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Module Three
1. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20
Volts. The battery is replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage
across the capacitor after one time constant?
a) 12.64 volts
# b) 7.36 volts
c) 0 volts

2. The voltage rating of a capacitor is

# a) the max voltage that can be constantly applied
b) the min voltage required to charge
c) the normal operating voltage

3. The relative permittivity of a capacitor is

# a) the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum
b) the permittivity of dielectric in relation to dry air
c) the permittivity of the dielectric

4. Magnetic inclination is the least at the

a) poles
# b) equator
c) isoclines

5. Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized

a) within a band of temperatures
b) above a certain temperature
# c) below a certain temperature

6. Faradays Law States that

# a) the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of
change of flux
b) the magnitude of the EMF is indirectly proportional to the rate of
change of flux
c) the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux

7. To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would

# a) reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
b) increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
c) reduce the number of turns on the primary winding

8. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer

is delta / star wound, what will the line voltage output be?
a) 115V
b) 200V
# c) 346V

Page 1 – Mod 3
9. What is the phase difference in a circuit with 100V, drawing 0.5 amps,
consuming 50 Watts?
a) 45°
b) 90°
# c) 0°

10. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?

a) Capacitive elements may be damaged
# b) Inductive elements may be damaged
c) There will be no effect

11. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying
a landing light (load 24v 45 amps) is used, what is the current drawn?
a) 205 amps
# b) 9 amps
c) 4.5 amps

12. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its
turns ratio is
a) 1:6
# b) 6:1
c) 1/6

13. Two inductive coils are placed in close proximity with each other at 90
degrees. The number of flux linkages is
# a) 0
b) maximum positive
c) maximum negative

14. A high pass filter will?

# a) allow frequencies above a certain value to pass
b) allow frequencies below a certain value to pass
c) allow frequencies within a range to pass

15. If you apply this waveform to this circuit, what is the output across the
capacitor?
 a) Zero
b) Pulsed negative
# c) Pulsed positive

Page 2 – Mod 3
16. What value is the same as the equivalent D.C. heating effect?
# a) Root Mean Square
b) Average
c) Peak

17. What is the relationship between the voltage and the current in an A.C
circuit containing resistance & inductance?
a) Current leads voltage by up to 90°
# b) Current lags voltage by up to 90°
c) Current lags voltage by 90°

18. What shape is the waveform when the input pulse and the time base are
unequal?
a) Square
# b) Rectangular
c) Saw tooth

19. A sine wave has 5 amps RMS value. What is the peak value?
a) 6.37 amps
# b) 7.07 amps
c) 10 amps

20. In this circuit

# a) current leads voltage

b) current lags voltage
c) current = voltage
21. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will
a) increase speed and decrease torque
# b) increase speed and increase torque
c) decrease speed and increase torque

22. Power factor relates to

# a) true power and apparent power
b) KW and KVAR
c) horsepower and Watts

Page 3 – Mod 3
23. In a delta-connected generator
# a) line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
b) line volts = phase volts, line current = phase current divided by root 3
c) line voltage = root 3 times phase voltage, line current = phase current

24. If current lags voltage by 90°, the circuit is

a) capacitive
b) resistive
# c) inductive

25. In a 3 phase motor, if 1 phase is lost, the motor

# a) remains at the same speed
b) runs at 1 third speed
c) runs at 2 thirds speed

26. A three-phase motor has the windings

# a) 120° apart
b) 90° apart
c) 180°apart

27. When measuring the phase and line voltages of a generator, it was
found that line and phase voltages were equal. The generator is?
# a) delta wound
b) star wound.
c) either delta or star wound

28. To change the direction of a 3-phase induction motor you would

# a) swap two of the stator connections
b) swap all of the input connections
 c) remove one of the input connections

29. To calculate generator output you need to know the

a) armature speed and number of series conductors
b) armature speed and number of parallel conductors
# c) armature speed and field strength

30. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and armature current,
the motor will
a) stop
b) change direction
# c) continue to run in the same direction

31. The permanent magnet in an A.C generator induces

# a) A.C. in the exitor generator
b) D.C. in the exitor generator
c) A.C. in the main generator

Page 4 – Mod 3
32. What does the following circuit represent?

a) Integrator
b) Low pass filter
# c) Differentiator

33. What charge does the nucleus of an atom possess?

# a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral

34. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell N of an atom?

a) 16
# b) 32
c) 18

35. Two 10V, 20 Ah batteries are connected in parallel and connected

across a 10-ohm load. How long could they supply normal current before
the voltage begins to decay?
a) 20 hours
b) 4 hours
# c) 40 hours
36. A 10 V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is
the power supplied
a) 100 W
b) 10 VA
# c) 10 W

37. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is
the work done?
a) 60J
b) 10J
# c) 600J

38. Three capacitors 10 microfarads, 10 nanofarads and 10 millifarads are

connected in parallel. What is the total capacitance?
# a) 10.01001mF
b) 111mF
c) 1.001001mF

Page 5 – Mod 3
39. If a 1mF capacitor has a potential difference across it of 5V what is the
energy stored?
a) 12.5 J
# b) 12.5 mJ
c) 25 mJ
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40. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20

V. The battery is replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage
across the capacitor after 1 time constant?
a) 12.64 V
# b) 7.36 V
c) 0 V

41. Glass is an example of a

a) paramagnetic material
# b) diamagnetic material
c) coercive material

42. Which of the following is absolute permeability?

# a) µ
b) µo
 c) µr

43. A solenoid of 10 turns per meter carries a current of 5A. If the current is
reduced to 2.5A, how many turns would be required to maintain the same
magnetic field?
a) 5
b) 50
# c) 20

44. The point of coercivity occurs when the

a) magnetizing force applied causes the material to become
magnetically saturated.
# b) magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being
applied.
c) magnetizing force reaches a peak positive or negative value.

45. What is the mutual inductance if two coils of 10mH and 500mH have
90% of the flux transferred from one to the other?
a) 4.5mH
b) 459mH
# c) 63mH

46. An inductor has 1,000 turns of wire and a cross sectional area of
0.001m2. If the core has a permeability of 0.000,001 and the coil is 0.1m
what is the value of the inductor
# a) 10mH
b) 100microH
c) 100mH
Page 6 – Mod 3
47. Three inductors 10 mH, 5 mH and 20 mH are connected in parallel.
What is the total inductance?
a) 35mH
# b) 2.86mH
c) Without knowing the coupling factor the total inductance cannot be
found

48. If the current reaches a maximum through an inductor of 2A in 15 secs,

what is the current after 3 secs?
# a) 1.26A
b) 0.63A
c) 1A

49. If the phase voltage in a star connected generator is 200V what will be
the line voltage?
a) 115V
b) 200V
# c) 346V

50. A generator is labeled as having 115V/200V, 20A and PF 0.8. What is the
apparent power in each line that the generator can produce?
a) 2.3kW
b) 2.3kVA
# c) 4kVA

51. A starter generator has a

a) low resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field
# b) low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field
c) high resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field

52. Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the
thermocouple so that
a) they will not corrode
# b) mini junctions are not formed
c) the resistance is not increased beyond limits

53. An oxygen molecule is made up of

# a) two oxygen atoms sharing electrons
b) two oxygen atoms sharing neutrons
c) two oxygen atoms sharing protons

54. A capacitor in a single phase AC motor is to

a) prevent spikes
b) block DC
# c) provide a phase shift

Page 7 – Mod 3
55. The slip speed of an induction motor is
# a) stator speed - rotor speed
b) stator speed + rotor speed
c) stator speed
rotor speed

56. The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer

a) is delta wound
b) is star wound
# c) could be either delta or star wound

57. The symbol for flux density is

a) H
# b) B
c) ø

58. A galvanometer measures

a) millivolts
b) megohms
# c) milliamps

59. A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for

# a) 200 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 20 hours

60. The unknown resistance R in the wheatstone bridge shown is

a) 1 ohm
# b) 4 ohms
c) 16 ohms

61. Which of the following materials is easiest to magnetize?

# a) Soft iron
b) High grade steel
c) Cast iron

Page 8 – Mod 3
62. AC generators are rated in
a) kVARs
b) kW
# c) kVA

63. To find which end of an electromagnet is the north pole, use the
a) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
# b) Right Hand Clasp Rule
c) Cork Screw Rule
64. A capacitor with double the area and double the dielectric thickness will
have
a) double the capacitance
b) half the capacitance
# c) the same capacitance

65. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual

inductance will
a) increase
b) decrease
# c) remain the same

66. If the brake coil on an actuator motor goes open circuit, the actuator
will
a) over-ride its mechanical stops
# b) stop
c) run slower

67. The frequency of the output of a 4 pole generator is 400 Hz. The
generator is turning at
# a) 12000 RPM
b) 6000 RPM
c) 3000 RPM

68. What is the wave shape of the x-axis input of a traversing oscilloscope
image?
a) square
b) rectangular
# c) triangular

69. An inductance/resistance motor is

a) better than a capacitance motor
b) restricted to low loads only
# c) less efficient than a capacitance motor

Page 9 – Mod 3
70. The voltage at point A is
# a) 7 V
b) 21 V
c) 28 V

71. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power
will be
# a) 28.5 V at 4 A
b) 28.5 V at 16 A
c) 460 V at 0.25 A

72. The voltage induced in the stator of an AC generator is produced by

a) a fixed magnetic field
# b) a rotating magnetic field
c) an alternating field

73. A low frequency supply

# a) may damage inductive components
b) will have no effect on inductive components
c) will make the circuit operate faster due to the reduced impedance

74. A zinc-carbon battery life depends upon

a) the purity of the carbon rod
# b) the amount of zinc
c) the amount of the electrolyte paste

75. When checking the s.g. of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you
should
# a) check all cells because they may be different
b) check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell
c) check any cell because they will all be the same
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76. If electrons are added to an atom it becomes

a) a positive ion
# b) a negative ion
c) a neutral ion
 Page 10 – Mod 3
77. An element whose atoms have fewer than 4 electrons in their valency
shell are
# a) good conductors
b) good insulators
c) semiconductors

78. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current vector is

# a) in phase with the voltage vector
b) +90o out of phase with the voltage vector
c) -90o out of phase with the voltage vector

79. The PD at the terminals of an open circuit battery with a small internal
resistance will be
a) more than the EMF
b) less than the EMF
# c) the same as the EMF

80. The diagram shows a 200 V long shunt generator. What is the voltage
dropped across the series resistor?

a) 200 V
# b) 0.12 V
c) 0.2 V

81. An electrolytic capacitor is used where

a) minimum losses are essential
# b) there is a polarized input
c) high frequency AC is used

82. If a connection to an AC motor is disconnected, the motor will

a) slow down and stop
# b) continue to run
c) stop
83. A band stop filter
# a) stops a narrow range of frequencies
b) stops frequencies either side of a narrow range
c) attenuates frequencies either side of a narrow range

Page 11 – Mod 3
84. This is a diagram of a

a) band pass filter

b) high pass filter
# c) low pass filter

85. When comparing the average values of an AC generator output, to the

peak values
a) average voltage = same as the peak voltage
# b) average voltage = 0.63 x peak voltage
c) average voltage = 0.707 x peak voltage

86. A parallel circuit at resonance has

# a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) zero impedance

87. A resistor dissipates 80 Watts. If it runs for 4 hours 15 minutes, how

much energy is dissipated in total?
# a) 1.224 MJ
b) 20.4 kJ
c) 191.25 J

88. The earth lead of a 24 V equipment is 0.5 ohm resistance and carries 80
A. How much power does it dissipate?
# a) 3.2 kW
b) 1.152 kW
c) 1.92 kW

89. What must you do to make a 3 F capacitor circuit into a 2 F circuit?

a) Put a 1 F capacitor in series
b) Put a 2 F capacitor in parallel
# c) Put a 6 F capacitor in series

90. The time required to fully charge a 1 µF capacitor in series with a 100k
ohm resistor is
# a) 100 ms
b) 1 s
c) 100 s

Page 12 – Mod 3
91. A 10 ohm resistor has a 14.14 V peak drop across it. What power is
dissipated?
a) 19.99 W
# b) 10 W
c) 1.414 W

92. This is a symbol for

# a) a voltage dependant resistor

b) a variable differential resistor
c) a visual display rectifier

93. If a generator speed is halved and the field strength is doubled, the
voltage output will be
a) halved
b) doubled
# c) unchanged

94. Point A on the armature of the generator shown is producing

# a) maximum current
b) minimum current
c) zero current

95. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as

a) hydration
# b) polarization
 c) ionization

96. What is the power dissipated in a 500 ohm resistor with a 3A flow?
a) 1.5 kW
# b) 4.5 kW
c) 750 kW

97. Which of the following is 1 Amp?

# a) 1000 mA
b) 1000 μA
c) 1000 kA

Page 13 – Mod 3
98. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability of
# a) greater than unity
b) less than unity
c) zero

99. What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?

# a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Both the anode and the cathode

100. Electricity conducts through

a) solids only
# b) solids and liquids
c) vacuum

101. The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit
is
# a) impedance
b) resistance
c) total resistance
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102. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed

# a) reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature
windings
b) interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power
source
c) rotate the positive brush one commutator segment

103. An example of a good electrical insulator is

# a) glass
b) aluminium
c) mercury

104. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output

from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to
vary the
# a) strength of the magnetic field
b) number of conductors in the armature
c) speed at which the armature rotates

105. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as

a) hydration
# b) polarization
c) ionization

Page 14 – Mod 3
106. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a
nickel-cadmium battery
a) excessive current draw from the battery
# b) high current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its
capacity
c) a high internal resistance condition

107. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of

connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are
generally of which type
a) compound
b) shunt (parallel)
# c) series

108. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor

a) the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease
# b) the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease
c) the speed will increase and the armature current will increase

109. Static charges remaining in an aircraft are dissipated by

# a) the use of a conducting type nose wheel
b) bonding the aircraft to a refuel tanker
c) earthing the aircraft as soon as possible

110. Total resistance in parallel for R1 and R2 is

# a) RT = (R1 x R2) ÷ (R1 + R2)
 b) RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2
c) 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2

111. The quill drive on an aircraft generator

a) makes possible the use of roller
b) damps out any commutator ripple
# c) damps out vibrations

112. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid

battery is by checking
a) the voltage on open circuit
# b) the voltage with rated load switched ON
c) the voltage off load

113. If the correct supply were connected to a DC shunt motor which had
lost its residual magnetism it would
a) fail to run
b) run in the reverse direction
# c) run normally

Page 15 – Mod 3
114. A loss of electrical insulation results in
# a) a short circuit between the supply and earth
b) an open circuit between the supply and earth
c) an open circuit in the supply

115. A DC circuit containing a total resistance of 100 ohms has a current

flow of 250 mA. The power dissipated in the circuit is
a) 0.4 watts
# b) 6.25 watts
c) 5 watts

116. Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in

# a) joules/second
b) watts/second
c) joules x seconds

117. Ohm's law states that:

a) e.m.f. = current divided by resistance
b) resistance = current divided by e.m.f.
# c) current = e.m.f. divided by resistance

118. If the resistance of a resistor which is in series with two other resistors
is doubled
a) the current in that resistance is doubled
b) the current in that resistance is halved
# c) the volts drop across that resistor increases

119. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:

# a) a shorted armature
b) an out-of-round commutator
c) a broken field lead

120. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most
readily?
a) aluminium
# b) iron
c) copper

121. Electricity conducts through

a) solids only
# b) solids and liquids
c) vacuum

122. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 Ω

resistance. The primary coil has 1 k Ω resistance. How many turns does
the primary coil have?
# a) 15,000
b) 150,000
c) 1,500,000
Page 16 – Mod 3
123. Two batteries 12V and 40 Ah each, are in series. What is the total
capacity?
a) 12V 80 Ah
b) 24V 80Ah
# c) 24V 40 Ah

124. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the
secondary winding?
a) star only
b) delta only
# c) either delta or star

125. The phases in supply to a 2 phase motor are electrically

# a) 90 degrees apart from each other
b) 180 degrees apart from each other
c) 120 degrees apart from each other

126. A 30 KVA rated generator has a power factor of 0.8. What is its
maximum consistent power
a) 30 KW
# b) 24 KW
c) 37.5 KW

127. A 50 μF capacitor is fed with a current of 25 mA. How long will it take
to charge it to 100V?
a) 1 s
# b) 0.2 seconds
c) 12 minutes

128. The total resistance of the circuit shown is

a) 1.33 Ohms
b) 12 Ohms
# c) 3 Ohms

129. A step up transformer has

a) one winding
# b) two windings
c) three windings

130. The three voltages of a three phase generator are connected

# a) independently of each other
b) in series with each other
c) in parallel with each other
Page 17 – Mod 3
131. E.M.F. in an electric circuit corresponds to what in a magnetic circuit
# a) mmf
b) flux
c) reluctance

132. Time constant of an inductor is

a) LR
# b) L/R
c) L2/R

133. Permanent magnets have

a) high reluctance, low coercive force
b) low reluctance, high coercive force
# c) high reluctance, high coercive force
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134. A.C. value that can produce the same heat as D.C. is called
# a) r.m.s value
b) average value
c) peak value

135. If a battery has got low internal resistance, then

a) on load voltage will be greater than no load voltage
# b) no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage
c) no load voltage will be the same as on load voltage

136. in a parallel R, L, C circuit, the value of the capacitor is quadrupled,

then the value of the impedance would
# a) reduce
b) increased
c) remain the same

137. In a circuit C = 25 microfarads and the current flow is 40 microamps

for 4 seconds. What is the voltage
a) 12.8V
# b) 6.4V
c) 3.2V

138. A 3, 5 and 2 ohms resistance is connected in series with a 10 V

battery. The voltage across the 2 ohms resistor is
a) 10V
# b) 2 V
c) 4 V

139. The power in a circuit when voltage and resistance is given can be
found by
a) VxR
# b) VxV / R
c) VxVxR
Page 18 – Mod 3
140. A piezoelectric device generates electricity through
# a) pressure
b) friction
c) light

141. Conventional current flow inside a battery is from

# a) anode to cathode
b) cathode to anode
 c) either anode to cathode or cathode to anode, depending on the active
elements

142. Potentiometers are used as a

# a) variable voltage source
b) variable resistor
c) variable current source

143. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no

load.
What is the core loss at full load
# a) 200 W
b) 220 W
c) 0 W

144. Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine

# a) 12,000 rpm
b) 6000 rpm
c) 8000 rpm

145. The purpose of end travel microswitch in a linear actuator is to

# a) remain closed and opens at end travel only
b) remain open and closes at end travel only
c) remain open during normal operation and only close if the actuator
overruns its stops

146. Linear actuators used in aircraft are of

# a) split field series wound type.
b) split field shunt wound type
c) compound wound type

147. If a generator sparks, a possible reason is

# a) The brush springs are loose
b) The brushes have been placed around the magnetic coil
c) Magnetic flux deflecting the EMF

148. The charge on a proton is

a) neutral
# b) positive
c) negative

Page 19 – Mod 3
149. in conventional current flow, what is Fleming's right hand rule used for
a) Motors
# b) Generators
c) Inductors
150. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency is increased
# a) the current increases
b) impedance increases
c) reactance remains the same

151. Three 12 µF capacitors are in series. The total capacitance is

a) 12 µF
# b) 4 µF
c) 36 µF

152. A 500 ohm resistor carries a 3 amp current. What is the power
dissipated?
a) 5 kW
# b) 4.5 kW
c) 500 W

153. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability

a) less than unity
# b) greater than unity
c) equal to unity

154. What is the PD of a circuit which has a 40 mA current and a 1 k ohm

resistance?
a) 400 V
b) 4 V
# c) 40 V

155. The time constant of a capacitor is the time

# a) for the emf to reach 36.8% of maximum
b) the current to reach 70.7% of maximum
c) to reach maximum current

156. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms

and 1500 turns. For the primary winding to have an impedance of 1 k ohm,
how many turns must it have?
# a) 15,000
b) 150,000
c) 1,500,000

157. A potentiometer has which of the following properties?

# a) 3 terminals
b) preset values
c) wire wound
Page 20 – Mod 3
158. A 3 ohm resistor dissipates 27 Watts. How much current flows
through it?
# a) 3 A
b) 9 A
c) 0.15 A

159. in a 2 phase generator, how far apart are the windings electrically?
a) 45o
# b) 90o
c) 180o

160. The SI unit of work is

a) Joules per second (Watts)
# b) Kilogram metres - force
c) Joules per metre

161. in the circuit below, what happens to the total circuit impedance if L is
tripled?

# a) Increases
b) Remains the same
c) Reduces

162. in a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?

# a) Polarization
b) Sulphation
c) Hydration

163. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds. What is the
frequency
a) 200 Hz
# b) 2 kHz
c) 20 kHz

164. Three branches in a circuit have currents entering of 3A, 4 A and 5 A.

A forth branch has 10 A leaving. A fifth branch must have
a) 2A entering
# b) 2A leaving
c) 22A leaving
 Page 21 – Mod 3
165. Where are the output windings on an AC generator?
# a) Stator
b) Rotor with slip rings
c) Rotor with commutator

166. If the field strength of a generator is doubled, and the speed is

doubled, the output EMF will
# a) quadruple
b) double
c) stay the same

167. If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will

a) double
# b) stay the same
c) halve

168. If a capacitor of 50 microfarads has a current of 25 mA, how long does

it take to charge to 100 V
# a) 200 milliseconds
b) 200 seconds
c) 150 seconds

169. in a Wheatstone Bridge, the ammeter reads zero, and the variable
resistor is adjusted to 5 ohms. Resistor P has a value of 10 ohms and Q
has a value of 100 ohms. What is the value of the unknown resistor?
a) 0.5 ohms
b) 5 ohms
# c) 50 ohms

170. in a tuned circuit at resonance, the circuit will be

a) inductive
# b) resistive
c) capacitive

171. The time constant for an inductor is

# a) L/R
b) R/L
c) L x R
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172. In a DC motor the pole pairs are

# a) imbedded within the field coils
b) part of the armature
 c) connected to the brush gear

173. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by

# a) decreasing the thickness of the laminates
b) increasing the thickness of the laminates
c) making the core from a solid block

Page 22 – Mod 3
174. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the
loss will be
a) 110 Watts
b) 440 Watts
# c) 55 Watts

175. The earth's magnetic field is greatest at the

# a) magnetic poles
b) geographic poles
c) magnetic equator

176. If a 1 ohm circuit produces a 50 W output, the phase angle is

# a) 0o
b) 90o
c) 45o

177. A series wound DC motor, the field has

# a) few turns of thick wire
b) few turns of thin wire
c) many turns of thin wire

178. What effect do the electrons of one atom have upon the electrons of
another atom?
# a) They repel each other
b) They attract each other
c) They have no effect on each other

179. What is a molecule?

# a) The smallest part of a compound
b) The smallest part of an electron
c) The smallest part of an atom

180. A coulomb is
a) one ampere per second
# b) one ampere x second
c) one second per ampere

181. in a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in

parallel, one resistor goes open circuit. The current in the other two
resistors will
a) increase
b) decrease
# c) remain the same

182. 20 amperes flow for 20 seconds. How many coulombs has flowed?
# a) 400
b) 20
c) 1

Page 23 – Mod 3
183. An atom is
# a) the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics
b) the smallest part of a compound that can exist independently
c) the smallest particle of matter

184. A neutron is a particle which is

# a) contained within the nucleus of most atoms
b) orbits the nucleus of the atom
c) contained in the nucleus of all atoms

185. An electric current is a flow of

a) electrons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area
b) protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area
# c) electrons from a negatively charged area to a positively charged area

186. An element could be considered to be a conductor if it has

a) a large number of electrons
b) a large number of electrons in its outer orbit
# c) a small number of electrons in its outer orbit

187. A volt can be considered to be a

# a) unit of electrical pressure
b) quantity of electrical energy
c) unit of electrical power

188. If the resistance of an electrical circuit is increased

a) the voltage will increase
b) the current will increase
# c) the current will decrease

189. If 2 coulombs flowed through a circuit in 2 seconds, the circuit would

have
a) 2 volts PD
b) 2 amps
# c) 1 amp

190. In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable

# a) enables it to carry more current
b) enables it to carry more voltage
c) increases its resistance

191. Doubling the running time of an electrical machine would

# a) double the joules used
b) double the watts used
c) double the current used

Page 24 – Mod 3
192. What is 3.25 volts in millivolts
a) 3.25 millivolts
# b) 3,250 millivolts
c) 325,000 millivolts

193. Electromotive force is measured in

a) Watts
b) Ohms
# c) Volts

194. Six resistors each of 6 ohms would be

a) 36 ohms in parallel
b) 1 ohm in series
# c) 1 ohm in parallel

195. A capacitor in a single phase motor is to

# a) provide a phase shift
b) prevent sparking at the switch
c) provide smoothing

196. The mass of an atom is contained mainly in the

a) electron
# b) nucleus
c) proton

197. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be
a) higher than the phase voltage
b) lower than the phase voltage
# c) the same as the phase voltage

198. On a linear actuator, the field cutoff coil will be energized when
# a) the actuator is running
b) the actuator is not running
 c) only as the actuator commences movement

199. Kirchhoff's law states

# a) the algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to zero
b) the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to one
c) the inverse sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to one

200. The lines of magnetic flux from a magnet will

# a) repel each other
b) attract each other
c) have no effect upon each other

Page 25 – Mod 3
201. A photozoidal cell produces electricity when subjected to
# a) light
b) heat
c) pressure

202. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of

a) milliammeter
# b) millivoltmeter
c) milliohmeter

203. An electric motor produces a force of 5 N at a distance of 0.2m from

the centre of rotation and rotates at a speed of 100 revs/sec. The motors
output is
a) 100 horsepower
# b) 628.4 watts
c) 314.2 watts

204. A potentiometer varies

# a) voltage
b) current
c) resistance

205. Starter motors are usually

# a) series wound
b) compound wound
c) shunt wound

206. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its

turns shorted together?
a) measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter
# b) the transformer will get hot in normal operation
c) the output voltage will be high

207. An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected

generator is
a) a balance load is guaranteed
# b) two potentials are available
c) the line and phase voltages are equal

208. What does a rectifier do?

a) Changes direct current into alternating current
# b) Changes alternating current into direct current
c) Reduces voltage

209. Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce
a) 24V 80 ah
# b) 12V 80 ah
c) 24V 40 ah

Page 26 – Mod 3
210. When an atom loses or gains an electron it is called
a) a current
# b) an ion
c) a molecule

211. A circuit has a resistance of 50 ohms and an inductance of 0.2 Henry.

If it is connected to a 200 volt 50 Hz supply the reactance will be
a) 31.42 ohms
# b) 62.84 ohms
c) 6.284 ohms

212. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit

consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the voltage drop across
each resistor?
a) 12 volts
# b) 24 volts
c) 3 volts

213. Of the following which pair of materials would most readily become
magnetized?
a) copper and steel
b) nickel and bronze
# c) iron and steel

214. The formula for resistance in series is

# a) RT = R1 + R2 + R3...RN
 b) RT = R1 x R2 x R3...RN
c) 1/RT = 1/ (R1 x R2 x R3 ...RN)

215. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because
# a) it demagnetizes easily
b) its magnetism is not easily destroyed
c) it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized

216. What is the combined value of resistances of 4 ohm and 6 ohm

connected in parallel?
a) 24 ohm
# b) 2.4 ohm
c) 0.24 ohm

217. Permanent magnets in an AC generator are

# a) to provide initial excitation
b) to control the frequency
c) to rectify the current

Page 27 – Mod 3
218. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid
battery is by checking
a) the voltage off load
b) the voltage on open circuit
# c) the voltage with rated load switched ON.

