27-05-2026

2331CMD303031260004 MD

PHYSICS

1) The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.25. The maximum speed with which
a car can be driven round a curve of radius 40m without skidding is {Take g = 10ms–2)

(1) 40 ms–1
(2) 20 ms–1
(3) 15 ms–1
(4) 10 ms–1

2) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Find the position of centre of mass of a uniform disc of radius R from which a hole of radius r is cut
out. The centre of the hole is at a distance R/2 from the centre of the disc :-

(1)
towards right of O

(2)
towards left of O

(3)
towards right of O

(4)
towards left of O
4) If 60% of a solid is inside the liquid while floating, then density of solid will be (given that density
of liquid is 3 × 103 kg/m3) :-

(1) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

(2) 2.4 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3

5) For the circuit shown in figure, the potential difference between points a and b is :

(1) 2.4 V
(2) 2.8 V
(3) 2 V
(4) 3.2 V

6) Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.

What is the force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?

(1) 1N
(2) 2N
(3) 4N
(4) 5N

7) Water is flowing in streamline motion in the tube shown in figure. Then pressure will be :-

(1) more at A than that at B

(2) equal at A and at B
(3) lesser at A than that at B
(4) can't say

8) A tank is filled with water upto height H. When a hole is made at a distance h below the level of
water, what will be the horizontal range of water jet ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/[Link] what depth (approximately) a rubber ball be
taken in a lake so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?

(1) 25 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 500 m

10) Assertion (A) :- Bulk modulus of incompressible liquid is infinity.

Reason (R) :- The volume of incompressible liquid does not change by applying force.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11) The meter-bridge wire AB shown in figure is 50 cm long. When AD = 30 cm, no deflection occurs

in the galvanometer. Find R.

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

12) A rod of mass 4 kg & length 4m is bent at midpoint to form an L shaped rod as shown. Find its

moment of inertia about the point O.

(1)
kg-m2

(2)
kg-m2
(3)
kg-m2

(4)
kg-m2

13) In a vernier calliper of least count 0.1 mm and zero error (–0.3 mm), the reading of diameter of
sphere on main scale is 6 mm and 5th division of vernier scale coincides with one of main scale
division. The correct diameter of sphere is :-

(1) 6 mm
(2) 6.2 mm
(3) 6.5 mm
(4) 6.8 mm

14) Gravitation on Moon is of that on Earth. When a balloon filled with hydrogen is released on
Moon then this

will rise with an acceleration less then

(1)

(2)
will rise with acceleration
will fall down with an acceleration less than
(3)

(4)
will fall down with acceleration

15) Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective
momentum, the ratio p1 : p2 is equal to :

(1) m1 : m2
(2) m2 : m1
(3)
(4)

16) A force is applied on the body of mass 2 kg which varies with displacement of body according to
the given graph. If initial speed is 2 m/s, find the final speed of the body :-

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

17)

Match the following :

List-I List-II

(P) Average speed (1)

(Q) (2)
of a particle moving on a curve
(R) Tangential acceleration (3) Rate of change of velocity
(S) Average velocity (4) Rate of change of speed.
(1) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1
(2) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 4;S → 2
(3) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2
(4) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 3;S → 1

18) When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed –

(1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant

(2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes
(3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes
(4) its velocity and acceleration both change.

19) If SI unit, find ;

(1) 0
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) None

20) A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground with velocity v0 and another body B is

0
simultaneously dropped from a height H. They meet at a height if v is equal to :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The equation of trajectory of a projectile fired from the ground is given as y = 3x – x2, where x is
in m. The range of the projectile is

(1) 2 m
(2) 1.5 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

22) A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity

of the particle is around the point :-

(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C

23) Potential energy of mass m depends on position x as U = here a & b are positive constant,

then dimensional formula of will be :-

(1) ML2T–2
(2) L
(3) M
(4) T

24) T1 and T2 in the given figure are

(1) 28 N, 48 N
(2) 48 N, 28 N
(3) 96 N, 56 N
(4) 56 N, 96 N

25) Calculate coefficient of mutual inductance of coil C1 and C2.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) For the circuit shown, charge on capacitor A will be:

(1) 10μC
(2) 15μC
(3) 18μC
(4) 25μC

27) For given circuit which statement is true

(1) with S1 closed V1 = 15 volt, V2 = 20 Volt

(2) with S3 closed V1 = V2 = 25 Volt
(3) with S1 and S2 closed V1 = V2 = 0
(4) with S1 and S3 closed V1 = 30 Volt and V2 = 20 volt

28) A force is acting at a point The value of 'α' for which angular
momentum about origin is conserved is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) zero

29) In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1µF and resistance R is 100
Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :-

(1) 15.9 kHz

(2) 1.59 rad/s
(3) 1. 59 kHz
(4) 15.9 rad/s
30) Two point charges –q and +q are kept at points (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a). Find the electric potential
at point (0, 0, z) where z > a :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The distance between two coherent sources is 0.1 mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away
from the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of light used is

(1) 4000 Å
(2) 5000 Å
(3) 6000 Å
(4) 7200 Å

32) Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire. What is
the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

The potential function of electrostatic field is given by V = 2x2 – 3xy2z + 4yz. Then electric field at
point (0, 1, 1)m will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The number of photo-electrons emitted per second from a metal surface increases when :

(1) The energy of incident photons increases

(2) The frequency of incident light increases
(3) The wavelength of the incident light increases
(4) The intensity of the incident light increases

35) A hollow conducting sphere is placed in a electric field proudced by a point charge placed at P as
shown in figure. Let VA, VB, VC be the potentials at points A, B and C respectively. Then

(1) VC > VB
(2) VB > VC
(3) VA > VB
(4) VA = VB

36)

An electron moves along the line AB, which lies in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting
wires as shown in the diagram. What will be the direction of current induced if any, in the loop

(1) No current will be induced

(2) The current will be clockwise
(3) The current will be anticlockwise
(4) The current will change direction as the electron passes by

37) The dimensions of magnetic flux are :-

(1) MLT–2A–2
(2) ML2T–2A–2
(3) ML2T–1A–2
(4) ML2T–2A–1

38) Magnetic fleld changing at the rate of 4T/sec in a circular region of 5 cm radius. The value of
induced electric field at a point 'P', which is 10 cm distance away from the centre 'O' of region is :-

(1) 0.05 V/m

(2) 0.2 V/m
(3) 0.5 V/m
(4) 2V/m
39) The wavelength of light in two liquids 'x' and 'y' is 3500 Å and 7000Å , then the critical angle
when light goes from denser medium to rarer medium will be

(1) 60°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 15°

40) A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis
of the cable is represented by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A equiconvex lens of R = 20 cm is silvered from one side. Equivalent focal length will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 10 cm

42) If ratio of amplitude of two interferring source is 3 : 5. Then ratio of intensity of maxima and
minima in interference pattern will be :

(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

43) In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)

44)

The logic circuit shown has the input waveforms 'A' and 'B' as shown. Pick out the CORRECT output
waveform :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Light of wavelength λ falls on a metal having work function photoelectric effect will take
place only if :-

(1) λ ≥ λ0
(2) λ ≥ 2λ0
(3) λ ≤ λ0
(4) λ = 4λ0

CHEMISTRY

1) A π bond is formed by the overlap of

(1) s-s orbitals

(2) p-p orbitals in coaxial manner
(3) s-p orbitals
(4) p-p orbitals in collateral manner

2) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

The decreasing order of bond angle is

(1)
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
The increasing order of bond length (E-H) is
(2)
NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(3) The decreasing order of bond dissociation energy is Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
The decreasing order of bond angle is
(4)
CH4 > NH3 > H2O

3) Which is incorrect for PV & SV, as mentioned infront of the compound :-

(SV = Secondary Valency, PV = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, PV = 3, SV = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], PV = 2, SV = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], PV = 2, SV = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, PV = 4, SV = 4

4) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(Complexes) (Absorbed light)

[Ni(H2O)4en]+2
(A) (p) Yellow - Orange
(aqueous)

[Ni(H2O)(en)2]+2
(B) (q) Blue - Green
(aqueous)

[Ni(en)3]+2
(C) (r) Red
(aqueous)
(1) A-r, B-q, C-p
(2) A-p, B-r, C-q
(3) A-q, B-r, C-p
(4) A-r, B-p, C-q

5) Assertion : Transition metal ion forming octahedral complexes undergo sp3d2 or

d2sp3 hybridisation.
Reason : Normally Strong field ligands force the unpaired electrons of central metal ion to pair up
causing d2sp3 hybridisation whereas weak field ligands do not affect electronic configuration of the
metal ion undergoes in sp3d2 hybridisation.

