18-04-2026

1016CMD303031250061 MD

PHYSICS

1) The energy E of an oscillating body in simple harmonic motion depends on its mass m, frequency
n and amplitude A as E = k(m)x(n)y(A)z. Find the value of (2x + y + z) : [K is a dimensionless
constant]

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

2) The maximum and minimum resultant of two forces acting at a point are 10N and 6N respectively.
If each force is increased by 3N, find the resultant of new forces when acting at a point at an angle
of 90° with each-other :-

(1)
(2) 11N
(3)
(4) 8N

3) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on its circular scale. When screw
is closed and plane face of screw is in contact with plane face of stud, on the frame, it was observed
that zero of the circular scale is above the pitch line by 5 divisions. The zero error in instrument is :

(1) 0.025 mm
(2) –0.25 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) –0.05 mm

4) Given that velocity where t is time. Find rate of change of speed :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A ball is thrown at two different angles with the same speed 'u' and from the same point and it
has the same range in both the cases. If y1 and y2 are heights attained in the two cases then choose
the correct graph showing relationship between (y1 + y2) and angle of projection (θ) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A rocket is fired vertically from the earth with an acceleration of 2g, where g is the gravitational
acceleration. On an inclined plane inside the rocket, making an angle θ with the horizontal, a point
object of mass m is kept. After firing the rocket find the minimum coefficient of friction µmin between
the mass and the inclined surface such that the mass does not move is :

(1) tan 2θ
(2) tanθ
(3) 3 tanθ
(4) 2 tanθ

7) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason (R) :- Fan continuous to rotate due to inertia of rotational motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

8) A body of mass m travels in a straight line with velocity u = α⋅x3/2 where α is constant. work done
by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = x0 is :-
(1)
2 3
(2) mα x0
2 3
(3) 2mα x0
(4) None of these

9) Find minimum value of V so given circuit work as voltage regulation :-

(1) 8 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 12 V
(4) 16 V

10) Truth table for given combination of logic gates will be :-

A B Y

0 0 0
(1) 0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 0

A B Y

0 0 1
(2) 0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 1

A B Y

0 0 0
(3) 0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

A B Y

0 0 0
(4) 0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
11) Assertion: If YDSE setup is immersed in water, fringe width will decrease
Reason: Wavelength decreases in denser medium.

(1) Assertion is true, Reason is true; Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true, Reason is true; Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true.

12)

When a person is situated at a distance 'd' from a point source, observed intensity is I0. When person
shift 50m towards source, intensity becomes 9 times of initial value. Find d.

(1) 50 m
(2) 75 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 20 m

13) Statement-1 : If intensity of monochromatic light is increased then number of photon passing
through a given area increases per second. While energy of each photon remains same.
Statement-2 : In photon-matter collision total linear momentum and total energy remains
conserved.

(1) (1) & (2) both are correct

(2) (1) is correct but (2) is not correct
(3) (1) is not correct but (2) is correct
(4) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect

14) An alpha particle and a proton are projected in a transverse magnetic field. If ratio of radius of
their path is 1 : 2 then ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths will be :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

15) For a hydrogen atom, when electron jump from n = 2 to n = 1, then wave length of radiation
emitted found to be .Then, for which transition of electron of a ‘He’ atom, the wavelength of
radiation emitted will be equal to

(1) n = 3 to n = 2
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 4 to n = 3
(4) n = 8 to n = 4

16) When a 4Be9 atom is bombarded with α-particles. One of the product of nuclear transmutation is
12
6C . The other is :-
 0
(1) –1e
1
(2) 1H
2
(3) 1D
1
(4) 0n

17) In a compound microscope, the focal length of the objective and the eye lens are 2 cm and 5 cm
respectively. An object is placed at 3 cm before the objective and image is formed at the least
distance of distinct vision, then the distance between two lenses will be :-

(1) 10.16 cm
(2) 18.67 cm
(3) 23.00 cm
(4) 52.00 cm

18) Variation of angle of deviation δ versus angle of incidence i for a prism is given in the figure. The

value of refractive index of prism :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The focal length of a convex lens is f and the distance of an object from the principal focus is x.
The ratio of the size of the real image to the size of the object is

(1) f/x
(2) x/f

(3)

(4)

20) Identify (–q, m), (–3q, 4m), (+q, m) and (+3q, 4m).
 Column-1 Column-2

(a) Particle (–q, m) p. w

(b) Particle (–3q, 4m) q. x

(c) Particle (+q, m) r. y

(d) Particle (+3q, 4m) s. z

(1) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
(2) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
(3) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(4) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q

21) A wire of length ℓ carrying a current of i is bent to form a square coil of 2 turns then its
magnetic moment will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The r.m.s. value in time T of potential difference V shown in the figure is :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4)

23) Statement-I : When the sun shines on our hand we feel a radiation pressure.
Statement-II : When we are exposed to sun shine, amount of momentum transferred by light is very
small.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

24) Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in circular orbits of
radius r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Which of the following relation is true regarding their speeds
V1 and V2 :

(1) V1 = V2
(2) V1 < V2
(3) V1 > V2

(4)

25) Three identical blocks A, B and C, each of mass 2 kg are kept on a smooth horizontal surface.
Block A is given a horizontal velocity 10 m/s towards B (as shown in figure). Block B and C are
attached with a spring. If block A collide with block B elastically, then find change in velocity of
center of mass of system A + B + C if A collides with B elastically.

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) zero

26) Consider the solid sphere moving on horizontal surface. At some instant it has linear velocity v

and angular velocity about center of mass . The translational velocity after the sphere starts pure

rolling :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A particle is revolving around a circle of radius 1 m. Angular velocity of particle ω = 3t2 – 2t
rad/sec changes with time (t is in sec).

List-II
List-I Values are in
appropriate SI units
 Angular acceleration at
(P) (1) 4
t = 1 sec

Tangential acceleration at
(Q) (2) 3
t = 1 sec

Centripetal acceleration at
(R) (3) 1
t = 1 sec

Rate of change of angular

(S) (4) 10
velocity at t = 2 sec
(1) P → 1;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(2) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 2
(3) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 2
(4) P → 4;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 3

28) A small spherical metal ball of radius r is lying at the bottom of a stationary container
containing liquid of density ρ as shown in the figure. P0 is atmospheric pressure. Force exerted by

liquid on the upper hemispherical part of the sphere is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The velocity of the liquid coming out of a small hole of vessel containing two different liquids of

densities 2ρ and ρ as shown in figure is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30) A given mass m of a solid is supplied with heat continuously at a constant rate and the graph
shown in the figure is plotted. If Lf and Lv are latent heat of fusion and latent heat of vaporization
and Sℓ and Ss are specific heats of liquid and solid respectively, then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) When q1 joules of radiation is incident on a body, it reflects and transmits total of q2 joules. Find
the emissivity of the body.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A spherical solid black body of radius ‘r’ radiates power ‘H’ and its rate of cooling is ‘C’. If
density is constant, then which of the following is/are true ?

(1) H ∝ r and C ∝ r2
(2) H ∝ r2 and C ∝ 1/r
(3) H ∝ r and C ∝ 1/r2
(4) H ∝ r2 and C ∝ r2

33) One mole of monoatomic gas is brought from state A to state B and temperature at A is T0. Find

the heat absorbed along the path ACB.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) As per given figures, two springs of spring constants K and 2K are connected to mass m. If the
period of oscillation in figure (a) is 3s, then the period of oscillation in figure (b) will be The

value of x is_________.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

35) For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, which of the following statement is not correct
?

(1) the total energy of particle always remains the same

(2) the restoring force is always directed towards a fix point
(3) the restoring force is maximum at the extreme positions
(4) the acceleration of particle is maximum at the equilibrium position

36) Three tuning forks of frequencies 200, 203 and 207 Hz are sounded together. Find out the beat
frequency (in Hz).

