

D G iv Actinomorphic

E v Epipetalous

F vi Epitepalous

A B C D E F

(1) iv v ii i iii vi

(2) iv ii i iii vi v

(3) v i iii iv vi ii

(4) i ii iii iv v vi
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) A pentapeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 180 then
what will be the molecular weight of that tetrapeptide ?

(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 666

29) Which one of the following is an aromatic amino acid ?

(1) Glutamic acid

(2) Lysine
(3) Tryptophan
(4) Glycine

30) If there are 20 Chromosomes in G1 phase, than what will be the number of Bivalent in Zygotene
stage.

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 40

31) In humans, the chromosomal condition of male is:

(1) 44 Autosomes + XO
(2) 44 Autosomes + XX
(3) 44 Autosomes + XY
(4) 44 Autosomes + XXY

32) X-chromosome is used in the determination of gender; therefore, it is known as:

(1) Autosomes
(2) Sex chromosome
(3) Microsome
(4) Oxysome

33) In Marchantia, the double stranded DNA contains 12% of the bases as cytosine. The
percentage of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :

(1) G 35%, A 24%, T 35%

(2) G 12%, A 19%, T 19%
(3) G 12%, A 38%, T 38%
(4) G 6%, A 44%, T 44%

34) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only?
(a) Genus is a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera.
(b) Classification is not a single step process.
(c) Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in family Convolvulaceae
(d) Taxonomic categories are both distinct biological entities and morphological aggregates.
Options :-

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c

35) Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms ?

(1) They are homosporous

(2) Male and female gametophytes are not free living
(3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
(4) Their seeds are not covered

36)

Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?

(1) Polio virus

(2) Tobacco masaic virus
(3) Viroids
(4) Cauliflower mosaic virus

37) Given below a diagram of mature embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select
correct option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Synergids Egg Central cell Antipodals

(2) Egg Synergids Central cell Antipodals

(3) Antipodals Central cell Synergids Egg

(4) Central cell Egg Synergids Antipodals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Assertion : Western ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma and The Himalaya are considered as
hotspots.
Reason : High level of species richness and high degree of endemism is found in these regions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Read all the given below statements with respect to growth factor.
(I) CO2 helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities.
(II) Nutrients (micro and macro essential elements) are required by plants for the synthesis of
protoplasm as well as act as source of energy.
(III) Low temperature is needed for plant growth.
(IV) Environmental signals like light and gravity also affect certain phases of growth.
Choose the correct option

(1) (I) and (IV) are incorrect

(2) (I), (II) and (III) are incorrect
(3) (I) and (IV) are correct
(4) (II) and (IV) are correct

40) How many molecules of CO2 are released in Krebs cycle per glucose molecule ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

41) Statement-I : Heterophylly is an example of plasticity.

Statement-II : In Buttercup, heterophyllous development is due to environment.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

42) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In roots the arrangement of primary xylem is exarch.
Reason (R) : In roots, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards
the primary of the organ.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

43) This molecule is related to :

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Lecithin
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Cerebroside

44) Cellular organelles with single membrane are:

(1) Nucleus, Ribosomes and Mitochondria

(2) Chromosomes, Ribosomes and Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosomes and Nucleus
(4) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and Endoplasmic reticulum

45) How many meiotic divisions required in rose plant to produce 500 pollen grains?

(1) 250
(2) 125
(3) 100
(4) 500

46) Assertion : There is uniform distance between two strands of DNA.

Reason : A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

47) Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II
 (a) Chara (i) Moss

(b) Pinus (ii) Lycopsida

(c) Selaginella (iii) Algae

(d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

48) Members of phycomycetes are found in

i. Aquatic habitats
ii. On decaying wood
iii. Moist and damp places
iv. As obligate parasites on plants

(1) None of these

(2) i and iv
(3) ii and iii
(4) All of the above

49) Match List -I with List - II.

List -I List -II

(a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome

(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria

Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of

(d) Cisternae (iv)
plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)

50) Assertion (A) : Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organism.
Reason (R) : Meiosis involve reduction in chromosome number to half as that of parent cell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

51) Number of chromosome pairs at equator in metaphase-I of a diploid plant cell (for which n = 25)
shall be-

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 75
(4) 25

52) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the properties of genetic material (DNA
vs. RNA) ?

(1) DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally more stable than RNA.
(2) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence it can easily express the characters.
(3) The presence of thymine at the place of uracil confers additional stability to DNA.
(4) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate, but DNA mutates at a much faster rate.

53) Assertion: Enzyme required for DNA replication is DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
Reason: It can polymerise a new DNA strand on an old RNA strand.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

54) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

55)

Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Placenta (i) Androgens

Human Chorionic
(b) Zona pellucida (ii)
Gonadotropin(hCG)
 Bulbo-urethral
(c) (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands

Lubrication of
(d) Leydig's cells (iv)
the Penis

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:

(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

57)

In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube?

(1) Zygote only

(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage

58) Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of
bats used in flying are an example of:

(1) Analogous organs

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Convergent evolution

59) Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis :

(a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-weed.
(b) The separation of DNA molecules in agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the size of DNA.
(c) The DNA migrates from negatively-charged electrode to the positively-charged electrode.
(d) The DNA migrates from positively-charged electrode to the negatively-charged electrode.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

60) Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)
deficiency ?

(1) Immunotherapy
(2) Radiation therapy
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Chemotherapy

61) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the [Link] vector pBR322. Which one of

the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ?

(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers

(2) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(3) ori-original restriction enzyme
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

62) Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?

(1) IgG
(2) IgD
(3) IgM
(4) IgA

63)

Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in

Column II

Column I Column II

(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum

 (b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water

(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine

(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy

(1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(3) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)

64) Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature
stated ?

(1) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation

(2) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(3) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
(4) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart

65) The four sketches (A,B,C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and
function ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Tissue Location Function

Smooth
Heart
(1) (D) muscle Heart
contraction
tissue
Secretion
Columnar
(2) (A) Nephron and
epithelium
absorption
Glandular
(3) (B) Intestine Secretion
epithelium
Attach
Collagen skeletal
(4) (C) cartilage
fibres muscles to
bones
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) All the components of the nodal tissue are autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the
normal pacemaker ?

(1) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation.

(2) SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential.
(3) Only SA node can convey the action potential to the other components.
(4) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.

67) Which of the following option in given table is correct

identification of the structures labelled as A,B,C and D and their corresponding function in the
above figure :-

(1) (A) Hypothalamus Produces Prolactin hormone

(2) (B) Posterior pituitary Release & FSH and LH

Supply blood from hypothalamus

(3) (C) Portal circulation
to posterior pituitary

(4) (D) Posterior pituitary Release oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of frog?

(1) The skin is moist and slimy

(2) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits
(3) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are present
(4) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory organs

69) Which of the following statements regarding frog is not correct?

(1) Fertilization is external and takes place in water
(2) External ear and tympanum can be seen externally
(3) In females the ureters and oviduct open separately in the cloaca
(4) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs and vocal sac are present in male frog

70)

Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?

(1) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization

Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and

(2) Intra uterine device
fertilizing capacity of sperms

(3) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization

(4) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Milk of transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than
natural cow milk because it contained :

(1) Human protein α–1–antitrypsin

(2) Human alpha–lactalbumin
(3) Human insulin–like growth factor
(4) Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)

72) A schematic representation of a chordate's embryo is shown in the above figure.

The structures maked A, B, C and D are respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Intestine and gill slits

(2) Postanal part, Gill slits, Nerve cord and Notochord
(3) Postanal part, nerve cord, Notochord and Gill
(4) Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits

73) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
 Inspiratory Total air, a person can inspire after normal
A 1
capacity (IC) expiration

Expiratory Maximal volume of the air, a person can

B 2
capacity (EC) breath in after a forced expiration

Functional
Volume of the air that will remain in lungs
C residual capacity 3
after a normal expiration
(FRC)

Maximum volume of air a person can expire

D Vital capacity (VC) 4
after a normal inspiration

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

(1) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
(2) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical
(3)
synapse.
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical
(4)
synapse.

75) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

76) Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pest using fungi?