(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) Assertion is false but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

6) Which pair of ions is colourless :

(1) Mn3+, Co3+

(2) Fe3+, Cr3+
(3) Zn2+, Sc3+
(4) Ti2+, Cu2+

7)

Which one of the following statements related to lanthaniods is incorrect ?

(1) All the lanthaniods are much more reactive than aluminium
(2) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
(3) Europium shows +2 oxidation state
(4) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu

8) Which of the following statements regarding nitrogen molecule is not correct?

 Amongst the mononuclear diatomic molecules of second period, the bond dissociation enthalpy
(1)
is maximum for nitrogen molecule.
Amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules of second period, the bond length is minimum for
(2)
nitrogen molecule.
(3) Nitrogen molecule can form bond.
Nitrogen reacts with metals and nonmetals at high temperatures forming ionic and covalent
(4)
nitrides.

9)

The correct decreasing order of boiling point of HF, , HBr, HI is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) is a better oxidising agent then due to

(1) High electronegativity of Fluorine

(2) High hydration energy of Fluoride
(3) More bond energy of Fluorine
(4) High electron affinity of Fluorine

11) PbI4 does not exist because :-

(1) iodine is not a reactive

(2) Pb(IV) is strong oxidizing and I– is strong reducing agent
(3) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II)
(4) Pb4+ is not easily formed

12) The brown ring test for NO3– is due to the formation of the complex ion with formula as

2+
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]
2–
(2) [Fe(NO(CN)2]
2+
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]
2+
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]

13) Find out number of chiral carbon in the given compounds :-

(1) 3,1
(2) 1,1
(3) 1,0
(4) 3,0

14) Assertion :- The major product formed by heating C6H5–CH2–O–CH3 with HI are C6H5–CH2I and
CH3–OH. Reason :- Benzyl cation is more stable than methyl cation during SN1 reaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15)
A and B are :

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers

16) Which of the following is the correct order of stability of different conformations of butane :-

(1) Staggered > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Staggered > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Staggered > Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Gauche
(4) None

17) Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by :-

(1) Swart reaction

(2) Finkelstein reaction
(3) Sandmeyer's reaction
(4) 1 & 3 both

18) Statement-I: For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order:
RI > RBr > RCl > RF.
Statement-II: With the increase in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal
forces increases in alkyl halides containing same alkyl group.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

19) In SN2 reaction the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds :
CH3Cl; CH3CH2Cl; (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is
(1) CH3–Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2–Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(2) CH3–Cl > CH3–CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(3) CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(4) (CH3)3CCl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl

20) During the denaturation of proteins, which of these structures will remain intact ?

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary

21) Which is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following is not aromatic ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) , This ether is best prepared by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The Fisher presentation of D-glucose is given below :

Th correct structure(s) of β-L-glucopyranose is (are) -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Find out the most stable carbanion in given compound

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion : Addition of HBr in presence of peroxide on alkene is free radical addition. This
reaction is not shown by HCl.
Reason : Due to less bond energy of HCl than HBr, homolysis of HCl can not occurs.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) The lanthanoid which shows + 2 oxidation state is

(1) Lu
(2) Ce
(3) Tb
(4) Yb

28) Assertion :- Addition of catalyst to a reaction mixture, increases the amount of reactants and
products at equilibrium.
Reason:- The forward reaction becomes slower on adding catalyst.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True and the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29)
Find structure of (C) compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CN CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CHO

Reagent will be ?

⊕
(1) SnCl2 + HCl + H3O
(2) AlH (i–Bu)2 + H2O
(3) 1 & 2 both
(4) NaBH4 + HOH

31) Phenol, Acetic acid, Ethyl alcohol, Hydrochloric acid, Picric acid. How many of the above
compounds can liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Which of the following is not expected to be intermediate of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Assertion (A) : People taking a lot of salty food, experience the puffiness or swelling called
edema.
Reason (R) : There is water retention in tissue cell and intercellular spaces because of osmosis.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

34) Assertion : The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529Å.
Reason : Radius of each circular orbit (rn) = 0.529Å (n2/Z), where n = 1, 2, 3 and Z = atomic
number.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

35) Assertion (A) : A reaction which is spontaneous and accompanied by decrease of

randomnes must be exothermic.
Reason (R) : All exothermic reactions are accompanied by decrease of randomness.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

36) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(ℓ) (I) Dry cell

Cell potential remains

(B) (II) Corrosion
constant

Development of green
(C) (III) Fuel cell
coating on copper

Cell used commonly in Mercury

(D) (IV)
transistors and clocks cell

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

37) Assertion : In H-atom the energy of 3d-orbital is smaller than 4s orbital.

Reason : For multielectronic species an orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than
the orbital with larger value of (n+ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

38) (NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g)+CO2(g)+H2O(g)

The value of Kp for above equilibrium is 64. The equilibrium pressure of the system if only
(NH4)2CO3 is present initially

(1) 4 atm
(2) 8 atm
(3) 2 atm
(4) 6 atm

39) If density of 2 molal sucrose solution is 1.4 g/ml at 25°C. Find osmotic pressure.

(1) 4.06 atm

(2) 2 atm
(3) 40.7 atm
(4) 3.4 atm

40) If α is the degree of dissociation of K4[Fe(CN)6] then abnormal molar mass of complex in the
solution will be

(1) Mnormal(1 + 2α)

–1

(2) Mnormal(1 + 3α)

–1

(3) Mnormal(1 + α)
–1

(4) Mnormal(1 + 4α)

–1

41) Which of the given solutions will make basic buffer?

(1) 75 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 50 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH

(2) 200 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 200 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 150 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

42) If half-life of a first order reaction is 4 hours, then the t75% for the reaction is

(1) 8 hours
(2) 6 hours
(3) 10 hours
(4) 7 hours 30 min

43) The rate constant of a reaction is 0.69 × 10–1min–1 and initial concentration is 0.2 mol L–1, half life
period is :-

(1) 400 sec

(2) 800 sec
(3) 600 sec
(4) 1200 sec

44) If an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm pressure from 10 L to 20 L at 300 K then select the
correct option among the given.

(1) W = 0
(2) ΔU 0
(3) W = 20 L atm
(4) q = 10 L atm

45) How many mole of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1) 2.5 × 10-2

(2) 0.02
(3) 3.125 × 10-2
(4) 1.25 × 10-2

BOTANY

1) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

(1) A-Sugar, B-Protein, C-Lipid bilayer, D-Cholesterol

(2) A-Protein, B-Cholesterol, C-Lipid, D-Sugar
(3) A-Cholesterol, B-Lipid bilayer, C-Protein, D-Sugar
(4) A-Sugar, B-Protein, C-Cholesterol, D-Lipid bilayer.

2) For the study of structure of nucleus, the best cell is

(1) Cell in the interphase

(2) Cell in the late prophase
(3) Cell in the cytokinesis
(4) Cell in the late telophase

3) A : Two genes do not segregate independently of each other. B : F2 ratio deviates significantly
from 9:3:3:1. The above given two statements are correct regarding

(1) Linkage
(2) Recombination
(3) Law of segregation
(4) Incomplete dominance

4)

Match the columns :-

Column I Column II
A Metacentric i At the tip
B Submetacentric ii Almost near the tip
C Acrocentric iii At the middle
D Telocentric iv Slightly away from middle
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

5) Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis :

(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible under microscope
(c) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)

6)

Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
mosses ?

(1) Members of kingdom plantae

(2) Mode of Nutrition
(3) Multiplication by Fragmentation
(4) Diplontic life cycle

7) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. universal rules of nomenclature.