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12

37) A Wheatstone's bridge is balanced with a resistance of 625 Ω in the third arm, where P, Q and S
are in the 1st, 2nd and 4th arm respectively. If P and Q are interchanged, the resistance in the third
arm has to be increased by 51Ω to secure balance. The unknown resistance in the fourth arm is :-
(1) 625 Ω
(2) 650 Ω
(3) 676 Ω
(4) 600 Ω

38) For the circuit shown in figure, the potential difference between points a and b is :

(1)
V

(2)
V
(3) 2 V
(4) 3.2 V

39) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be :-

(1) 3C, 3V

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The cube shown below has edge lengths of 1.4 m and is placed such that the hidden corner is at
the origin of the coordinate system. If , where is in units of N/C and y is coordinate in
meters, what is

(1) 5.88 N-m2/C

(2) 0
(3) 8.23 N-m2/C
(4) 4.2 N-m2/C

41) A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout its
volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' and net charge '–q' is

concentric with the sphere (see the figure) Read the following statements

(i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre of the sphere = for r < a
(ii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for a < r < b is zero
(iii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for b < r < c is zero
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere is –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere is +q Which of the above statements are
true ?

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

42) A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and unit of
time is γ s. What will be value of 5J in this new system :

(1) 5αβ2γ–2
(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–2β–1γ–2
(4) 5α–1β2γ2

43) Full scale deflection current for galvanometer is 1 mA. What should be the value of shunt
resistance (approximately) so that galvanometer shows half scale deflection for the circuit shown.
(1) 1.5 mΩ
(2) 3mΩ
(3) 10 mΩ
(4) 15 mΩ

44) Calculate the current flow from battery, after long time of
closing the key:-

(1) 2.5 Amp

(2) 5 Amp
(3) 7 Amp
(4) 3 Amp

45) An electric charge + q unit moves with velocity unit, in an electromagnetic field
given by: unit and unit. If the y-component of the force experienced by +
q is βq unit then β is :

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 7
(4) 11

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following order is CORRECT for their indicated properties ?

(i) bond angle : CH3F < CH2F2
(ii) Bond angle : NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(iii) % s-character in the orbital containing lone pair : PH3 < PF3
(iv) % s-character in E – H bonds (E = central atom) : NH3 < AsH3

(1) (i) only

(2) (i), (ii) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only
(4) (i), (iv) only
2) Which of the following has dipole-dipole interaction between the species possessing permanent
dipole ?
(i) Liquid-NH3 (ii) Liquid-He
(iii) Solid–ICl (iv) Liquid-Br2

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) i, iv

3) Find the number of molecules in which p–p sideways overlapping is present.

N2 , O2 , HCl , Cl2 , HF, S8, F2

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

4) Total number of paramagnetic species in which unpaired electron(s) is/are present in π* M.O.
O2+; O2– ; O2; N2– ; N2+ ; N22–; B2

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

5) Which of the following statement are CORRECT ?

(i) In Na2S4O6 sum of the oxidation state of four sulphur atoms is 10
(ii) K2Cr2O7 is coloured due to charge transfer spectrum.
(iii) [M(AA)3] has 1 optically inactive isomer
(iv) E.A.N. of Co is 35 in Co2(CO)8

(1) i, iii, iv
(2) iii, iv
(3) i, ii
(4) i, ii, iii

6) X = Number of compounds which are repelled by magnetic field among KO2,O2[PtF6], NO[BF4],
AlF3
Y = Number of species which have same bond order as CO among CN–, NO+, , .
Find the value of (X + Y)

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4
7)

List-II
List-I
(Hydridisation with
(Complex ions)
magnetic moment)

(P) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (1) dsp2, μ = 0

d2sp3, μ = 0
3–
(Q) [FeF6] (2)

(R) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (3)

(S) [Pt(NH3)2(Cl)2] (4)

(1) P-3 ; Q-4 ; R-2 ; S-1
(2) P-2 ; Q-4 ; R-3 ; S-1
(3) P-1 ; Q-3 ; R-4 ; S-2
(4) P-4 ; Q-3 ; R-2 ; S-1

8) Select the correct statement(s) with respect to oxides and oxoanions of transition metals.
(i) Among oxides of chromium, CrO is basic, Cr2O3 is amphoteric and CrO3 is acidic.
(ii) No higher oxides of iron above Fe2O3 are found.
(iii) Ti,V, Cr and Mn form oxides MO and their correct increasing order of acidic character is
MnO<CrO<VO<TiO.
(iv) Mn2O7 is a covalent green oil.

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, ii
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) iii, iv

9) Find the number of green colour compound(s) -

MnO2, K2MnO4, AgI, Cr2(SO4)3, CuSO4.5H2O, [Link](OH)2, FeSO4.7H2O

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

10) Select the CORRECT reactant for brown ring test of NO3– ion

(1) Aqueous solution of salt + ferrous sulphate solution + dil. H2SO4

(2) Aqueous solution of salt + ferric sulphate solution + conc. H2SO4
(3) Aqueous solution of salt + ferrous sulphate solution + conc. H2SO4
(4) Aqueous solution of salt + ferric sulphate solution + dil. H2SO4

11) Borax Bead test is carried out when the original mixture is coloured. It is done with the help of a
clean platinum wire on which a small loop is made at the end. When borax is heated on platinum
wire loop a transparent glass like bead is obtained. The hot bead is brought in contact with salt till it
reacts with fused borax and colour is imparted to the bead. Bead colour is noted.
 List-I List-II

(P) Blue Green (1) Ni+2

(Q) Yellow (2) Cr3+

(R) Green (3) Fe3+

(S) Brown (4) Cu2+

(1) P-(1), Q-(3), R-(2), S-(4)
(2) P-(4), Q-(3), R-(2), S-(1)
(3) P-(4), Q-(1), R-(3), S-(2)
(4) P-(1), Q-(4), R-(3), S-(2)

12)

How many elements having lesser size than Eu.

La, Yb, Pm, Ce, Nd, Gd, Ho, Tm

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 0

13)

For an element the successive ionisation energy values (in eV/atom), are given below.
14.534, 29.601, 47.448, 77.472, 97.888, 552.057, 667.029

Find the number of valence shell electrons in that element.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

14)
In (X) total number of σ bond = a
Total number of lone pair of electron = b
Basicity of (X) is = c
if a + b + c = Z
Find the value of (Z)

(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 13

15) Methanides are :

(1) Mg2C3, Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC2
(2) Mg2C3, Be2C and Al4C3
(3) Be2C, Al4C3 and CaC2
(4) Be2C and Al4C3

16)

Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Number of
(Compound)
Stereoisomers

(a) (P) 2

(b) (Q) 3

(c) (R) 4

(d) (S) 6

(1) (a) → (Q); (b) → (R); (c) → (P); (d) → (P)

(2) (a) → (R); (b) → (P); (c) → (Q); (d) → (P)
(3) (a) → (R); (b) → (Q); (c) → (P); (d) → (P)
(4) (a) → (R); (b) → (Q); (c) → (Q); (d) → (P)

17) Write basic strength order of following :-

(1) P > S > R > Q

(2) R > S > Q > P
(3) P > R > Q > S
(4) Q > S > R > P

18) , Product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The final product (B) of the reaction sequence is :-

A B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In the reaction,

the structure of the product (T) is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) End product (C) in above reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following major product is formed in the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)
Compound P is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Arrange the following in decreasing order of heat of hydrogenation.