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis against butterfly caterpillars

(2) Baculoviruses against certain insects and arthropods.
(3) Lady bird beetle against aphids
(4) Trichoderma species against several plant pathogens.

77)

Name the blank space A, B, C and D given in the following table :

Microbes Commercial
name product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin-A

C Penicillin

D Statins
(1) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Aspergillus
(2) A-Trichoderma; B-Aspergillus; C-Lactobacillus; D-Penicillium
(3) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium notatum; D-Monascus
(4) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Streptococcus

78) Match List -I with List -II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective
actions.

List-I List-II

(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation

Increase phagocytosis of sperm

(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii)
within Uterus

Absence of Menstrual cycle and

(c) Intra uterine Devices (iii)
ovulation

They cover the cervix blocking the

(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv)
entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

79) In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

(1) Saliva in mouth and Tears in eyes Physical barriers
Mucus coating of epithelium lining
(2) the urinogenital tract and the HCl in Physiological barriers
stomach
Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes and
(3) Cellular barriers
monocytes
 Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite
(4) Active immunity
injections
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural
selection. This is referred to as :

(1) Genetic load

(2) Genetic flow
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Random mating

81) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy

(2) Homology indicates common ancestry
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
(4) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution

82) The figure below shows three steps (A,B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the
option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

(1) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

(2) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
(3) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
(4) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C

83)

Match the following enzymes with their functions :

 (a) Restriction endonuclease (i) Joins the DNA fragements

(b) Restriction exonuclease (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template

(c) DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position

(d) Taq polymerase (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

84) Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them.
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host. Which are the two
statements having mistakes ?

(1) Statements (A) and (B)

(2) Statements (B) and (C)
(3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) Statements (A) and (C)

85) Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector

Construction of first
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii)
rDNA molecule

Agrobacterium
(c) (iii) DNA polymerase
tumefaciens

Salmonella
(d) (iv) Cry proteins
typhimurium

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
86) Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception ?

Characteristics Class

Mouth ventral, gills without operculum; skin with

(1) Chondrichthyes
placoid scales; persistent notochord

Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent,

(2) Cyclostomata
integument without scales; paired appendages

Body covered with feathers; skin moist and

(3) glandular; fore-limbs form wings; lungs with air Aves
sacs

Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs

(4) Mammalia
of Limbs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Identified the correct statement from the following with reference to Amphibians :-
(A)They have internal fertilisation and development is direct.
(B) Amphibian skin is moist and without scales
(C) Their body is divisible into head and trunk
(D) They have three chambered heart
Select the correct answer :-

(1) A and D
(2) A and B
(3) B, C and D
(4) D alone

88)

Match the following :

'A' 'B'

A. Loop of Henle 1. Carries blood to the kidney

Area where a considerable amount of

B. Renal artery 2.
reabsorption takes place

Proximal convoluted
C. 3. Main area of K+, H+ secretion
tubule

D. Glomerulus 4. Filtration of blood

Distal convoluted
E. 5. Plays a role in concentration of urine
tubule

The correct pairing sequence is :

(1) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-3
(2) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-4
(3) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5, E-4

89) Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Sliding filament theory can be best explained as :-

(1) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
(2) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not
(3)
shorten
When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin filaments shorten while Myosin filament do not
(4)
shorten
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 1 1 1 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) EXPLANATION: The question asks us to evaluate two statements regarding an LCR series
AC circuit and a purely resistive circuit. Statement I says current is maximum at resonance in
a series LCR circuit. Statement II claims that current in a purely resistive circuit can never be
less than that in a series LCR circuit of identical resistance when connected to the same
voltage source.
CONCEPT : AC Circuits, Impedance (Z), and Resonance.
Solution :
Statement-I

at resonance XL = XC

Thus,
∵ Impendence is minimum therefore I is maximum at resonance.
Statement-II

in purely resistive circuit.

2)

Question Explanation: A square wave current alternates between +0.5 A and –0.5 A; find the
AC ammeter reading (RMS value).

Concept: RMS value of alternating current.

Solution: For a square wave, current magnitude is constant.

So, Irms = √[(1/T) × ∫₀ᵀ i2(t) dt]
Since i = ±0.5 A, i2 = (0.5)2 = 0.25 A2 always.
Hence, Irms = √(0.25) = 0.5 A

Final Answer: Irms = 0.5 A

3) Question Explanation:
to calculate the velocity of image if object is moving with 5cm/s towards the mirror (concave)

Concept:
Velocity of image in spherical mirrors.

Solution:
Final Answer: (2).

4) Question Explanation:
Wavefronts are perpendicular to rays.

Concept: Wavefront Geometry.

Solution:
A wavefront is a surface where all points have the same phase.
For a light wave traveling along a specific axis, the wavefront must be a plane perpendicular
to that direction of propagation.
Since the light is moving along the y-axis, the plane of the wavefront must be the xz-plane,
which is represented by the equation y = constant.

Final Answer: Option(2)..

5) Question Explanation :
• Goal: Find the phase difference ϕ required for destructive interference.
• Given: Wave equations and .
Concept : Destructive Interference
Solution :
Conditions:
• ϕ = (2n + 1)π or (2n + 1)180°, where n = 0,1,2,…
• For n = 0 : ϕ = 180º
Option Analysis:
• 0°,360º,720º : Even multiples of π, leading to constructive interference.
• 180∘ : Odd multiple of π, leading to destructive interference.
Final Answer : Option (3)

6) Question Explanation:
Refractive index of a prism is . Find the minimum angle of deviation .

Concept:
At minimum deviation and .

Solution:
Given . Substitute into prism relation:

Hence sin . Therefore (principal value), so –A.(This is

valid for 0 < A < 180°,giving a positive deviation.)

Final Answer: Option (1)

7) Explain Question:
Pick Out the incorrect statement from the given options.

Concept: Forward biasing of a p-n junction, depletion region and charge carrier movement.

Solution:
In forward biasing width of depletion layer decreases and free electrons move from n-side to p-
side and holes move from p-side to n-side means charge carries move towards the junction
So, option 4 is incorrect statement.

Final Answer: Option (4)

8)

Explain Question:
Analyze VAB(t) across resistor R in a sinusoidal input circuit with two diodes and unequal
resistors R1 and R2.

Concept:
Current direction changes with input cycle; unequal resistors cause different voltage drops
across R.

Solution:
In the positive half cycle, diode D2 is forward biased and diode D1 is reverse biased. In the
negative half cycle, diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and direction of
current is opposite through R for positive and negative half cycles. Hence, output is not
rectified. Since R1 and R2 are different, hence the peaks during positive half and negative half
of the input signal will be different.

Final Answer : 4

9) Question Explanation :
A circular plate of diameter a is in contact with a square plate of edge a. We need to find the
center of mass of the composite system.
Concept Based :
This problem involves finding the center of mass of a composite system made of two shapes: a
circle and a square. The center of mass is determined by the masses and positions of the
objects.
Formula Used :
The center of mass (CM) for two objects is given by:

where M is the mass and x is the position of the center of mass of each object.
Calculation :
Given that the density and thickness are the same for circular and square plates, the masses of
the two plates are proportional to their surface areas.
• Mass of the circle:

• Mass of the square:

Msquare ∝ a2

Since a2 is greater than , the square plate has more mass.

Thus, the center of mass of the system will be closer to the square plate, inside the square
plate.

Final Answer: inside the square plate

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

10)

Question Explanation : For a Photo-Electric Effect (PEE) experiment, a plot between the
maximum kinetic energy of photo-electrons (KEmax) and frequency of the incident photon (vPh) is
a straight line and shown below :

We need to find the work-function of the illuminated metal surface.

