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Solution - Part Test 7

The document provides solutions and hints for a physics test, covering topics such as beta decay, photon energy, electron density in semiconductors, and the behavior of light in mirrors. It includes calculations related to energy, frequency, and the properties of waves and particles. Key concepts discussed include the relationship between energy and mass, the photoelectric effect, and the formation of images by mirrors.

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unownsome05
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2 views18 pages

Solution - Part Test 7

The document provides solutions and hints for a physics test, covering topics such as beta decay, photon energy, electron density in semiconductors, and the behavior of light in mirrors. It includes calculations related to energy, frequency, and the properties of waves and particles. Key concepts discussed include the relationship between energy and mass, the photoelectric effect, and the formation of images by mirrors.

Uploaded by

unownsome05
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Part Test - 07 1

HINT & SOLUTION (Part Test - 07)

A 𝛽𝛽-decay does not produces any change in


Physics mass number but it increases atomic number
by 1 .
1. (2) 4𝛽𝛽
Energy of photon, 𝐸𝐸 =
12400
eV =
12400
eV = ∴ Decay of 4𝛽𝛽-particles results, 208
78 𝑌𝑌 →
208
82 𝑋𝑋
𝜆𝜆 4000
∴ In the end nucleus 𝐴𝐴 = 208, 𝑍𝑍 = 82
3.1eV
8. (4)
Max. K.E. of emitted photoelectrons = 𝐸𝐸 −
𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2
𝑊𝑊0 = 3.1 − 2 = 1.1eV 𝐹𝐹 =
𝑟𝑟
2. (4) 1
But 𝑣𝑣 ∝ and 𝑟𝑟 ∝ 𝑛𝑛2
From Einstein's mass energy relation, we 𝑛𝑛
have 1
⇒ 𝐹𝐹 ∝
𝐸𝐸 = 𝑚𝑚𝑐𝑐 2 𝑛𝑛4
9. (4)
Given, 𝑚𝑚 = 1 g = 10−3 kg, 𝑐𝑐 = 3 × 108 m/s
Mirror can be shifted to new position 𝐶𝐶 ′ 𝐷𝐷′ .
∴ 𝐸𝐸 = 𝑚𝑚𝑐𝑐 2 = 10−3 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1013 J
Distance are shown in the figure below.
3. (4)
1 1 1
= 𝑅𝑅 � − �
𝜆𝜆 22 42
𝑓𝑓 1 1
or = 𝑅𝑅 � − �
𝑐𝑐 4 16
1 1 3 9
or 𝑓𝑓 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 � − � = 3 × 108 × 107 × = ×
4 16 16 16
1015 Hz
4. (1)
The electron density in doped semiconductor,
𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑖2 (3 × 1016 )2
𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑒 = = = 2 × 1010 m−3
𝑛𝑛ℎ 4.5 × 1022 Image distance from
5. (1) 5 10
Component along normal: 𝑣𝑣𝑜𝑜,⊥ = 5cos 45∘ = 𝐶𝐶 ′ 𝐷𝐷′ = 10 + = 10 +
3/2 3
5
m/s 40
√2 cm =
Component parallel to mirror: 𝑣𝑣𝑜𝑜,‖ = 3
5
Separation between object and image is
5sin 45∘ = m/s 80
√2 cm.
3
So image velocity components relative to
10. (2)
mirror:
Refractive index 𝜇𝜇 of glass varies inversely
5 5
𝑣𝑣𝑖𝑖,⊥ = − , 𝑣𝑣𝑖𝑖,‖ = with wavelength: therefore, 𝜇𝜇violet > 𝜇𝜇green >
√2 √2
𝜇𝜇red
Speed = magnitude of image velocity vector:
For a given prism (angle 𝐴𝐴 ) and angle of
2 2
5 5 25 25 incidence 𝑖𝑖, deviation 𝛿𝛿 increases with 𝜇𝜇.
𝑣𝑣𝑖𝑖 = �� � +� � =� + = √25
√2 √2 2 2 Thus:
= 5 m/s 𝛿𝛿violet > 𝛿𝛿green > 𝛿𝛿red
6. (4) Let:
Since the energy of red light photons is less 𝜃𝜃1 = deviation for red
than that of green light photons, no electrons 𝜃𝜃2 = deviation for green
will be emitted. 𝜃𝜃3 = deviation for violet
7. (2) So:
Sol. (b) The decay of 𝛼𝛼-particle reduces, mass 𝜃𝜃1 < 𝜃𝜃2 < 𝜃𝜃3
number by 4 and atomic number by 2 . 11. (1)
∴ Decay of 6𝛼𝛼-particles results, 𝜆𝜆 =

∴ 𝜆𝜆𝑝𝑝 =

and 𝜆𝜆𝛼𝛼 =

6𝛼𝛼 √2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 �2𝑚𝑚𝑝𝑝 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 �2�4𝑚𝑚𝑝𝑝 �×2𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
232 232−24 208
90 Th → 90−12 𝑌𝑌 = 78 𝑌𝑌
𝜆𝜆𝑝𝑝 √8 2√2
∴ = = ∴ 𝜆𝜆𝑝𝑝 : 𝜆𝜆𝛼𝛼 = 2√2: 1
𝜆𝜆𝛼𝛼 1 1
12. (1)
2 Part Test - 07