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) S > R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) R > Q > P > S

25) Which of the following reaction is incorrect :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) For the estimation of iodine by carius method 100 gram of an organic compound is taken in
carius flask. If 47 gram of silver iodide (AgI) is obtained then precentage of iodine in given sample of
organic compound is :-

(1) 2.54%
(2) 25.4%
(3) 54.2%
(4) 5.42%
27) Assertion - Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to confirm the presence of carbonyl group in
glucose.
Reason - Glucose forms addition product with NaHSO3.

(1) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(3) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is wrong, reason is correct.

28) Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect :-

(1) Phenol does not react with NaHCO3

(2) An aqueous solution of ethanol does not affect the litmus
(3) All the secondary alcohols gives haloform reaction
The ease of the esterification of formic acid, acetic acid and propionic acid with ethanol follows
(4)
the order - Formic acid > Acetic acid > propionic acid

29) Which of the following is correct IUPAC name.

(1) 4-Chloro-3-methyl cyclopentanol

(2) 1-Amino-3-bromo hexan-1-one
(3) 4-Chloro-3-methyl cyclohexane carboxylic acid
(4) 3-Bromo-1-methyl hexan-1-ol

30) Assign Configurations to the double bond in the given molecule :-

(1) E, Z
(2) Z, E
(3) E, E
(4) Z, Z

31)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Number of carbon atoms in 90 g C6H12O6 (P) 3

(B) Number of g-atoms of oxygen in 1mol Fe2O3. (Q) 3NA

Mass of ozone (in g) having same number of

(C) (R) 48
molecules as there are in 1 mol of O2.

(D) Mass of oxygen (in g) in 0.25 mol of Mg2P2O7. (S) 32

(T) 28
Select the correct match -
(1) (A) Q, (B) P, (C) R, (D) T
(2) (A) T, (B) R, (C) P, (D) Q
(3) (A) P, (B) Q, (C) R, (D) T
(4) (A) P, (B) Q, (C) T (D) R

32) Calculate pOH of aqueous solution at 25°C obtained by mixing equal volume of two aqueous
solution having pH = 2 and pH = 4 respectively.[Take : log 5 = 0.7]

(1) 2.3
(2) 3.5
(3) 11.7
(4) 12.7

33) Which of the following solutions will have a pH greater than 7 at 298 K?
[Given : pKa of CH3COOH = pKb of NH4OH = 4.74]

(1) A solution containing equimolar amount of CH3COOH and CH3COONa.

A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of NaOH solution having molarity 0.1 M with HCl
(2)
solution having molarity 0.2 M.
A solution obtained by mixing equal concentration of NH4OH & CH3COOH in a volume ratio 1 :
(3)
1 respectively.
A solution obtained on mixing equal concentrations of CH3COOH and NaOH in a volume ratio of
(4)
1 : 2 respectively.

34) Sulphur undergo a phase transformation at 'T' K.

S8(Rhombic) S8(Monoclinic)
Δrxn H° = 3 kJ/mol, ΔrxnS° = 9 JK–1
Then from given data :

(1) At 400 K Rhombic sulphur is more stable.

(2) At 300 K monoclinic is more stable.
(3) At 400 K monoclinic is more stable.
(4) both (2) and (3)

35) Statement-1 : If the normality of a KMnO4 solution is 0.5N, then the normality of same solution
may be 0.3N, in other condition.
Statement-2 : Equivalent weight of any substance may be different in different reaction condition.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

36)
 Column-I Column-II

(A) Radius of 2nd orbit of Li2+ ion (P)

Velocity of electron in 4th

(B) (Q)
orbit in He+ ion

Total energy of electron in

(C) (R)
2nd orbit of Li2+

Frequency of revolution of
(D) electron in 2nd orbit of Li2+ (S)
ion.

(T)

(1) (A) R (B) P (C) Q (D) T

(2) (A) T (B) Q (C) P (D) R
(3) (A) P (B) R (C) Q (D) T
(4) (A) R (B) P (C) T (D) Q

37) For the following heterogeneous phase equilibrium

2NaHCO3(s) Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g)
Which of the following is not the favourable condition for dissociation of sodium
bicarbonate(NaHCO3)?

(1) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure.

(2) Increase in temperature.
(3) Decrease in pressure at constant temperature.
(4) Addition of CO2(g) at constant volume.

38) The reaction : A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g) is an elementary process. In an experiment, the initial
partial pressures of A and B are PA = 0.80 atm, PB = 0.80 atm. When PC = 0.2 atm, the rate of
reaction relative to the initial rate is -

(1) 1/48
(2) 1/24
(3) 3/16
(4) 1/6

39) Identify the correct statement :

Aquatic species are more comfortable in hot water than cold water due to higher solubility of
(1)
O2(g) in hot water.
(2) A minimum boiling azeotrope will have higher vapour pressure than both of its components.
If 0.1 M NaCl(aq) solution is diluted then its boiling point will remain same because number of
(3)
particles of NaCl are constant.
(4) Osmotic pressure get changed if solvent is changed keeping same concentration.
40) If the conductivity of 0.001 M propionic acid is 3.83 × 10–5 S-cm–1 and limiting molar
conductivities of HCl, KCl and potassium propionate are 426, 126, 83 S cm2 mol–1 respectively then
acid dissociation constant of propionic acid is -

(1) 10–6
(2) 1.11 × 10–5
(3) 1.11 × 10–4
(4) 10–3

41) Which of the following statement(s) is /are incorrect?

(1) Metal sol can be prepared by Bredig's arc method

(2) Lyophilic colloids are stable due to extensive solvation.
(3) Peptization is the process of converting a precipitate into colloidal solution.
(4) Colloid of starch is an example of Lyophobic sol.

42) Standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(ℓ) is :

Given : H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ)

ΔfH° = – 285 kJ/mol
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
ΔCH° = – 393 kJ/mol

CH3OH(ℓ) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O

ΔH° = – 725 kJ/mol

(1) –138 kJ/mol

(2) 47 kJ/mol
(3) –238 kJ/mol
(4) – 47 kJ/mol

43) For the first order reaction, A(g) → 2B(g) + C(s), t1/2 = 24 minute. The reaction is carried out
taking certain mass of A enclosed in a vessel having constant volume in which it exerts a pressure of
400 mm Hg. The pressure of the reaction mixture after expiry of 48 minute will be

(1) 700 mm Hg
(2) 600 mm Hg
(3) 800 mm Hg
(4) 1000 mm Hg

44) Identify the option which is correct :

(1) for an adiabatic process, entropy of system must remain constant always.
(2) for chemical reaction to be spontaneous Gibbs free energy should increase.
for any substance heat required for melting will always be equal to heat required for
(3)
vaporisation.
(4) ΔSf° of H2O(ℓ) is < 0
45) A mixture of NaHC2O4 and H2C2O4 requires 50 mL, 0.1 M KMnO4 (aq.) solution during titration in
acidic medium. The same mixture of NaHC2O4 and H2C2O4 requires 50 mL, 0.4 M NaOH (aq.)
solution for the complete neutralisation. Calculate the mass of H2C2O4 in the initial mixture.

(1) 1.250 g
(2) 0.900 g
(3) 0.450 g
(4) 0.675 g

BIOLOGY

1) In Urey and Miller experiment which of the following combination was used ?

(1) H2O (vapour), CH4, O2, NH3

(2) H2O (vapour), CH4, NH3, CO
(3) CH4, NH3, H2, CO
(4) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O (vapour)

2) Assertion (A) : Population sizes in reality are stable. Except seasonal variation
Reason (R) : In nature there had been competition for resources which are limited.
Choose the correct answer from the given options.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3) How many of the following are characters of withdrawal syndrome ?

Shakiness, High fever, Runny nose, Sweating, Mental retardation, Anxiety, Nausea.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

4) AIDS is caused by HIV. among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV ?