219. Generator brushes are normally made of

# a) carbon
b) brass
c) steel
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220. If the voltage across a resistor is doubled

# a) the current is doubled
b) the resistance is halved
c) the current is halved

221. As the generator load is increases (within its rated capacity), the
voltage will
a) remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
b) decrease and the amperage output will increase
# c) remain constant and the amperage output will increase

222. If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance

is
a) the same as the lowest
# b) smaller than the lowest
c) greater than the lowest

223. A charged body is said to have

# a) a surplus or deficiency of electrons
b) a surplus of protons
c) a deficiency of neutrons

224. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
a) efficiency
b) power rating
# c) power factor

225. The voltage output of a generator is controlled by

a) varying the current of the output
b) varying the resistance of the output
# c) varying the current of the field

226. The total current flowing in a circuit of 200 lamps in parallel, each of a
resistance of 400 ohm and connected across an input of 100 volts is
# a) 50 amps
b) 25 amps
c) 40 amps

Page 28 – Mod 3
227. The current flowing in the armature of a DC motor is equal to
a) (applied volts - generated volts) x armature resistance
b) applied volts + generated volts
armature resistance
# c) applied volts - generated volts
armature resistance

228. In the circuit shown the 24 volt battery has an internal resistance of 1
ohm and the ammeter indicates a current of 12 amperes. The value of the
load resistance is
# a) 1 ohm
b) 2 ohms
c) 6 ohms

229. One advantage of using Ac electrical power in aircraft is

# a) the greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down
b) AC electrical motors can be reversed while dc motors cannot
c) the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous
voltage; therefore, less power input is required

230. The quill drive on an aircraft generator

a) makes possible the use of roller bearings at the drive end
# b) damps out vibrations
c) damps out any commutator ripple

231. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional

to the
a) distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate
area
b) plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates
# c) plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the
plates

232. When resistors are in parallel, the total resistance is

# a) smaller than the smallest resistor
b) the sum of all the resistors
c) larger than the smallest resistor

Page 29 – Mod 3
233. What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been
induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a DC generator into
direct current as it leaves the generator?
# a) a commutator
b) an inverter
c) a rectifier

234. Two similar 12v batteries connected in parallel will produce

 a) 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
b) 24v e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
# c) 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery

235. Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in
an AC circuit are assumed to be
a) maximum values
# b) effective values
c) instantaneous values

236. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor

# a) the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease
b) the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease
c) the speed will increase and the armature current will increase

237. In a vector diagram showing the magnitude and direction of the

inductance, capacitance and resistance in an AC circuit
# a) the inductive reactance would be in opposition to the capacitive
reactance and resistance at 90 degrees
b) the inductive and capacitance reactance would be additive with the
resistance subtractive
c) it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors

238. If service No. 1 is isolated from the supply busbar shown there will be

a) an increase in supply voltage

b) a decrease in supply voltage
# c) a decrease in total current consumption

239. An increase in operating temperature in most electrical devices

carrying current results in
# a) an increase in resistance and a decrease in current
b) a decrease in resistance and an increase in current
c) no effect on the resistance and current

Page 30 – Mod 3
240. The voltage of a secondary cell is
a) determined by the number of plates
b) determined by the area of the plates
# c) determined by the active materials on the plates

241. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is
mutual
a) reactance
# b) inductance
c) capacitance

242. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with

electrical power from
a) permanent magnets
b) the busbar
# c) a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC
windings

243. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage

constant, the current will
a) halve
# b) double
c) remain constant

244. Eddy currents in a transformer can be reduced by

a) using a special non metallic material
b) using a single solid piece of metal
# c) laminations

245. If two resistors of 5 and 10 ohm respectively are connected in series

and the current in the 5 ohm resistor is 1A. what is the current in the 10
ohm resistor?
a) 1/3 amp
b) it cannot be found without knowing the applied voltage
# c) 1 amp

246. The term used to denote the strength of a magnetic field is

a) retentivity
b) hysterisis
# c) flux density

247. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and
current of an AC supply feeding an inductive and capacitive network is
# a) 0 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 90 degrees
Page 31 – Mod 3
248. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the
secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input
voltage?
a) primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary
b) primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary
# c) primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary

249. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a

resistance of 1000 ohms. The power dissipated by the circuit is
a) 12 milliwatts
b) 12 watts
# c) 144 milliwatts

250. The voltage in a series circuit

# a) is different in each component
b) is the same in each component
c) is less than it would be in a parallel circuit

251. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V
AC?
# a) windscreen heating
b) hydraulic pump
c) standby compass

252. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?
# a) To reduce the effects of eddy currents
b) To increase the core permeability
c) To reduce the core reluctance

253. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit

consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is the value of each
resistor?
a) 12 ohm
b) 4 ohm
# c) 36 ohm

254. If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current?

a) 2500 amperes
# b) 4 amperes
c) 0.4 amperes

255. A soft iron core is used in an ELECTRO magnet because

a) it has HIGH permeability and HIGH coercivity
# b) it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity
c) it has LOW permeability and HIGH coercivity

Page 32 – Mod 3
256. The resistance to electrical flow in a wire depends on
# a) the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature
b) the material only - copper or aluminum
c) the length and material of the wire only

257. A transformer should always have its

# a) secondary open circuit or on load
b) secondary shorted or on load
c) primary shorted or off load

258. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?

a) interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power
source
# b) reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature
windings
c) rotate the positive brush one commutator segment

259. An AC generator's frequency will

a) always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed
b) vary with changes in field strength
# c) be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven

260. A short circuit between the supply and earth

a) does not matter if the circuit uses the aircraft earth as a return
# b) could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high
c) is not dangerous as the current drawn will be low

261. When two coils are linked by a common flux, a voltage can be induced
in one by a changing current in the other. This process is known as
# a) mutual induction
b) the magnetic effect
c) self induction

262. A circuit consists of 3 ohm, 5 ohm and 12 ohm resistors in series, the
current flowing in the 5 ohm resistor is 10 amps. What is the applied
voltage?
a) 100v
b) 10v
# c) 200v
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263. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminum when comparing

# a) weight for weight
b) load for load
c) CSA with CSA
 Page 33 – Mod 3
264. In an AC circuit how is the value of true power calculated?
# a) By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor
b) By wattmeter readings multiplied by power factor
c) By voltmeter readings multiplied by ammeter readings

265. A frequency wild AC generator is used for

a) instruments and navigation
# b) de-icing loads
c) any AC load

266. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a

generator?
# a) Reduce field strength
b) Overcome armature reaction
c) Reduce arcing at the brushes

267. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns

ratio?
a) primary turns × secondary turns
b) primary turns ÷ secondary turns
# c) secondary turns ÷ primary turns

268. A good electrical insulator is a material which

a) has more protons than electrons
# b) has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms
c) contains a large number of positive ions

269. To reverse the direction of a series motor

a) the direction of the current through the field is reversed
# b) a second series field is fitted
c) the direction of the current through the field and the armature is
reversed

270. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator

of the revolving-field type, with each revolution of the rotor?
a) Four
b) Six
# c) Three

271. The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for

# a) supplying non-inductive loads
b) the AC supply instead of using inverters
 c) driving AC operated instruments

272. The capacitance of a capacitor is dependant upon

# a) the type of material separating the plates
b) the rate of change of current in the circuit
c) the charge on it
Page 34 – Mod 3
273. A piece of equipment is rated at 750 watts and the applied voltage is
30 volts. The value of the protection fuse should be
a) 20 amps
# b) 30 amps
c) 15 amps

274. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

a) remain relatively constant over the starting speed range
b) increase as the engine speed increases
# c) decrease as the engine speed increases

275. When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit,

the total capacitance is
a) equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor
b) less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor
# c) equal to the sum of all the capacitances

276. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as

many loops as the primary coil will be
a) less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
b) greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
# c) greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil

277. How are generators rated?

a) Impedance at rated voltage
b) Amperes at rated voltage
# c) Watts at rated voltage

278. in a single phase AC generator, frequency is determined by

# a) the generator speed
b) controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings
c) the number of pairs of poles

279. The risk of a fire due to static electricity is overcome

a) by fitting static wicks and insulating all metal components
# b) by connecting all metal components by bonding
c) by fitting static wicks and isolating the battery from inflammable gas
sources
280. Due to armature reaction in a DC motor
# a) the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened
b) the leading pole tips are magnetically weakened
c) the magnetic flux is restored by moving the MNA towards the GNA

Page 35 – Mod 3
281. Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts
across them. If the voltages across the resistances are V1 and V2 then by
Kirchhoff's law
# a) V = V1 + V2
b) V2 = V1 + V
c) V1 = V2 + V

282. When an electrical supply becomes open-circuit

# a) the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning
b) the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the
increased current drawn
c) the component will operate normally but will not switch off

283. Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite
directions so that the
a) speed of the motor can be more closely controlled
# b) motor can be operated in either direction
c) power output of the motor can be more closely controlled

284. The amount of electrical power for a given generator weight is

a) determined by the size of the aircraft
b) greater for DC generator
# c) greater for AC generator

285. When resistors are in parallel the total current is equal to

a) the current through one resistor
# b) the sum of the currents
c) the reciprocal of all the currents

286. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to

deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?
a) 90.0 ampere-hour
# b) 112.5 ampere-hour
c) 45.0 ampere-hour
287. How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which
contains the following series loads?
5 ohm, 3 ohm and 12 ohm
a) 450 watts
b) 402 watts
# c) 28.8 watts

288. A volt meter is connected

a) in series or parallel
# b) in parallel
c) in series

Page 36 – Mod 3
289. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?
# a) The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation
b) Either, provided they lay on the MNA
c) The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation

290. On a typical AC generator the output is taken

a) direct from the rotor via slip rings
b) direct from the exciter
# c) direct from the stator windings

291. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating
some of the services would
# a) reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar
b) increase the current consumption from the bus-bar
c) not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage

292. One Picofarad is

a) 1 x 1012 farad
b) 1 x 10-6 farad
# c) 1 x 10-12 farad

293. Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?

a) Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area
# b) Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area
c) Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area

294. The purpose of bonding is to

a) give generated static an easy return path to the generator
# b) stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks
c) ensure all components have been securely fitted
295. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the
a) Weber
b) Henry
# c) Tesla

296. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor?

a) Low starting torque
b) Suitable for constant speed use
# c) High starting torque

297. Interpole windings fitted to DC series wound generators are

a) in series with the field
b) in parallel with the armature
# c) in series with the armature

Page 37 – Mod 3
298. One of the chief advantages of alternating current is that it can be
transmitted at a high voltage with a low power loss; the voltage can then be
changed to any desired value of
# a) AC by means of transformers
b) DC by means of transformers
c) DC by means of inverters

299. An AC generator is producing the required voltage but a higher

frequency than that required. To remedy this, the following action must be
taken?
a) Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then decrease the
strength of the field
b) Decrease the speed of the prime mover
# c) Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the
strength of the field

300. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a

circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of
6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each?
# a) 25.23 amperes
b) 1 ampere
c) 1.11 amperes

301. The area of a hysteresis loop is proportional to the

# a) energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of
magnetization and demagnetization
b) relative permeability of the material being magnetized
c) energy absorbed in completely demagnetizing the material

302. The current flowing through a circuit can be increased to four times its
original value by
# a) doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance
b) halving the applied voltage and halving the resistance
c) doubling the resistance and doubling the applied voltage

303. When more than two inductors of different inductances are connected
in parallel in a circuit, the total inductance is
a) equal to the sum of the individual inductances
# b) less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor
c) equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor

304. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC generator?

# a) the same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation
b) the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation
c) either, providing they lay on M.N.A.