Radius of nucleus, 𝑅𝑅 = 𝑅𝑅0 𝐴𝐴1/3. where, 𝑅𝑅0 is a If 𝑉𝑉0 is the retarding or stopping potential and
constant and 𝐴𝐴 is the mass number. 𝑓𝑓0 is the threshold frequency, then 𝐾𝐾max = 𝑒𝑒𝑉𝑉0
𝑅𝑅Cu = (1.2 × 10−15 )(64)1/3 = (1.2 × 10−15 ) × (43 )1/3 and 𝑊𝑊0 = ℎ𝑓𝑓0 . Therefore, the above equation
= 4.8 × 10−15 m = 4.8fm becomes :
13. (4) 𝑒𝑒𝑉𝑉0 = ℎ𝑓𝑓 − ℎ𝑓𝑓0
Ionization potential = energy required to or ℎ𝑓𝑓
remove electron from ground state to infinity = or 𝑒𝑒𝑉𝑉0 + ℎ𝑓𝑓0
|𝐸𝐸1 |. Here 𝑒𝑒 = 1.6 × 10−19 C; 𝑉𝑉0 = 3 V; ℎ
Given 𝐸𝐸1 = −27.2eV (since ionization potential = 6.63 × 10−34 Js; 𝑓𝑓0 = 6 × 1014 Hz
= 27.2eV means 𝐸𝐸1 = −27.2eV ). ∴ 𝑓𝑓 =
𝑒𝑒𝑉𝑉0
+ 6 × 1014
6.63×10−34
Step 2 - Energy in 𝑛𝑛-th state for hydrogen-like
= 7.24 × 10 + 6 × 1014 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏15 𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇
14
atom
17. (4)
For hydrogen-like atom:
𝐸𝐸1 . (d) 𝐴𝐴220 ⟶ 𝐵𝐵105 + 𝐶𝐶 115
𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 = 2 = (105 × 6.4) + (115 × 6.4) − 220 × 5.6
𝑛𝑛
Here 𝐸𝐸1 = −27.2eV, 𝑛𝑛 = 3 : = 176MeV
−27.2 18. (2)
𝐸𝐸3 = = −3.022eV Electron jumps from higher energy level 𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑖 to
9
14. (1) lower 𝑛𝑛𝑓𝑓 .
The number of images formed, if two plane In hydrogen-like atom:
360∘ 13.6𝑍𝑍 2
mirrors are kept at an angle 𝜃𝜃 is given by , • Kinetic energy 𝐾𝐾 = eV ⇒ increases as 𝑛𝑛
𝜃𝜃 𝑛𝑛2
360∘ 360∘ 360∘
if is odd and it is given by − 1, if is decreases.
𝜃𝜃 𝜃𝜃 𝜃𝜃
27.2𝑍𝑍 2
even. • Potential energy 𝑈𝑈 = − eV ⇒ becomes
𝑛𝑛2
For 𝜃𝜃 = 72∘ , number of images, more negative as 𝑛𝑛 decreases ⇒ decreases
360∘
𝑛𝑛 = =5 (becomes lower, more negative).
72∘
360 ∘ • Angular momentum 𝐿𝐿 = 𝑛𝑛ℏ ⇒ decreases as 𝑛𝑛
As, ∘ = 5 is an odd number. decreases.
72
15. (2) • de Broglie wavelength 𝜆𝜆 = . Momentum 𝑝𝑝 =

𝑝𝑝
The amplitude of the waves are 𝑎𝑎1 =
10𝜇𝜇 m, 𝑎𝑎2 = 4𝜇𝜇 m and 𝑎𝑎3 = 7𝜇𝜇 m and phase √2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 increases as 𝐾𝐾 increases ⇒ 𝜆𝜆
𝜋𝜋 decreases.
difference between Ist and Ind wave is and
𝜋𝜋
2
(a) Angular momentum remains constant 𝔛𝔛
that between 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 and 3𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 wave is . Then, (changes by ℏ ).
2
phase difference between 1st and 3rd is 𝜋𝜋. (b) Kinetic energy increases □ (true).
Combining Ist with 3rd, their resultant (c) Wavelength of de Broglie wave increases 𝔛𝔛
amplitude is given by (decreases).
𝐴𝐴12 = 𝑎𝑎12 + 𝑎𝑎32 + 2𝑎𝑎1 𝑎𝑎3 cos 𝜙𝜙 (d) Potential energy increases 𝔛𝔛 (decreases).
or 19. (4)
𝐴𝐴1 = �102 + 72 + 2 × 10 × 7cos 𝜋𝜋 Hence, path difference, 𝑆𝑆1 𝑃𝑃 − 𝑆𝑆2 𝑃𝑃 = odd
= √100 + 49 − 140 = √9 = 3𝜇𝜇 m integral multiple of 𝜆𝜆/2 = 11(𝜆𝜆/2)
Now, combining this with 2 nd wave, we have 20. (2)
the resultant amplitude Clearly, the given mirror is a convex mirror.
𝑓𝑓
or As 𝑚𝑚 =
𝑓𝑓−𝑢𝑢
𝜋𝜋 1 18
𝐴𝐴2 = 𝐴𝐴12 + 𝑎𝑎22 + 2𝐴𝐴1 𝑎𝑎2 cos ⇒ =
2 3 18−𝑢𝑢

𝐴𝐴 = �3 + 4 + 2 × 3 × 4 × cos 90∘
2 2 or 3 × 18 = 18 − 𝑢𝑢
or 𝑢𝑢 = −2 × 18 cm
= √9 + 16 = √25 or 𝑢𝑢 = −36 cm
= 5𝜇𝜇 m
21. (2)
16. (3) Given that, 2eV ≤ 𝜙𝜙 ≤ 5eV
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
Wavelength corresponding to minimum and
maximum K.E. (𝐾𝐾max ) of emitted
maximum values of work function are
photoelectrons is
𝐾𝐾max = ℎ𝑓𝑓 − 𝑊𝑊0
Part Test - 07 3