(1) The first letter of both genus and specific epithet starts with capital letter
(2) Biological names are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin
(3) Second word represents specific epithet.
(4) Both words in a biological name are separately underlined when handwritten

8) The passing of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular oxygen with
synthesis of ATP, this process is located:-

(1) In the matrix of the mitochondria

(2) In the cytoplasm
(3) In the intermembrane space of mitochondria
(4) On the inner membrane of the mitochondria

9)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Virus (i) Potato spindle tuber

(b) Viroids (ii) Small pox

 (c) Prions (iii) Influenza

(iv) Mad cow in cattle

(v) AIDS
(1) a-(ii), (iii), b-(i), (iv), c-(v)
(2) a-(ii),(v), b-(i), (ii), c-(iv)
(3) a-(ii),(iii),(v), b-(i), c-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), (v), b-(iv), c-(i)

10) Lichens are

(1) Symbiotic association between algae and fungi

(2) Pollution indicators
(3) Composed of mycobiont and phycobiont
(4) All of these are correct

11) How many of the following plants have axile placentation ?

Petunia, Dianthus, Chinarose, Primrose, Tobacco, Argemone

(1) Five
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Leaves originates from :-

(1) Shoot apical meristem and arranged in basipetal order

(2) Shoot apical meristem and arranged in acropetal order
(3) Node and arranged in basipetal order
(4) Root apical meristem and arranged in acropetal order

13) Assertion :- In Salvia and mustard, the length of filaments with in a flower are different.
Reason :- In some plants, stamens may be united into one bunch.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

14)

Adaxial epidermal cells modify into long empty colourless cell are known as -

(1) Transfusion cell

(2) Laticiferous cell
(3) Bulliform cell
(4) Sanio's cell

15) Identify the incorrect match :

(1) Dicot stem → Trichomes and few stomata

(2) Monocot Stem → Water containing cavities
(3) Monocot leaf → Bulliform cells
(4) Dicot leaf → Undifferentiated mesophyll

16) In mosses, the predominant stage of life cycle is :-

(1) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage sporophyte.
(2) The sporophytic green protonema and the green leafy stage.
(3) The gametophytic green protonema and the gametophytic leafy stage.
(4) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage gametophyte.

17) Two genes A and B are linked. Which of the following increases recombinant frequency?

(1) Decreasing distance between genes

(2) Increasing distance between genes
(3) Complete dominance
(4) Sex linkage

18) Name of the scientist who pointed out the importance of different wavelengths of light using a
green algae and aerobic bacteria :–

(1) Priestley
(2) Ingen-Housz
(3) Cornelius Van Niel
(4) Engleman

19) Assertion :- Energy is not required to pump protons from stroma to lumen, during photo
synthesis
Reason :- Movement of protons from stroma to lumen is carried out through simple diffusion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Which of the following is a correct sequence of electron transfer in z-scheme of photosynthesis ?

+
(1) H2O → PS-I → PS-II → NADP
+
(2) PS-I → H2O → NADP → PS-II
+
(3) PS-II → NADP → H2O → PS-I
+
(4) H2O → PS-II → PS-I → NADP
21) Which of the following statements about respiration in plants is incorrect?

(1) Plants require O2 for respiration and give out CO2.

(2) Plants have specialized organs like lungs for gaseous exchange.
(3) Each plant part generally takes care of its own gas exchange needs.
(4) Stomata and lenticels are present in plants for gaseous exchange

22) Single turn of citric acid yields:

(1) 2 FADH2, 2NADH2, 2 GTP

(2) 1 FADH2, 2NADH2, 1 GTP
(3) 1 FADH2, 3NADH2, 1 GTP
(4) 1 FADH2, 1NADH2, 2 GTP

23) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Increased vacuolation is one of the characteristics of elongation phase of growth in plants
Sigmoid growth curve is characteristic representation of organism's growth in natural
(2)
conditions
(3) Development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation
Plants always follow similar pathways in response to different environments and this ability is
(4)
known as plasticity

24) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect ones only :- (a) PGR, which is used to speed up the malting process, also promotes
internode elongation just prior to flowering in cabbage (b) PGR, which is called stress hormone, acts
as an general plant growth inhibitor.
(c) In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the axillary bud. This
phenomenon is called decapitation. (d) PGR ethylene could fit either of the groups (promoter or
inhibitor), but it is largely a promoter of growth activities Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

25) Statement I: Pollination by water is common in all aquatic plants.

Statement II: Water pollinated plants often have mucilaginous pollen grains.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Statement I is true; Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false; Statement II is true
(4) Both statements are false

26) Match the Cell Type (Column I) with its Feature (Column II):

Column I Column II
 A. Vegetative Cell i. Spindle-Shaped

B. Generative Cell ii. Diploid

Microspore
C. iii. Haploid
Mother Cell

D. Microspore iv. Irregular nucleus

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

27) If there are four allelic forms for the gene controlling ABO blood group then what will be the
number of possible genotypes?

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 14

28) Insertion or deletion of a single base causes

(1) Inversion mutation

(2) Transition mutation
(3) Frame-shift mutation
(4) Transversion mutation

29) Who rediscovered the results of Mendel's experiments :-

(1) DeVries, Tschemark, Correns

(2) DeVries, Tschemark, Morgan
(3) Tschemark, Morgan, Alfred sturtevant
(4) Tschemark, Morgan, Correns

30) Henking observed that in few male insects , 50% of the sperm received a specific nuclear
structure known as X - body, whereas other 50% sperms did not receive it. This method of sex
determination was :-

(1) Environmental sex determination

(2) XX - XO method
(3) ZZ - ZW method
(4) Haplodiploidy

31)

Complete the following statement by filling gaps (a) and (b) :

Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally ___(a)___ chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is
______(b)_______ .

(1) a = active, b = active

(2) a = active, b = inactive
(3) a = inactive, b = inactive
(4) a = active, b = highly active

32) (A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of Histone proteins.

(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA Helix.
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) Satellite DNA is important because it :-

Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in
(1)
an individual.
(2) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population.
(3) codes for enzyme needed for DNA replication.
(4) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.

34)

The process of splicing in eukaryotes :

(1) is not reminiscent of antiquity

(2) represents dominance of RNA world
(3) is an indicator of the simplicity of human genome
(4) is not a legacy of organic evolution

35) On translation, mRNA produces a polypeptide chain which contain 50 amino acids. If 26th codon
of m–RNA UAU changes to UAG, then :-

(1) Polypeptide chain will not be changed.

(2) Two amino acids will be changed.
(3) Only one amino acid will be changed.
(4) Polypeptide chain will have only 25 amino acids.

36) Identify the option which has all organisms used in biological control of pests :-

(1) Dragonfly, Bacillus thuringiensis, Lady bird, Aphids

(2) Trichoderma, Nucleopolyhedrovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis, Lady bird
(3) Lady bird, Penicillium, Baculovirus, Aspergillus
(4) Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Bacillus thuringiensis, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

37) The vigorous growth of 'Flocs' in the effluent consume major part of organic matter and

(1) Significantly increase the BOD of the effluent

(2) Significantly decrease the BOD of the effluent
(3) Produce methane
(4) Produce bioremediation agents to detoxify the effluent.

38) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i. Visiting flamingoes
and resident fishes
1. Mutualism a. (+, –)
in south american
lakes

ii. Starfish pisaster in

2. Competition b. (+, 0) american pacific
coast

iii. Cattle egret birds

3. Predation c. (+, +)
and cattle

4. Commensalism d. (–, –) iv. Lichens

(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

39) Assertion :- Pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason :- When energy flow from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

40) Which one of the following interaction shares a characteristic where none of the organism can
complete its life cycle without the other participating organism?

(1) [Link] and Human

(2) Cattle egret bird and Cattle
(3) Hermit Crab and Sea Anemone
(4) Fig and Wasp

41) Which is potent force in organic evolution according to Darwin ?