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Page 38 – Mod 3
305. What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor when the
temperature increases?
# a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same

306. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature
reaction is through the use of
a) shaded poles
# b) interpoles
c) drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected
series field

307. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because
# a) it demagnetizes easily
b) it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized
c)its magnetism is not easily destroyed

308. The switch on a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is

opened. The voltage across the capacitor
a) drops immediately to zero
b) starts to fall exponentially to zero
# c) remains equal to the original charging voltage supply

309. in a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the
neutral point and earth is
a) equal to line volts
b) equal to phase volts
# c) zero volts

310. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a

resistance of 1000 ohms. The power dissipated by the circuit is
a) 12 milliwatts
b) 12 watts
# c) 144 milliwatts

311. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in

the inductive reactance of a circuit?
a) Resistance and capacitive reactance
b) Resistance and voltage
# c) Inductance and frequency

312. in transformer operation, hysteresis losses are

a) current overcoming coil resistance
b) induced current in the iron core
# c) energy wasted in reversing core magnetization

Page 39 – Mod 3
313. The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through
both the field and armature windings produces a
a) low starting torque
b) speed slightly higher when unloaded
# c) high starting torque

314. A non-magnetic metal

# a) has no permeability
b) has high retentivity
c) is a poor conductor

315. The power output of an AC parallel generator system is measured in

a) KVA
# b) KW / KVARS
c) amperes

316. The shape of the output waveform of an AC generator is known as a

# a) sine wave
b) cosine wave
c) frequency wave

317. in a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in

series and one of the resistors short circuits, the effect is for the current in
the other two resistors to
# a) increase
b) remain the same
c) decrease

318. To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed

a) in series with the armature
b) in parallel with the field
# c) in series with the field

319. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

a) revolution
b) minute
# c) second

320. In a series resistive circuit

a) the total voltage equals the difference between the individual voltages
# b) the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages
c) the total voltage is the same as the highest individual

321. The current in a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is

# a) zero
b) is dependent upon the size of the capacitance of the capacitor
c) maximum
Page 40 – Mod 3
322. The sum of the instantaneous E.M.F.'s in a three phase system is
a) equal to the line voltage
b) three times the phase voltage
# c) zero

323. A capacitor is a barrier to

a) both
b) A.C
# c) D.C

324. One revolution of a three phase generator will produce

a) 3 cycles
b) 2 cycles
# c) 1 cycle

325. If the North pole of a magnet is brought nearer to the North pole of
another magnet
a) attraction between them will be increased
# b) repulsion between them will be increased
c) repulsion between them will be reduced
326. A 200 volt motor is taking 10 amperes armature current, the armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. The [Link] under these conditions will be
a) 201 volts
# b) 199 volts
c) 1 volt

327. What is the effect of inserting an iron core into a current carrying coil?
# a) The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is
increased
b) The flux density of the original magnetic field remains constant
c) The core tends to move from a stronger to a weaker part of the field

328. What is the total capacitance of a parallel circuit containing three

capacitors with capacitance of 0.25microfarad, 0.03microfarad, and
0.12microfarad, respectively?
a) 0.04 µF
b) 0.04 pF
# c) 0.4 µF

329. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and
current of an AC supply feeding an inductive and capacitive network is
# a) 0 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 90 degrees
Page 41 – Mod 3
330. The frequency of a power wave in an AC resistance circuit is
a) the same as the frequency for voltage and current
b) half the frequency for voltage and current
# c) twice the frequency for voltage and current

331. The reading on the ammeter in the circuit shown is

a) 3A
# b) 6A
c) 12A

332. The 'A' phase of a three phase power system is colour coded
a) blue
b) yellow
# c) red

333. The total resistance of the circuit shown is

a) 12 Ohms
# b) 3 Ohms
c) 7.5 Ohms

334. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual

magnetism?
# a) Flash the fields
b) Reseat the brushes
c) Energize the armature

335. A 1µF capacitor is equivalent to

# a) 0.000,001 Farads
b) 1,000,000 Farads
c) 0.001 Farads

336. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is

called (disregard resistance)
a) impedance
b) reluctance
# c) inductive reactance
Page 42 – Mod 3
337. A high surge of current is required when a DC electric motor is first
started. As the speed of the motor increase
a) the applied emf increases proportionally
b) the counter emf decreases proportionally
# c) the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus
reducing the current flow through the armature

338. The tolerance of the AC generator frequency is

a) 40 Hz
# b) 10 Hz
c) 20 Hz

339. The various parts of an aircraft airframe are maintained at the same
potential by
a) the supply bus-bars
b) static discharge wicks
# c) bonding
340. When two capacitors are connected in series
a) the charge stored on each is directly proportional to its capacitance
# b) the charge stored on each is the same
c) the charge stored on each is inversely proportional to the voltage
across it

341. Aircraft generators are cooled by

a) oil cooling radiators around the main body
b) fuel cooling radiators
# c) ram air

342. The voltage of an AC generator

a) rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same
direction
# b) rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in
the opposite direction
c) rises to max in one direction and remains

343. The charge on a capacitor is expressed as

a) the ratio Q/V
b) the product Q x V
# c) the product C x V

344. A shunt is used with

# a) an ammeter
b) an ohmmeter
c) a voltmeter
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Page 43 – Mod 3
345. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always
considered negligible, provided the
a) generator is properly grounded
b) voltage drop across the circuit is checked
# c) structure is adequately bonded

346. An ammeter is connected into a circuit in

a) parallel
b) shunt
# c) series

347. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be

sure it
a) has a full charge before removing it from the circuit
# b) is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit
c) has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit

348. When a circuit with a series inductance and capacitance is at resonant

frequency
a) the current in the circuit decreases
# b) the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with
the current
c) the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage leads the current
by exactly 90 degrees

349. in an AC circuit, the effective voltage is

a) equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage
b) greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage
# c) less than the maximum instantaneous voltage

350. On a combined DC starter - generator system

# a) the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start
cycle is completed
b) the series coil is open circuit during the engine start sequence
c) the voltage regulator controls the start sequence during engine
starting

351. A pure capacitor, inductor and resistor are connected in series and the
voltage drops across each are 10V and the total current flowing in the
circuit is 1A. How much true power is the circuit consuming?
a) 30VA
b) 30W
# c) 10W

352. If a capacitor 1µF and an inductor 10mH are connected in parallel what
is their approximate resonant frequency?
a) 62Hz
b) 3.2MHz
# c) 1.6kHz
Page 44 – Mod 3
353. Which wave form is stepped positive and negative with unequal length
sides?
# a) Trapezoidal wave
b) Rectangular wave
c) Saw tooth wave

354. The value of an AC sine wave that will give an equivalent heating effect
in a DC resistor is the
 a) average value
# b) RMS value
c) peak value

355. Where is the magnetic dip least?

a) Poles
# b) Equator
c) Isoclinals

356. The dielectric constant of a capacitor is a measurement of

# a) the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric
b) the electrical resistance of the capacitor dielectric
c) the electrical repulsion of electrons within the dielectric material

357. To reverse the direction of rotation on a DC shunt motor, you must

change the direction of the current through
# a) the field windings or the armature windings
b) the armature windings only
c) the field windings and the armature windings

358. If the field current to a shunt wound DC motor is decreased when

operating at a constant load, the motor speed will
a) reduce
# b) increase
c) not change

359. An electric current is

a) a surplus of free electron
b) an excitement of electrons in a metal
# c) an ordered flow of electrons

360. An atom contains

a) molecules
b) hydrogen
# c) electrons

361. What causes a transformer to be noisy?

a) High coil resistance
# b) An air gap in the core
c) High core losses
Page 45 – Mod 3
362. Carbon has a
# a) negative temperature coefficient
b) positive temperature coefficient
c) temperature coefficient of zero
363. The peak factor for a sine wave is
a) 0.707
# b) 1.414
c) 1.11

364. If a motor is spinning at 50 cycles per second, how long is 1 cycle?

# a) 0.02 seconds
b) 50 seconds
c) 0.83 seconds

365. An integrated step input at unequal time base produces

a) a square wave
b) a sine wave
# c) a saw tooth wave

366. A capacitor in series and inductor in parallel make what kind of filter?
a) Band pass
# b) High pass
c) Low pass

367. If a load in series has a current passing through it, the magnetic field
can be worked out by using
# a) the corkscrew rule
b) left hand rule
c) right hand rule

368. If the current flowing into a junction is 5A, 3A, 4A in and 10A out. What
is the 5th wire carrying?
a) 2A in
# b) 2A out
c) 5A out

369. If an insulated conductor is placed near to a negatively charged rod,

the nearest end of the conductor becomes
a) negatively charged
# b) positively charged
c) No change will occur

Page 46 – Mod 3
370. If 2 resistors, one red, yellow, black, gold and the other violet, blue,
black, silver were replaced by a single resistor. Ignoring tolerance, what
would the color coding be?
# a) Brown, black, brown
 b) Brown, black, black
c) Black, brown, black

371. Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell
# a) 4
b) 2
c) 6

372. If a free electron is given to another atom, that atom is a

a) positive ion
# b) negative ion
c) valency atom

373. If a nicad battery is not to be used immediately it should be stored

a) fully charged
# b) fully dissipated
c) dry

374. A light / heat sensitive cell is a

# a) transducer
b) diode
c) transistor

375. In a mercury cell the steel casing is

# a) the positive terminal
b) the negative terminal
c) neither
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376. To improve the life of a dry cell you would

# a) use more zinc
b) use more electrolyte paste
c) us a a pure carbon positive rod
 Page 47 – Mod 3
377. What is the voltage at A?

# a) 26V
b) 28V
c) 2V

378. The unit for power is equal to

a) N/m
# b) Joules per second
c) Volts/Amps

379. The source voltage in the circuit below is

a) 50V
# b) 200V
c) 150V

380. The 5th colored band on a resistor represents the

a) tolerance
b) multiplier
# c) reliability or temperature coefficient

381. Three 12 microfarad capacitors in parallel. The overall circuit

capacitance is
a) 4 microfarads
 b) 1 microfarads
# c) 36 microfarads

Page 48 – Mod 3
382. Flux density will
a) increase linearly with coercive force
# b) increase linearly with magnetic flux
c) decrease linearly with magnetic flux

383. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 24V output. What is the input
a) 120 V DC
b) 4.8 V AC
# c) 120 V AC

384. The mark-to-space ratio of the following waveform is

a) A to B
B to C
# b) A to D
D to E
c) D to E
D to C

385. A generator supplies 25 A, 4 V and 50 W. What is the apparent power

and the power factor?
a) 100 VA and 2
b) 400 VA and 0.5
# c) 100 VA and 0.5

386. In a power circuit, the purpose of an inductor is

# a) to dampen power surges
b) to dampen current surges
c) to dampen voltage surges

387. When a number of ferrite pieces are grouped together, they

a) are semi-permanent magnets when DC is passed through them
# b) can be used to store binary code
 c) electromagnets

388. Ampere turns is calculated by the number of turns

# a) multiplied by current
b) divided by current
c) multiplied by magnetic flux

Page 49 – Mod 3
389. A conventional aircraft generator will be
a) series wound
b) delta wound
# c) star wound

390. Storage of magnets should be

a) in pairs end to end
b) in a non magnetic pox
# c) in pairs with keeper plates

391. A circuit has 1 megohm and 8 microfarads. What is the time constant?
a) 1 second
# b) 8 seconds
c) 40 seconds

392. Current in an inductive circuit will

a) lead voltage
# b) lag voltage
c) be at unity

393. Power factor of a generator is

a) sin ø
# b) cos ø
c) tan ø

394. In a an AC motor, the rotation of the MNA

a) is the same as the rotation of the armature
# b) is opposite to the rotation of the armature
c) is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature

395. in a wave wound generator with 4 poles, what would be the minimum
number of brushes?
a) 4
# b) 2
c) 8

396. A capacitor rating is

# a) the maximum continuous voltage it can take
 b) the voltage it will rupture at
c) the voltage it will charge to

397. in conventional flow, the left hand rule applies to

a) generators
# b) motors
c) batteries

Page 50 – Mod 3
398. Copper losses in a transformer are caused by
a) circulating currents through the transformer
# b) the resistance in the windings
c) wasting of the copper wires due to friction

399. in AC generators, 0.637 is

a) RMS
# b) average value
c) form factor

400. In a 3 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
a) 180o
# b) 120o
c) 0o
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401. In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
# a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o

402. Delta wound line current is

a) equal to phase current
# b) root 3 x phase current
c) less than the phase current

403. The multiplier color coding on a capacitor is in

a) farads
b) microfarads
# c) picofarads

404. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is

a) 0.707
 b) 1.414
# c) 1.1

405. In a simple voltaic cell the collection of ions on the cathode causes
a) hydration
b) sulphation
# c) polarisation

406. The electrolyte in a nicad battery would rise if the battery was
a) discharging
# b) charging
c) remaining at constant voltage

Page 51 – Mod 3
407. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced.
This is
a) Lenz's Law
# b) Faraday's Law
c) Kerchoof's Law

408. Two 2 volt 10AH cells are connected in series, the output voltage and
the capacity would be
a) 2 volt, 20 AH
# b) 4 volt 10 AH
c) 4 volt 20 AH

409. The electrolyte in a nicad battery is

a) cadmium hydroxide
b) nickel hydroxide
# c) potassium hydroxide

410. Referring to the drawing below, if the volts dropped across the 20 ohm
resistor is 10 volts, the resistance of R1 is
# a) 20 ohms
b) 16 ohms
c) 2 ohms

411. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of

# a) protons
b) electrons
c) neutrons

412. In a Leclanche cell the plates are made of

a) mercury and lithium
b) nickel and cadmium
# c) zinc and carbon

Page 52 – Mod 3
413. in a simple voltaic cell, polarization reduces output voltage because of
the
a) transfer of material between the anode and the cathode
# b) build up of hydrogen on the anode
c) build up of hydrogen on the cathode

414. When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG

a) goes up
# b) goes down
c) remains the same

41 5. A 47 kilohm resistor has the following color code

# a) Yellow, Violet, Orange
b) Orange, Violet, Red
c) Red, Orange, Yellow

416. If the temperature of a pure metal is reduced to absolute zero, its

resistance will be
a) infinity
# b) practically zero
c) unaffected

417. The bridge circuit shown will be balanced when the value of the
unknown resistor R is
 a) 18 ohms
b) 14 ohms
# c) 2 ohms

Page 53 – Mod 3
418. The current in the circuit below is

a) 5 A
b) 0.2 A
# c) 5 mA

419. In the previous question, the power developed across the 10 k ohm
resistor is
# a) 250 mW
b) 250 W
c) 50 mW

420. What is represented by this diagram?

# a) Potentiometer
b) Rheostat
c) Thermister

421. In the following circuit, the input at P is 4 amps and at Q is 5 amps.

What is the voltage across the 6 ohm resistor?