𝜆𝜆max =
ℎ𝑐𝑐
=
4×10−15 ×3×108 4 11 H ⟶ 42 He2+ + 2𝑒𝑒 − + 26MeV
𝐸𝐸 2
The equation represents the process of
= 6 × 10−7 m = 600 nm
ℎ𝑐𝑐 4×10−15 ×3×108 nuclear fusion, where four hydrogen nuclei
𝜆𝜆min = =
𝐸𝐸 5 (protons) combine under extreme heat and
= 2.4 × 10−7 m = 240 nm pressure to form a single helium nucleus,
and
releasing a significant amount of energy ( 26
Clearly, wavelength range would be
MeV ) and two electrons. This process is what
240 nm ≤ 𝜆𝜆 ≤ 600 nm
powers stars, including our Sun.
Thus, wavelength 650 nm is not suitable for
(a) 𝛽𝛽-decay involves the emission of a beta
photoelectric effect.
particle (electron or positron) from a single
22. (4)
nucleus, not the combination of multiple
During a nuclear fusion reaction, two light
nuclei.
nuclei combine to give a heavier nucleus and
(b) 𝛾𝛾-decay involves the emission of a high-
possibly other product.
2 2 3 1
energy photon (gamma ray) from an excited
1 H + 1 H ⟶ 2 He + 0 𝑛𝑛
nucleus, with no change in the number of
23. (3)
protons or neutrons.
1 1 1
= 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − 2 � (d) Fission is the opposite process, where a
𝜆𝜆 𝑛𝑛1 𝑛𝑛2
heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei.
For shortest wavelength in Balmer series, 28. (2)
𝑛𝑛1 = 2; 𝑛𝑛2 = ∞ 1
1 1 1 4 We have, 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣12 = 2𝜙𝜙0 − 𝜙𝜙0 = 𝜙𝜙0
= 𝑅𝑅 � − � or 𝜆𝜆 = 2
𝜆𝜆 22 ∞2 𝑅𝑅
and
For shortest wavelength in Brackett series, 1
1 1 1 ∴ 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣22 = 10𝜙𝜙0 − 𝜙𝜙0 = 9𝜙𝜙0
= 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − 2 � 2
𝜆𝜆′ 4 ∞
16 4 𝑣𝑣1 𝜙𝜙0 1
⇒ 𝜆𝜆 = ′
= 4 × = 4𝜆𝜆 ∴ =� =
𝑅𝑅 𝑅𝑅 𝑣𝑣2 9𝜙𝜙0 3
24. (2) 29. (4)
Here, 𝐼𝐼1 = 𝐼𝐼, 𝐼𝐼2 = 4𝐼𝐼, 𝜃𝜃1 = 𝜋𝜋/2, 𝜃𝜃2 = 𝜋𝜋 In figure, a pin is held at 𝐿𝐿, mid-point of 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴.
Resultant intensity at point 𝐴𝐴, When seen from face 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (so long 𝑖𝑖 < 𝐶𝐶 )
𝐼𝐼𝜃𝜃1 = 𝐼𝐼1 + 𝐼𝐼2 + 2�𝐼𝐼1 𝐼𝐼2 cos 𝜃𝜃1 image of 𝐿𝐿 appears to be at 𝐿𝐿′ , close to 𝐴𝐴.
= 𝐼𝐼 + 4𝐼𝐼 + 2√𝐼𝐼 × 4𝐼𝐼cos 𝜋𝜋/2 = 5𝐼𝐼
Resultant intensity at point 𝐵𝐵,
𝐼𝐼𝜃𝜃2 = 𝐼𝐼1 + 𝐼𝐼2 + 2�𝐼𝐼1 𝐼𝐼2 cos 𝜃𝜃2
= 𝐼𝐼 + 4𝐼𝐼 + 2√𝐼𝐼 × 4𝐼𝐼cos 𝜋𝜋
= 5𝐼𝐼 − 4𝐼𝐼 = 𝐼𝐼
∴ 𝐼𝐼𝜃𝜃1 − 𝐼𝐼𝜃𝜃2 = 5𝐼𝐼 − 𝐼𝐼 = 4𝐼𝐼
25. (1)
As,
𝑐𝑐 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝜆𝜆
𝑛𝑛1 = = = 1 1
𝑣𝑣1 𝑣𝑣𝜆𝜆1 𝜆𝜆1 From sin 𝐶𝐶 = = = 0.625
𝜇𝜇 1.6
and ⇒ 𝐶𝐶 = sin (0.625) = 38.7∘
−1
𝑐𝑐 𝜈𝜈𝜈𝜈 𝜆𝜆
𝑛𝑛2 = = = So when angle of incidence becomes greater
𝑣𝑣2 𝜈𝜈𝜆𝜆2 𝜆𝜆2
than 𝐶𝐶(= 38.7∘ ), the rays starting from 𝐿𝐿 will
Now,
undergo total internal reflection and pin shall
𝑛𝑛1 𝜆𝜆2 𝑛𝑛1
= or 𝜆𝜆2 = � � 𝜆𝜆1 not be seen at all.
𝑛𝑛2 𝜆𝜆1 𝑛𝑛2
30. (4)
26. (1)
Here diode 𝐷𝐷2 is reverse biased while 𝐷𝐷1 is
Stopping potentials for 𝑏𝑏 and 𝑎𝑎 are same
forward biased. So, no current flows across
∴ 𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎 = 𝑓𝑓𝑏𝑏
𝐷𝐷1 , current flows through diode 𝐷𝐷1 .
and saturation current for 𝑏𝑏 and 𝑎𝑎 are different 𝑉𝑉 2 2
∴ 𝐼𝐼𝑏𝑏 ≠ 𝐼𝐼𝑎𝑎 𝐼𝐼 = = = = 0.08 A = 80 mA
𝑅𝑅 10 + 15 25
27. (3) 31. (1)
• During fusion two or more light nuclei combine As, 𝐸𝐸 = ℎ𝑛𝑛𝐴𝐴 𝑣𝑣𝑛𝑛 = ℎ𝑛𝑛𝐵𝐵 𝑣𝑣𝐵𝐵
to form a stable nuclei and releases energy
4 Part Test - 07

𝑛𝑛𝐴𝐴 𝑣𝑣𝐵𝐵 saturation current will decrease 9 times, i.e.


⇒ =2=
𝑛𝑛𝐵𝐵 𝑣𝑣𝐴𝐴 the saturation current will be reduced to 2.0
The frequency of beam 𝐵𝐵 is twice as that of 𝐴𝐴. mA .
32. (4) 37. (2)
Mass density of nuclear matter is a constant The first two gates are NAND gates with their
quantity for all elements. It does not depends inputs tied together. A NAND gate with tied
on element's mass number or atomic radius. inputs acts as a NOT gate.
∴ The ratio of mass densities of 40 Ca and 16 O These outputs ( 𝐴𝐴‾ and 𝐵𝐵‾ ) are then fed into a
is 1: 1. third NAND gate. The output 𝑌𝑌 of this third
33. (3) gate is the NAND operation of its inputs: 𝑌𝑌 =
𝜀𝜀0 𝑛𝑛2 ℎ2
On the basis of Bohr's model, 𝑟𝑟 = = (𝐴𝐴‾ ⋅ 𝐵𝐵‾ )
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝑒𝑒 2
𝑛𝑛2
𝑎𝑎0 According to De Morgan's theorem, (𝐴𝐴‾ ⋅ 𝐵𝐵‾ ) is
𝑍𝑍
Let Li++ ion, 𝑍𝑍 = 3; 𝑛𝑛 = 1 for ground state equivalent to 𝐴𝐴‾ + 𝐵𝐵‾ , which simplifies to 𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵.
Given, 𝑎𝑎0 = 53pm The expression 𝑌𝑌 = 𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵 is the Boolean
53 × 12 expression for an OR gate. Thus, the entire
∴ 𝑟𝑟 = = 18pm
3 circuit is equivalent to an OR gate.
34. (4) 38. (3)
𝐼𝐼 Let 𝑟𝑟 be the radius of circle through which
Drift velocity, 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 =
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 other objects become visible. The rays of light
𝐼𝐼
∴ 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 ∝ must be incident at critical angle 𝐶𝐶.
𝑛𝑛
𝑛𝑛 7 𝐼𝐼 7 Now,
Given: 𝑒𝑒 = and 𝑒𝑒 = 1 𝑟𝑟
𝑛𝑛ℎ 5 𝐼𝐼ℎ 4
sin 𝐶𝐶 = =
(𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 )𝑒𝑒 𝐼𝐼𝑒𝑒 𝑛𝑛ℎ 7 5 5 𝜇𝜇 √𝑟𝑟 2 + ℎ2
∴ = � �× = × =
(𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 )ℎ 𝐼𝐼ℎ 𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑒 4 7 4 or
35. (4) 𝜇𝜇2 𝑟𝑟 2 = 𝑟𝑟 2 + ℎ2
Given, separation between slits, 𝑑𝑑 = 0.28 mm or
= 0.28 × 10−3 m (𝜇𝜇 2 − 1)𝑟𝑟 2 = ℎℎ2
Distance between screen and slit, 𝐷𝐷 = 1.4 m, ⇒
Distance between central bright fringe and ℎ
𝑟𝑟 =
fourth bright fringe, �𝜇𝜇 2 − 1
𝑥𝑥 = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 10−2 m Diameter,
Number of fringes, 𝑛𝑛 = 4 2ℎ
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 2𝑟𝑟 =
For constructive interference, 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑛𝑛 �𝜇𝜇 2 − 1
𝑑𝑑
4 × 1.4 × 𝜆𝜆 39. (1)
1.2 × 10−2 =
0.28 × 10−3 As, 𝑎𝑎sin 𝜃𝜃 = 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
Wavelength, 𝑎𝑎sin 𝜃𝜃 5sin 30∘
⇒ 𝜆𝜆 = = = 2.5 cm
1.2 × 10−2 × 0.28 × 10−3 𝑛𝑛 1
𝜆𝜆 =
4 × 1.4 40. (2)
= 6 × 10−7 m Since two refractive indices are involved.
The wavelength of light is 6 × 10−7 m. Therefore, two images will be formed.
36. (3) 41. (4)
• (b,d) Stopping potential depends on two Work function, 𝑊𝑊0 =
ℎ𝑐𝑐
𝜆𝜆0
factors-one the energy of incident light and the
2×10−25 −18
other the work function of the metal. By ⇒ 𝑊𝑊0 =
2×10−7
= 10 J
increasing the distance of source from the cell, 10−18
= eV = 6.25eV
neither of the two change. Therefore, stopping 1.6×10−19
ℎ𝑐𝑐
potential remains the same. Energy of incident ratiation is 𝐸𝐸 = =
𝜆𝜆
(d) Saturation current is directly proportional to 31.25eV
the intensity of light incident on cell and for a ∴ KE of photoelectrons = 𝐸𝐸 − 𝑊𝑊0 = 25eV
point source, intensity 42. (1)
𝐼𝐼 ∝ 1/𝑟𝑟 2 In the situation given, the image will be formed
When distance is increased from 0.2 m to 0.6 at infinity, if the object is at focus of the lens,
m (three times), the intensity and hence the
Part Test - 07 5