Concept : Einstein’s Photo-Electric Equation

Solution : According to the Einstein’s Photo-Electric Equation -

ϕPh = ϕ0 + KEmax

⇒ Ph = ϕ0 + KEmax

⇒ KEmax = Ph – ϕ0 .....(i)
The equation of a straight line -

y = mx + C .....(ii)

On comparing equations no. (i) & (ii), taking y = KEmax & x = vPh , we get -

y intercept ⇒ C = –ϕ0 = – Work Function of metal

Work Function of metal = ϕ0 = – C = – (– 2 eV) = 2 eV

Final Answer : Option (3)

11) Question explanation:

Identify which of the given nuclear reactions does not occur within the standard proton-proton
(p-p) chain reaction cycle.
Concept:
Stellar nucleosynthesis via the proton-proton chain reaction in stars like the Sun.
Solution:
The proton-proton cycle consists of three primary stages that fuse hydrogen into helium.
Stage l involves the fusion of two protons to form deuterium, a positron, and a neutrino.

Stage 2 involves a deuterium nucleus fusing with a proton to form helium-3.

Stage 3 (p-p I branch) involves two helium-3 nuclei fusing to form helium-4 and two protons.

Option 2 shows the fusion of two deuterium nuclei to form helium-3 and a neutron.

This specific reaction is part of the deuterium-deuterium (D-D) fusion process, not the
standard solar proton-proton cycle.
The proton-proton cycle does not produce free neutrons in its primary branches.
Final answer: (2)

12) Concept:
Electromagnetic Spectrum - Frequency Order

Explanation:
The electromagnetic spectrum follows this decreasing frequency order:
-rays > X-rays > Ultraviolet > Visible > Infrared (Heat Rays) > Microwaves > Radio Waves
From this, we observe:
γ-rays > X-rays > Heat Rays (Infrared) > Radio Waves

Final Answer:
Option (3)

13)

Explain the Question : The problem involves comparing the velocities v1 & v2 of photo-
electrons emitted from identical photo-cathodes when illuminated by the light of two different
frequencies f1 & f2 , both above the threshold frequency f0.
 Concept : This question is based on Photo-Electric effect : Einstein’s Photo-Electric equation.
Solution : Einstein’s Photo-Electric equation-
ϕPh = ϕ0 + KEmax

0
hf = hf + mv2
For frequency f1 :

hf1 = hf0 +

0
= h (f1 – f ) ------(1)
For frequency f2 :

0
hf2 = hf +

0
= h (f2 – f ) ------(2)
Subtracting (2) from (1) :

0 0
= h (f1 – f ) – h(f2 – f )

= h (f1 – f2)

Final answer : 2

14)

Explanation Question: Velocity of particle is given and we have to represent quantities in

order
Concept: This question is based on dimension analysis
Solution:

[b] = ⇒ acceleration
[c] = LT–1T = L ⇒ Distance
[d] = T ⇒ Time

[a] = ⇒ Distance
Final Answer
The correct option is (4)

15)

Question Explanation: We have to find percentage error in x

Concept : This question is based on error propagation.

Solution :
a = 8 ± 0.04, b = 6 ± 0.02
x=a–b
Δx = Δa + Δb
x ± Δx = (a – b) ± (Δa + Δb)
x ± Δx = (8 – 6) ± (0.04 + 0.02) = 2 ± 0.06

percentage error in 'x' :

Final answer : Option (2)

16) Question Explanation: Calculate the physical horizontal distance between two coins
dropped sequentially at 1-second intervals from a uniformly accelerating car.
Concept Involved: Kinematics of a projectile released from a moving platform.
Solution:
Speed of Car at t = 3 is 6 m/s
so distance travelled by coin = 6 × 1 = 6m
speed of Car at t = 4 is 8 m/s
so distance travelled by coin = 8 × 1 = 8m
distance travelled by car during 3 to 4 sec

S=6×1+
so distance between coin
(7 + 8) – (6) = 9m
Final Answer: (1)

17) Question Explanation: Find the time taken for two uniformly accelerating trains moving
in opposite directions to fully pass one another.
Concept Involved: Relative motion with constant acceleration in a linear track.
Solution :
As v2 = u2 + 2as ⇒ (2u)2 = u2 + 2as = 3u2
Now, after covering an additional distance s, if velocity becomes u, then,
2 2 2 2 2 2
v = u + 2a(2s) = u + 4as = u + 6u = 7u
∴ u=
∴ t = 10 sec (Taking +ve value)
Final Answer: (2)

18) Question Explanation: Calculate the absolute velocity of rain relative to the ground using
changing apparent angles observed by a moving runner.
Concept Involved: Relative motion of rain with respect to a moving observer in a vertical
plane.
Solution :
Given Vr cos 30° = 10 m/s

Vr =
 Final Answer: (2)

19) Explain Question:

Find the tension at the top of a heavy rope connecting two blocks under an upward force.

Concept:
Newton's Second Law for a composite system with a non-massless rope.

Solution:
Total mass M = 7 + 4 + 5 = 16 kg
Net upward force Fnet = 200 – (16 × 10) = 40 N

Acceleration
To find tension at point P, consider the system below P (rope + 5 kg block).
Mass below P is m' = 4 + 5 = 9 kg
TP – m' g = m' a
TP = 9 × (10 + 2.5) = 112.5 N

Final answer: Option (2)

20) Question Explanation: Find the mechanical work done by a two-dimensional variable
force field on a particle traveling along a straight path.
Concept Involved: Work done as a line integral of a variable position-dependent force
vector.
Solution :
y = mx + c

Final Answer: (2)

21)

Explain question : Find momentum of particle

Concept: This question is based on centripetal force = radiial force

Solution:

ac = =

ν2 = v= =

so momentum p = mv = =

Final Answer: (1)

22) Question Explanation :
A circular plate of diameter a is in contact with a square plate of edge a. We need to find the
center of mass of the composite system.
Concept Based :
This problem involves finding the center of mass of a composite system made of two shapes: a
circle and a square. The center of mass is determined by the masses and positions of the
objects.
Formula Used :
The center of mass (CM) for two objects is given by:

where M is the mass and x is the position of the center of mass of each object.
Calculation :
Given that the density and thickness are the same for circular and square plates, the masses of
the two plates are proportional to their surface areas.
• Mass of the circle:

• Mass of the square:

Msquare ∝ a2

Since a2 is greater than , the square plate has more mass.

Thus, the center of mass of the system will be closer to the square plate, inside the square
plate.

Final Answer: inside the square plate

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

23) Question Explanation: Calculating the moment of inertia for a composite body.
Concept: Moment of Inertia and Parallel Axis Theorem.
Solution: The total moment of inertia is the sum of the moments of inertia of the two
individual rods about the axis at O. For the horizontal rod, the axis is at its end. For the
vertical rod, the parallel axis theorem (I =Icm​ + md2) must be used.

where x2 = ℓ2 + ℓ2/4

A. Moment of inertia about its CM is .

B. Total Moment of Inertia:

.
Final Answer: The correct option is (4)

Final Answer:
24) Explain the question : In this question, a wheel-an-axle system is shown, and we are
asked to determine the condition for the system to remain in static equilibrium.
Concept: This question is based on the conditions of static equilibrium.
Solution: Using torques balance about center of the wheel.
am1g = bm2g
am1 = bm2
Final Ans: 2

25) Question Explanation: Compute the maximal vertical peak height reached by an upward
launched ball using fractions of earth’s absolute escape velocity.
Concept Involved: Universal law of gravitational potential energy conservation over extreme
macroscopic displacements.
Solution :
COME

n2R + n2h = h ⇒ (1 – n2)h = n2R

h=
Final Answer: (3)

26) Question Explanation: Calculate the final terminal velocity, when eight identical
microscopic water droplets coalesce into one larger spherical entity.
Concept Involved: The terminal velocity (v) of a spherical body falling through a viscous fluid
is given by Stokes' Law terminal velocity is directly proportional to the square of the radius.
Solution :
We know that,
vterminal ∝ r2

∴
when 8 drops combine, we have

8× =
⇒ r2 = 2r1

∴ ⇒ v2 = 64 cm/sec
Final Answer: (3)

27) Explain the Question : Two wires of the same material, but with different lengths and
radii, are stretched with different forces. We need to find the ratio of their elongations.
Concept : This question is based on elongation depends on force, length, cross-sectional area,
and Young's modulus. It is directly proportional to force and length, and inversely proportional
to area.
Formula :
Solution :

For wire 2 :

Thus : ΔL1 = ΔL2. so the ratio is 1 : 1.