(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Interspecific competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

42) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake

If 100 kJ energy is N.P.P., the energy obtained by frog will be

(1) 1000 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 1 J

43) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the

(1) Secondary productivity

(2) Standing state
(3) Primary productivity
(4) Standing crop

44) According to IUCN (2004) the total number of species in world are____million however according
to one scientific estimate by Robert May it is___million

(1) 1.5, 7.0

(2) 7.0, 1.5
(3) 2.0, 8.0
(4) 1.0, 7.0

45) Extinction of 200 species of Cichlid fishes in the lake Victoria of east Africa, due to introduction
of Nile pearch, is an example of :-

(1) Over exploitation

(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Co-extinction
(4) Habitat fragmentation

ZOOLOGY
1) Read the following statements :-
(a) Nematode resistant plant is developed by novel strategy based on process of RNA interference
(RNAi).
(b) RNAi is eukaryotic cellular defence mechanism.
(c) RNAi involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA.
(d) Transgenic host expressing two non-complementary RNAs that initiates RNAi.
Choose correct option :-

(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

2) Rosie' a transgenic cow is known to produce a type of milk which has all the following
characteristics, except

(1) Protein content of 2.4 g/L

(2) Human -lactalbumin
(3) More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies
(4) Was produced for first time in year 2001

3) Which Indian plants have either been patented or attempts have been made to patent them by
western nations for their use?

(1) Basmati rice

(2) Turmeric
(3) Neem
(4) All of these

4) Which enzyme was targeted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 years old
girl?

(1) Monoamine oxidase

(2) Adenosine aminase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) Adenosine deaminase

5) The proteins coded by a gene _______ and _______ control the cotton bollworm and corn borer
respectively:-

(1) Cry I Ab Cry I Ac

(2) Cry II Ab Cry I Ab
(3) Cry I Ab Cry II Ab
(4) Cry III Ab Cry I Ab

6) Assertion : A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the
mixing of the reactor contents.
Reason : The processes including separation and purification, are collectively referred to as
downstream processing.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

7) Assertion (A) : Amplification of DNA is achieved by the use of DNA polymerase isolated from a
bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
Reason (R) : This DNA polymerase remains active during the high temperature induced
denaturation of ds DNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer related to cockroach.
(A) The respiratory system consists of a network of trachea.
(B) Periplaneta is uricotelic.
(C) Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by active transport.
(D) In cockroach the sense organs are antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, labial palps and anal styles.
Option :
A B C D
(1) T T T T
(2) T T F F
(3) T T F T
(4) T F T T

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which type of junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction
(4) All of these

10) Select the correct rout for the passage of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

11)

Choose the incorrect statements from the following :

A. Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the collar region.
B. Vertebrates have a ventral muscular heart.
C. Well developed muscular pharynx is present in Cnidarians.
D. The space between the mantle and shell is called mantle cavity.

(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only A
(4) C and D

12) Match item in column A with those given in column B

Column A Column B

A limbless reptile 1 lamprey

B jawless vertebrate 2 salamander

C amphibian 3 snake

D cartilaginous fish 4 Shark

E Flightless bird 5 ostrich

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5
(4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5

13) Which is wrong statement for Aschelminthes–

(a) They are free living aquatic terrestrial or parasite
(b) Only organ level of body
(c) Diploblastic and pseudocoelomate animal
(d) Incomplete alimentry canal, internal fertilization

(1) a, b Only
(2) a, b, c only
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) b, c, d only

14) Find out the incorrect statements and choose the correct option accordingly.
(I) Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients hormones, etc..
(II) Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger proteins and RBCs
(III) Exchange of the nutrients and gases, etc, between the blood and cells always occurs through
tissue fluid
(IV) Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution as that of the plasma.
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) IV and III
(4) None of the above

15) The vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver carries blood.
Which of the following is correct for that blood ?

(1) pO2 = 95 mm Hg
(2) pCO2 = 40 mm Hg
(3) pO2 = 40 mm Hg
(4) Both (2) and (3)

16) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(2) Glycosurea and ketonurea is indicative of diabetes insipidus.
(3) In normal blood pressure pumping pressure is 120 mm Hg.
Coronary system of blood vessels is exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the
(4)
cardiac musculature.

17) As a result of a partially non-functional chordae tendineae of tricuspid valve in human heart is

(1) SA node becomes non-functional

(2) back flow of blood will occur in left atrium
(3) flow of blood into pulmonary artery reduces
(4) flow of blood into aorta reduces

18) Which of the following events occurs during joint diastole?

I. All four chambers are in relaxed state.
II. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open.
III. Semilunar valves are closed.
IV. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles,
respectively through the left and right atria.
The correct option containing correct choices is

(1) Only I
(2) Only III
(3) II and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

19)

In following graphical representation A, B and C is:-

(1) A = Potential energy (B) Product (C) Substrate
(2) A = Product (B) substrate (C) Potential energy
(3) A = Potential energy (B) Substrate (C) Product
(4) All of these

20) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

a Alkaloid I Vinblastin, curcumin

b Essential oils II Morphine, Codeine

c Toxins III Lemon grass oil

d Drugs IV Abrin, Ricin

(1) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
(2) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(3) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
(4) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

21) Assertion : Insulin hormone stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen in the target cells
Reason : Insulin is a hyperglycemic hormone

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22) Which of the following hormone does not require secondary messenger for their action?

(1) Gonadotropins
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Triiodothyronine
23)

Read the statements (i–iv). How many statements are true for passive immunity ?
(i) Anti-tetanus serum administered after an injury.
(ii) An injection of anti-venom after snake site.
(iii) A newborn vaccinated againsest Hepatitis-B
(iv) Life time immunity attained by suffering from chicken pox once

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

24) The diagram given below represents a variety of beaks of finches that Darwin found in
Galapagos island ?

What type of evolutionary process is depicted in the diagram ?

(1) Parallel adaptation

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Adaptive convergence

25) The selection of resistant bacteria and industrial melanism are an examples of :-

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Natural selection
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

26) The study of fossils in different aged rock showed that :-

(1) They probably died during the formation of the particular sediment
(2) Some of them appear similar to modern organisms
(3) Life forms varied over time and certain life forms are restricted to certain geological time spans
(4) All of these

27) Select the incorrect statement –

In natural selection, heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled to

(1)
reproduce and leave greater number of progeny
(2) By the time of 500 million years ago invertebrates were formed and were active
(3) Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun unlike those of amphibians
During stabilization of natural selection more individuals acquire value other than mean
(4)
character value
28) Statement I: The Renin-Angiotensin mechanism operates as a powerful vasoconstrictor to
increase glomerular blood pressure and GFR.
Statement II: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a check on the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
by causing vasodilation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

29) Choose the correct statement w.r.t. interferon.

(1) Secreted from viral infected cells and protect them from viral infection
(2) Secreted from Non infected cells and protect other viral infected cells
(3) Secreted from viral infected cells & protect other cells by kill virus
(4) Secreted from viral infected cells & makes other cells resist to viral infection

30) Which antibodies produced in response of Allergens ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

31) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle. Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order.
(i) The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another substrate.
(ii) The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of substrate and forms E-P
complex.
(iii) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate.
(iv) The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e.,fitting into the active site).
The correct order is -

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(3) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

33) Choose correct order in the way of HIV multiplication?

Reverse Transcription, Transcription, Translation

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 2, 3, 1
(3) 3, 2, 1
(4) 2, 1, 3

34) Choose the option that represents the correct sequence of events that occur during skeletal
muscle contraction.
I. Formation of cross-bridges
Il. Release of acetylcholine at the neuro-muscular junction
lll. Pumping of ca+2 back into sarcoplasmic reticulum
IV. Sliding of actin filaments over myosin
V. Release of ca+2 into sarcoplasm

(1) II, I, V, III, IV

(2) I, II, V, III, IV
(3) II, V, I, IV, III
(4) IV, II, I, III, V

35) Select the correct match from given options:

Hormone Source Action

1 LH Anterior pituitary Endometrial proliferation

2 FSH Posterior pituitary Maturation of graffian follicle

3 Progesterone Ovary Maintenance of pregnancy

4 hCG Hypothalamus Maintenance of Corpus luteum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Which of the following cells undergo second meiotic division?