# a) 54V
b) 1.5V
c) 6V

Page 54 – Mod 3
422. The unknown current in the network below is

a) 22A
# b) 3A
c) 47A

423. The Watt can be expressed as

# a) Joules per second
b) Joules x seconds
c) Seconds per Joule
424. A single phase circuit has an input voltage of 100V. The current is 10A
and the circuit has a power factor of 0.5. The true power is
a) 1000W
b) 50W
# c) 500W

425. Power in a DC circuit is found by

a) multiplying current by resistance
b) multiplying the voltage by itself and dividing by the current
# c) multiplying the resistance by the current squared

426. The total capacitance of the circuit shown is

# a) 4µF
b) 36µF
c) 3µF

427. When a capacitor is charged from a DC supply, the voltage / time

curve is
a) logarithmic
# b) exponential
c) linear
Page 55 – Mod 3
428. An electrolytic capacitor is used because it has a
a) large physical size for a large capacity
# b) small physical size for a large capacity
c) small physical size for low leakage current

429. An electrolytic capacitor would be used in circuits supplying

a) heavy loads
b) light loads
# c) heavy / light loads
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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430. The symbol for flux density is

a) H
# b) B
c) MMF
431. The hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is on a graph with
a) total flux against flux density
b) current against flux density
# c) flux density against magnetising force

432. To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a conductor

you would use
# a) the corkscrew rule
b) Fleming's left hand rule
c) Fleming's right hand rule

433. A material with a narrow hysteresis loop

a) will have high retentivity
# b) will have low retentivity
c) cannot be magnetised

434. If a bar magnet is cut in half

a) the magnet is destroyed
# b) two bar magnets are formed
c) one bar magnet and one non-magnet is formed

435. The diagram shows a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

The conductor will move

a) upwards
# b) downwards
c) sideways

Page 56 – Mod 3
436. The electromagnetic force between two charged bodies is
a) proportional to the distance between them
b) inversely proportional to the distance between them
# c) inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them

437. Copper is a
a) paramagnetic materials
b) ferromagnetic material
# c) diamagnetic material

438. Switching on or off the current in one coil produces an emf in another
coil adjacent to it. The two coils are said to have
a) self inductance
# b) mutual inductance
c) auto inductance

439. the time constant in an inductive circuit is the time required for the
current to reach
# a) 63.2% of maximum value
b) 63.7% of maximum value
c) 70.7% of maximum value

440. Self induced emf in a coil supplied with a current varying at a uniform
rate can be found by
a) - N dI
dt
b) - L dØ
dt
# c) - L dI
dt

441. The MMF of a coil fed with 2 amps and having 10 turns is
a) 5 ampere turns
# b) 20 ampere turns
c) 20 amperes / turn

442. An AC inductive circuit has an inductance 0f 10 mH and a frequency

input of 1000Hz. The opposition to current flow is approximately
a) 63,000 ohms
b) 630 ohms
# c) 63 ohms

443. A sine wave of RMS value 7.07 volts has a peak to peak value of
# a) 10.0 volts
b) 0.707 volts
c) 20.0 volts

Page 57 – Mod 3
444. The true power in an AC circuit is given by
a) voltmeter reading x PF
b) volts x amps
# c) volts x amps x PF

445. The average value of 100 volts peak AC is

a) 70.7 volts
b) 141.4 volts
# c) 63.7 volts
446. The RMS value of 200 volts peak to peak is
# a) 141.4 volts
b) 70.7 volts
c) 127.4 volts

447. The impedance of a series tuned circuit at resonance is

a) zero
b) maximum
# c) minimum

448. The copper loss on a single phase transformer is 25 Watts on full load.
What will it be on half load?
a) 5 Watts
b) 12.5 Watts
# c) 6.25 Watts

449. Rotating coil B through 90o will

a) increase the EMF induced into B

# b) decrease the EMF induced into B
c) increase the EMF induced into A

450. A transformer is designed to operate at 60 Hz. It is connected across a

50 Hz supply. The primary windings would
# a) draw more current
b) draw less current
c) draw the same current

451. A current transformer, when disconnected from a circuit must be

a) left open circuit
# b) short circuited
c) have a resistor connected across the terminals

Page 58 – Mod 3
452. What is the reflected impedance in the primary?
 a) 20 ohms
# b) 500 ohms
c) 50 ohms

453. A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz

a) may be used at any other frequency
# b) may only be used at the rated frequency or above
c) may only be used at the rated frequency or below

454. The dots are called, and indicate

a) quadrature dots, points are 90o out of phase

# b) phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment
in time
c) phasing dots, point that have the opposite polarity at the same
moment in time

455. The power factor of an AC circuit is the

a) sine of the phase angle
# b) cosine of the phase angle
c) tangent of the phase angle

456. The Form Factor of an AC waveform can be found by

# a) RMS value divided by the average value
b) average value divided by the RMS value
c) average value times the RMS value

457. A differentiator has a time constant which is

a) long
# b) short
c) equal to the input pulse
 Page 59 – Mod 3
458. If the frequency is increased in an AC circuit of pure resistance, the
effect is
a) increased resistance
b) decreased resistance
# c) nothing

459. A wire is rotated through a magnetic field. To give DC it must be

connected to
# a) a commutator
b) slip rings
c) a rectifier

460. In an inductive resistive circuit, 1 amp flows from a supply of 100V

dissipating 50 Watts of power. The phase angle is
# a) 60o
b) 90o
c) 45o
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461. A transformer is built with a material having a

# a) narrow hysteresis loop
b) wide hysteresis loop
c) high coercive force

462. An alternator delivers 500V RMS at 1 ampere. The power factor is 0.8.
The true power is
a) 100VA
# b) 400W
c) 500W

463. in a circuit which possesses mutual inductance, current is increased

to the primary
# a) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit which opposes the increase in flux due to the increase of
current in the primary
b) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit which assists the increase in flux due to the increase of
current in the primary
c) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit whose flux has no effect on the flux in the primary

464. A component that produces an output voltage due to incident light is

called a
a) liquid crystal
b) light emitting diode
# c) solar cell

Page 60 – Mod 3
465. If the supply to a DC shunt motor was reversed
a) it would rotate in the opposite direction
b) it would fail to run
# c) it would rotate in the same direction

466. Slip on a synchronous motor on start is

a) 0%
b) 50%
# c) 100%

467. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to

a) increase efficiency
# b) create a rotating field
c) reduce interference

468. A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current
reduces. This is due to
a) the resistance of the field and the armature in series
# b) the back EMF
c) the resistance of the field and armature in parallel

469. on a brushless AC generator, the main rotating field is fed with

a) AC
# b) DC via diodes on the rotor
c) AC from the rotating field exciter

470. Single phase components in a three phase system may be connected

between
a) phase A and B only
b) phase and neutral only
# c) any phase and neutral OR between any two phases

471. Interpoles in a DC generator are connected

a) in parallel with the armature
# b) in series with the armature
c) in series with the field
472. in a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction may be reduced by
moving the brush gear
a) from MNA to GNA
# b) in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA
c) against the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA

473. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a DC generator are

a) interpoles
b) commutating coils
# c) compensating windings

Page 61 – Mod 3
474. A 6 pole wave-wound generator has
# a) 2 brushes
b) 6 brushes
c) 3 brushes

475. In a 2 phase induction motor the control winding is fed with

a) variable phase AC supply
b) fixed AC supply
# c) variable amplitude supply only

476. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by

a) isolating one phase
b) reversing the rotor connections
# c) changing over any two phases

477. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the

a) field current
# b) pairs of poles
c) armature current

478. A generator rated at 30 KVA and power factor 0.8 has a maximum
continuous power output of
a) 30 kW
# b) 24 kW
c) 37.5 kW

479. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency
is called
a) a universal motor
b) an induction motor
# c) a synchronous motor

480. In the circuit shown, impedance will be

 a) 9 ohms
# b) 5 ohms
c) 7 ohms

Page 62 – Mod 3
481. In the circuit shown, if the frequency is increased from zero to
resonant frequency, the circuit current would

# a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same

482. The true power developed in this circuit is

# a) 12W
b) 50W
c) 20W

483. The filter shown is a

 a) band stop filter
# b) low pass filter
c) high pass filter

484. An example of a paramagnetic material is

# a) iron
b) silver
c) glass

Page 63 – Mod 3
485. in a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there
is
# a) no current flow
b) no voltage present at either end
c) current and voltage at maximum

486. A 24V battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm. When connected to

a load, 12 amps flows. The value of the load is
a) 12 ohms
# b) 1 ohm
c) 1/2 ohm

487. The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called

# a) permeability
b) reluctance
c) retentivity

488. Armature reaction in a DC generator causes

# a) MNA to move in the direction of rotation
b) MNA to move in the opposite direction of rotation
c) GNA to move in the direction of rotation

489. in a DC motor, B-EMF rises if the motor

# a) speed rises
b) speed falls
c) load rises

490. Vibration in a magnet causes

a) flux to increase
# b) flux to decrease
 c) flux to stay the same

491. A high pass filter has

# a) high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency
b) high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency
c) high impedance to both high and low frequency

492. What sort of wave would be used in a CR oscillascope to control

sweep?
# a) Sawtooth
b) Square
c) Sine wave

Page 64 – Mod 3
493. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage
with respect to the current would
# a) lead
b) lag
c) be in phase

494. on a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output

is
a) DC
# b) AC
c) pulsed

495. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
# a) the rotor
b) the stator
c) either the rotor or the stator

496. A frequency wild AC generator system has

a) variable voltage and frequency
# b) variable frequency only
c) variable voltage only

497. in a series LCR circuit at resonance, R = 100 ohms, L and C are each
10 ohms. The total impedance is
# a) 100 ohms
b) 30 ohms
c) zero ohms

498. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400Hz it

must achieve a speed of
a) 6000 RPM
b) 8000 RPM
# c) 12000 RPM

499. If an AC sinewave has an RMS value of 5V its peak value is

a) 14.14 V
b) 6.37 V
# c) 7.07 V

500. The Daniel Cell electrodes are

# a) copper and zinc
b) carbon and zinc
c) zinc and manganese dioxide

Page 65 – Mod 3
501. An inductor of resistance 5 k ohms and inductance 2mH is connected
to a DC circuit. The time constant is
# a) 400 ns
b) 10 seconds
c) 40 ms

502. The unit of flux is the

# a) Weber
b) Ampere turns
c) Ampere turns / metre
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503. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the
conductor in the field is 2 m and the speed of the conductor is 10 m/s. The
EMF induced is
a) 0.3 V
# b) 30 V
c) 7.5 V

504. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number
of brushes required are
# a) 6
b) 2
c) 3
505. Reactive sparking is reduced by
# a) interpoles
b) compensating windings
c) auxiliary windings

506. The back EMF in a DC motor is

a) equal to the applied EMF
# b) less than the applied EMF
c) greater than the applied EMF

507. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the
conductor in the field is 2 m and the current flowing through the conductor
is 5 amps. The force on the conductor is
# a) 15 Newtons
b) 0.6 Newtons
c) 3.75 Newtons

508. A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the
armature of 2 ohms resistance is 1 amp. The BEMF is
a) 30 V
b) 27 V
# c) 26 V

Page 66 – Mod 3
509. in a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move
a) in the direction of rotation
# b) against the direction of rotation
c) to the GNA

510. A circuit with good selectivity will have

a) a large bandwidth
# b) a narrow bandwidth
c) a low L/C ratio

511. Apparent power in an AC circuit is found by

# a) V x I
b) V x I x cosØ
c) V x I x sinØ

512. A 300 ohm resistor would have a colour code of

a) orange, orange, brown
b) orange, brown, black
# c) orange, black brown
513. in a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is
a) 100%
b) 5%
# c) 0%

514. In a two-phase induction motor there are

a) 2 poles
b) 3 poles
# c) 4 poles

515. The diagram shown is a

a) short shunt compound wound machine

# b) long shunt compound wound machine
c) shunt wound machine

Page 67 – Mod 3
516. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the
secondary. When connected to a 100 V supply, the output is
a) 500 V
# b) 20 V
c) 25 V

517. in the previous question, the secondary is connected to a 10 ohm load.