i.e. at 20 cm from the lens. Hence, shift in


position of object,
1
𝑥𝑥 = 25 − 20 = �1 − � 𝑡𝑡 47. (4)
𝜇𝜇
1 Hint: Clemmensen reduction takes place in
5 = �1 − � 𝑡𝑡 acidic medium.
1.5
⇒ 𝑡𝑡 = 15 cm Sol.:
43. (3)
Relation between intensities is

Clemmensen reduction
48. (2)

𝐼𝐼0
𝐼𝐼𝑅𝑅 = � � cos 2 (45∘ ) Hint: Species containing and
2
𝐼𝐼0 1 𝐼𝐼0
= × =
2 2 4
44. (1) groups can give iodoform test.
Power of combination, 𝑃𝑃 = 𝑃𝑃1 + 𝑃𝑃2 = +20 −
10 = +10D
1 1
∴ 𝑓𝑓 = = m = 10 cm
𝑃𝑃 10
𝐷𝐷 25
For image at infinity, 𝑀𝑀 = = = 2.5
𝑓𝑓 10
45. (1)
49. (2)
For a single slit, angular width of central
Hint: Hydrocarbon with one carbon less is
maximum = 2𝜃𝜃, where 𝜃𝜃 is the half-angular
produced when sodium salt of carboxylic acid
width given by: undergoes decarboxylation.
𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
sin 𝜃𝜃 = ⇒ 𝜃𝜃 ≈ (for small angles)
𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎
2𝜆𝜆
Thus, angular width 𝛽𝛽 = (for small angles).
𝑎𝑎
2𝜆𝜆
Initially: 𝛽𝛽1 = 50. (1)
𝑎𝑎
New conditions: Hint: Electron withdrawing group increases
𝑎𝑎 the acidic strength of carboxylic acids.
𝑎𝑎′ = (slit width halved)
2
Sol.: Lesser the acidic strength, more will be
𝜆𝜆′ = 2𝜆𝜆 (wavelength doubled)
the pK a value
2𝜆𝜆′ 2 × 2𝜆𝜆 4𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
𝛽𝛽2 = ′ = = =8⋅ pK a value:
𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎/2 𝑎𝑎/2 𝑎𝑎
2𝜆𝜆
CF3 COOH < HCOOH < C6 H5 COOH <
But initial 𝛽𝛽1 = . C6 H5 CH2 COOH
𝑎𝑎
So: 51. (4)
𝛽𝛽2 8𝜆𝜆/𝑎𝑎 Hint: Primary alcohols get readily oxidised to
= =4
𝛽𝛽1 2𝜆𝜆/𝑎𝑎 carboxylic acids with Jones reagent.
Thus, 𝛽𝛽2 = 4𝛽𝛽1 . Sol.: This is Stephen reaction

52. (2)
Hint: Aldehyde or ketone which contains
Chemistry 𝛼𝛼 − H, on reaction with dil. NaOH undergoes
46. (3) aldol condensation which produces 𝛼𝛼 − 𝛽𝛽
Hint: KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent. unsaturated carbonyl compound
Sol.:
6 Part Test - 07

57. (2)
Hint: Phenol on treatment with NaOH gives
phenoxide ion which further undergoes
electrophilic substitution reaction with CO2 .
Sol.:

53. (3)
Hint: Aromatic aldehydes does not give
Fehling's test.
58. (2)
Hint: Sucrose breaks down into glucose and
fructose in presence of invertase.
Sol.: Glucose and fructose undergoes
fermentation in presence of zymase

59. (2)
54. (4) Hint: Reimer Tiemann reaction converts
Sol.: phenol into salicylaldehyde on treatment with
Carbonyl derivative Product name chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide.
Phenylhydrazone Sol.:

Hydrazone

Oxime

Semicarbazone

55. (1) 60. (1)


Hint: Dry HCl gas increases electrophilicity of Hint: Electron withdrawing group ( −NO2 )
carbonyl carbon facilitating the nucleophilic increases the acidity of phenol.
attack of ethylene glycol. Sol.:
Sol.:

56. (2)
Sol.:

61. (2)
Hint: Higher the intermolecular force of
attraction, higher is the boiling point.
Part Test - 07 7

Sol.: Alcohols have higher boiling point than


other class of compounds due to stronger
intermolecular hydrogen bonding in them.
Boiling Point : n-Pentane < Ethoxypropane <
Pentanal < Pentan-1-ol
62. (4)
Hint: NaBH4 cannot reduce ester group.
Sol.:
67. (4)
Hint: Ketones does not give Tollen's test.
Sol.: In Tollen's test, aldehydes are oxidised to
corresponding carboxylate anion in basic
63. (2)
medium and a silver mirror is produced due to
Hint: Secondary alcohol gives blue colour in
formation of silver metal.
Victor Meyer test.
Sol.:
Basic medium is favourable.
68. (3)
Hint: Acidic KMnO4 acts as strong oxidising
agent.
Sol.:

PCC oxidises primary alcohol to aldehydes in


good yield.
64. (1)
69. (3)
Sol.:
Hint: DIBAL-H selectivity reduce nitrile to
imine which upon hydrolysis gives aldehyde.
Sol.:

70. (1)
65. (1) Hint: Etard reaction is used to prepare
Hint: Compounds which are more acidic than benzaldehydes from toluene.
water will react with aqueous alkali Sol.: - HVZ reaction
Sol.:

66. (2)
Hint: Halogens in presence of CCl4 as solvent
undergo electrophilic addition reaction with
alkenes and form vicinal dihalides with
alkenes.
Sol.:
8 Part Test - 07

76. (2)
71. (4) Hint: In hydroboration oxidation reaction, H2 O
Hint: C − O bond between C of benzene and O is added to alkene on the less substituted
has partial double bond character ∴ difficult to carbon with no rearrangement.
break. Sol.:
Sol.:

72. (3)
Hint: Tertiary alcohol gives immediate turbidity 77. (1)
on treatment with Lucas reagent (conc. HCl Hint: Benzene diazonium chloride is a very
and ZnCl2 ). good leaving group
Sol:

73. (2) 78. (1)


Hint: Less hindered carboxylic acids undergo Hint: Upon ozonolysis, the carbon-carbon
esterification more readily. double bond is cleaved and get converted into
Sol.: carbonyl compounds.
acid having minimum steric Sol.:
hindance, hence it will undergo esterification
most readily as the tetrahedral intermediate
formed will be more stable.
74. (3)
79. (2)
Hint: - Aldehyde with no 𝛼𝛼 − H undergoes
Hint: Ethyne on passing through red hot iron
Cannizzaro reaction.
tube at 873 K undergoes cyclic
• Attack of nucleophile on aldehyde is selected
polymerization.
on the basis of electron deficiency in a
Sol.:
molecule.
Sol.:

80. (1)
Hint: Alkynes on treatment with Lindlar's
catalyst (Pd/C) yields cis-alkene

75. (2)
Hint: In Kolbe's electrolysis, the alkane
obtained is always symmetrical and higher
alkane is formed due to formation of new C −
C bond. The cis isomer is more polar than trans isomer
Sol.: as the dipole moment of trans isomers is
Part Test - 07 9

almost zero. The trans isomer has higher 87. (4)


melting point then the cis form. Hint: Nitrobenzene gets reduced by Zn in
81. (2) basic medium.
Hint: Primary and secondary amines react Sol.:
with Hinsberg reagent
Sol.:

88. (2)
Hint: Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used to
82. (1)
Hint: Primary amine gives positive synthesise aliphatic primary amine.
carbylamine test. Sol.: Aniline cannot be prepared by this
Sol.: method as haloarenes are very less reactive
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
89. (2)
Hint & Sol.:

83. (1) 90. (3)


Hint: Aliphatic primary amine on reaction with Hint: As basic strength increases, pK b value
HNO2 gives alcohol and liberates N2 gas decreases.
Sol.: Sol.: As is most basic so, has least pK b value.

Biology
91. (4)
84. (2) Hint: Present in pancreatic juice.
Hint: Treatment of amide with Br2 in presence Sol.: (a) Plant cell wall - Cellulase
of strong base (NaOH) gives primary amine (b) Bacterial cell wall - Lysozyme
with one less carbon. (c) Fungal cell wall - Chitinase
Sol.: (d) RNA - Ribonuclease
92. (3)
Hint: Protoxins are inactive
Sol.: The Bt toxin proteins exist as inactive
protoxins, but once an insect ingests the
85. (1) inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
Hint: Basic strength of amine will depend on form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut
inductive effect of alkyl group in gaseous which solubilise the crystals.
phase. GM has been used to create tailor-made
Sol.: Order of basic strength of various amines plants to supply alternative resources to
is industries, in the form of starches, fuels and
CH3 NH2 < (CH3 )2 NH < (CH3 )3 N pharmaceuticals.
86. (1) 93. (4)
Hint: Aniline on reaction with NaNO2 and HCl Hint: pBR322 is self replicating.
gives benzenediazonium salt. Sol.: Plasmids and bacteriophages have the
Sol.: ability to replicate within bacterial cells
independent of the control of chromosomal
DNA.
Normal [Link] cells do not carry resistance
against antibiotics.
94. (4)
10 Part Test - 07

Hint: Belongs to class VI of enzymes Hint: Does not induce unwanted


Sol.: DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme, immunological responses
that facilitates the joining of DNA strands Sol.: Insulin was earlier extracted from
together by catalysing the formation of pancreas of slaughtered pigs and cattles.
phosphodiester bond. Insulin is used to treat diabetes mellitus.
Alkaline phosphatase removes the phosphate In ELISA, infection by pathogen can be
group from the 5 ' end of the DNA hence, detected either by the presence of antigens or
prevents self-ligation. by detecting antibodies synthesised against
DNA polymerases are a group of enzymes the pathogen.
used to make copies of DNA templates, About 30 recombinant therapeutics have been
essentially used in DNA replication approved for human-use the world over. In
mechanism. India, 12 of these are presently being
95. (1) marketed.
Hint: Causative agent of typhoid 100. (4)
Sol.: Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer Hint: Pathogen of dicot plants
accomplished the construction of first rDNA by Sol.:
linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance • Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode
with a native plasmid (autonomously specific genes were introduced into the
replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA) tobacco plants.
of Salmonella typhimurium. • Retroviruses are used to deliver desirable
96. (2) genes into animal cells.
Hint: Synonym of sequence 101. (3)
Sol.: The convention for naming restriction Hint: HIV belongs to this category
enzymes is the first letter of the name comes Sol.: - Microinjection - rDNA is directly injected
from the genus and the second two letters into nucleus of an animal cell Biolistic or gene
come from the species of the prokaryotic cell gun - suitable for plants
from which they were isolated, e.g., EcoRI 102. (4)
comes from Escherichia coli RY 13. In EcoRI, Hint: Present in prokaryotes
the letter ' R ' is derived from the name of Sol.: Plasmid is an autonomously replicating
strain. Roman numbers following the names double-stranded circular extra-chromosomal
indicate the order in which the enzymes were DNA.
isolated from that strain of bacteria. 103. (4)
97. (1) Hint: Same as that of head of lipids
Hint: Factor of 4 Sol.: DNA is a hydrophilic molecule whereas
Sol.: cell membrane is lipophilic. So, DNA molecule
cannot pass through cell membranes.
104. (3)
Hint: pBR322 is isolated from this.
Sol.: Eli Lilly, an American company prepared
two DNA sequences corresponding to A and
B, chains of human insulin and introduced
them in plasmids of [Link] to produce insulin
chains. Chains A and B were produced
separately, extracted and combined by
98. (4) creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.
Hint: Bee-keeping 105. (1)
Sol.: - Pisciculture refers to production of Hint: Overhanging stretches
fishes only. Sol.: The recognition sequence of EcoRI is 5′
• Sericulture is the breeding and management GAATTC3'.
of silkworm for production of silk. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A
• Aquaculture is breeding, raising and only where the sequence GAATTC is present.
harvesting of aquatic plants and aquatic It produces sticky ends.
animals. 106. (4)
99. (4)
Part Test - 07 11