(1) Oogonia
(2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Primary oocyte
(4) Secondary oocyte

37) How many meiotic divisions will be required to form 200 zygotes ?

(1) 200
(2) 150
(3) 300
(4) 250

38) Given diagram is of female reproductive system. Identify the structures which are marked as A,
B, C and D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Vaginal
(1) Urethra Vagina Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(2) Vagina Urethra Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(3) Vagina Urethra Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(4) Uterus Vagina Urethra
orifice
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
(2) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening.
(3) Hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
(4) Labia majora is fleshy folds of tissue.

40) The figure given below shows the various events occurring during a menstrual cycle with few
structures marked as A, B, C and D.
Which of the following options shows the correct labeling?

A→LH, B→Ovulation, C→Menstruation,

(1)
D→Proliferative phase, E→Luteal phase
A→FSH, B→Implantation, C→Follicular phase,
(2)
D→Menstruation phase, E→Luteal phase
A→Estrogen, B→Parturition, C→Luteal phase,
(3)
D→Follicular phase, E→Follicular phase
A→Progesterone, B→Fertilization, C→ Menstruation phase,
(4)
D→Secretory phase, E→ Follicular phase

41) "Hormone are A chemicals which act as B messengers and are produced in C
amounts".
Choose the correct option -

A B C

(1) Non-nutrient Intracellular Trace

(2) Nutrient Intercellular Large

(3) Non-nutrient Intercellular Trace

(4) Nutrient Extracellular Large

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(A) Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of calcium
(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth.
(C) Grave's disease is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland.
(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production.

(1) A and C are true, B and D are false

(2) A and B are true, C and D are false
(3) A and D are false, B and C are true
(4) A only true, B, C and D are false

43) Find out wrong statement w.r.t. human evolution :-

(1) About 15 mya, Primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing.
(2) Few fossils discovered in Ethiopia and tanzania revealed homonid features.
(3) 2 mya Australopithecus probably lived in west- african grassland
(4) Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc.

44) Statement - I : Protein is heteropolymer.

Statement - II : Protein is made up of different types of amino acids.

(1) Both statement are incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement are correct.

45) Assertion (A):- Artificial inseminaton is a technique of in-vivo fertilisation.

Reason (R):- In AI, the semen collected either from husband or healthy donor is artificially
introduced either into vagina or uterus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 4 4 3 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 4 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 4 1 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 4 3 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 3 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 10ms–1

2) Explaining : 1 + + + + ...... ∞
Concept : This question is based on sum of infinite G.P.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

3)

4)

rℓVSg = Mg = ρbVbg

ρb = 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

5)
i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

5V0 = 12

V0 = 2.4 ⇒
 6) Both blocks are constrained to move
with same acceleration.
6 – N = 2a [Newtons II law for 2 kg block] [2 kg
N – 3 = 1a [Newtons II law for 1 kg block] [1 kg
⇒ N = 4 Newton

7) At A, area is more, hence velocity is less, hence more pressure.

8)
R = UT

R=
R=

9)

Solution : 100 m

10) 1. Explanation of the Question: The question provides an assertion (A) and a reason (R).
We need to determine whether both statements are true and, if so, whether the reason
correctly explains the assertion. 2. Concept:

A. Bulk modulus and compressibility of liquid.

3. Solution:

A. Incompressible liquids are defined as liquids that have no change in volume when pressure is
applied, i.e., their volume remains constant under force. This is a defining characteristic of
incompressibility.
B. The bulk modulus B is defined as the ratio of the change in pressure ΔP to the fractional

change in volume ⇒

C. If the volume of a substance does not change when pressure is applied (i.e., = 0)
 then B = =∞
Thus the Bulk Modulus of an incompressible liquid is infinity because there is no change in volume.

11) ⇒ ⇒ R = 4Ω

12)

0
I =
Put m = 2kg & ℓ = 2m ;

0
I =

13) Explanation Question:

Find the correct diameter of a sphere using Vernier caliper readings and negative zero error.

Concept:
Correct reading = MSR + (VSR × LC) – (Zero error)

Solution: (Step-by-Step)
LC = 0.1 mm
Zero error = -0.3 mm
MSR = 6 mm
VSR = 5
Observed reading = 6 + (5 × 0.1) = 6.5 mm
Correct reading = 6.5 – (–0.3) = 6.8 mm

Final answer: Option (1)

14)

There will be no buoyant force on the moon.

15)
(If E = const.)

16) Explain Question : A force is applied on a body of mass 2 kg which varies with
displacement of body according to given F-s graph. If initial speed is 2 m/s and we need to find
the final speed of the body.
Concept : This question is based on work-energy theorem, force-displacement graph.
Solution : Let apply W.E.T
W = KEf – KEi

× 10 (10 + 2) = ×2×
60 = –4
= 64
Vf = 8
object is finally move at 8 m/s
Final Answer: Option (1)

17)

Use definitions

18) In circular motion both velocity and acceleration changes

19)

Explanation:
Momentum vector is given as a function of θ and . We have to find × .

Concept:
This question is based on vector cross product and the relation between momentum and
velocity.

Solution:
Given momentum vector:
= 4cosθ î + 4sinθ ĵ

Using relation:
=
⇒ = /m

So velocity vector is in the same direction as momentum.

As angle = 0
so × = 0
Final Answer : Option (1)

20)

Let the two bodies A and B respectively meet at a time t, at a height from the ground.
Using S = ut + at2

0
For a body A, u = v , a = – g, S =

0
∴ =vt– gt2 … (i)

For a body B, u = 0, a = +g, S =

∴
Equating equations (i) and (ii), we get

0
vt– gt2 = gt2

0
v t = gt2 or t =
Substituting the value of t is equation (i), we get

or

Alternate solution: -
UAB = UA – UB = v0 – 0 = v0
aAB = aA – aB = –g – (–g) = 0, SAB = H

∴ , for body B :- S = 1/2 gt2

21)

22)

Slope at C is maximum

23) Explain the question: In this question, we need to find the dimensional formula of if
potential energy is given by where 'x' represents position and 'a' and 'b' are positive
constant.
Concept: This question is based on law of homogenity (dimensional analysis)
Solution:
Potential energy has dimensions of
[u] = [M L2 T–2]
[x] = [L]
Given here

By principle of homogenity

⇒ [a] = [M L2 T–2][L2]
[a] = [M L4 T–2] ....(1)

[u] =
⇒ [b] = [M L2 T2] [L]
⇒ [b] = [M L3 T–3] ....(2)

= [L]
Final Answer: 2

24) a =
T1 = 12 × 9 = 96 N
T2 = 7 × 8 = 56 N

2
25) compare with

26) Let q is the charge on capacitors, then from KVL

27) All switches are never closed together in any option so circuit nerver completed so charge
flow not occurs so initial situation not changes.

28) For conservation of angular momentum about origin

⇒ ⇒ α = –1

29) L = 10 × 10–3 H
C = 1 × 10–6 F
R = 100 Ω
At resonance XL = XC

30)

31) d = 0.1 mm = 10–4m, D = 1.2 m,

6 × 10–3 =
⇒ λ = 5 × 10–7 m = 5000Å

32) Explanation the Question:

Two conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected by a wire, so they come to the same
potential. We must find the ratio of electric fields at their surfaces.
Concept:
This question is based on
Electrostatics — potential and electric field of charged conductors.
Formula:
Potential of a sphere: V = kQ/R and Electric field at surface: E = kQ/R2.
Solution:
Since connected, V1 = V2 ⇒ kQ1/a = kQ2/b
⇒ Q1/Q2 = a/b.
Now, E1/E2 = (kQ1/a2) / (kQ2/b2) = (Q1/Q2) × (b2/a2) = (a/b) × (b2/a2) = b/a.

33)
at (0, 1, 1) →

34)

Question Asking About:

The question asks which factor increases the number of emitted photoelectrons per second in
the photoelectric effect.

Key Concept: Photoelectric effect

Formula
Photoelectron count ∝ Intensity of light

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
 • Energy or frequency increase → More kinetic energy not more electrons x
• Wavelength increase → Less energy fewer electrons
• Intensity increase → More photons more electrons

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

35) The conducting sphere becomes an equipotential surface.