(1) Transfusion of contaminated blood

(2) Sharing the infected needles
(3) Shaking hands with infected person
(4) Sexual contact with infected person

5) Statement-I : Filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation in blood vessels of
the lower limbs.
Statements-II : Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is very important for prevention and
control of non- infectious diseases.
(1) Only statement-I is correct
(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

6) Read the following statements :

(a) Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.
(b) Acquired immunity is characterised by memory.
(c) The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of only one special
type of lymphocyte present in our body i.e., B-lymphocytes.
(d) T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help the B cells to produce them
(e) Humoral immune response is mediated by B lymphocytes
Select the option which includes all the correct statements only

(1) a,b,d and e

(2) b,c,d and e
(3) a,b,c and d
(4) a,b,c,d and e

7) Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column - II

(a) LNG-20 (i) Copper releasing IUD

(b) Lippes loop (ii) Hormone releasing IUD

(c) Multiload 375 (iii) Barrier method

(d) Condoms (iv) Non medicated IUD

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

8) The type of placenta found in human is formed by interdigitation of :

(1) Umbillical cord and chorionic villi

(2) Myometrium and Endometrial tissue
(3) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
(4) Epithelium of amnion and chorion

9) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virgnity or sexual experience

(2) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla.
(3) During pregnancy, all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is not menstruation.
(4) In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum starts degenerating.

10) Which of the following event takes place after entry of sperm into the ovum ?

(1) Completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte

(2) Formation of second polar body
(3) Formation of a haploid ootid
(4) All of these

11) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.

Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events.
(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete oestrogen which
stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) LH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the development of corpus luteum which
secretes progesterone
(iii) Reduced production of LH from anterior pituitary causes degeneration of corpus luteum,
thereby menustral flow starts.

Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III

(1)
(i) (ii) (iii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(2)
(iii) (i) (ii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(3)
(ii) (iii) (i)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(4)
(iii) (ii) (i)

12) Which of the following is correct for A, B, C and D

A-Carries sperm,B-Stores sperm permanently, C-Secretes a fluid that lubricates ureter, D-

(1)
Secretes a fluid that ultimately becomes semen.
(2) A-Carries sertoli cells,B-Stores sperm, C-Carries urine, D-Stores sperm.
 A-Carries sperm, B-Stores sperm, C-Secretes a fluid that ultimately becomes semen, D-Secretes
(3)
a fluid that lubricates penis.
A-Carries sperm, B-Stores sperm permanently, C-Secretes a fluid that lubricates distal urethra,
(4)
D-Secretes a fluid that ultimately becomes semen

13) Which type of movement is present in trachea ?

(1) Amoeboid movement

(2) Flagellar movement
(3) Ciliary movement
(4) Muscular movement

14) Choose the correct statements :

(A) Each rib has two articulation surface on its ventral end and is hence called bicephalic.
(B) In human number of ear ossicles is three.
(C) Dorsally ribs are attached to the thoracic vertebrae.
(D) A cup shaped bone called patella cover the knee ventrally.

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, B, C & D
(3) B & C
(4) C & D

15) Match the column - I with column - II and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

A. Somatostatin I. Pancreas

B. Acromegaly II. Posterior pituitary

Diabetes
C. III. Hypothalamus
insipidus

Diabetes Anterior
D. IV.
mellitus pituitary
(1) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I

16) Read the following statements are :

a. In adult women, Hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular.
b. Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction.
c. MSH acts on the melanocytes and regulates pigmentation of the skin.
d. The pineal gland is located on the ventral side of forebrain.
e. Parathyroid hormone is a hypocalcemic hormone.
Choose the option with correct statements only :

(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and e
(3) a, b, c and e
(4) a, b and c

17) Which one of the following hormone secreted by ovary and acts on uterus?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Cortisol

18) Exophthalmic goiter is characterized by ___________ of the thyroid gland, protrusion of eye balls,
increased BMR & weight ________.

(1) enlargement, loss

(2) gain, atrophy
(3) enlargement, gain
(4) atrophy, loss

19) Assertion : At resting state, positive charge is more outer surface and negative charge more
inner surface of the axon.
Reason : Charge difference around axolemma arises due to active transport only in resting state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) When a Neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e, resting, the axonal membrane comparatively
________ to potassium ions (K+) and nearly ________ to sodium (Na+) ions.

(1) Less permeable, impermeable respectively

(2) More permeable, impermeable respectively
(3) Less permeable, more impermeable respectively
(4) Impermeable, impermeable respectively

21) The blood vessels supplying blood into Bowman's capsule is –

(1) Afferent arteriole

(2) Efferent arteriole
(3) Renal vein
(4) Renal portal vein

22) Statement-I :- Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of ammonia in blood, a

condition called uremia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure.
Statement-II :- In such patients, urea can be removed by a process called hemodialysis.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but II incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but II correct.

23) Statement-I : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary cavity.
Statement-II : The overall increase in the thoracic volume causes a similar increase in pulmonary
volume.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but II incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II correct.

24) How much Partial pressure of O2 is in Deoxygenated blood ?

(1) 104
(2) 159
(3) 40
(4) 95

25) The QRS complex represent the _________ which initiates the ventricular contraction.

(1) Depolarisation of Atria

(2) Depolarisation of Ventricles
(3) Repolarisation of Ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of Atria

26) Read following terminology of column-I & II and identify correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Diastolic pressure (i) Electrocardiogram

(B) Heart rate (ii) 70 ml/min by both ventricle

(C) Thrombo plastin (iii) 72 beat per min

(D) End of Twave (iv) Start of ventricular diastole

(v) Helps in clotting

(vi) 80 mm of Hg

(vii) Prevent clotting.

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(vi)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(v)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(v)
(4) A-(vi), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv)
27) In frog, mature female can lay how many ova at a time ?

(1) 2500-3000
(2) 1500-2500
(3) 1500-3000
(4) 1000-3000

28) Epithelial tissue faces either a ________ or the __________ and thus provides a covering or a lining
for some part of the body.

(1) External fluid, body environment.

(2) Skin, organs
(3) Body, environment.
(4) Body fluid, external environment

29) Which of the following is correct statement about cockroach ?

(1) A pair of unequal sized spermatheca are associated with genital chamber.
(2) Spermatheca are part of male reproductive system and they are sperm production site.
(3) Sperms are transferred from spermatheca to spermatophore.
A pair of unequal sized spermatheca are present in 7th-8th abdominal segments of female
(4)
cockroach.

30) In which phylum segmentation is Absent ?

(1) Chordata
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

31) Phylum Aschelminthes exhibit -

(1) Tissue level organisation, triploblastic, pseudocoelom

(2) Organ system level organisation, Triploblastic
(3) pseudocoelom, diploblastic, cell aggregate
(4) Tissue level organisation, Acoelomate

32) Match the following :-

(A) Echinodermata (i) Visceral Hump

(B) Mollusca (ii) Proboscis Gland

(C) Arthropoda (iii) Malpighian Tubules

(D) Hemichordata (iv) Nephridia

Ambulacral
(E) Annelida (v)
(Water vascular system)
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (v), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv), (E) - (ii)
(2) (A) - (v), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i), (E) - (ii)
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (v), (D) - (iv), (E) - (i)
(4) (A) - (v), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii), (E) - (iv)

33) You are observing an animal closely and you find some characters such as -
* Endoskeleton made up of cartilage
* Mouth is located ventrally
* The skin is tough, containing placoid scales
* Notochord persist throughout life
* Air bladder is absent
After observing the above features in which group will you classify that animal :-

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Cephalochordata

34) Read the following statements :-

(a) Sponges reproduce sexually by fragmentation and asexually by the formation of gametes.
(b) In cnidarians the digestion is extracellular and intracellular both.
(c) In ctenophores reproduction takes place only by asexual means.
(d) In platyhelminthes fertilisation is internal and development is indirect.
(e) In Nereis, parapodia help in swimming.
Choose the correct options only :-

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (d) and (e) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

35) A cell organelle that is present in animal cells but not present in plants cells is:-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Centrosome
(4) Golgibody

36) Assertion (A) :- Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered part of the endomembrane
system despite being membrane-bound organelles.
Reason (R) : The endomembrane system includes only those organelles which are related with
energy metabolism & whose function are not co-ordinated with ER
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explains A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

37) From the statement given below choose the correct option:-
A - RER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in steroidal hormones synthesis.
B - The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of Packaging materials.
C - Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of Packaging in the
golgi apparatus.
D - Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
E - In Amoeba the food vacuoles in important for osmoregulation and excretion.