Vectors used in Recombinant DNA Hint: Replication starts from this sequence
technology are designed with special features. Sol.:
They contain restriction sites for easy insertion
of foreign DNA. They also carry selectable
marker genes that help identify recombinants
from non-recombinants and eliminate non-
transformants using antibiotics.
107. (1)
In Escherichia coli, the Restriction–
modification system protects bacterial DNA.
Restriction enzymes cut the invading • ori is responsible for controlling the copy
Bacteriophage DNA into fragments. At the number of the linked DNA.
same time, the bacterium adds methyl groups 114. (4)
Hint: Two carbon compound
to its own DNA (methylation), which prevents
Sol.: To obtain purified DNA, specific cells are
restriction enzymes from cutting it.
treated with specific enzymes.
108. (3)
In Recombinant DNA technology, once a DNA After the activity of enzymes, all other
fragment is inserted into a Vector, it must enter molecules can be removed by appropriate
a host cell to multiply. The host can be a treatments.
bacterial cell, plant cell, or animal cell, The purified DNA is then precipitated out after
depending on the vector used. addition of chilled ethanol.
109. (4) 115. (1)
Hint: Common carp belongs to the same Hint: Mosquitoes belong to the same category
category Sol.: Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis
Sol.: Marine water fishes : Sardines, Mackerel, produce proteins that kill certain insects such
Pomfrets and Hilsa. as lepidopterans (tobacco budworm,
Fresh water fishes : Rohu, Catla and common armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and
carp. dipterans (flies, mosquitoes).
110. (4) 116. (2)
In pBR322 plasmid, the genes for Ampicillin Hint: Intercalating agent
resistance and Tetracycline resistance are Sol.: The separated DNA fragments can be
used as selectable markers. If the visualised only after staining the DNA with a
recombinant grows on both antibiotics, it compound known as ethidium bromide
means neither resistance gene is disrupted. followed by exposure to UV radiation (you
Therefore, the foreign DNA must be inserted cannot see pure DNA fragments in the visible
at a site like PvuII, which does not lie within light and without staining).
the antibiotic resistance genes, so both 117. (2)
Hint: The first step involves breaking of H -
resistances remain functional.
bonds Sol.:
111. (3)
Hint: Exclude downstream processing
Sol.: A stirred-tank reactor is usually
cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate
the mixing of the reactor contents. The stirrer
facilitate even mixing and oxygen availability
throughout the bioreactor.
Downstream processing include separation
and purification.
112. (2)
Hint: Multiple of 3
Sol.: Basmati rice is distinct for its unique
aroma and flavour and 27 documented
varieties of Basmati are grown in India.
113. (2)
12 Part Test - 07

118. (2) 121. (4)


Hint: Sticky ends Hint: The year in which transgenic cow was
Sol.: created.
Sol.: In 1997, an American company got
patent rights on Basmati rice through the US
patent and Trademark Office. This allowed the
company to sell a 'new' variety of Basmati, in
the US and abroad.
Indian government has set up organisations
such as GEAC, which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and the
safety of introducing GM-organisms for public
services.
122. (2)
119. (4)
Hint: Months in a year
Hint: Number of ear ossicles in each ear
Sol.: In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie,
Sol.:
produced human 𝛼𝛼-lactalbumin enriched milk
(2.4 grams per litre).
Hence, 5 litres of Rosie cow's milk contain
5 × 2.4 grams i.e., 12 grams of human 𝛼𝛼-
lactalbumin protein.
123. (2)
1PCR cycle
Hint: 1dsDNA → 2dsDNA

Sol.:
Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay is
based on the principle of antigen-antibody
interaction. It is a widely used diagnostic test
120. (1) for AIDS.
Hint: Sample is heated to 72∘ C

Polymerase Chain Reaction is a technique


which is used for DNA amplification. It was
developed by Kary Mullis.
→ ( 2 ) dsDNA
'n' PCR cycle n
1dsDNA 
Part Test - 07 13

A single stranded DNA/RNA, tagged with a • Globulins are present in blood plasma and
radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to participate in immune system.
hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone • Casein is a milk protein
of cells followed by detection using 129. (3)
autoradiography. Hint: Involved in water absorption
Magnetic resonance imaging (uses non- Sol.: A nematode, Meloidogyne incognita
ionising radiations) is used to diagnose cancer infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes
of internal organs. a great reduction in yield.
124. (3) 130. (3)
Hint: Ultimate aim of recombinant DNA Hint: Delivers the T-DNA into plant cells
technology Sol.: Selectable marker is one of Sol.: Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen
the feature of vector, which helps in identifying of several dicot plants is able to deliver a piece
and eliminating non-transformants and of DNA known as T-DNA to transform normal
selectively permitting the growth of plant cells into a tumor.
transformants. It is called natural genetic engineer of plants.
125. (3) Rice is a monocot plant.
Hint: In case of drugs, clinical trials are carried 131. (2)
out Sol.: After completion of the biosynthetic Hint: Present in saliva
stage, the product has to be subjected through Sol.: Chitinase is used to degrade the cell wall
a series of processes before it is ready for of fungus which is composed of chitin.
marketing as a finished product. The
processes include separation and purification,
which are collectively referred to as
downstream processing. The product has to
be formulated with suitable preservatives. Lysozyme is used to degrade the cell wall of
section-b bacteria which is composed of
126. (4) peptidoglycans.
Hint: Electrophoresis 132. (4)
Sol.: - Restriction enzymes (molecular Hint: BamHI and Sal/ are present on same
scissors) belongs to a larger class of enzymes gene.
called nucleases. Sol.: If a foreign DNA is ligated at 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 site
• The separated bands of DNA via gel of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector
electrophoresis are cut out from the agarose pBR322, the recombinant plasmids will lose
gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step the tetracycline resistance due to insertion of
is known as elution. foreign DNA but can still be selected out from
127. (3) non-recombinant ones by plating the
Hint: Prevent translation transformants on tetracycline containing
Sol.: A nematode, Meloidogyne incognita medium. In this case, one antibiotic resistance
infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes gene (ampicillin) helps in selecting the
a great reduction in yield. transformants whereas the other antibiotic
RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms resistance gene (tetracycline) gets 'inactivated
as a method of cellular defense. due to insertion' of alien DNA, and helps in
The source of complementary RNA could be selection of recombinants.
from an infection by viruses having RNA 133. (4)
genomes. Hint: Ethidium bromide is used
128. (2) Sol.: The cutting of DNA by restriction
Hint: Obtained from transgenic sheep endonucleases results in the fragments of
Sol.: DNA. These fragments can be separated by a
• Human protein ( 𝛼𝛼-1-antitrypsin) is used to technique called gel electrophoresis.
treat emphysema. The separated DNA fragments can be
• In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, visualised only after staining the DNA with a
produced human protein-enriched compound known as ethidium bromide
(alphalactalbumin) milk. followed by exposure to UV radiation.
134. (4)
14 Part Test - 07