36) If electron is moving from left to right, the flux linked with the loop (which is into the page)
will first increase and then decrease as the electron passes by. So the induced current in the
loop will be first anticlockwise and will change direction as the electron passes by.

37) Question Explanation: Asking about dimensions of magnetic flux.

Concept: EMF = potential =

Solution:

Δϕ = time =
Δϕ = ML T A
2 –2 –1

Final Answer: Option (4)

38) E × 2πr =

E=

E=

39)

Question Explanation:

Find critical angle using relation between wavelength and refractive index.

Concept:

Solution

Given:
 So:

Light goes from denser to rarer $\implies$ from x \to y

C = 30o
4. Final Answer: Option 3

40) Inside a current carrying cylindrical conductor,

Outside the conductor,

∴B∝

41) Explain the Question : Find equivalent focal length of given lens.
Concept : This question is based on silvering of lens.
Solution :
Formula : P = 2Pℓ + Pm

fℓ = 20 cm

feq = –5 cm
or 5 cm
Final answer : Option (2)
 42) 1. Question Explanation (in 30 words):
This question asks to find the ratio of the intensity at maxima and minima in an interference
pattern, given the ratio of amplitudes of two interfering sources as 3:5.

2. Concept-Based (Name of Subtopic in 30 words):

The concept used here is Interference of Light Waves. The intensity in interference patterns
depends on the amplitude of the waves, with intensity proportional to the square of the
amplitude.

3. Formula Used:
Intensity at Maxima:
Imax ∝ (A1 + A2)2
Intensity at Minima :
Imin ∝ (A1 – A2)2

Where A1 and A2 are the amplitudes of the two sources.

4. Calculation (in Brief):

Let the amplitudes of the two sources be A1 = 3 and A2 = 5
Intensity at Maxima:
Imax ∝ (3 + 5)2 = 82 = 64
Intensity at Minima:
Imin ∝ (5 – 3)2 = 22 = 4

The ratio of intensities at maxima to minima is:

Thus, the ratio of intensity at maxima to minima is 16:1.

43) In forward Biasing VP > Vn

44) Question Explanation: Determine the output waveform of a given logic circuit for
specified input waveforms.

Concept: NAND gate operation and timing diagrams.

Solution:

A B AB
 1 1 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 1

1 0 0 1

1 1 1 0

0 0 0 1

0 1 0 1
Option C matches with truth table

45) for photo electric effect λ ≤ λ0

λ0 = threshold wavelength

CHEMISTRY

46)

p-p orbitals in collateral manner

47)

The decreasing order of bond dissociation energy is Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

48)

[Cu(NH3)4]SO4, PV = 4, SV = 4

49)

A-r, B-p, C-q

50)

Explain Question:
The question is asking about the truth of assertion and reason regarding octahedral complex
hybridization.

Concept:
octahedral complexes can use either inner d orbitals (d2sp3, low-spin) or outer d orbitals (sp3d2,
high-spin) depending on ligand field strength.

Solution:
Assertion: true – octahedral complexes can have sp3d2 or d2sp3 hybridization to accommodate
six ligands.
Reason: true – strong field ligands pair up inner d electrons d2 sp3; weak field ligands don’t
sp3d2.
The reason correctly explains why these hybridization.

Final answer: option (3)

51)

Zn+2, Sc+3 are diamagnetic and colourless.

52)

All the lanthaniods are much more reactive than aluminium.

53) Explain Question: Question is asking about in correct statement regarding Nitrogen
Molecule.

Concept: This question is based on Properties of Nitrogen.

Solution: Nitrogen molecule cannot form bond because of absence of vacant d orbital
in Nitrogen. Rest all statements are true.

Final Answer : option (3)

54)

Explain Question : Identify the correct order of boiling point

Concept : This question is based on Boiling point

Solution : HF has highest boiling point due to strong hydrogen bonding between
molecules.
For HCℓ, HBr, HI, London dispersion forces (vander waal's) dominate
Molecular mass increases HF > HI > HBr > HCℓ → Stronger dispersion force → More B.P.

Final Answer : option (2)

55) Due to high hydration energy of ion

56)

due to inert pair effect

Pb+2 > Pb+4 (stability)
57)

The Brown ring test for NO3– is due to the formation of the complex ion [Fe(H2O)4NO]2+

58)

Explanation Question:
Finding out the number of chiral center in molecule.

Concept:
Chiral 'C' means, the four group present on it are different in nature.

Solution:

3 chiral carbon 0 chiral carbon

Final answer: Option (4)

59)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

60)

Chain isomers

61) Stability of different conformations of butane staggered > Gauche > partially eclipsed >
fully elipsed

62) Question Explanation: Identify the name of reaction used to prepare Alkyl Iodide.
Concept: Halogen exchange reaction.
Solution:

X = Cl, Br
This reaction is known as Finkelstein reaction.
Final answer: option (2)

63)

Question Explanation: The question checks correctness of two statements about boiling
points and van der Waals forces in alkyl halides.
Concept : Boiling Point Trend, van der Waals Forces, Halogen Size and Mass

Solution :

A. Statement I: Correct. For the same alkyl group, boiling point order is RI > RBr > RCl >
RF because larger halogens increase intermolecular forces.

B. Statement II: Correct. As halogen size and mass increase, van der Waals forces also
increase.

Final Answer: Option (4)

64) NCERT XII Part-II, Edition (2023-24) Pg. # 173

Rate of SN2 ∝

65)

Primary

66) Rate of ESR ∝ No. of α – H (Hyperconjugation)

67)

sp3 સક
ં રણ હોય તો તેને નોન એરોમેટીક કહે વાય.

68)

69)
ANSWER WILL BE:-

70) (Due to aromaticity)

71)

Addition of HBr in presence of peroxide on alkene is free radical addition. This reaction is
not shown by HCl.
The bond energy of HCl and more than HBr

72) Yb

73)

Both Assertion & Reason are False.

74)

ANSWER WILL BE:-

75)

AlH (i–Bu)2 + H2O

76) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Phenol and ethanol cannot liberate CO2 with NaHCO3
Final Answer : (3)

77)

ANSWER WILL BE:-

78) NCERT-XII Pg#54

79)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

80) NCERT, Pg. # 179

81) Explanation :- Match List -I with List-II

Concepts:-
(A) ⇒ Fuel Cell
(B) Cell potential remains ⇒ Mercury cell constant
(C) Development of gree ⇒ Corrosion coating on copper
(D) Cell used commonly ⇒ Dry cell in transistor and clocks
Final answer Option (3)
Level :- Easy

82)

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

83) Explanation:
Given:
Asked: Equilibrium pressure of system
Concept:
This Question is based on Equilibrium constant (Kp)
Solution:

(NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)

2p p p
Kp = (2p)2 p.p = 64 atm
p = 2 atm
ptotal = 2p + p + p = 8 atm
Final Answer: Option: 2

84)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 40.7 atm

85)

Mnormal(1 + 4α)–1

86) Question Explanation: Check each option separately to identify which mixture forms a
basic buffer solution.
Concept: Basic buffer = weak base + its conjugate acid (salt).

Solution:
Option 1:
NaOH moles = 0.075 × 0.1=0.0075
moles =0.05 × 0.1=0.005
Excess strong base remains after neutralization. Not a buffer.
Option 2:
Both have 0.02 moles. Complete neutralization gives only . No weak acid present.
Not a buffer.
Option 3:
HCl moles =0.15 × 0.1=0.015
moles
Excess remains and forms. Weak base + its salt → basic buffer.
Option 4:
Equal strong acid and strong base form NaCl and water. Neutral solution, not buffer.

Final answer: Option (3)

87)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 8 hours

88)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 600 sec

89)

Explain Question:
To select the correct option among the given.