(1) A, B, C are true

(2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true
(4) B, C, D are true

38) Meiosis involves :-

(1) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division.

(2) One nuclear division and one chromosome division.
(3) One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions.
(4) Two nuclear division and three chromosome divisions.

39) Which of the following is the event in the G1-phase?

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Cell division
(3) Cell growth and preparation for DNA Replication
(4) Chromosome duplication

40) Read the given passage and answer the following questions :-
"K" is a uniquely long and complex stage of cell division where homologous chromosomes pair up
and exchange genetic material. Based on chromosomal behaviour, "K" is further divided into five
sub-stages.
Select the correct sequence of the events occurring during "K" :-
W-Exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids
X-Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
Y-Formation of synaptonemal complex and synapsis.
Z-Chromosomes fully condensed and initiation of meiotic spindle assembly.

(1) Y → W → X → Z
(2) W → Y → Z → X
(3) Z → Y → W → X
(4) X → Z → Y → W

41) Antibiotic resistance gene present with Bam HI site of a [Link] cloning vector is :-

(1) Ampicillin resistance gene

(2) Tetracycline resistance gene
(3) Chloramphenical resistance gene
(4) Kanamycin resistance gene

42) Match the columns and choose correct option ?

Column I Column II

Recombinant Large volumes (100-1000 litres) of

a i
technologies culture can be processed

Continuous culture The ultimate aim is to produce a

b ii
system desirable protein

Used to produces a larger biomass

c Bioreactors iii leading to higher yields of desired
products
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

43) Identify the restriction enzyme used to cut the site X, Y and Z respectively.

(1) Pst II, Bam HI, ECOR II

(2) Hind III, Bam HI, Pvu I
(3) Hind II, Bam HII, Pst II
(4) Hind II, ECOR II, Pvu I

44) Select the correct option –

(i) Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
(ii) Mature insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains.
(iii) In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesized as pro-hormone.
(iv) Insulin from an animal source caused some pateint, to develop allergy,
How many statements are correct.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
45)

Match the column I with column II :

Column I Column II

A Baculovirus i Phosphorus nutrition

B Mycorrhiza ii Nucleopolyhedrovirus

C Trichoderma iii Free living fungi

Biofertiliser for
D Cyanobacteria iv
paddy field
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

46) Which of the following statements are true ?

A. An organism represent/occupies a place or position in the system of classification.
B. One specific epithet may be present in different genus representing different species.
C. Human belongs to Homo species.
D. Animals, mammals and dogs represent the taxa at same level.
options:

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A and B

47) Which one statement is wrong with regarding to dinoflagellates ?

(1) They are mainly marine

(2) Found on surface of water
(3) Nutrition mainly holozoic
(4) They appear yellow, green brown in colour.

48) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

(A) Neurospora (i) LSD source

(B) Claviceps (ii) Edible

(C) Penicillium (iii) Biochemical and genetic work

(D) Truffles (iv) Antibiotic

A B C D
 (1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii i iv ii

(3) ii iii i iv

(4) iv iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Match the organisms with their habitats :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Halophiles (I) Marshy area

(B) Thermoacidophiles (II) Fresh water

(C) Methanogen (III) Hot spring

(D) Chrysophytes (IV) Marine environment

(V) Extreme salty area

(VI) Decaying twigs and leaves

(VII) Moist soil

(1) A-I,II, B-III,V, C-V, D-VI,VII
(2) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II,VI
(3) A-V, B-III, C-I, D-II,IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-II,VII

50) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding life cycle of pteridophyte ?
(A) The sporophyte bear the sporangia that are subtended by leaf like structure called sporophyll.
(B) The sporangia produce spore by mitosis in spore mother cell.
(C) The spore germinate to give rise to conspicuous small but multicellular free living mostly
photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte called prothallus.
(D) Gametophyte require cool damp shady places to grow.

(1) Option A,B,C

(2) Option B,C,D
(3) Option A,C
(4) Option A,D

51) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

Multicellular branched
(a) (i) Porphyra
Rhizoids
 Flagellated, Isogamous
(b) (ii) Spirogyra
Reproduction

Non flagellated, Isogamous

(c) (iii) Ulothrix
Reproduction

(d) Floridean starch (iv) Sphagnum

(1) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i)

52) Find out the correct match from the following.

Hypogynous flower Perigynous flower Epigynous flower

Guava, Cucumber, Ray

1 Plum, Rose, Peach Mustard, Brinjal, Chinarose
florets of Sunflower

2 Plum, Rose, Brinjal Cucumber, Peach Guava, Ray florets of Sunflower

Brinjal, Ray florets of

3 Mustard, Guava Cucumber, Chinarose
Sunflower

Guava, Cucumber, Ray florets of

4 Mustard, Brinjal, Chinarose Plum, Rose, Peach
Sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Edible part of mango and coconut is respectively :

(1) Mesocarp and endocarp

(2) Mesocarp and endosperm
(3) Epicarp and endosperm
(4) Endocarp and endosperm

54) Among china rose, tomato, lemon, Argemone, mustard, Dianthus, Primrose, sunflower, pea and
marigold, In how many plants, the placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is
attached to it ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

55) The epidermal cells of monocot roots are :-

(1) Chlorenchymatous
(2) Parenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Collenchymatous

56) Hypodermis of sunflower stem is :

(1) Sclerenchymatous
(2) Collenchymatous
(3) Parenchymatous
(4) Chlorenchymatous

57) Large number of small seeds are present in fruit of :

(1) Orobanche and Striga

(2) Watermelon and Mango
(3) Ficus and Date palm
(4) Orchids and Mango

58) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Epidermis of anther: 2n

(2) Generative cell of pollen grain: n
(3) Middle layer: 2n
(4) All of the above

59) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest in two generations of the same
angiosperm.
(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Egg
(4) Carpel
(5) Embryo sac

(1) (4), (2), (1), (5), (3)

(2) (5), (4), (3), (1), (2)
(3) (5), (1), (4), (2), (3)
(4) (4), (1), (2), (5), (3)

60) Which of the following amino acid is formed when the methyl group is substituted from the R

group in the given formula ?

(1) Tryptophan
(2) Valine
(3) Glycine
(4) Alanine

61) Match the Column I with Column II & choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Collagen (i) Most abundant protein in world

Most abundant protein in

(B) Trypsin (ii)
animal world

(C) Insulin (iii) Proteolytic enzyme

(D) RuBisCO (iv) Hormone

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

62) Read the following statements and select the set of incorrect statements :
(A) Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids.
(B) Protein, Nucleic acids and polysaccharides are considered biomacromolecules in living system.
(C) Lipids are classified as biomacromolecules because they are polymers.
(D) Polysaccharides are components of cell wall in plants, fungi and also exoskeleton of arthropods.
(E) The most abundant chemical in living organisms is protein.

(1) B and E only

(2) C and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, D and E only

63) Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

(1) The protein portion of the enzyme is called cofactor.

(2) Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to the apoenzymes
(3) Co-enzymes are organic compounds
Many enzymes require metal ions for their activity which form coordination bonds with side
(4)
chains at the active site.