Hint: crylAc controls the cotton bollworms. Hint: In 1928, Griffith was working on a
Sol.: The proteins encoded by the genes bacterium responsible for causing pneumonia.
crylAc and cryllAb control the cotton Sol.: Fredrick Griffith used Streptococcus
bollworms, that of crylAb control corn borer. pneumoniae in the transformation experiment.
135. (2) 142. (4)
Hint: Direct method of transformation Hint: Butyric acid production is carried out by
Sol.: In micro-injection, rDNA is directly Clostridium butylicum. Spirulina is a source of
injected into the nucleus of an animal cell. single cell protein.
In gene gun/biolistics, suitable for plants, cell Sol.: Trichoderma polysporum produces
are bombarded with high velocity micro- cyclosporin A, an immunosuppressive agent.
particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. Citric acid production is carried out by
136. (3) Aspergillus niger. Statins are blood-
Hint: Hydrogen bond connects nitrogenous cholesterol lowering agents produced by the
bases of antiparallel strands of dsDNA. yeast, Monascus purpureus.
Sol.: Hydrogen bond is seen in dsDNA. A 143. (4)
dinucleotide lacks hydrogen bond. Hint: IPM (Integrated pest management)
137. (3) integrates all the methods used for controlling
Hint: Double-helix structure of DNA is pests on one or more crops.
proposed by Watson and Crick. Sol.: IPM aims to create and maintain
Sol.: According to Watson and Crick double conditions which prevent an insect from
helix structure of DNA has following features: damaging the crops. Thus, a biocontrol agent
• The two strands are antiparallel in nature and should be species-specific and should be
twisted in right handed fashion. inactive towards the non-target organisms.
• Amount of purines is equal to the amount of 144. (2)
pyrimidine. Hint: BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand) is
defined as the amount of oxygen required by
It is chemically and structurally more stable
the bacteria to oxidize all the organic matter in
than RNA.
one litre of water.
138. (1)
Hint: Synthesis of DNA over RNA template is Sol.: BOD is the measure of the organic matter
reverse transcription. present in the water. Thus, gives an idea
Sol.: Reverse transcription is catalyzed by about the pollution level in water.
reverse transcriptase. In this process, RNA BOD c pollution level in water
acts as a template for the synthesis of DNA. 145. (3)
Hint: Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by
RNA polymerase II catalyzes the process of
microbial activity on waste. It is used as a fuel.
transcription.
Sol.: Composition of biogas is : 50 − 70%
Helicase catalyzes unwinding of DNA during
replication. methane, 30 − 40%CO2 and 10% of mixture of
139. (1) other gases, such as, H2 S and H2 etc.
Hint: Histone proteins are rich in basic amino 146. (1)
acids. Hint: Biocontrol agent is an organism that
Sol.: Positive nature of histone proteins is due helps in preventing the damage to crops by
to the presence of basic amino acids, i.e., different pests and pathogens. Example :
lysine and arginine residues. Serine is a polar Baculoviruses.
but neutral amino acid. Sol.: Majority of baculoviruses belonging to
Glycine is a non-polar and neutral amino acid. genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus act as biocontrol
140. (3) agent and show narrow spectrum insecticidal
Hint: One nucleosome contains 200 bp. applications.
Sol.: Number of nucleosomes Bacillus thuringiensis act as a biocontrol agent
for insect pests.
=
Total number of bp
=
4.2×106 Trichoderma, a fungus, is employed as a
Number of bp in one nucleosome 200
biocontrol agent for the treatment of plant
= 2.1 × 104 nucleosomes diseases.
141. (2) Cyanobacteria, Nostoc, Oscillatoria and
Azospirillum are used as biofertilizers.
Part Test - 07 15

Aphids are plant pests. TMV is a pathogen for and exons are joined by the process of
a plant. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in splicing.
the production of bread and alcohol. 153. (2)
147. (2) Hint: An inducible operon is the one in which
Hint & Sol.: Lactobacillus mediated the substrates switch ON the transcription of
conversion of milk into curd increases its structural genes.
nutritional quality by enhancing the levels of Sol.: Lac operon is an inducible operon as the
vitamin B12 in it, significantly. presence of lactose switch ON the
148. (2) transcription of structural gene. It is under
Hint: Primary treatment is termed as physical negative control as the repressor protein is
treatment of sewage. actively synthesised and in the absence of
Sol.: Sewage treatment constitutes of three lactose shuts down the transcription of
stepsprimary (physical treatment), secondary structural genes.
(biological treatment) and tertiary (physico- 154. (3)
chemical treatment). Sol.: Francois Jacob and biochemist, Jacque
149. (4) Monod were first to elucidate a
Hint: Okazaki fragments are synthesised on transcriptionally regulated system, the lac
the template strand away from the replication operon.
fork. 155. (1)
Sol.: In replication fork, leading daughter Hint: Transcription is initiated after the
strand synthesis occurs on the template recognition of promoter sequence.
strand having polarity 3′ → 5′ and lagging Sol.: In prokaryotes, transcription is initiated
daughter strand synthesis occurs against the when 𝜎𝜎 factor recognize the promoter.
template strand having polarity 5′ → 3′ . 𝜌𝜌 factor is the termination factor.
150. (1) DNA polymerase helps in replication of DNA.
Hint: Stop codons do not code for any amino 156. (1)
acid. Hint: DNA is the genetic material. It was
Sol.: UAG, UGA, UAA are stop codons as they proved by blending experiment.
do not code for any amino acid. As the 30 th Sol.: Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is
codon now became a stop codon the the genetic material using E. coli and
synthesis of polypeptide chain gets terminated bacteriophage.
after adding 29 amino acids encoded by 29th Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-
codon, prior to stop codon ( 30th codon). conservative nature of replication using E. coli.
151. (2) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty gave the
Hint: Semiconservative nature of replication biochemical characterization of transforming
was proved by Meselson and Stahl in a principle.
prokaryotic organism. Severo ochoa enzyme is polynucleotide
Sol.: Meselson and Stahl used E. coli to prove phosphorylase.
the semiconservative nature of replication. 157. (1)
Drosophila melanogaster was used by T.H. Hint: Severo ochoa enzyme catalyzes the
Morgan for linkage studies and for proving formation of RNA in template independent
chromosomal theory of inheritance. manner.
Streptococcus pneumoniae was used by Sol.: Polynucleotide phosphorylase also
Griffith to propose transforming principle. known as Severo ochoa enzyme catalyses the
Bacteriophage was used by Hershey and formation of RNA in template independent
Chase to prove that DNA is the genetic manner.
material. RNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes
152. (1) the process of replication.
Hint: Removal introns is necessary as they do DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
not code for polypeptide. the process of transcription.
Sol.: After the transcription in eukaryotes, 158. (4)
hnRNA is formed which contains both introns Hint: Streptokinase is a molecule that is used
(nonexpressing sequences) and exons for removing the clots from blood vessels in
(expressing sequences). Introns are removed
16 Part Test - 07