Final answer : 2

28) Question Explanation: Find heat transfer during expansion if temperature of the gas

increases by 50K. During expansion, volume and temperature of gas vary such that =
constant.
Concept Involved: First Law of Thermodynamics.
Solution :
VT–2 = constant
⇒ = constant

Q=

=
= 225R
Final Answer: (1)

29)

Question Explanation : Find the total heat absorbed by a system undergoing a cyclic process
represented by a circle on a V-P (Volume-Pressure) diagram, where the volume ranges from
300 m3 to 500 m3 and the pressure ranges from 400 N/m2 to 600 N/m2.

Concept: First Law of Thermodynamics for Cyclic Processes.

Formula : Q = W = Area of the ellipse = πab

Solution: For any cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state, meaning the total
change in internal energy is zero (ΔU = 0). According to the first law of thermodynamics (Q =
Δ U + W), the net heat exchanged equals the net work done by the system (Q = W).

Q = W =Area of the closed loop = π(semi-major axis a)(semi-minor axis b)

W =π 100 x100 = 10000 x 3.14 = 31400 J

Final answer: Option (3)

 30)

Question Explanation:
Determine the work done along path ib given information about path ia .

Concept:
Internal energy is a state function; dU is the same for all paths between two points.

Solution:
For path ia : dU = dQ -dW =50-20=30 J
Since i and are the same for path ib , dUib = 30 J
For path ib : dQ = 36 J
dW=dQ-ΔU=36-30
dW=6J

Final answer: option (4)

31) 1. Explain question

We must find the period of a pendulum when the lift descends with acceleration a = g/3.

2. Concept

Pendulum in accelerating frame

3. Solution

Effective gravity:

Time period:

4. Final answer

Option 1

32) Question Explanation: A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion (SHM) with time

period T. We have to determine the time taken for oscillation

Concept: Time period in SHM.

Solution: Based on time taken by particle for motion of various distances along the line
performing SHM.
Distance covered in 1 oscillation = 4A (A → amplitude)

For oscillation, distance covered =

For oscillation, distance covered =

After oscillation it is at position

Now from this position time taken by the particle to again reach at mean position is

∴ Time taken to complete oscillation is

Final Answer: Option (2)

33) Question Explanation: Find frequency and velocity of wave

Concept Involved: ω = 2πn and velocity = nλ and k =

Solution :

y=
comparing with

y=
T = 0.02 sec, λ = 100 cm

f= = 50 Hz

v = fλ = 50 × = 50 m/s
Final Answer: (1)

34) Question Explanation: Find the frequency of tunning fork.

Concept Involved: tunning fork.
Solution :
Therefore, frequency of tuning fork = 255 Hz
Final Answer: (3)

35) Question Explanation: Determine the central electrostatic scalar potential at the shared
interior locus of concentric uniform conductive spherical boundaries.
Concept Involved: Electrostatic potential
Solution :

Final Answer: (4)

36) Question Explanation: To find the correct statement regarding Gauss' law
Concept Involved: Gauss' law
Solution :
Solution: The standard mathematical expression shows the electric flux over a closed
interface depends exclusively on enclosed interior charge. However, the vector field value E at
any point is an absolute consequence of all spatial charges located both inside and outside the
defined boundary. Thus statement 2 is factually sound.
Final Answer: (2)

37) Question Explanation: To find the discharging time in terms of time constant.
Concept Involved: discharging of capacitor.
Solution :

Final Answer: (1)

38)

Explain question:
Predicting brilliance changes in a circuit when one component fails.

Concept:
Series-Parallel Bulb Circuits.
Solution:
Lamps L2 and L3 are in parallel, and their combination is in series with L1
• If L3 fuses, the total circuit resistance increases (L2 alone vs L2||L3).
• Higher total resistance decreases main circuit current through L1, making dimmer.
• However, more voltage becomes available of the remaining L2 branch, making it brighter.

Final answer: option (2)

39) EXPLANATION: To find the reading of ammeter in the circuit given.

Concept : Basic circuit concepts of current.
Solution :

Reading of A1 =

Reading of A2 =

Reading of A3 =
Final Answer: (2)

40) Question Explanation: Formulate the relationship among system resistances under the
specific constraint
Concept Involved: Internal source terminal voltage drop characteristics under complete loop
current conduction regimes.
Solution :

Here voltmeter is ideal

so
so V = E – Ir1 = 0

Final Answer: (2)

41) EXPLANATION: Two long parallel wires separated by a distance d carry currents I1 and I2
in the same direction. We need to identify the nature and magnitude of the magnetic force per
unit length acting between them.
Concept : Force between two parallel current-carrying conductors.
Solution :

The magnetic induction midway is when currents align. In reversal,

fields superimpose to yield . Taking ratios:

.
Final Answer: (3)

42) EXPLANATION: To find the maximum velocity of projection for which the particle does
not hit the plate
Concept : charged particles moving in uniform magnetic fields.
Solution :

Bqv

or,
The particle does not hit the plate if,
r≤d

or or

∴
Final Answer: (2)

43) EXPLANATION: A proton (p), a deuteron (d), and an alpha-particle, each starting from
rest, are accelerated through the same potential difference V and enter a perpendicular
uniform magnetic field. We need to find the ratio of their kinetic energies.
Concept : Electrostatic acceleration and work done on charged particles.
Solution :
Let the charge of a proton be qp = e.
A deuteron has charge qd = e.
An alpha-particle has charge qα = 2e.
Since the accelerating potential V is identical for all three particles, K.E. is proportional to q.
Ratio of Kinetic Energies = qp : qd : qα = e : e : 2e = 1 : 1 : 2.

44) EXPLANATION: A wire carrying current i is shaped according to the equation y = a ×

sin(π × x / L) from 0 ≤ x ≤ 2L and is placed inside a uniform magnetic field B. We need to
compute the net magnetic force acting on the wire.
Concept : Magnetic force on a curved wire in a uniform field depends only on its straight
effective length vector (Leff) connecting the initial and final endpoints.
Solution :
Effective length of the wire is 2L
F = i B (2L)

45) EXPLANATION: A flat coil of area A is positioned in a magnetic field with its plane
parallel to the field lines. We need to determine average emf induced in the coil.
Concept : Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
Solution :
 Final Answer: (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Match List-I with List-II.

Concept : This question is based on no. of atoms.
Solution :
(A) No. of atoms in 1.8 mg water

= × NA × 3 = 3 × 10–4NA
(B) No. of atoms in 9.8 mg H2SO4

= = 7 × 10–4 × NA
(C) No. of atoms in 1.8 mg carbon

= = 1.5 × 10–4 × NA
(D) No. of atoms in 5.85 mg NaCl

= = 2 × 10–4 NA
Correct match : A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Final Answer : (3)

47) Explaining : If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of O2 gas formed at
the anode under identical conditions in electrolysis of water is
Concept : This question is based on Faraday's law of electrolysis.
Solution :

0.224 × 2 = VL × 4
[V L = 0.112 L]
Final Answer : (3)

48) Explaining : The plot of lnk vs for the following reaction

gives a straight line with the slope of line equal to –3.0 ×10–5 K. Activation energy for the
reaction in J mol–1 is -
Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius equation.
Solution :
k=

⇒ lnk =

⇒ Ea =
⇒
⇒ Ea = 2.49 × 10–4 J mol–1
Final Answer : (4)

49) Explaining : 0.05 M ammonium hydroxide solution is dissolved in 0.001 M ammonium

chloride solution. What will be the OH– ion concentration of this solution Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 ×
10–5
Concept : This question is based on basic buffer solutions.
Solution :
NH4OH + NH4Cl
0.05 M 0.001 M

= 1.8 × 10–5 ×
= 9 × 10–4 M
Final Answer : (2)

50) Explaining : For the reaction

KP = 5 × 10–5 at 25°C. ΔG° for the reaction will be: (R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)
Concept : This question is based on relation between ΔG and equilibrium constant.
Solution :
ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10KP
ΔG° = –2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × log(5 × 10–5)
ΔG° = 2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × [5 – log5]
ΔG° = 24523 Joule
= 24.52 kJ
Final Answer : (1)