64) CO2 saturation point in tomato and bell pepper plant respectively, is -

(1) at 360 µℓ/lit and beyond 450 µℓ/lit

(2) at 360 µℓ/lit and at 360 µℓ/lit
(3) beyond 450 µℓ/lit and at 360 µℓ/lit
(4) beyond 450 µℓ/lit and beyond 450 µℓ/lit

65) In C4 plants, fixation of each molecule of CO2 in Calvin cycle requires :

(1) 5 ATP and 2 NADPH

(2) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
(3) 6 ATP and 2 NADPH
(4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

66) What is the net ATP production when two molecule of glucose are fermented to lactic acid ?

(1) Two
(2) Eight
(3) Ten
(4) Four

67) In tricarboxylic acid cycle, formation of isocitrate is followed by two successive steps of
decarboxylation. The second decarboxylation results in the formation of :-

(1) Succinyl CoA

(2) Succinic acid
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) α-Ketoglutaric acid

68) There are some steps in the respiratory process to release and utilise the energy stored in
NADH+H+ and FADH2. This can achieved if NADH+ H+ and FADH2 act as electron donors and their
electron are passed on to final acceptor in the arobic respiration process. The metabolic pathway
through which all these process can occur, is present :

(1) in the matrix of the mitochondria

(2) in the cytoplasm of the cell
(3) in the inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) in the outer mitochondrial membrane

69) Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of :

(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellic acid
(4) Cytokinins

70) Which of the following plant growth regulator helps to produce new leaves and chloroplasts in
leaves ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

71) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the discovery of plant growth regulators (PGRs) ?
(1) Natural cytokinins were discovered from coconut milk also.
(2) Ethylene was identified as a volatile substance influencing fruit ripening.
(3) Gibberellins were discovered during the study of the 'bakanae' disease in wheat.
(4) Auxin was isolated by F.W. went from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings.

72) What distinguishes commensalism from parasitism ?

(1) Parasitism benefits both species

(2) In parasitism, interaction is detrimental to parasite
(3) Commensalism harms the host
(4) Parasitism harms the hosts, commenslism does not

73) Assertion (A) : Resource (food and space) availability is obviously essential for the unimpeded
growth of a population.
Reason (R) : Ideally, when resources in the habitat are unlimited, each species has the ability of
realise fully its innate potential to grow in number.

(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct the explanation of A

(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct

74) _________ is the process by which inorganic nutrients are released from organic matter during
decomposition.

(1) Humification
(2) Stratification
(3) Leaching
(4) Mineralisation

75) Common herbivores in aquatic ecosystem, are :-

(1) Insects
(2) Birds
(3) Molluscs
(4) Mammals

76) Select the incorrect statement from following :-

(1) Limited sunlight penetration is one of the reasons for low productivity of oceans.
(2) Primary productivity also depends on availability of nutrients.
(3) Oceans contribute 70 percent of the annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere.
(4) Nutrient nitrogen is also a limiting factor for low productivity of oceans

77) Given below is the food chain Identify correct statements according to this food chain :
I. Zooplanktons, Mollusc, cattles belongs to level
II. Man, Lion, Peacock can be top consumers
III. Fishes can be placed at both level and
IV. Sparrow can belongs to only level
V. Wolf, fox, Jackal may belongs to level .

(1) I, II, IV only

(2) All of the above
(3) II, III, IV only
(4) I, II, III, IV only

78) Which of the following option correctly represent decreasing biodiversity order of vertebrates ?

(1) Birds > Amphibians > Fishes > Reptiles

(2) Fishes > Mammals > Birds > Amphibians
(3) Mammals > Birds > Fishes > Reptiles
(4) Fishes > Birds > Reptiles > Amphibians

79) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The Clarias gariepinus introduced into lake victoria in east africa led eventually to
the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the
lake.
Statement-II : The recent illegal introduction of the african catfish nile perch for aquaculture
purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

80) Match the columns with respect to Amazonian rain forest,

Column-I Column-II

A. Plants 1. 125000

B. Fishes 2. 427

C. Birds 3. 1300

D. Mammals 4. 378

E. Reptiles 5. 40000

F. Invertebrates 6. 3000

A B C D E F
 1. 5 6 3 2 4 1

2. 5 6 4 3 2 1

3. 3 6 2 4 5 1

4. 6 5 4 2 1 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Inheritance of skin colour in Human is an example of :

(1) Chromosomal aberration

(2) Point mutation
(3) Co - dominance
(4) Polygenic inheritance

82) Match the column I & II.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Sex limited characters (A) X–linked gene

(2) Sex influenced character (B) Y–linked gene

(3) TDF/SRY gene (C) Pattern Bald-ness

(4) Colour blindness (D) Beard moustache

(1) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – A
(2) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
(3) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – A
(4) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – D

83) Statement I : Morgen coined term linkage.

Statement II : Tightly liked gene showed very low recombination.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
84) Below given pedigree belongs to :

(1) X - linked dominant disease

(2) X - linked recessive disease
(3) Autosomal recessive disease
(4) Maternal inheritance

85) In which of the following life processes RNA is used as a catalyst ?

(1) translation
(2) splicing
(3) cleaving of RNA
(4) All of the above

86) In capping process :-

(1) An unusual nucleotide 7 methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5' end of hn-RNA
(2) Adenylate residues are added at 3' end of hnRNA
(3) Removal of exons
(4) Joining of introns

87) A phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1 in the offspring of a mating of two organism heterozygous for a single
trait is expected where.

(1) The allele segregate during meiosis.

(2) Each allele contains two mutation.
(3) The alleles are identical.
(4) The alleles are incompletely dominance

88) How many statements are incorrect –

(i) All three RNAs are needed to synthesize a protein in a cell.
(ii) RNA polymerase binds to terminator and initiates transcription.
(iii) In prokaryotes three types of RNA polymerase enzyme present.
(iv) The mRNA provides the template for protein synthesis.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

89) Assertion (A): Association with initiation factor (σ) and termination factor (ρ) alter the
specificity of the RNA polymerase to either initiate or terminate.
Reason (R): Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also helpful in polymerising
RNA with defined sequence in a template independent manner.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

90) The following are the few examples of eukaryotic RNAs. How many of them is/are transcribed
by RNA polymerase-II ?
5s rRNA, 5.8s rRNA, 18s rRNA, 28s rRNA, hnRNA, tRNA, SnRNA :

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 2 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 4 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) By using dimensional analysis

ML2T–2 = Mx(T–1)y(L)z = MxLzT–y
⇒ x = 1, z = 2, y = 2
⇒ 2x + y + z = 2 × 1 + 2 + 2 = 6

2) F1 + F2 = 10
F1 – F2 = 6 ⇒ F1 = 8, F2 = 2
New F11 = 8 + 3 = 11
F21 = 2 + 3 = 5

R=
=

3)

Zero Error = No. of divisions × Least Count

Zero Error = –[50–45] × L.C.

= –5 × 0.01 = –0.05 mm

4)
Rate of change of speed

5) y1 =

y2 =

Now, y1 + y2 = = constant
6)

Let µ be the minimum coefficient of friction.

At equilibrium, mass does not move so,
3 mg sin θ = μ(3mgcosθ)
∴ μmin = tan θ

7)

It happens due to inertia of rotation.

8) WNet = ΔKE

9) For min. value of V, IZ = 0

V = I RS + VZ = (8 × 10–3) × 250 + 8
= 10 V

10)
A = 0, B = 0 Y=0.0+ =0+1=1
A = 0, B = 1 Y = 0.1 + = 0 + 0 = 0
A = 1, B = 0 Y = 1.0 + = 0 + 1 = 1
A = 1, B = 1 Y = 1.1 + = 1 + 0 = 1

11) → Fringe width (β) =

12)
 2d = 150
d = 75 m

13)

NCERT based

14)

15)

Here, z = 2

By option when
n1 = 2, n2 = 4
λ' will be same as λ.