the patients affected with myocardial Sol.: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is also known
infarction. as brewer's yeast, as it helps in the production
Sol.: Streptokinase is derived from of alcohol.
Streptococcus and further genetically Streptococcus helps in the production of
modified to function as 'clot buster'. streptokinase.
Candida lipolytica is used for the production of Lactobacillus helps in the production of curd.
lipases. Penicillium rouqueforti helps in the production
Trichoderma is used for the production of of Rouquefort cheese.
cyclosporin A (immunosuppressive agent). 165. (1)
Staphylococcus is a genus of Gram positive Hint: The first antibiotic was discovered by
bacteria and include various disease causing Alexander Fleming.
microorganisms. Sol.: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin
159. (1) that is produced by Penicillium notatum, while
Hint: Acetic acid is used in the production of working on Staphylococci bacteria.
vinegar. It is an organic acid produced by Erythromycin is derived from Streptomyces
bacterial action. erythreus.
Sol.: Acetobacter aceti (bacterium) produces Tetracyclin is derived from Streptomyces
acetic acid. aureofaciens.
Clostridium butylicum (bacterium) produces Neomycin is derived from Streptomyces
butyric acid. fradiae.
Aspergillus niger (fungus) produces citric acid. 166. (2)
Lactobacillus produces lactic acid. Hint: Satellite DNA are small sized repetitive
160. (3) DNA in the genome which does not code for
Hint: Genetic code is specific. any protein.
Sol.: Genetic code is non-overlapping as it Sol.: Satellite DNA forms a large proportion of
does not overlap the next codon. human genome. These sequences exhibit a
The genetic code is nearly universal. very high degree of polymorphism, which is
Some amino acids are coded by more than inheritable.
one codon, hence the code is degenerate. 167. (3)
All codons are triplet in nature. Hint: Release factor in translation recognizes
161. (1) and binds to stop codon.
Hint: The pitch, i.e., the length of one turn of Sol.: Release factor serves as the termination
DNA is 3.4 nm or 34Å. factor in translation.
Sol.: The distance between two base pairs of Okazaki fragments are formed on the template
DNA is approximately 0.34 nm or 3.4Å. strand with polarity 5′ → 3′ .
162. (2) 𝜌𝜌 factor serves as the termination factor in
Hint: Capping is a post-transcriptional transcription by recognizing the terminator
modification occurs rapidly after the start of sequence on the DNA.
transcription. 168. (3)
Sol.: Capping is done at 5′ end. Hint: t-RNA is an adapter molecule. Due to
Tailing is done at 3′ end. intrastrand complementarity, it forms clover-
Splicing is done to remove introns and join leaf like structure with three loops in it.
exons. Sol.: 3' end or arm, also known as CCA arm
163. (1) serve as the amino acid acceptor arm.
Hint: RNA polymerase I catalyzes the DHU (Dihydroxyuridine loop) serves as the
transcription of 28 S rRNA. amino acyl synthetase binding loop.
Sol.: RNA polymerase II catalyzes the Anticodon loop which is made up of 7 unpaired
transcription of hnRNA. bases, has 3 bases which serve as anticodon
RNA polymerase III catalyzes the transcription and helps in the binding of t -RNA with mRNA.
of tRNA and 5S rRNA. T𝜓𝜓C (Pseudouridine) loop serves as the
164. (4) ribosomal binding loop.
Hint: Alcoholic beverages are prepared with 169. (1)
the help of yeast. Hint: Polymorphism is the variation at genetic
level.
Part Test - 07 17

Sol.: Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the treatment is the biological treatment of the
basis of genetic mapping of human genome sewage.
as well as DNA fingerprinting. Sol.: Suspended solids are removed by the
170. (2) process of sedimentation in primary treatment
Hint: mRNA serves as the template for the of sewage. After the process of sedimentation
process of translation. and sequential filtration in primary treatment,
Sol.: mRNA being the template has all the primary effluent is produced, which is
codons which are translated in the form of subjected to secondary treatment.
amino acid in the process of translation. 177. (3)
tRNA is the adaptor molecule. Hint: Flocs are masses of bacteria associated
171. (2) with fungal filaments. They are used for
Hint: RNA polymerase binds to the promoter degradation of waste in secondary treatment
sequence in the transcription unit to initiate the of sewage.
process of transcription. This sequence is AT Sol.: In the aerobic degradation of waste in
rich. In prokaryotes, it is known as pribnow sewage during the secondary treatment, flocs
box. are employed. They show vigorous growth in
Sol.: TATA box is the promoter sequence. the aeration tanks and helps in reducing the
This sequence is AT rich in order to facilitate BOD values of waste water. After a significant
easy unwinding during the initiation of reduction in BOD values, the aeration tank
transcription. effluent is passed to settling tank so that the
172. (1) flocs can be sedimented. The sedimented
Hint: In non-sense mutation, due to a flocs in the settling tank are termed as
substitution point mutation the expressing activated sludge.
codon converts into a stop codon. 178. (2)
Sol.: If a non-sense mutation takes place in a- Hint: Methanogens anaerobically degrade
gene, the enzyme synthesized by a-gene i.e., cellulosic material to produce methane along
transacetylase will not be synthesized. with CO2 and H2 S, etc.
173. (3) Sol.: These organisms can be found in
Hint: Charging of tRNA occurs prior to the anaerobic sludge produced during sewage
assemblage of translation machinery. treatment; and can also be found in the rumen
Sol.: Aminoacylation of tRNA is a process in of cattle.
which amino acid is attached to tRNA. This 179. (2)
step is catalyzed by aminoacyl synthetase. 50% hybrid DNA and 50% light DNA
174. (4) Solution:
Hint: Length of DNA = total number of bp × This experiment was performed by Matthew
distance between a consecutive base pairs. Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
Sol.: Length of the mammalian DNA Generation 0: DNA = heavy (¹⁵N–¹⁵N)
= Total number of bp × distance between Generation 1: all DNA becomes hybrid (¹⁵N–
consecutive base pairs ¹⁴N)
= 6.8 × 109 × 0.34 × 10−9 m Generation 2:
= 2.312 m 50% hybrid (¹⁵N–¹⁴N)
175. (3) 50% light (¹⁴N–¹⁴N)
Hint: For leguminous crops, N2 fixation is This supports the Semiconservative DNA
achieved by their symbiotic association with Replication model.
Rhizobium. 180. (3)
Sol.: In paddy fields, cyanobacteria such as, DNA ligase
Anabaena serve as an important biofertilizer. Solution:
Bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter During replication of the lagging strand:
can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living Short DNA fragments called Okazaki
in the soil. fragments are formed.
176. (1) These fragments are synthesized
Hint: Primary treatment is the physical discontinuously.
treatment of the sewage whereas, secondary
18 Part Test - 07

The enzyme DNA Ligase joins these


fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds
between them, making the strand continuous.

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