51) Explaining : When 25% CO2 reacted the equilibrium pressure developed is 6 atm for the
reaction C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g), KP for the given reaction is :
Concept : This question is based on DOD (α) and Kp.
Solution :
C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)
teq 0.75P 2 × 0.25 P
Total pressure ⇒ 0.75 P + 0.5 P = 6
⇒ P = 4.8

KP =
Final Answer : (2)

52) Explaining : In a 0.5 molal solution of KCl, KCl is 50% dissociated. The freezing point of
solution will be (Kƒ =1.86 K kg mol–1) :-
Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point.
Solution :
ΔTƒ = i m Kƒ i = 1 – α + nα = 1.5
 = 1.5 × 0.5 × 1.86 = 1.395
Tƒ = 273 – 1.395 = 271.60 K
Final Answer : (2)

53) Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on Hydrogen spectrum.
Solution :
(a) First line of Lyman series:
Lyman series: First line: n2 = 1 + 1 = 2
Transition: n2 → n1 . This matches with (S).
(b) Third line of Balmer series:
Balmer series: Third line: n2 = 2 + 3 = 5
Transition: n5 → n2 .This matches with (R).
(c) Fourth line of Paschen series:
Paschen series: Fourth line: n2 = 3 + 4 = 7
Transition: n7 → n3 .This matches with (Q).
(d) Second line of Brackett series:
Brackett series: Second line: n2 = 4 + 2 = 6
Transition: n6 → n4 .This matches with (P).
The correct match is (a) → S, (b) → R, (c) → Q, (d) → P.
Final Answer : (4)

54) Explaining : The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,
NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-
Concept : This question is based on equivalent weight.
Solution :
Reaction: NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O
Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) is a triprotic acid, but in this reaction, only one proton is neutralized
(as indicated by the formation of NaH2PO4).
The equivalent weight of H3PO4 in this reaction is 98.
Final Answer : (4)

55)

Explaining : One mole of an ideal gas at STP expands from 30 L to 40 L in vacuum then work
done by the gas will be :-
Concept : This question is based on work done in vacuum.
Solution :
work done: W = –PextΔV
in vacuum Pext = 0, W = 0
Final Answer : (3)

56) Explaining : At 298 K and constant pressure the heat of formation of C2H2(g) and C6H6(g)
is 230 and 85 kJ mol–1. What will be the change in enthalpy for the reaction ?
Concept : This question is based on Heat of formation.
Solution :
3C2H2 → C6H6
ΔH =
= 85 – 3 × 230
= 85 – 690
= –605 kJ/mol.​
Final Answer : (1)

57)

Explaining : If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 ×
10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and 6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum
solubility at same partial pressure?
Concept : This question is based on Henry's law.
Solution :
Since solubility decreases with increasing KH, the gas with the lowest KH has maximum
solubility.
Lowest KH = 6.5 × 10–4 → Gas B
Final Answer : (2)

58) Explaining : Find ΔG in terms of Faraday ?

Concept : This question is based on Nernst equation.
Solution :

Zn + Cu+2 → Zn+2 + Cu ; ECell = 1.1 – = 1.07 V

ΔG = –2F(1.07) = –2.14 F
Final Answer : (3)

59) Explaining : The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second
and third order respectively. Which of the following is correct?
Concept : This question is based on Rate law.
Solution :
Rate constant same for
I order Reaction
II order Reaction
III order Reaction
Case I [A] = 1
r = k[A]1 for I order reaction
r1 = k[1]
r2 = k[A]2 for II order reaction
r2 = k[1]2
r3 = k[1]3 for III order reaction

Case II [A] < 1

Let [A] = 0.9
r1 = k[0.9] for I order reaction
r2 = k[0.9]2 for II Order reaction
r3 = k[0.9]3 for III order reaction
Case-III
[A] > 1 Let [A] = 1.1
r1 = k[1.1] for I order
r2 = k[1.1]2
r2 = k[1.21] for II order
r3 = k[1.1]3
r3 = k[1.331] for III order

Final Answer : (4)

60) Explaining : The energy of an electron in an excited H-atom is –1.51 eV. Angular
momentum of electron in the given orbit will be
Concept : This question is based on Bohr's Atomic model.
Solution :

, Here E = –1.51 eV, Z = 1

n=3

Angular momentum
Final Answer : (2)

61) Explaining : The transition metal having highest 3rd ionisation enthalpy is :
Concept : This question is based on ionisation enthalpy.
Solution :
3rd Ionisation energy : [NCERT Data]
V : 2833 KJ/mol
Cr : 2990 KJ/mol
Mn : 3260 KJ/mol
Fe : 2962 KJ/mol
alternative
Mn : 3d5 4s2
Fe : 3d6 4s2
Cr : 3d5 4s1
V : 3d3 4s2
So Mn has highest 3rd IE among all the given elements due to d5 configuration.
Final Answer : (2)

62) Explaining : A/R given for nature of oxide.

Concept : This question is based on Nature of oxide.
Solution :
Cr2+ is reducing as it configuration changes from d4 to d3 due to formation of Cr3+, which has
half filled t2g level, on other hand, the change Mn3+ to Mn2+ result half filled d5 configuration
which has extra stability.
Final Answer : (1)

63)
Explaining : Statement given for Metals & Non metals.
Concept : This question is based on Nature of elements.
Solution :
I. In p-Block both metals and non metals are present but in d-Block only metals are present.
II. EN and IE of non metals are greater than that of metals
I-False, II-True
Final Answer : (2)

64) Explaining : Select the compound from the following that will show intramolecular
hydrogen bonding.
Concept : This question is based on H-Bonding.
Solution :
H2O, NH3, C2H5OH ⇒ Intermolecular H-Bonding

Final Answer : (4)

65)

Explaining : Statement given for nature of oxide & catenation property.

Concept : This question is based on Nature of oxide.
Solution :
SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic and SnO, PbO are amphoteric.
Carbon does not have d-orbitals so can not form pπ-dπ Bond with itself. Due to properties of
catenation and pπ-pπ bond formation carbon is able to show allotropic forms.
Final Answer : (3)

66) Explaining : Statement given for complex compound.

Concept : This question is based on chelating & O.N.
Solution :

Ni2+ + NH4OH + dmg →

2 Five member ring

Prussian Blue
Final Answer : (1)

67) Explaining : Which order of dipole moment is correct ?

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution :
Correct order of dipole moment :
CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
BF3 < NF3 < NH3
O-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene > p-dichlorobenzene
Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : Which of the following is correct on the basis of MOT ?

Concept : This question is based on MOT.
Solution :
O2 NO N2
unpaired ⇒ 2 1 0
–
e
Final Answer : (3)

69) Explanation the Question : Identify the only correct chemical statement from the four
options.
Concept: This question is based on electron Affinity.
Solution: Due to its small size and high inter-electronic repulsion in the compact 2p orbitals,
Fluorine's electron affinity is anomalously lower than that of Chlorine.
Final Answer: (4)

70) Explaining : Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

Concept : This question is based on Isomerism in complex compound & Magnetic nature.
Solution :
[Pt(NO2)(NH3)(H2O)Cl]
⇓
2
dsp (Square planar)
Not show O.I.
Final Answer : (2)

71) Explaining : Match the column-

Concept : This question is based on Periodic properties.
Solution :

Size ∝ ∝ ∝ ∝
Final Answer : (2)

72) Explaining : Which of the following order is not correct ?