Concept:
Isothermal process

Solution:
for Isothermal process ,

If ext. pressure is constant w = –pext.ΔV

w = –1(20 – 10)
= –10 l-atm
q = –w = +10 l–atm

Final answer: Option (4)

90)
 ANSWER WILL BE:.- 3.125 × 10-2

BOTANY

91) NCERT Page No. 131

92) NCERT PG No. 138

93) Linkage

94) The correct answer is: 3. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Explanation:
Metacentric (A): The centromere is located at the middle of the chromosome. So, A-iii.
Submetacentric (B): The centromere is located slightly away from the middle. So, B-iv.
Acrocentric (C): The centromere is located almost near the tip of the chromosome. So, C-ii.
Telocentric (D): The centromere is located at the tip of the chromosome. So, D-i.

95)

SOLUTION—

(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible under microscope

→ This marks the leptotene stage where chromatin condenses.

(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes

→ Happens during zygotene, where homologous chromosomes pair up.

(c) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

→ Occurs during pachytene via formation of chiasmata.

(e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

→ Happens in diplotene, where the synaptonemal complex breaks down.

(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata

→ Seen in diakinesis, as chiasmata move toward chromosome ends.

The correct answer is:OPTION(3)(b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

96) Solution:
The correct answer is Option 3: Multiplication by Fragmentation.
Explanation:

A. Multicellular fungi, filamentous algae, and the protonema of mosses can all reproduce through
fragmentation, a form of asexual reproduction where a part of the organism breaks off and
grows into a new individual.

The other options are incorrect because:

 A. Option 1 (Members of kingdom plantae): Not all of these organisms belong to the plant
kingdom. Fungi are in the Fungi kingdom, filamentous algae are in the Protista or Plantae
kingdom, and protonema is part of the Mosses, which are in the Plantae kingdom.
B. Option 2 (Mode of Nutrition): Fungi have heterotrophic nutrition (absorbing nutrients from
organic material), while filamentous algae and protonema are autotrophic (making their own
food through photosynthesis).
C. Option 4 (Diplontic life cycle): This refers to organisms with a life cycle where the diploid
stage is dominant, which is not a common characteristic of fungi, algae, and moss protonema.

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: Multiplication by Fragmentation

97)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 7

98)

Question Explanation: The question is asking the site where electron transport with ATP
synthesis occurs.

Concept: Electron Transport System (ETS)

Solution:

A. Electrons from hydrogen are passed to O₂ via ETS.

B. This process forms ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.

C. ETS components are located on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

D. Matrix and cytoplasm are not the sites of this process.

Final Answer: Option 4. On the inner membrane of the mitochondria

99) NCERT Page No. # 20,21

100) The correct answer is 4. All of these are correct.

Explanation:
Lichens are unique organisms that exhibit a symbiotic relationship between two distinct
organisms fungi and algae (or sometimes cyanobacteria). Let's go through the options:
1. Symbiotic association between algae and fungi:

A. This is true. Lichens are a mutualistic symbiotic relationship between a fungus

(mycobiont) and an alga (phycobiont) or cyanobacterium. The fungus provides structure and
protection, while the alga or cyanobacterium provides food through photosynthesis.

2. Pollution indicators:
 A. This is also true. Lichens are highly sensitive to air pollution, especially sulfur dioxide.
Because of this sensitivity, they are often used as bioindicators to assess air quality and
pollution levels in an area.

3. Not placed in any kingdom by R.H. Whittaker:

A. This is true as well. R.H. Whittaker, who proposed the five-kingdom classification system, did
not place lichens in any of the five kingdoms (Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia)
because they are a composite organism, combining elements from both the plant and fungal
kingdoms.

Conclusion:
Since all the statements about lichens are correct, the answer is 4. All of these are correct.

101) NCERT XI, Pg # 65, 69

Petunia, Chinarose and Tobacco are examples of axile placentation

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 69

103) NCERT Pg. # 75

104)

NCERT XI Page # 94

105) Question Explanation: Incorrect match of plant anatomy.

Concept: Plant Tissues and Structures
Solution: The incorrect match is Dicot leaf → Undifferentiated mesophyll. The mesophyll
in a dicot leaf is differentiated into two distinct layers: the palisade parenchyma on the
upper side and the spongy parenchyma on the lower side. Monocot leaves, in contrast, have
an undifferentiated mesophyll.
Final Answer: Dicot leaf → Undifferentiated mesophyll

106) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 36 (para - 3.2.2)

107)

Concept:
Recombinant frequency is proportional to physical distance between genes.

Solution:
• Option 2 is correct – greater distance → higher chance of crossing over → higher
recombination.
• Option 1 decreases recombination.
• Options 3 and 4 are unrelated.

Correct Answer: 2
108)

Here it is asked about, who gave the importance of different wavelengths of light using a
green algae and aerobic bacteria Theodor Wilhelm Engelmann (1843-1909) was the
scientist who discovered the importance of different wavelengths of light on photosynthesis:
Experiment:
In 1882, Engelmann passed white light through a prism to split it into different wavelengths.
He then exposed the green alga Cladophora to these different wavelengths while it was mixed
with aerobic bacteria.
Observation:
Engelmann observed that the bacteria aggregated in large Amounts around the parts of the
alga illuminated with blue or red light.
The correct option is 4. Engelman

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142

110)

Explain Question: The question is asking to correct the sequence of electron flow in the Z-
scheme of photosynthesis.

Concept: z-scheme of photosynthesis

Solution:

In the light reaction of photosynthesis, electrons move in this order:

-Water (H₂O) is split → releases electrons

-Electrons go to PS-II
-Then move to PS-I
Finally reduce NADP⁺ to NADPH
So, the correct sequence is: H₂O → PS-II → PS-I → NADP⁺

Final answer: Option 4

111) NCERT page No. 154

112) NCERT Pg.# 14.4.1/232

113)

Explain Question: The question asks about the incorrect statement.

Concept: Plant growth and development ( Complete)

Solution: The incorrect statement is:

 Plants always follow similar pathways in response to different environments and this

ability is Known as plasticity. (Plants actually follows different pathways)

So, the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: Option 4

114)

Question Explanation: asking incorrect statements about PGR

Concept: PGR

Solution:

(a) PGR used in malting process = Gibberellin.

It also promotes internode elongation in plants like cabbage. Correct

(b) Stress hormone = Abscisic acid.

It generally acts as a growth inhibitor. Correct

(c) Inhibition of axillary bud by apical bud is called apical dominance, not decapitation.
Incorrect

(d) Ethylene can act as both promoter and inhibitor, but it is largely considered a growth
inhibitor, not promoter. Incorrect

Incorrect statements: (c) and (d)

Correct option: 3

Final answer: Option (3)

115) Solution : -
Final Answer : (3)

116) Ncert Pg No: 7

117)

Question Explanation: The question is asking how many different genotypes are possible
when a single gene (like the ABO blood group system discovered by Karl Landsteiner) has four
allelic forms.

Concept: Multiple allele

Solution: When a gene has n alleles, the total number of possible genotypes is given by the
formula : n(n+1)/2

Here, n = 4
4(4+1)/2 = 4×5/2 = 10

So, there are 10 possible genotypes.

Final answer: Option (2)

118) Explain Question: What is caused by Insertion or deletion of a single base.

Concept: Frame-shift mutation.

Solution:

Insertion or deletion of a single base shifts the reading frame of the genetic code, altering all
downstream codons. This is called a frame-shift mutation.

So, the correct answer is: 3.

Final answer: 3.

119)

NCERT Page No 65

120) NCERT Pg. # 85

121)

122)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct statements about the
nucleosome model.

Concept: DNA Packaging

Solution:

Statement (B) is correct- A typical nucleosome unit , contains about 200 base pairs of DNA.

Statement (C) is correct- This is the definition of a histone octamer – a core particle made of
eight histone molecules.

Statement (D) is correct- DNA is negatively charged (due to phosphate groups), and it wraps
around the positively charged histone octamer (rich in basic amino acids).

Final answer: Three

123) NCERT XII Pg. # 121

124)

Question Explanation : identify which statement correctly describes the evolutionary

significance of splicing in eukaryotes.

Concept : This question is based on splicing.

Solution : Splicing is carried out by snRNAs (ribozyme activity).

This supports the theory that early life was RNA-based — "RNA world" concept.

Final Answer : option (2)

125)

Question Explanation: Effect of a point mutation creating a stop codon on a polypeptide

chain.