16) 4Be9 + 2He4 → 6C12 + 0n1

17)

Microscope tube length:

L = u0 + ue

f0 = 2 cm fe = 5 cm u0 = 3 cm

v0 = 6cm
ue =
L = v0 + |ue| = 6 + 4.16 = 10.16 cm

18) d = i + e – A
30 = 90 – A
A = 60°

19)

so |m| =

20)

21)

ℓ = 2 × 4a ⇒ a =
Magnetic moment, M = N × iA

=2×i×

22)

23) When we expose to sun light we do not feel any radiation pressure as momentum
transfered is very small.
 24)

∵ r1 > r2
∴ V1 < V2

25)

Fext = 0
acm = 0
Δvcm = 0

26)

Conservation of angular momentum about A :

L ⇒ MvR + Iω

0
Li = mv R +

Lf = mVcmR +

Vcm =

27) ω = 3t – 2t
2

at = Rα = 6t – 2
Rate of change of angular velocity = α

28)

force balance for liquid column above upper half of sphere

P0πr2 + ρVg = F
29)

30) (i) For latent heats,

P × t = Q = mL ⇒ t ∝ L
(ii) length of horizontal-line ∝ latent heat, For specific heat

slope =

31)

According to kirchoff's law,

But, a = =

so, er =

32)

Power Radiated (Stefan-Boltzmann Law)

Since the body is spherical the surface area is:

Thus,

Rate of Cooling (Newton's Law of Cooling)

Since the mass is :

Substituting H ∝ r2 ,

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

33) dQ = dU + dW

0 0 0 0
= 1 × R × (4T – T ) + 1 × P × V

0 0 0
= RT + RT = RT

34)
For figure (a) :

For figure (b) :

Keq = 3K,

∴x=2

35) At equilibrium position during SHM, force on particle is zero, hence, its acceleration is
zero. So, given option (4) is incorrect.

36)
Eliminate common time instants.
Total beats in one second = 3 + 3 + 6 = 12

37)

∴
S = 25 × 26
= 650 Ω

38)
KVL from a to b -
Va – Vb = E – Ir

39)

VAB = 3V

40) ϕ =
= 3.00y × (1.4)2
= 3 × 1.4 × (1.4)2
= 8.23 Nm2 / C

41)
b < r < c, E = 0 (Inside conductor E = 0)

42)
 [where, J → ]

43) (20 + 10)

44)

After sometime, inductor behaves as close wire and capacitor behaves as open circuit. So
circuit becomes

6Ω & 3Ω are parallel

So,

So,

45)

Hence Fy = 11q

CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation:
 Correct Order of Chemical Properties
Concept: Bent's Rule and Drago's Rule.
Solution:

A. (i) Correct: According to Bent's Rule, more electronegative substituents (F) prefer orbitals
with less s-character; thus, the bonds gain s-character, increasing the bond
angle. has two F atoms pushing more s-character into the bonds than .
B. (ii) Incorrect: Bond angles decrease down the group ( , )
due to decreasing electronegativity and Drago's Rule (minimal hybridization in heavier
elements).
C. (iii) Incorrect: is more electronegative than . By Bent's Rule, bonds have less s-
character, meaning the lone pair in has more s-character than in . The order should be
.
D. (iv) Incorrect: In , the bond uses hybrids . In (a Drago
molecule), the bonds use almost pure p-orbitals, meaning s-character in bonds
is higher in than . The statement NH3 < AsH3 is incorrect based on standard
hybridization theory.

Final Answer: Option (1)

47)

Liquid–NH3 causes only permanent dipole moments.

OR
Dipole–Dipole interaction is /are

(A) Liquid–NH3
due to permanent dipole of NH3.
(B) Liquid–He ; only London force is dominant.

(C) permanent dipole exist in solid ICl.

(D) Liquid Br2 ; only London force exist.

48) p - p sideways over lapping is present in N ≡ N, O = O,

49) : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 σ22pz (π22px = π22py) π*12px

: (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 σ22pz (π22px = π22py) (π*22px = π*12py)

O2 : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 σ22pz (π22px = π22py) (π*12px = π*12py)

: (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 (π22px = π22py) σ22pz π*12px

: (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 (π22px = π22py) σ12pz

B2 : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2(σ*2s)2 (π12px = π12py)

 50)

(A)
(B) K2Cr2O7 is colured due to charge transfer
(C) M(AA)3 has two optically active isomers i.e. dextro & leavo.
(D) EAN of Co is 36 in Co2(CO)8

51)

Question Explanation:

Calculate the sum of two values: X (number of diamagnetic compounds) and Y (number of
species with a bond order of 3).

Concept:

Molecular orbital theory, magnetic properties, bond order

Solution:

and are diamagnetic/ repelled; KO2 and contain paramagnetic

and . and all have 14 electrons and a bond order of 3, similar to
CO; has a bond order of 1). thus X + y = 2 + 3 = 5.00

Final Answer: Option ()

52) Question Explanation: Match the complex ions with their correct hybridization and
magnetic moment.

Concept: Valence Bond Theory and Magnetic Moment calculation.

Solution: Hybridization depends on the metal's oxidation state and the field strength of the
ligands. Magnetic moment (μ) is calculated using the spin-only formula: ,
where n is the number of unpaired electrons.

A. (P) : uses inner d-orbitals regardless of ligand; →

d sp (Matches 3).
2 3

B. (Q) with weak field F– (no pairing); n = 5, μ = BM. →

sp3d2 (Matches 4).

C. (R) with strong field NH3 (pairing occurs); n = 0, μ = 0 BM. →

d2sp3 (Matches 2).

D. (S) always forms square planar complexes; .→

 dsp2 (Matches 1).

Final Answer: Option (1)

53) Question Explanation: Evaluating statements about the properties of transition metal
oxides.
Concept: Properties of Metal Oxides.
Solution:
(A) and (B) statements are correct. These statements are factual.
(C) Along the period, the electronegativity of metals increases and therefore the difference of
electronegativities between metal and oxygen decreases. Hence, the acidic character
increases, so the correct order is TiO < VO < CrO < MnO.
Final Answer: The correct options are (1),(2)

54) Green colour compounds are K2MnO4 , Cr2(SO4)3 , Cu(OH)2.CuCO3, FeSO4.7H2O

55) Question Explanation : Identify the correct set of reagents for the brown ring test for
NO3- ion.

Concept: Redox reaction of NO3- with Fe2+ in strong acid medium.

Solution:

A. The brown ring test for NO3- requires the salt solution, freshly prepared ferrous sulfate
(FeSO4), and concentrated sulfuric acid (Conc.H2SO4).

B. NO3- is reduced to NO by Fe+2 in acidic medium:

NO3-- + Fe2+ + 4H+ → 3 Fe3+ + NO + 2H2O

C. NO combines with excess Fe+2 to form the brown complex:

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ + NO → [Fe(H2O)(NO)]2+ + H2O

D. The concentrated H2SO4 is essential for the reaction and layer separation.

Final Answer: Option (3)

56) Explain the question : Match the colour comes from borex bead test for respective ions.
Concept : This question is based on borex bead test.
Solution :
Colour of the bead Ion
1. Blue green Cu2+
2. Yellow Fe3+
3. Green Cr3+
4. Brown Ni2+
Final answer : 2

57)

Eu has the highest value of radii in lanthanoid series.

58)

For an element the successive ionisation energy values (in ev/atom) are given.
IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4
14.534 29.601 47.448 77.472
IE5 IE6 IE7
97.888 552.057 667.029

Sudden large increase of IE values says that

the element belongs to 15th group.
Number of valance shell electrons in that element = 5.