Concept : This question is based on acidic nature.
Solution :
The order of Lewis acidity (BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3), Lewis basicity (O(CH3)2 > O(SiH3)2) orders are
correct. However, acidic strength (H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2) is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

73) Explaining : Which of the following has banana bond :

Concept : This question is based on banana bond.
Solution :
Banana bond ⇒ 3C – 2e–
Al2(CH3)6
Al2Cl6 ⇒ 3C – 4e–
C2(CH3)6 & Si2(CH3)6
⇓
2C – 2e–
Final Answer : (3)

74) Explaining : Select the correct statement :-

Concept : This question is based on oxidizing power & stability (d-block)
Solution :
(a) Mn+3 → Mn+2 E° = +1.51 V (Highly positive)
(b) MnF7, (does not exist) but exists.
(c) La+3(Xe) Lu+3(Xe)4f14
(d) CrO5 – Deep blue
Final Answer : (3)

75) Explaining : Which of the following is correct :-

Concept : This question is based on Alloy.
Solution :
German silver → Cu + Zn + Ni
Brass – Cu + Zn
Gunmetal → Cu + Zn + Sn
Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : SN2 reaction

Concept : This question is based on SN2 reaction
Solution :
CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCH2Cl > CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3 >(CH3)3CCl

Rate of SN2 ∝
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explaining : Which of the following is the most stable carbocation.

Concept : This question is based on Most stable carbocation.
Solution :

3° Cation + resonance stabilized.

Final Answer : (4)
 78)

Explaining : The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is.

Concept : This question is based on Benzaldehyde synthesize
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

79) Explaining : Match List-I with List-II.

Concept : This question is based on Match List-I with List-II.
Solution :

Amines pKb

(a) 3.27

(b) 4.75

(c) 9.30

(d) 9.38

Final Answer : (1)

80) Explaining : The major products formed in the following reaction are.
Concept : This question is based on Ether cleavage reaction.

Solution :
Whenever one of the alkyl group is a tertiary group, the halide formed is a tertiary halide.
Mechanism :

(1)
(2)

(3) Final Answer : (2)

81) Explaining : The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is.
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC

Solution :
Longest parent chain is selected by giving lowest numbering to ketone IUPAC name – 4-
methyl hex-3-en-2-one Final Answer : (1)

82)

Explaining : Compound (A) is

Concept : This question is based on EAR
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

83) Explaining : The most stable enolic form of 2,4-pentanedione is.

Concept : This question is based on Most stable enolic form
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

84) Explaining : dentify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid
which dissolves in alkali.
Concept : This question is based on Hinsberg's reagent
Solution :
1° amines react with Hingsberg's reagent to give a solid, which dissolve in alkali.

Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : Which of the following compound is most reactive in electrophilic aromatic
substitution.
Concept : This question is based on Most reactive in Electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Solution :

+ R effect of –OH group enhances the reactivity in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
Final Answer : (4)

86)

Explaining : Which of the following is a basic amino acid

Concept : This question is based on Basic Amino acid
Solution :

Since it contains more number of –NH2 groups as compared to –COOH groups hence it is basic
amino acid.
Final Answer : (1)

87)

Explaining : The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is.

Concept : This question is based on Find Intermediate in reaction
Solution :
Phenol is manufactured from the hydrocarbon, cumene. Cumene (isopropylbenzene) is
oxidised in the presence of air to cumene hydroperoxide. it is converted to phenol and acetone
 by treating it with dilute acid. Acetone, a by-product of this reaction, is also obtained in large
quantities by this method.

Final Answer : (2)

88)

Explaining : Assertion and reason based

Concept : This question is based on Inductive effect
Solution :
For Halogen : –I > + M → ortho, para directing
Final Answer : (2)

89)

Explaining : The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions, The product 'C' is.
Concept : This question is based on Find A, B, C
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

90) Explaining : The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-
nitrophenols is.
Concept : This question is based on Steam distillation.
Solution :
The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distillation o-Nitrophenol is steam
volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding while p-nitro phenol is less volatile due to
intermolecular hydrogen bonding which cause association of molecule.
Final Answer : (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation: This question is based on the pollination mechanism of the Ophrys orchid,
which uses sexual deceit for pollination.
 A. One petal of the flower resembles the female bee/bumble bee in shape, colour and markings.
B. The male bee gets attracted and attempts pseudocopulation with the flower.
C. During this process, pollen grains are transferred, leading to pollination.

Therefore:

A. Statement (1) → Correct

B. Statement (2) → Incorrect, because pollination is carried out by the male bee, not the female.
C. Statement (3) → Correct
D. Statement (4) → Correct

Final Answer : (2)

92) Explanation: Assertion is false because mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association between

fungi and plant roots.
The fungus gets food from the plant.
The plant receives water and minerals from the fungus.
Reason is also false because in lichen, both partners (alga and fungus) benefit from each other.
The alga prepares food by photosynthesis.
The fungus provides shelter, water and minerals.
Thus, both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
Final Answer : (4)

93) Solution : Humification is the process in which decomposed organic matter is converted
into a dark-coloured amorphous substance called humus. Humus is rich in nutrients and highly
resistant to microbial action.
Other options:
Fragmentation → Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores.
Leaching → Water-soluble nutrients move deeper into the soil.
Mineralization → Release of inorganic nutrients from humus.
Final Answer : (3)

94) Explanation: The generative cell is spindle-shaped and floats freely in the cytoplasm of
the vegetative cell within the pollen grain. It later divides to form two male gametes.
Final Answer : (4)

95)

Explanation: In Drosophila, the XX chromosome condition produces a female fly, while

the XY condition produces a male fly.

Other options are incorrect because:

A. Grasshopper males are XO, not XX.

B. Klinefelter’s syndrome in humans is XXY, not XO.

In birds, ZZ determines male sex and ZW determines female sex.

Final Answer : (3)

96) Explanation: Turner’s syndrome occurs due to monosomy of the X chromosome (XO
condition), where an individual possesses only one X chromosome.
 Karyotype: 45, XO
Final Answer : (3)

97)

Explanation: Genes showing 50% recombination behave as if they are independently

assorting.

This occurs when:

A. Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes, or

B. Genes are very far apart on the same chromosome.

Therefore, such genes are not tightly linked. Hence, the statement “The genes are very
tightly linked” is incorrect.

Final Answer : (2)

98)

Explanation: Ethylene is responsible for the formation of the apical hook in dicot seedlings.
The apical hook protects the delicate shoot tip while the seedling emerges through the soil.

Final Answer : (2)

99)

Explanation: Sugarcane is a C₄ plant.

In C₄ plants:

A. Mesophyll cells contain PEPCase and initial fixation forms OAA (Oxaloacetic acid).
B. Bundle sheath cells contain RuBisCO, where the C₃ cycle (Calvin cycle) occurs.

Therefore, Option (1) correctly matches the processes occurring in mesophyll and bundle sheath
cells.
Final Answer : (1)

100) Explanation: During non-cyclic photophosphorylation:

A. Electrons move from PSII to ETS in a downhill manner.

B. Absorption of light in PSI raises the electron energy level again, which is an uphill movement.
C. Finally, electrons reduce NADP⁺ to NADPH in a downhill manner.

Thus, the sequence is:Uphill → Downhill → Uphill → Downhill

Final Answer : (1)

101) Explanation: In grasses (monocots), the guard cells of stomata are dumb-bell
[Link] shape helps in efficient opening and closing of stomata.
Final Answer : (1)
 102) Explanation: In the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane:

A. Integral proteins are embedded within the lipid bilayer.

B. Cholesterol is present between phospholipid molecules and provides membrane stability.
C. Sugar molecules are attached externally as glycoproteins or glycolipids.

According to the given diagram:

A. Integral protein → S
B. Cholesterol → P
C. Sugar → R

Final Answer : (4)

103) Explanation: After Telophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate,

reducing the chromosome number to half.
Therefore:

A. Each daughter cell becomes haploid (n).

B. Each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids, because sister chromatids separate
only during Meiosis II.

Final Answer : (4)

104)

Explanation: Top carnivores such as lions and tigers occupy the highest trophic level and
receive the least amount of energy.

According to the 10% law of energy transfer, only about 10% of energy passes from one
trophic level to the next. As a result, very little energy reaches top carnivores, making their
population smaller and more vulnerable.