The primary current is
a) 10 amps
# b) 0.4 amps
c) 2 amps

518. Magneto motive force can be found by

a) N/I
# b) I x N
c) Blv

519. Permeability of a material can be found by

# a) flux density / MMF
 b) MMF x flux density
c) MMF / flux density

520. A filter with a small bandwidth has

# a) a high value of Q
b) a low value of Q
c) a Q of zero

521. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What
value of load resistance would be required to give a reflected impedance of
1000 ohms
a) 1 kohm
b) 4 kohm
# c) 16 kohm

522. An autotransformer windings are

a) on separate formers
# b) connected
c) wired in parallel

523. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?
a) Combined line voltages
# b) Zero voltage
c) Phase voltage

524. in a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used

a) in series with the field to prevent oscillations
# b) to prevent voltage overshoot
c) to control output current

Page 68 – Mod 3
525. When magnetizing a piece of material, magnetic strength will rise
a) linearly with coercive force
b) linearly with magnetic force
# c) non-linearly with magnetic force

526. The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator

a) is wound in series with the field
b) is usually delta wound
# c) is usually star wound

527. In a resistive/inductive motor

# a) the resistor circuit must be disconnected after starting
b) is less efficient than a capacitor start motor
c) can only be used for light loads
528. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced.
This is
a) Lenz's Law
# b) Faraday's Law
c) Kirchoff's Law

529. A 47K resistor has the following color code

# a) Yellow, Violet, Orange
b) Orange, Violet, Red
c) Red, Orange, Yellow

530. A material with a narrow hysterisis loop

a) has a high retentivity
# b) has a low retentivity
c) cannot be magnetised

531. The power output of a similar sized 3 phase compared to a single

phase generator is
a) less
b) same
# c) more

532. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?

a) brushes
# b) stator
c) rotor

533. in a high Q parallel resonant circuit, what happens to impedance if

capacitance is increased by a factor of 4?
# a) It reduces by 75%
b) It remains the same
c) It increases by factor of 4

Page 69 – Mod 3
534. In a thermocouple where is voltage measured?
a) At the hot junction
# b) At the cold junction
c) At both junctions

535. Mercury cells are covered with a metal cover

a) as a protective cover
# b) as a positive terminal
c) as a negative terminal

536. When switching off the supply, the back emf in a collapsing field in an
inductor
a) never exceeds forward emf
# b) can be multiple times bigger than forward emf
c) is equal to forward emf

537. If the energy supplied to a circuit for 4hrs 15 mins at 800 j/sec what
would be the energy consumed?
# a) 3.4 KW Hrs
b) 3400 KW Hrs
c) 340 KW Hrs

538. A parallel circuit at resonance has its impedance at a

# a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero

539. A parallel circuit with any number of 2 terminal connections

a) has the same current throughout
# b) the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf
c) the resistance is dependent on current

540. In this circuit, Rx is equal to

# a) R3 x R2 ÷ R4
b) R3 x R4 ÷ R2
c) R2 x R4 ÷ R3

Page 70 – Mod 3
541. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turn's ratio will have
what primary supply?
a) 120 VDC
b) 48 VAC
# c) 4.8 V

542. A material exposed to heat will

# a) be harder to magnetise
 b) be easier to magnetise
c) have no effect on magnetism

543. A 20 Pico farad capacitor with a 1MW resistor takes how long to
charge?
# a) 20 microseconds
b) 0.1 second
c) 10 seconds

544. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the
secondary. What would be the line voltage if the transformer were
Delta/Star connected?
a) 200V
# b) 346V
c) 450V
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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545. The main advantage of a starter-generator over conventional units is

a) for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter
drive remains engaged
# b) for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive
is constantly engaged
c) it can produce a greater power output

546. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependant on

a) the strength of the field
# b) the number of pairs of poles
c) the strength of the armature current

547. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor.
The resistor would be
# a) in series with the supply
b) in series with the field
c) in series with the armature

548. The time to fully charge a 1 micro farad capacitor in series with a 100K
ohm resistor is
# a) 100 ms
b) 10 ms
c)1 ms
Page 71 – Mod 3
549. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds, what is its
frequency?
a) 200 Hz
# b) 2Khz
c) 20Khz

550. In a voltage equalizing circuit the generators are regulated so

a) the lower output is increased to that of the higher
b) the higher output is decreased to that of the lower
# c) the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are
equal

551. The capacity of a battery is measured in

a) volts
b) cubic centimeters
# c) ampere-hours

552. Phase angle is

# a) the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages
or currents or a voltage and a current
b) the difference in degrees between the positive and negative parts of
an ac sine wave
c) the cosine of the peak value of an ac voltage

553. A battery's internal resistance is determined by

# a) IR = OCV – CCV
i
b) IR = OCV + CCV
i
c) IR = OCV - CCV
V

554. The impedance of an ac circuit is measured in

a) kilovolt-amperes
b) amperes
# c) ohms

555. The formula for impedance in a series circuit is

# a)

b)

c)
 Page 72 – Mod 3
556. Motor slip is
# a) the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor
fields
b) a shifting of the MNA of the motor
c) a symptom of a weak field

557. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is

# a) it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current
b) it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate
c) it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current

558. There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery
because
# a) the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is
taking place only on one side
b) it reduces the internal resistance of the cell
c) it is necessary for chemical action to take place

559. Commutator ripple can be reduced by

# a) the use of a ripple filter
b) increasing generator frequency
c) a resistor in series with the armature

560. In this circuit applied voltage is

# a) Vt = IXC
b) Vt = IXL
c) Vt = I/R

561. What is the internal resistance of a Leclanche cell?

a) 6 ohms - 10 ohms
# b) 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms
c) 20 ohms - 30 ohms

562. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the

# a) field
 b) rotor assembly
c) stator assembly
Page 73 – Mod 3
563. The line voltage in a wye wound transformer is
a) root 3 / phase voltage
b) the same as phase voltage
# c) root 3 x phase voltage

564. The valence electron is

# a) the electron in outer shell of atom
b) the electron in inner shell of atom
c) a positive electron

565. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes

a) internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the
decreasing charging current
# b)battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge
current decreases
c) battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged

566. What happens to the current in a series resistive resonant circuit?

# a) It is maximum
b) It is minimum
c) It is zero

567. An atom with a deficiency in electrons has

a) high resistance
# b) low resistance
c) high impendence

568. What effect does hydrogen have in a battery cell?

# a) Polarization
b) Sulphation
c) Nothing

569. Eddy current losses in a transformer are

a) current used in magnetising the core
# b) current flow induced into the core
c) hysteresis losses

570. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives

a) 90° phase shift
b) no phase shift
# c) 30° phase shift

571. In a parallel circuit containing resistors

# a) the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit
b) the sum of the voltage drops equals applied voltage
c) resistance is determined by value of current flow

Page 74 – Mod 3
572. An induced current in a coil
# a) opposes the EMF producing it
b) aids the EMF producing it
c) does not affect the EMF producing it

573. Armature reaction is

a) reactive sparking
b) due to dirty or worn commutator
# c) the MMF opposing rotation

574. in a 4:1 step up transformer, what would give a reflected impedance of

1K ohm
a) 1 k ohm
b) 4k ohm
# c) 16k ohm

575. Lines of magnetic flux pass from

# a) N to S
b) E to W
c) S to N

576. A shunt motor

a) gives constant torque with variations in speed
# b) is constant speed
c) has high starting torque

577. The direction of current in a wire rotating in a magnetic field can be

determined by
# a) Fleming's right hand rule
b) Fleming's left hand rule
c) cork screw rule

578. The diagram shows a 200V long shunt generator. What is the voltage
across the series resistor?
 a) 30V
# b) 6V
c) 10V

Page 75 – Mod 3
579. in a parallel LCR circuit, if the capacitance is increased by 4 times,
what happens to the impendence?
a) increases by 4 times
# b) decreases by 75%
c) remains the same

580. in a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens

to the back EMF?
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) remains the same

581. Why is ferrite used in memory circuits?

# a) High remanence
b) Low permeability
c) High reluctance

582. What semi-conductor material is used in memory circuits?

# a) Ferrite
b) Permeomag
c) Iron

583. The discharge curve of a capacitor is

a) Linear
b) Logarithmic
# c) Exponential

584. to generate electricity with a fuel cell, you need a constant supply of
# a) Oxygen & Hydrogen
b) Kerosene & Heat
c) Nitrogen & Sunlight
585. Five different value resistors all have the same voltage dropped
across them, how are the resistors connected?
a) In Series
# b) In Parallel
c) In Series/Parallel

Page 76 – Mod 3
586.

The input is 115V and is applied across the 300 turn portion. What is the
output?
# a) 460V
b) 115V
c) 28V

587. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to
120VAC, if the secondary is connected to a load with 1600 ohms resistance
what is the current in the primary
a) 1 amp
b) 0.3 amps
# c) 1.2 amps
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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588. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by
a) the use of primary shielding
# b) winding the primary on top of the secondary
c) laminating the core

589. A ni-cad battery found to be below normal capacity should

a) be removed and used for ground use only
# b) be re-charged with a freshening charge
c) have its electrolyte adjusted

590. In cold weather a battery must be kept

# a) fully charged
b) fully discharged
c) does not matter

591. A simple basic induction motor has

# a) poor starting torque, good running torque
b) good starting torque, poor running torque
c) poor starting torque, poor running torque

Page 77 – Mod 3
592. If the frequency to a capacitor increases, the current through it
# a) is zero
b) increases
c) decreases

593. In a 3-phase delta wound circuit, line current is

a) same as the phase current
b) in phase with the phase current
# c) the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents

594. Conductance of a circuit is 2 milliMhos. What is its resistance?

a) 5 MegaOhms
# b) 500 Ohms
c) 5000 Ohms

595. To increase the voltage output of a generator you can

# a) increase speed
b) decrease speed
c) It is not speed dependant

596. How would you find the direction of the current flow in an armature
located in a magnetic field?
 a) Maxwells corkscrew rule
# b) Flemings right hand rule
c) Fleming's left hand rule

597. If in a electrical circuit there is a difference between the capacitive

reactance and the inductive reactance, what would the power factor of the
circuit be?
a) Unity
# b) Less than unity
c) More than unity

598. What is the SI unit of conductance?

# a) Sieman
b) Ohm
c) Ohm-metre

599. What is the SI unit of resistivity?

# a) Ohm metre
b) Ohms/metre
c) Ohms

600. Generator voltage is

# a) dependant on speed of rotation
b) independent of speed of rotation
c) not dependant on speed of rotation

Page 78 – Mod 3
601. If a negatively charged conductor is placed next to an insulated rod
a) the rod has no charge
b) the rod becomes negatively charged
# c) the rod becomes positively charged

602. What is the formula for conductance?

# a) 1/R
b) 1 - R
c) R + 1

603. What happens if you reverse the supply to the field and armature of a
DC shunt motor?
a) Reverses direction of rotation
# b) Continues to rotate in same direction
c) Fails to start

604. The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is

# a) same
 b) increased
c) decreased

605. What is the rating of a monolithic capacitor with 103 on it

# a) 10000pf
b) 100000pf
c) 1000pf

606. What is the formula for working out the capacitance of a capacitor if K
= dielectric constant, A = area of the plates, d = distance plates apart?
# a) c = KA/d
b) c = Kd/A
c) c = d/KA

607. 115V RMS 2.5A at 60 degrees what is the power disipated?

a) 79 W
# b) 143 W
c) 300 VA

608. If cobalt has a permeability of 4800 it is a

# a) ferromagnetic
b) paramagnetic
c) diamagnetic

609. The output from a generator to a commutator is

# a) AC
b) DC
c) pulsed DC

Page 79 – Mod 3
610. When light hits a photodiode resistance
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) stays the same

611. What type of wave is it when the vertical and horizontal distances are
equal?
# a) Square
b) Rectangular
c) Sawtooth

612. Cobalt has permeability

# a) greater than unity
b) same as unity
 c) less than unity

613. In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is

a) in series with the field
# b) star wound
c) delta wound

614. to supply a 24 volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio,
the input required is
# a) 120V
b) 4.8V
c) 24V

615. in a resonant parallel circuit, current is

a) max
# b) min
c) zero

616. Total capacitance of 3 capacitors each 12mF in a parallel circuit

# a) 36mF
b) 12mF
c) 6mf

617. Band stop filter

# a) attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band
b) stops frequencies in a narrow band
c) pass all frequencies in that band

618. A combination of 1 megohm and 8 microfarad would give a time

constant of
a) 40 seconds
# b) 8 seconds
c) 400 ms

Page 80 – Mod 3
619. Power factor is
a) sin theta
# b) cos theta
c) tan theta

620. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?

# a) Will not supply output at low rpm
b) Heavier than like for like
c) Can only be used on piston engines
621. What is the voltage across a fully charged capacitor?
# a) Same as circuit voltage
b) Less than circuit voltage
c) More than circuit voltage

622. When would you use an electrolytic capacitor?

a) On a balanced circuit
# b) Large output compared to size required
c) Low output compared to size required

623. If the phase voltage of a star wound generator is 115V, what would be
the line-to-line voltage?
# a) 200V
b) 180V
c) 220V

624. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is

# a) at operating speed
b) just starting to rotate
c) under heavy load

625. What are the factors affecting the frequency of an ac generator?

a) Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm
# b) Number of pole pairs and rpm
c) Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs

626. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously

rated" motor
a) Flap drive actuator
# b) Fuel pump motor
c) Cargo door actuator

627. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?
# a) Air core
b) Laminated core
c) Steel Core

Page 81 – Mod 3
628. Spontaneous magnetisation occurs in a
a) permomagnet
# b) ferromagnet
c) diamagnet

629. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort

would be used?
 a) Air core
# b) Laminated core
c) Solid core

630. A conductor is placed in a magnetized coil. What will happen?

a) A force will be created
# b) Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved
c) The conductor will move

631. An atom with less than 4 electrons in its outer shell has
# a) low electrical resistance
b) high electrical resistance
c) no electrical resistance

632. in a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the
load on the secondary is 1600 Ohms. What is the current in the primary?
a) 0.075A
# b) 1.2A
c) 3A

633. Two 12V, 40Ah cells in series gives

# a) 24V 40Ah
b) 24V 80Ah
c) 12V 40Ah

634. A 2 Megohm resistor can be written

a) M20F
# b) 2M0F
c) 20MF

635. If a resistor is too small or misshapen to fit the colour code bands,
how else is it's value indicated?
a) Dots
# b) Letter code
c) Number code

636. Elements such as phosphorus with 5 electrons in their outer shell,

when combined with pure silicon, is a
# a) donor
b) acceptor
c) isotopic
Page 82 – Mod 3
637. This is a diagram of a
# a) Light Dependant Resistor
b) Logarithmic Differential Resistor
c) Laser Diode Rectifier