59)
Number of s bond = 6
Number of lone pair of electron = 6]
Basicity = 1
= 13

60)

Question Explanation : Identify true methanides.

Concept : Carbides giving CH₄ on hydrolysis.
Solution :
Methanides are carbides of the type C-4 named after the product obtained on hydrolysis.
C-4 + H2O CH4
methanide methane
Mg2C3 + 4H2O 2Mg(OH)2 + C3H4 (propylide)
Be2C + 4H2O 2Be(OH)2 + CH4
Al4C3 + 12H2O 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4
CaC2 + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 (acetylide)
Be2C and Al4C3 are methanides
Final Answer: Option (4)

61) (a) → (R); (b) → (Q); (c) → (P); (d) → (P)

62) Theory based

63)

64)

65)

66)
 67)

68)

69) H.O.H ∝ number of π bonds

(P) ⇒ 3α–H
(Q) ⇒ 7α–H
(R) ⇒ Resonance + 3α–H
(S) ⇒ Resonance + 7α–H
H.O.H ⇒ P > Q > R > S

70)

71) Solution:
In the Carius method, percentage {I} is calculated from the mass relationship between {I}
and {AgI}

A. Mass of organic compounds (m) = 100 g

B. Mass of AgI (wAgI) = 47 g
C. Molar mass of AgI 235 g/mol
D. Molar mass of I 127 g/mol

Calculation:
The calculate value is approximately 25.4%
Final Answer: Option (2)

72) A. Assertion: Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to confirm the presence of carbonyl
group in glucose. Correct
Glucose contains an aldehyde group in its open-chain form.
It reacts with hydroxylamine (NH2OH) to form an oxime, confirming the presence of a carbonyl
group.
B. Reason: Glucose forms addition product with [Link]
However, glucose does not form a stable bisulfite addition product, likely due to its cyclic
hemiacetal form dominating in [Link], the assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
Final Answer : Option (2)

73) Solution:

(1) Reaction move from strong acid to weak acid.

(2) Ethanol is neutral.

(3) Pentane-3-ol can not give iodoform test because It can not
make unit.

(4) Esterification
Final answer: Option (3)

74) (1)
3-Chloro-4-methyl cyclopentanol-1

(2)
3-bromo hexanamide

(3)
4-Chloro-3-methylcyclohexane carboxylic acid

(4)
 4-Bromoheptan-2-ol

75)

76) (A) moles of C6H12O6 = = 0.5 mol

∴ nC = 0.5 × 6 NA = 3 NA
(B) Fe2O3 → 2Fe + 3O
1mol 2mol = 3g atoms
(C)
(D) Mg2P2O7 → 2Mg + 2P + 7O
0.25 mol 7 × 0.25 mol = 1.75 mol
∴ mO = 1.75 × 16g = 28 g

77) Resultant [H+] =

∴ (pH)finally = – log (5 × 10–3) = 2.3
pH + pOH = 14 at 25°C
2.3 + pOH = 14
pOH = 11.7

78) (A) pH = pKa + log

(B)
Solution will be acidic and pH < 7

(C) So solution will be neutral and pH = (pKw + pKa – pKb) = 7

(D) CH3COOH + NaOH
MV mm 2MV mm

79)

ΔG° = ΔH° – T ΔS°

At 300 K, ΔG° = +ve , non spontaneous reaction,
rhombic form, more stable
At 400 K, ΔG° = –ve, spontaneous reaction
Monoclinic form more stable

80) n-factor of KMnO4 is different in different conditions.

81) (A)

(B)

(C) ∴

(D)

82) Theory based.

83) A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g)

0.8 0.8 0 0
0.8 – x 0.8 – 2x x x
[0.4] [0.4] x = 0.2
R1 = K[A] [B]2
= K[0.8] [0.8]2
R2 = K [0.6] [0.4]2

84) (1) Solubility of gas in liquid water increases with decrease in temperature.
(2) At minimum boiling point-vapour pressure of solution will be highest.
(3) ΔTb = Kb.m as m changes, boiling pont of solution changes
(4) π = CRT

85) CH2CHCOOH = (426 – 126 + 83) = 383 Scm2 mol–1

= 38.3 Scm2 mol–1

 86) Theory based

87) C(graphite) + O2 (g) + 2H2 (g) CH3OH (ℓ)

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O (ℓ)

ΔfH° = – 285 kJ/mol ...(i)
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2 (g)
ΔCH° = – 393 kJ/mol ...(ii)

CH3OH(ℓ) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O

ΔH° = – 725 kJ/mol ...(iii)
Reaction (iv) can be obtained as,
[(ii) +2 × (i) – (iii)]
⇒ = – 393 + 2 (–285) + 725
= –238 kJ / mol

88) A(g) → 2B(g) + C(s)

t=0 400 0 0
t=t (400 - P') 2p' 0
Since the reaction is of first order

log

On solving p'= 300

After 48 minimum the pressure of the reaction vessel is (400 + p') = 700 mm Hg.

89) H2(g) +
So of H2O(ℓ) < 0

90) Let, be a- mmol

& be b-mmol

∴ In 1st titration : = 0.1 × 50

∴ a + b = 12.5 ....(i)
In 2nd titration : a + 2b = 20 .....(ii)
solving (i) and (ii) : b = 7.5

∴ × 90 g = 0.675 g

BIOLOGY

91) Module 11 Pg # 85
92) NCERT-XII Page No. 119

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 161

94)

NCERT Pg. # 139

95) NCERT page No. # 133

96) NCERT Pg. # 135

97) NCERT Pg. No. # 44, 45

98)

NCERT Pg. # 37

99) NCERT-XII Pg # 312, IV para

100) NCERT-XII Pg#52, I para

101)

NCERT-XII_Pg. # 49, 50

102)

NCERT Pg. # 27

103) NCERT XIIth, [Link].303 Q.20.1

104)

NCERT Pg. # 225

105)

NCERT Pg. # 240

106) NCERT Pg. No. # 242, 243

107)

NCERT Pg. # 247

108) XI NCERT Pg. No :- 335

109)

NCERT Pg. # 232,233

110) NCERT-XI, [E] Pg#317, [H] Pg#317

111)

NCERT Pg. # 208

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 298

113) NCERT Page No. # 270, 271

114)

NCERT Pg. # 187

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Explain Question:The question asks about matching microorganisms and biological agents
 with their correct roles or characteristics.

Concept: The question is based on microbes as biocontrol agents

Solution:

A. A. Baculovirus → Nucleopolyhedrovirus → (ii)

B. B. Mycorrhiza → Phosphorus nutrition → (i)
C. C. Trichoderma → Free living fungi → (iii)
D. D. Cyanobacteria → Biofertiliser for paddy field → (iv)

Correct matching: A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

Final answer: Option 1

136) NCERT Page # 5, 7

137) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

138) NCERT XII Page No. # 18-19

139) NCERT Pg.#13,14

140) NCERT pg. 30, 32

141) NCERT Pg.#24,27,30.

142) NCERT Pg. No. # 63

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144) Sunflower and marigold

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The correct answer is: 3 ATP and 2 NADPH.
Here's why: whether it is C3 plant or C4 plant during the Calvin cycle (the process of carbon
fixation), the fixation of each molecule of CO2 requires :

A. 3 ATP for the conversion steps in the cycle.

B. 2 NADPH for the reduction of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(G3P).

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162) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 197(E), 215(H)

163) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 194(E), 212(H)

164) NCERT XIIth Pg. # 208(E), 227(H)

165) NCERT Pg. # 209(E), 229 (H)

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167) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 209, 210(E), 229, 230(H)

168) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 218(E), 238(H)

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