Thus:

A. Assertion is true.
B. Reason is true.
C. Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer : (1)

105)

Explanation: Ex situ conservation involves conservation of organisms outside their natural

habitat, such as:

A. Botanical gardens
B. Wildlife safari parks
C. Seed banks

Therefore:

A. B, D, E → Ex situ conservation In situ conservation

involves protection of organisms within their natural habitat, such as:

 A. National parks
B. Sacred groves

Therefore:

A. A, C → In situ conservation

Final Answer : (1)

106) Explanation: Statement (b) is correct because sunflower belongs to the family
Compositae (Asteraceae) and is commonly grown as an ornamental plant.
Statement (d) is correct because the given floral formula belongs to the Malvaceae family.
Statements (a) and (c) are incorrect because:

A. In Liliaceae, the androecium is epitepalous, not epipetalous.

B. In Solanaceae, the androecium is epipetalous, not epitepalous.

Final Answer : (3)

107) Explanation: Dark reactions (enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle) are more sensitive
to temperature changes than light reactions.
Light reactions mainly depend on light and are comparatively less affected by
[Link], the statement “Light reactions are more sensitive to temperature than
dark reactions” is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

108) Explanation: The developmental sequence in a plant cell is:

A. Cell division – increase in cell number through mitosis.

B. Plasmatic growth – increase in protoplasm and cell size.
C. Maturation – cells attain their final shape and function.
D. Senescence – ageing phase of the cell.

Thus:

A. A → Cell division
B. B → Plasmatic growth
C. C → Maturation
D. D → Senescence

Final Answer : (3)

109) Explain Question: The Question asks to select the correct statements about fungi.

Concept: Fungi

Solution: The correct statement includes:

(A) Most of the fungi are saprophytes.

(B) Fungi can also survive as symbionts.

(C) Sexual reproduction in fungi involves three steps.

 (D) Reduction division in fungi occurs in fruiting bodies which form haploid spores.

So, All statements A, B, C & D are correct and the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: 4.

110)

Explanation: Adaptations promoting self-pollination include:

A. Monocliny (bisexuality) → Both male and female reproductive organs are present in the
same flower.
B. Cleistogamy → Flowers remain closed, ensuring self-pollination.

Whereas:

A. Chasmogamy promotes cross-pollination because flowers open normally.

B. Protandry prevents self-pollination by different maturation times of anthers and stigma.

Final Answer : (2)

111) Explanation: The Assertion is true because in populations consisting of organisms of

greatly different sizes (e.g., Parthenium plants and a large banyan tree), biomass gives a more
meaningful estimate than numerical density.
The Reason is also true because tiger census is estimated using pug marks and fecal
pellets.
However, the Reason does not explain the Assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

112) Solution : In any ecosystem, the energy pyramid is always upright because energy
decreases progressively at each trophic level according to the 10% law.
Even if the number pyramid may vary, the energy available to higher trophic levels is always
less than that of lower trophic levels.
Final Answer : (2)

113)

Explanation: Humus decomposes at an extremely slow rate because it is highly resistant to

microbial action.

Therefore:

A. Assertion is true.
B. Reason is true.
C. Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer : (1)

114)

Explanation: The pie chart represents the relative diversity of vertebrates.

 Given:

A. A = Birds
B. D = Fishes

The remaining categories correspond to:

A. C = Amphibians
B. E = Mammals

Final Answer : (4)

115)

Explanation: The five-carbon intermediate compound of the TCA (Krebs) cycle is α-

ketoglutaric acid.

Carbon count of given compounds:

A. Citric acid → 6C
B. Succinyl CoA → 4C
C. α-ketoglutaric acid → 5C
D. Fumaric acid → 4C

Final Answer : (3)

116)

Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a characteristic feature of C₄ plants.

A. In C₄ plants, large bundle sheath cells surround the vascular bundles, often forming several
layers.

Therefore:

A. Statement-I is correct.
B. Statement-II is also correct.

Final Answer : (1)

117) Explanation: A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii, E–vi, F–v

A. ⊕ represents actinomorphic symmetry → iv

B. % represents zygomorphic symmetry → ii
C. G̲ represents inferior ovary → i
D. G represents superior ovary → iii
E. Epipetalous stamens → v
F. Epitepalous stamens → vi

Thus, the correct matching is:

Final Answer : (2)

118)

Explanation: A pentapeptide consists of 5 amino acids joined by 4 peptide bonds.

 Given:

A. Molecular weight of one amino acid = 180

Total molecular weight before bond formation:for tetrapeptide 4 amino acids 4 x 180 = 720

Each peptide bond releases one water molecule (18 u):

3times 18 = 54 Final molecular weight:

720 - 54 = 666

Final Answer : (4)

119)

Explanation: Tryptophan is an aromatic amino acid because it contains an aromatic indole

ring in its side chain.

Other options:

A. Glutamic acid → acidic amino acid

B. Lysine → basic amino acid
C. Glycine → simplest non-aromatic amino acid

Final Answer : (3)

120)

Explanation: During the zygotene stage of Prophase-I, homologous chromosomes pair to

form bivalents.

Given:

A. Total chromosomes in G₁ phase = 20 (2n = 20)

Therefore: [n = 10] Hence, the number of bivalents formed in zygotene = 10.

Final Answer : (2)

121) Explanation: In humans:

A. Total chromosomes = 46
B. Autosomes = 44
C. Sex chromosomes in males = XY

Therefore, the chromosomal constitution of a human male is: [ 44 Autosomes + XY]

Final Answer : (3)

122) Explanation: The X chromosome participates in sex determination; therefore, it is called

a sex chromosome (allosome). Autosomes are chromosomes not involved in sex
determination.
Final Answer : (2)
 123)

Explanation: According to Chargaff’s rule in double-stranded DNA:

A. %C = %G
B. %A = %T

Given: [ C = 12%]
Therefore: [G = 12%]
Remaining percentage: [100 - (12 + 12) = 76%]
Thus: [A = T = 38%]
Final Answer : (3)

124)

Explanation:

A. (a) Correct → A genus is a group of closely related species sharing more similarities with one
another than with species of other genera.
B. (b) Correct → Classification involves multiple hierarchical steps.
C. (c) Incorrect → Solanum, Petunia and Datura belong to the family Solanaceae, not
Convolvulaceae.
D. (d) Correct → Taxonomic categories are distinct biological entities as well as morphological
groups.

Final Answer : (2)

125) Explanation: Gymnosperms are heterosporous, producing two types of spores:

A. Microspores (male)
B. Megaspores (female)

Therefore, the statement “They are homosporous” is [Link] statements are correct
because:

A. Male and female gametophytes are dependent on the sporophyte.

B. Most gymnosperms possess needle-like leaves with thick cuticle.
C. Seeds are naked (not enclosed within fruits).

Final Answer : (1)

126)

Explanation: Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) possesses:

A. A coiled single-stranded RNA

B. Protein subunits called capsomeres arranged helically around the RNA.

Therefore, it shows both a coiled RNA strand and capsomeres.

Final Answer : (2)

127) Explanation: In a typical mature embryo sac:

A. Two synergids and one egg cell form the egg apparatus at the micropylar end.
 B. The central cell contains two polar nuclei.
C. Three antipodal cells are present at the chalazal end.

According to the diagram:

A. A → Synergids
B. B → Egg
C. C → Central cell
D. D → Antipodals

Final Answer : (1)

128)

Explanation: The Western Ghats–Sri Lanka region, Indo-Burma region and the Himalayas are
recognized as biodiversity hotspots because they possess:

A. High species richness

B. High degree of endemism

Therefore:

A. Assertion is true.
B. Reason is true.
C. Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer : (1)

129) Explanation: Statement (I) is incorrect because O₂, not CO₂, helps in releasing metabolic
energy during respiration.
Statement (II) is correct because nutrients are required for protoplasm synthesis and energy-
related activities.
Statement (III) is incorrect because optimum, not necessarily low, temperature is required for
plant growth.
Statement (IV) is correct because environmental signals such as light and gravity influence
growth.
Final Answer : (4)

130) Explanation: In one turn of the Krebs cycle, 2 molecules of CO2 are released.
Since one glucose molecule produces 2 acetyl CoA molecules, the Krebs cycle runs twice per
glucose molecule.
Final Answer : (3)

131)

Explanation: Heterophylly is the occurrence of different types of leaves on the same plant
and is an example of plasticity.