638. A centrifugal speed switch is used

# a) to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor
b) to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor
c) to cut in the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor

639. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the
motor to
a) stop
b) run a 2/3 speed
# c) run at the same speed

640. To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current

a) use the formula R = V x I
# b) find the lost volts of the circuit
c) find the EMF of the circuit

641. A capacitor has Brown Black Orange bands. It's value is

a) 10 picofarads
# b) 10 nanofarads
c) 100 picofarads

642. Hydrogen atom consist of

a) Proton, Neutron and Electron
# b) Proton and Electron only
c) Neutron and proton only

643. A generator with more than two phases is known as

# a) polyphase
b) delta phase
c) multiphase

644. Magnetic lines are flowing parallel they will

# a) repel each other
b) attract each other
c) have no effect on each other
 Page 83 – Mod 3
645. Magnetic flux
a) is more concentrated at the centre of bar magnet
b) occupies the space around the magnet with equal flux density
# c) exist in all space around the magnet

646. In electrical circuit, direct current power in represented by

a) Ampere
# b) Watt
c) Joules

647. in S.I. units, work is denoted by

# a) Newton-meter which is Joules
b) Kilogram-force-meter/sec which is Metric Horsepower
c) Joules/sec which is Watts

648. When a conductor carrying a current and placed in a magnetic field it

experiences
a) an electrostatic force
# b) an electromagnetic force
c) a magnetic force

649. Peak factor in AC circuit.

# a) 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage
b) 1.11 times max. value of applied voltage
c) 0.707 time max. value of applied voltage

650. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is most

strongly felt at
a) poles
# b) equator
c) 45 degrees latitude

651. This is a diagram of a

# a) Variable Voltage source

b) Variable Resistor
c) Variable Current source
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
Support, please visit [Link]

Page 84 – Mod 3
652. Find voltage at point "B"

# a) 10V
b) 7V
c) 26V

653. Voltage measured between the plates of a capacitor will be

# a) same as applied voltage
b) less than applied voltage
c) can dangerously higher than applied voltage

654. In a Series LC circuit if the value of the capacitance is increased then

the power factor will be
a) greater than 1
b) equal to 1
# c) less than 1

655. A heater which consumes 800 Kilojoules/sec is on for 4hrs 15min. The
power consumed is
# a) 3400 kWh
b) 3.4 kWh
c) 340 kWh

656. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What
is the power supplied?
a) 100W
b) 10VA
# c) 10W

657. A 24V 40AH battery discharges at 200mA. How long will it last?
# a) 200 hours
b) 300 hours
c) 400 hours

[Link] a Wheatstone bridge at balance the galvanometer reads zero

a) volts
# b) amps
c) ohms

Page 85 – Mod 3
659.1 Volt is produced when a current of 1 Amp per second is varied in a
coil - this is a definition of
# a) 1 Henry
b) 1 Coulomb per second
c) 1 Ampere per meter

660. A generator supplies 150VAC phase and load is 10 Ohms per phase -
what is the phase current?
# a) 15 A
b) 1.5 A
c) 25.5 A

661. Band pass filter in a circuit

a) allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass
b) allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass
# c) only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass

662. Eddy current losses is due to

a) resistant of the copper conductors used in windings
# b) I flowing in transformer core caused by induced V
c) magnetic flux produced by primary winding not linking with
secondary winding

663. The ability of a circuit to produce a magnetic flux under the influence
of a MMF
# a) permeability
b) permeance
c) permanence

664. Two inductor coils in very close proximity; if one of the coils is rotated
90 degrees slowly away from the other the mutual inductance
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) remains the same
665. Magnetic flux saturation takes place when
# a) the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux
b) the magnetic field starts to reduce with increased magnetising force
c) the magnetic field drops to zero

666. Dielectric constant of a capacitor is

# a) electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric
b) max I stored in the capacitor
c) max V that can be applied to a capacitor

Page 86 – Mod 3
667. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is
a) compound
# b) series
c) parallel (shunt wound)

668. The phases on a three phase a.c generator are spaced at

a) 90 degrees
b) 180 degrees
# c) 120 degrees

669. The controlling wave in a CRT is

a) sinusoidal
b) square
# c) sawtooth

670. if the speed of a coil in a magnetic field is doubled and the field
strength is doubled the output will
a) half
b) stay the same
# c) quadruple

671. A wave form having equal amplitude and time base is a

# a) square waveform
b) sawtooth
c) rectangular

672. An inductor is said to be saturated when

a) the current is at a maximum
# b) it will no longer accept lines of flux
c) the current through it is zero

673. The controlling phase on a two phase generator is of a

# a) fixed amplitude
b) variable amplitude
c) direct current

674. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine
# a) 2
b) 6
c) 8

675. A high pass filter consists of a

a) capacitor and inductor in series
# b) capacitor and inductor in parallel
c) an inductor and a capacitor in parallel

Page 87 – Mod 3
676. For an atom to become a negative ion it must
# a) gain at least one electron
b) lose at least one electron
c) have undergone ionisation by the sun

677. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell M of an atom?

a) 6
b) 16
# c) 18

678. A neutral atom with an atomic no. of 3 has how many electrons?
a) 1
# b) 3
C) Dependant on type of atom

679. The nucleus of an atom is

# a) +ve charged
b) neutral
c) -ve charged

680. Electron orbits are called

# a) shells
b) waves
c) valences

681. The unit of energy is the

a) Watt
# b) Joule
 c) Coulomb

682. Potential difference is another term for

a) energy
# b) voltage
c) charge

683. The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery

# a) falls during discharge
b) falls during charge
c) rises during discharge

684. A thermocouple is basically a type of

# a) milliammeter
b) millivoltmeter
c) miliohmeter

685. XL is the symbol of

# a) inductive reactance
b) capacitive reactance
c) impedance
Page 88 – Mod 3
686. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by
a) a separate supply
# b) the armature
c) the load

687. Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automa

# a) field circuit resistance increase
b) field circuit resistance decrease
c) armature circuit resistance increase

688. Which generators are usually used on aircraft?

a) Series
# b) Shunt
c) Compound

689. In a cumulative compound wound generator the

a) the series and shunt fields oppose each other
# b) the series and shunt fields assist each other
c) the voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load

690. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in

# a) series with the armature
b) series with the field
c) parallel with the field
691. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will
a) reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount
# b) reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount
c) increase the terminal voltage by a small amount

692. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below
saturation
# a) increase with an increase in load
b) decrease with an increase in load
c) decrease with a decrease in rotational speed

693. The shunt wound generator is normally started

# a) off load
b) on load
c) Either of the above

694. Two 3 phase generators operating in parallel with different phase and
line voltages will be connected in
# a) star configuration
b) delta configuration
c) Parallel configuration

Page 89 – Mod 3
695. Extra windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense
# a) overvolt
b) phase shift
c) field oscillations

696. Cables are shielded to prevent "H" magnetic interference in wires with
the following material:
# a) Copper braiding
b) Ferromagnetic material
c) Diamagnetic material

697. Using Ohm's law

# a) current is directly proportional to the EMF
b) resistance is directly proportional to EMF
c) current is directly proportional to the resistance

698. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through
the primary, and 0.285 A flowing through the secondary what is the
efficiency?
a) 90%
# b) 95%
c) 85%

699. When light energises a component, what is the component?

# a) Photodiode
b) Lazerdiode
c) Light emitting diode

700. Delta wound alternator currents are

a) the same as line current
b) the same as phase current
# c) the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3

701. Aircraft autotransformers are of what type

# a) Open core
b) Twin core
c) Laminated core

702. In a series circuit with 3 resistors, the current is

a) lower than the smallest
# b) even in all 3
c) the total of all 3 using ohms law to find the current

703. An oxygen atom has

# a) electrons, neutrons and protons
b) protons and electrons only
c) protons and neutrons only

Page 90 – Mod 3
704. What is the voltage dropped across resistor 'A'?

a) 2 V
b) 10 V
# c) 20 V
705. What is the current through resistor C?

a) 9A
# b) 4.5A
c) 18A

706. One volt is induced into a circuit with a current varying at 1 amp per
second. The circuit has
# a) 1 Henry
b) 1 ampere turn
c) 1 Tesla

Page 91 – Mod 3
707. How do you reduce ripple on the output of a DC generator?
a) Increase the speed of the armature and add more turns
# b) Increase the commutator segments and connect each to a separate
parallel winding
c) Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings
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Module Three
1. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20
Volts. The battery is replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage
across the capacitor after one time constant?
a) 12.64 volts
# b) 7.36 volts
c) 0 volts

2. The voltage rating of a capacitor is

# a) the max voltage that can be constantly applied
b) the min voltage required to charge
c) the normal operating voltage

3. The relative permittivity of a capacitor is

# a) the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum
b) the permittivity of dielectric in relation to dry air
c) the permittivity of the dielectric

4. Magnetic inclination is the least at the

a) poles
# b) equator
c) isoclines

5. Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized

a) within a band of temperatures
b) above a certain temperature
# c) below a certain temperature

6. Faradays Law States that

# a) the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of
change of flux
b) the magnitude of the EMF is indirectly proportional to the rate of
change of flux
c) the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux

7. To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would

# a) reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
b) increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core
c) reduce the number of turns on the primary winding

8. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer

is delta / star wound, what will the line voltage output be?
a) 115V
b) 200V
# c) 346V

Page 1 – Mod 3
9. What is the phase difference in a circuit with 100V, drawing 0.5 amps,
consuming 50 Watts?
a) 45°
b) 90°
# c) 0°

10. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?

a) Capacitive elements may be damaged
# b) Inductive elements may be damaged
c) There will be no effect

11. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying
a landing light (load 24v 45 amps) is used, what is the current drawn?
a) 205 amps
# b) 9 amps
c) 4.5 amps

12. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its
turns ratio is
a) 1:6
# b) 6:1
c) 1/6

13. Two inductive coils are placed in close proximity with each other at 90
degrees. The number of flux linkages is
# a) 0
b) maximum positive
c) maximum negative

14. A high pass filter will?

# a) allow frequencies above a certain value to pass
b) allow frequencies below a certain value to pass
c) allow frequencies within a range to pass

15. If you apply this waveform to this circuit, what is the output across the
capacitor?
 a) Zero
b) Pulsed negative
# c) Pulsed positive

Page 2 – Mod 3
16. What value is the same as the equivalent D.C. heating effect?
# a) Root Mean Square
b) Average
c) Peak

17. What is the relationship between the voltage and the current in an A.C
circuit containing resistance & inductance?
a) Current leads voltage by up to 90°
# b) Current lags voltage by up to 90°
c) Current lags voltage by 90°

18. What shape is the waveform when the input pulse and the time base are
unequal?
a) Square
# b) Rectangular
c) Saw tooth

19. A sine wave has 5 amps RMS value. What is the peak value?
a) 6.37 amps
# b) 7.07 amps
c) 10 amps

20. In this circuit

# a) current leads voltage

b) current lags voltage
c) current = voltage
21. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will
a) increase speed and decrease torque
# b) increase speed and increase torque
c) decrease speed and increase torque

22. Power factor relates to

# a) true power and apparent power
b) KW and KVAR
c) horsepower and Watts

Page 3 – Mod 3
23. In a delta-connected generator
# a) line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
b) line volts = phase volts, line current = phase current divided by root 3
c) line voltage = root 3 times phase voltage, line current = phase current

24. If current lags voltage by 90°, the circuit is

a) capacitive
b) resistive
# c) inductive

25. In a 3 phase motor, if 1 phase is lost, the motor

# a) remains at the same speed
b) runs at 1 third speed
c) runs at 2 thirds speed

26. A three-phase motor has the windings

# a) 120° apart
b) 90° apart
c) 180°apart

27. When measuring the phase and line voltages of a generator, it was
found that line and phase voltages were equal. The generator is?
# a) delta wound
b) star wound.
c) either delta or star wound

28. To change the direction of a 3-phase induction motor you would

# a) swap two of the stator connections
b) swap all of the input connections
 c) remove one of the input connections

29. To calculate generator output you need to know the

a) armature speed and number of series conductors
b) armature speed and number of parallel conductors
# c) armature speed and field strength

30. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and armature current,
the motor will
a) stop
b) change direction
# c) continue to run in the same direction

31. The permanent magnet in an A.C generator induces

# a) A.C. in the exitor generator
b) D.C. in the exitor generator
c) A.C. in the main generator

Page 4 – Mod 3
32. What does the following circuit represent?

a) Integrator
b) Low pass filter
# c) Differentiator

33. What charge does the nucleus of an atom possess?

# a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral

34. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell N of an atom?

a) 16
# b) 32
c) 18

35. Two 10V, 20 Ah batteries are connected in parallel and connected

across a 10-ohm load. How long could they supply normal current before
the voltage begins to decay?
a) 20 hours
b) 4 hours
# c) 40 hours
36. A 10 V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is
the power supplied
a) 100 W
b) 10 VA
# c) 10 W

37. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is
the work done?
a) 60J
b) 10J
# c) 600J

38. Three capacitors 10 microfarads, 10 nanofarads and 10 millifarads are

connected in parallel. What is the total capacitance?
# a) 10.01001mF
b) 111mF
c) 1.001001mF

Page 5 – Mod 3
39. If a 1mF capacitor has a potential difference across it of 5V what is the
energy stored?
a) 12.5 J
# b) 12.5 mJ
c) 25 mJ
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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40. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20

V. The battery is replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage
across the capacitor after 1 time constant?
a) 12.64 V
# b) 7.36 V
c) 0 V

41. Glass is an example of a

a) paramagnetic material
# b) diamagnetic material
c) coercive material

42. Which of the following is absolute permeability?

# a) µ
b) µo
 c) µr

43. A solenoid of 10 turns per meter carries a current of 5A. If the current is
reduced to 2.5A, how many turns would be required to maintain the same
magnetic field?
a) 5
b) 50
# c) 20

44. The point of coercivity occurs when the

a) magnetizing force applied causes the material to become
magnetically saturated.
# b) magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being
applied.
c) magnetizing force reaches a peak positive or negative value.