Concept: Genetic Code and Translation Termination

Solution: The original mRNA codes for a 50 amino acid polypeptide.

Translation proceeds codon by codon. The 26th codon changes from UAU (which codes for
Tyrosine) to UAG. UAG is a stop codon (Nonsense codon).
Stop codons do not code for any amino acid; instead, they signal the termination of translation.
Therefore, the ribosome will dissociate from the mRNA at the 26th codon, resulting in a
shortened polypeptide chain.
The chain will only contain the amino acids coded by the first 25 codons.

Final Answer: 4
Polypeptide chain will have only 25 amino acids.

126) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 187

127) NCERT Pg. No. 154

128) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 232,238

129) NCERT XII Pg. # 247

130)

Question Explanation: Identify the interaction in which both organisms are so

interdependent that neither can complete its life cycle without the other.

Concept: Ecological interactions – Obligate mutualism

Solution:

A. E. coli and Human → Mutualism, but not obligate for both.

 B. Cattle egret and Cattle → Commensalism.

C. Hermit crab and Sea anemone → Mutualism, but not obligatory for life cycle completion.

D. Fig and Wasp → Obligate mutualism. The fig wasp lays eggs inside the fig and pollinates
it; the fig provides a site for reproduction. Both depend on each other to complete their
life cycles.

Final Answer: Option 4

131)

NCERT Page no. 198

132)

NCERT Pg. No. 213

133)

NCERT Pg. No. 211

134) NCERT Page # 283

135) Explain Question:

The question asks which ecological phenomenon caused the extinction of 200 species of cichlid
fishes in Lake Victoria due to the introduction of Nile perch

Concept:
Causes Of Biodiversity Losses- Alien Species Invasions

Solution:
The extinction of cichlids was due to the alien species invasion of Nile perch.

Final Answer: Option (2)

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT XII Pg # 180

137)
Was produced for first time in year 2001

138) The correct answer is option (4) All of these.

Solution/Explanation:
The question is about biopiracy, where Western nations try to patent traditional Indian plants
like Basmati rice, Turmeric, and Neem for their own profit. India has has to fight these
attempts to protect its traditional knowledge and resources.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

139)

Adenosine deaminase

140)

Cry II Ab Cry I Ab

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 204

142) Assertion (A) is true because DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus (Taq
polymerase) is used in PCR to amplify DNA.
Reason (R) is true because Taq polymerase is heat-resistant and remains active during the
high-temperature denaturation step of PCR, enabling DNA synthesis.

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113, 114

144)

Adhering junction

145) NCERT Pg. # 118

146)

Well developed muscular pharynx is present in Aschelminthyes.

The space between visceral hump and mantle is called mantle cavity.

147)

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5

148)
b, c, d only

149)

None of the above

150)

pO2 = 40 mm Hg

151) NCERT Pg # 190, 202, 213

152)

flow of blood into pulmonary artery reduces

153)

I, II, III and IV

154)

Question Explanation: The question asks you to identify the correct labels in the enzyme-
catalyzed reaction energy graph.

Concept: Based on enzyme action

Solution:

A. In a reaction coordinate diagram, the vertical axis represents potential energy.

B. The starting point of the reaction represents the reactants (substrate), and the ending
point represents the products.

C. Therefore, the beginning of the reaction will have the substrate, and the end will have
the product.

D. The Y axis is potential energy.

Thus, the correct sequence is:

A. A = Potential energy → Y-axis represents energy level.

 B. B = Substrate → Initial energy level before reaction starts.

C. C = Product → Final energy level after reaction completes.

Final Answer: Option 3

155)

a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

156) Question Explanation :

The question is asking to evaluate whether the given assertion and reason about insulin and its
function are correct.

Concept :
Pancreas.

Solution :
Assertion : True – Insulin stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen.
Reason : False – Insulin is hypoglycemic (lower blood sugar), not hyperglycemic.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

157)

Triiodothyronine (T3) is a thyroid hormone that acts through intracellular receptors and
directly affects gene expression in the target cells. It does not require a secondary messenger
for its action, unlike the other hormones listed (gonadotropins, growth hormone, and
epinephrine), which rely on secondary messengers like cAMP for signaling.

158)

Two

159)

Adaptive radiation

160)

Natural selection

161)

All of these
162)

During stabilization of natural selection more individuals acquire value other than mean
character value

163) Solution : Statement I is correct: When GFR falls, JGA cells release Renin, which
eventually produces Angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that increases
glomerular blood pressure and stimulates the release of Aldosterone.
Statement II is correct: To prevent the blood pressure from rising too high, the atria of the
heart release ANF. ANF causes vasodilation (widening of blood vessels), thereby decreasing
blood pressure and acting as a "brake" or check on the RAAS.
Final Answer : (1)

164)

NCERT XII, Pg # 78

165)

NCERT XII, Pg # 85

166)

Question Explanation: The question refers to the life cycle of Plasmodium (malarial parasite)
and asks to correctly identify the stages/organs labeled A, B, C, and D.
Concept: Protozoal infections
Solution: Sporozoites enter the human liver after a mosquito [Link] humans, the parasite
later forms gametocytes in [Link] a mosquito bites an infected human, gametocytes enter
the mosquito and eventually reach the salivary glands as [Link], the correct
identification is:

A. A – Sporozoites

B. B – Liver

C. C – Salivary gland

D. D – Gametocyte

This combination matches Option (3).

Final answer: Option – 3

167) Solution : (iv) The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e.,fitting into the active
site).
(iii) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
 substrate.
(ii) The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of substrate and forms
E-P complex.
(i) The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another substrate.
Final Answer : (2)

168)

NCERT XII, Pg # 109

169) A motor neuron transmits an electrical signal to its terminal at the neuro-muscular
junction. This triggers the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at neuro-muscular
junction. Acetylcholine binds to receptors present on the sarcolemma, leading to
depolarization and the initiation of an action potential in the muscle fibres.
The action potential travels along the sarcolemma reaching the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This
triggers the release of stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
Ca²⁺ binds to troponin. This binding causes a conformational change in another protein,
tropomyosin, exposing binding sites on actin. Myosin heads of the thick filaments bind to these
exposed sites on actin, forming cross-bridges. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards
the centre of 'A' band.
This sliding action shortens the sarcomere, leading to muscle contraction.
ATP binds to myosin heads, causing them to detach from actin.
The hydrolysis of ATP re-energizes the myosin heads, allowing them to reattach to a new
position on the actin filament, continuing the cycle as long as Ca²⁺ and ATP are available.

170)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 3

171)

Secondary oocyte

172)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 250

173)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Vaginal
(2) Vagina Urethra Uterus
orifice

174) NCERT Pg. # 201

175) Solution : A→LH, B→Ovulation, C→Menstruation, D→Proliferative phase, E→Luteal phase

LH is luteinizing hormone secreted from the anterior pituitary gland. In females, an acute rise
of LH (called LH surge) triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. Ovulation is
the process when a mature egg is released from the ovary, pushed down the fallopian tube,
and is available for fertilization.
Menstruation is a woman's monthly bleeding. Menstrual blood flows from the uterus through
the small opening in the cervix and passes out of the
body through the vagina. Proliferative and luteal are phases of the menstrual cycle.
Final Answer : (1)

176)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 3

177)

A and B are true, C and D are false

178)

2 mya Australopithecus probably lived in west- african grassland

179) Explanation :- The question is asking about correct statement

Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Proteins are made from 20 different amino acids, so they are heteropolymers.
Proteins are composed of varying combinations of different amino acids, which gives each
protein its unique structure and function.
**** Replace word statement to statements **** in the 1st and 4th option
Answer :- 4

180) Explain question : Determine whether artificial insemination is an in-vivo fertilization

technique.
Concept : This question is based on Infertility - ART
Solution : The correct option is 1.
The assertion is correct because artificial insemination (AI) involves fertilization that occurs
inside the body (in-vivo), not in a lab setting.
The Reason is also correct and directly explains the assertion by detailing how the semen is
artificially introduced into the female reproductive tract, which is the defining characteristic of
this technique.
Final answer : 1