In Buttercup (Ranunculus), heterophylly occurs due to environmental conditions:

A. Submerged leaves are finely dissected.

B. Aerial leaves are broader.
 Thus:

A. Statement-I is correct.
B. Statement-II is also correct.

Final Answer : (1)

132) Explanation: In roots, the primary xylem arrangement is exarch, which means:

A. Protoxylem lies towards the periphery.

B. Metaxylem lies towards the centre.

The Assertion is correct.

However, the Reason is incorrect because it states the reverse arrangement.
Final Answer : (2)

133) Explanation: The given structure represents cholesterol, which is a sterol component
of animal cell [Link] features include:

A. Four fused hydrocarbon rings

B. A hydroxyl (–OH) group
C. A hydrocarbon tail

Final Answer : (3)

134) Explanation: Single membrane-bound organelles include:

A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum

Whereas:

A. Nucleus and mitochondria are double membrane-bound.

B. Ribosomes are non-membranous.

Final Answer : (4)

135) One pollen mother cell undergoes one meiotic division to produce 4 pollen grains.
To produce 500 pollen grains:
Therefore, 125 meiotic divisions are required.
Final Answer : (2)

136)

Explanation: DNA maintains a uniform diameter because:

A. A purine (A or G) always pairs with a pyrimidine (T or C).

Thus:

A. A–T pairing and G–C pairing maintain equal width throughout the DNA molecule.

Therefore:
 A. Assertion is true.
B. Reason is true.
C. Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer : (1)

137) Solution : (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

List - I List - II

(a) Chara (iii) Algae

(b) Pinus (iv) Gymnosperm

(c) Selaginella (ii) Lycopsida

(d) Sphagnum (i) Moss

Final Answer : (2)

138) Question explanation: Questions asking about members of phycomycetes are found in
which places,select the correct answer according to the given option.
Concept: Class-Phycomycetes
Solution: Members of phycomycetes are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in
moist and damp places or as obligate parasites on plants.
Final answer : (4)

139) Explain Question : The question is asking you to match each cell structure (List I) with
its correct description or location (List II).
Concept: Cell structure
Solution : (a) Cristae → infoldings in mitochondria → (iii)

(b) Thylakoids → flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids (chloroplasts) → (iv)

(c) Centromere → primary constriction in chromosome → (i)

(d) Cisternae → disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus → (ii)

The Correct Answer: Option 3 — (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

Final answer : (3)

140) Question Explanation:

Assertion (A) : Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organism.
Reason (R) : Meiosis involve reduction in chromosome number to half as that of parent cell.

Solution:
Assertion (A) is true: Meiosis ensures the production of haploid cells, which is essential for
maintaining the correct chromosome number across generations in sexually reproducing
organisms. The fusion of haploid gametes during fertilization restores the diploid chromosome
 number in the offspring.
Reason (R) is also true: Meiosis involves two rounds of cell division but only one round of DNA
replication, resulting in daughter cells with half the chromosome number of the parent cell.
The Reason accurately explains why meiosis produces a haploid phase in the life cycle by
reducing the chromosome number to half, ensuring genetic stability across generations.
Therefore, the correct answer is that both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the Assertion.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

141) Explanation: In Metaphase-I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair to form

bivalents (chromosome pairs) at the equatorial plate.
Given:
[n = 25] Therefore: Number of homologous chromosome pairs (bivalents) = 25
Final Answer : (4)

142) Solution : Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate, but DNA mutates at a much faster
rate.
Final Answer : (4)

143) Solution : Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Final Answer : (4)

144) Solution : Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Final Answer : (2)

145) Solution :

Column-I Column-II

Human Chorionic
(a) Placenta (ii)
Gonadotropin(hCG)

(b) Zona pellucida (iii) Layer of the ovum

Bulbo-urethral
(c) (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
glands

(d) Leydig's cells (i) Androgens

Final Answer : (1)

146) Solution : anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Solution : Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

 Final Answer : (3)

148) Solution : Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming
and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of homologous organs
Final Answer : (3)

149) Solution : (a), (b) and (c) only

Final Answer : (2)

150) Solution : Gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Final Answer : (3)

151) Solution : ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

Final Answer : (2)

152) Solution : IgA immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk
Final Answer : (4)

153) Solution :

Column I Column II

(a) Amoebiasis (ii) Use only sterilized food and water

(b) Diphtheria (iii) DPT Vaccine

(c) Cholera (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy

(d) Syphilis (i) Treponema pallidum

Final Answer : (2)

154) Solution : Sea horse and Flying fish — Cold blooded (poikilothermal): Both animals
belong to the class Osteichthyes (bony fishes). All fishes are ectothermic (cold-blooded),
meaning they cannot regulate their internal body temperature and rely on environmental
temperatures
Final Answer : (2)

155) Solution : B -Glandular epithelium - Intestine - Secretion

Final Answer : (3)

156) Solution : SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation.

Final Answer : (4)

157) Solution : D - Posterior pituitary - Release oxytocin and vasopressin

 Final Answer : (4)

158) Solution : Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits
Final Answer : (2)

159) Solution : The statement "External ear and tympanum can be seen externally" is false
In the biological context of animal anatomy (most notably regarding amphibians like frogs),
external ears are absent, and only the tympanum (eardrum) can be seen externally on the
surface of the skin
Final Answer : (2)

160) Solution : Vasectomy - prevents spermatogenesis

Final Answer : (4)

161) Solution : Transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human
babies than natural cow milk because it contained human alpha–lactalbumin
Final Answer : (2)

162) Solution : Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits
Final Answer : (4)

163) Solution :

Column I Column II

Inspiratory Total air, a person can inspire after normal

A 1
capacity (IC) expiration

Expiratory
B 4 Maximum volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration
capacity (EC)

Functional
C residual capacity 3 Volume of the air that will remain in lungs after a normal expiration
(FRC)

Maximal volume of the air, a person can breath in after a forced

D Vital capacity (VC) 2
expiration

Final Answer : (2)

164) Solution : In reality, impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always

faster than that across a chemical synapse.
Final Answer : (3)

165) Solution : Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Final Answer : (2)
 166) Solution : Trichoderma species against several plant pathogens.
Final Answer : (4)

167) Solution : A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium notatum; D-Monascus

Final Answer : (3)

168) Solution :

List-I List-II

(a) Diaphragms (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms

(b) Contraceptive Pills (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation

(c) Intra uterine Devices (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus

(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation

Final Answer : (1)

169) Solution : Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes and monocytes - Cellular barriers

Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather
than by natural selection. This is referred to as genetic drift
Final Answer : (3)

171) Solution : Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a classic example of analogous organs,
not homologous organs.
Final Answer : (3)

172) Solution : C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

Final Answer : (1)

173) Solution :

(a) Restriction endonuclease (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position

(b) Restriction exonuclease (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA

(c) DNA ligase (i) Joins the DNA fragements

(d) Taq polymerase (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template

Final Answer : (2)

174) Solution : Statements (A) and (B)

Final Answer : (1)
 175) Solution :

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (iv) Cry proteins

(b) Thermus aquaticus (iii) DNA polymerase

Agrobacterium
(c) (i) Cloning vector
tumefaciens

Salmonella Construction of first

(d) (ii)
typhimurium rDNA molecule

Final Answer : (3)

176) Solution : Mouth ventral, gills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; persistent
notochord - Chondrichthyes
Final Answer : (1)

177)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements are correct for amphibians.
Concept: Amphibia
Solution: The correct answer is option 3. Statements B, C, and D are correct. Amphibian skin
is moist without scales, their body is divisible into head and trunk, and they have a three-
chambered heart.
Final Answer: 3

178) Solution:

'A' 'B'

A. Loop of Henle 5. Plays a role in concentration of urine

B. Renal artery 1. Carries blood to the kidney

Area where a considerable amount of reabsorption takes

C. Proximal convoluted tubule 2.
place

D. Glomerulus 4. Filtration of blood

E. Distal convoluted tubule 3. Main area of K+, H+ secretion

Final Answer: (1)

179) Solution:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(b) Thyroid gland (i) Grave's disease

(c) Adrenal gland (iv) Addison's disease

(d) Pancreas (ii) Diabetes mellitus

Final Answer: (4)
180) Solution: Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
Final Answer: (2)