45. What is the mutual inductance if two coils of 10mH and 500mH have
90% of the flux transferred from one to the other?
a) 4.5mH
b) 459mH
# c) 63mH

46. An inductor has 1,000 turns of wire and a cross sectional area of
0.001m2. If the core has a permeability of 0.000,001 and the coil is 0.1m
what is the value of the inductor
# a) 10mH
b) 100microH
c) 100mH
Page 6 – Mod 3
47. Three inductors 10 mH, 5 mH and 20 mH are connected in parallel.
What is the total inductance?
a) 35mH
# b) 2.86mH
c) Without knowing the coupling factor the total inductance cannot be
found

48. If the current reaches a maximum through an inductor of 2A in 15 secs,

what is the current after 3 secs?
# a) 1.26A
b) 0.63A
c) 1A

49. If the phase voltage in a star connected generator is 200V what will be
the line voltage?
a) 115V
b) 200V
# c) 346V

50. A generator is labeled as having 115V/200V, 20A and PF 0.8. What is the
apparent power in each line that the generator can produce?
a) 2.3kW
b) 2.3kVA
# c) 4kVA

51. A starter generator has a

a) low resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field
# b) low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field
c) high resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field

52. Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the
thermocouple so that
a) they will not corrode
# b) mini junctions are not formed
c) the resistance is not increased beyond limits

53. An oxygen molecule is made up of

# a) two oxygen atoms sharing electrons
b) two oxygen atoms sharing neutrons
c) two oxygen atoms sharing protons

54. A capacitor in a single phase AC motor is to

a) prevent spikes
b) block DC
# c) provide a phase shift

Page 7 – Mod 3
55. The slip speed of an induction motor is
# a) stator speed - rotor speed
b) stator speed + rotor speed
c) stator speed
rotor speed

56. The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer

a) is delta wound
b) is star wound
# c) could be either delta or star wound

57. The symbol for flux density is

a) H
# b) B
c) ø

58. A galvanometer measures

a) millivolts
b) megohms
# c) milliamps

59. A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for

# a) 200 hours
b) 5 hours
c) 20 hours

60. The unknown resistance R in the wheatstone bridge shown is

a) 1 ohm
# b) 4 ohms
c) 16 ohms

61. Which of the following materials is easiest to magnetize?

# a) Soft iron
b) High grade steel
c) Cast iron

Page 8 – Mod 3
62. AC generators are rated in
a) kVARs
b) kW
# c) kVA

63. To find which end of an electromagnet is the north pole, use the
a) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
# b) Right Hand Clasp Rule
c) Cork Screw Rule
64. A capacitor with double the area and double the dielectric thickness will
have
a) double the capacitance
b) half the capacitance
# c) the same capacitance

65. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual

inductance will
a) increase
b) decrease
# c) remain the same

66. If the brake coil on an actuator motor goes open circuit, the actuator
will
a) over-ride its mechanical stops
# b) stop
c) run slower

67. The frequency of the output of a 4 pole generator is 400 Hz. The
generator is turning at
# a) 12000 RPM
b) 6000 RPM
c) 3000 RPM

68. What is the wave shape of the x-axis input of a traversing oscilloscope
image?
a) square
b) rectangular
# c) triangular

69. An inductance/resistance motor is

a) better than a capacitance motor
b) restricted to low loads only
# c) less efficient than a capacitance motor

Page 9 – Mod 3
70. The voltage at point A is
# a) 7 V
b) 21 V
c) 28 V

71. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power
will be
# a) 28.5 V at 4 A
b) 28.5 V at 16 A
c) 460 V at 0.25 A

72. The voltage induced in the stator of an AC generator is produced by

a) a fixed magnetic field
# b) a rotating magnetic field
c) an alternating field

73. A low frequency supply

# a) may damage inductive components
b) will have no effect on inductive components
c) will make the circuit operate faster due to the reduced impedance

74. A zinc-carbon battery life depends upon

a) the purity of the carbon rod
# b) the amount of zinc
c) the amount of the electrolyte paste

75. When checking the s.g. of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you
should
# a) check all cells because they may be different
b) check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell
c) check any cell because they will all be the same
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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76. If electrons are added to an atom it becomes

a) a positive ion
# b) a negative ion
c) a neutral ion
 Page 10 – Mod 3
77. An element whose atoms have fewer than 4 electrons in their valency
shell are
# a) good conductors
b) good insulators
c) semiconductors

78. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current vector is

# a) in phase with the voltage vector
b) +90o out of phase with the voltage vector
c) -90o out of phase with the voltage vector

79. The PD at the terminals of an open circuit battery with a small internal
resistance will be
a) more than the EMF
b) less than the EMF
# c) the same as the EMF

80. The diagram shows a 200 V long shunt generator. What is the voltage
dropped across the series resistor?

a) 200 V
# b) 0.12 V
c) 0.2 V

81. An electrolytic capacitor is used where

a) minimum losses are essential
# b) there is a polarized input
c) high frequency AC is used

82. If a connection to an AC motor is disconnected, the motor will

a) slow down and stop
# b) continue to run
c) stop
83. A band stop filter
# a) stops a narrow range of frequencies
b) stops frequencies either side of a narrow range
c) attenuates frequencies either side of a narrow range

Page 11 – Mod 3
84. This is a diagram of a

a) band pass filter

b) high pass filter
# c) low pass filter

85. When comparing the average values of an AC generator output, to the

peak values
a) average voltage = same as the peak voltage
# b) average voltage = 0.63 x peak voltage
c) average voltage = 0.707 x peak voltage

86. A parallel circuit at resonance has

# a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) zero impedance

87. A resistor dissipates 80 Watts. If it runs for 4 hours 15 minutes, how

much energy is dissipated in total?
# a) 1.224 MJ
b) 20.4 kJ
c) 191.25 J

88. The earth lead of a 24 V equipment is 0.5 ohm resistance and carries 80
A. How much power does it dissipate?
# a) 3.2 kW
b) 1.152 kW
c) 1.92 kW

89. What must you do to make a 3 F capacitor circuit into a 2 F circuit?

a) Put a 1 F capacitor in series
b) Put a 2 F capacitor in parallel
# c) Put a 6 F capacitor in series

90. The time required to fully charge a 1 µF capacitor in series with a 100k
ohm resistor is
# a) 100 ms
b) 1 s
c) 100 s

Page 12 – Mod 3
91. A 10 ohm resistor has a 14.14 V peak drop across it. What power is
dissipated?
a) 19.99 W
# b) 10 W
c) 1.414 W

92. This is a symbol for

# a) a voltage dependant resistor

b) a variable differential resistor
c) a visual display rectifier

93. If a generator speed is halved and the field strength is doubled, the
voltage output will be
a) halved
b) doubled
# c) unchanged

94. Point A on the armature of the generator shown is producing

# a) maximum current
b) minimum current
c) zero current

95. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as

a) hydration
# b) polarization
 c) ionization

96. What is the power dissipated in a 500 ohm resistor with a 3A flow?
a) 1.5 kW
# b) 4.5 kW
c) 750 kW

97. Which of the following is 1 Amp?

# a) 1000 mA
b) 1000 μA
c) 1000 kA

Page 13 – Mod 3
98. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability of
# a) greater than unity
b) less than unity
c) zero

99. What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?

# a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Both the anode and the cathode

100. Electricity conducts through

a) solids only
# b) solids and liquids
c) vacuum

101. The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit
is
# a) impedance
b) resistance
c) total resistance
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102. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed

# a) reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature
windings
b) interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power
source
c) rotate the positive brush one commutator segment

103. An example of a good electrical insulator is

# a) glass
b) aluminium
c) mercury

104. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output

from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to
vary the
# a) strength of the magnetic field
b) number of conductors in the armature
c) speed at which the armature rotates

105. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as

a) hydration
# b) polarization
c) ionization

Page 14 – Mod 3
106. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a
nickel-cadmium battery
a) excessive current draw from the battery
# b) high current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its
capacity
c) a high internal resistance condition

107. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of

connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are
generally of which type
a) compound
b) shunt (parallel)
# c) series

108. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor

a) the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease
# b) the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease
c) the speed will increase and the armature current will increase

109. Static charges remaining in an aircraft are dissipated by

# a) the use of a conducting type nose wheel
b) bonding the aircraft to a refuel tanker
c) earthing the aircraft as soon as possible

110. Total resistance in parallel for R1 and R2 is

# a) RT = (R1 x R2) ÷ (R1 + R2)
 b) RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2
c) 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2

111. The quill drive on an aircraft generator

a) makes possible the use of roller
b) damps out any commutator ripple
# c) damps out vibrations

112. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid

battery is by checking
a) the voltage on open circuit
# b) the voltage with rated load switched ON
c) the voltage off load

113. If the correct supply were connected to a DC shunt motor which had
lost its residual magnetism it would
a) fail to run
b) run in the reverse direction
# c) run normally

Page 15 – Mod 3
114. A loss of electrical insulation results in
# a) a short circuit between the supply and earth
b) an open circuit between the supply and earth
c) an open circuit in the supply

115. A DC circuit containing a total resistance of 100 ohms has a current

flow of 250 mA. The power dissipated in the circuit is
a) 0.4 watts
# b) 6.25 watts
c) 5 watts

116. Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in

# a) joules/second
b) watts/second
c) joules x seconds

117. Ohm's law states that:

a) e.m.f. = current divided by resistance
b) resistance = current divided by e.m.f.
# c) current = e.m.f. divided by resistance

118. If the resistance of a resistor which is in series with two other resistors
is doubled
a) the current in that resistance is doubled
b) the current in that resistance is halved
# c) the volts drop across that resistor increases

119. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:

# a) a shorted armature
b) an out-of-round commutator
c) a broken field lead

120. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most
readily?
a) aluminium
# b) iron
c) copper

121. Electricity conducts through

a) solids only
# b) solids and liquids
c) vacuum

122. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 Ω

resistance. The primary coil has 1 k Ω resistance. How many turns does
the primary coil have?
# a) 15,000
b) 150,000
c) 1,500,000
Page 16 – Mod 3
123. Two batteries 12V and 40 Ah each, are in series. What is the total
capacity?
a) 12V 80 Ah
b) 24V 80Ah
# c) 24V 40 Ah

124. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the
secondary winding?
a) star only
b) delta only
# c) either delta or star

125. The phases in supply to a 2 phase motor are electrically

# a) 90 degrees apart from each other
b) 180 degrees apart from each other
c) 120 degrees apart from each other

126. A 30 KVA rated generator has a power factor of 0.8. What is its
maximum consistent power
a) 30 KW
# b) 24 KW
c) 37.5 KW

127. A 50 μF capacitor is fed with a current of 25 mA. How long will it take
to charge it to 100V?
a) 1 s
# b) 0.2 seconds
c) 12 minutes

128. The total resistance of the circuit shown is

a) 1.33 Ohms
b) 12 Ohms
# c) 3 Ohms

129. A step up transformer has

a) one winding
# b) two windings
c) three windings

130. The three voltages of a three phase generator are connected

# a) independently of each other
b) in series with each other
c) in parallel with each other
Page 17 – Mod 3
131. E.M.F. in an electric circuit corresponds to what in a magnetic circuit
# a) mmf
b) flux
c) reluctance

132. Time constant of an inductor is

a) LR
# b) L/R
c) L2/R

133. Permanent magnets have

a) high reluctance, low coercive force
b) low reluctance, high coercive force
# c) high reluctance, high coercive force
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134. A.C. value that can produce the same heat as D.C. is called
# a) r.m.s value
b) average value
c) peak value

135. If a battery has got low internal resistance, then

a) on load voltage will be greater than no load voltage
# b) no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage
c) no load voltage will be the same as on load voltage

136. in a parallel R, L, C circuit, the value of the capacitor is quadrupled,

then the value of the impedance would
# a) reduce
b) increased
c) remain the same

137. In a circuit C = 25 microfarads and the current flow is 40 microamps

for 4 seconds. What is the voltage
a) 12.8V
# b) 6.4V
c) 3.2V

138. A 3, 5 and 2 ohms resistance is connected in series with a 10 V

battery. The voltage across the 2 ohms resistor is
a) 10V
# b) 2 V
c) 4 V

139. The power in a circuit when voltage and resistance is given can be
found by
a) VxR
# b) VxV / R
c) VxVxR
Page 18 – Mod 3
140. A piezoelectric device generates electricity through
# a) pressure
b) friction
c) light

141. Conventional current flow inside a battery is from

# a) anode to cathode
b) cathode to anode
 c) either anode to cathode or cathode to anode, depending on the active
elements

142. Potentiometers are used as a

# a) variable voltage source
b) variable resistor
c) variable current source

143. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no

load.
What is the core loss at full load
# a) 200 W
b) 220 W
c) 0 W

144. Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine

# a) 12,000 rpm
b) 6000 rpm
c) 8000 rpm

145. The purpose of end travel microswitch in a linear actuator is to

# a) remain closed and opens at end travel only
b) remain open and closes at end travel only
c) remain open during normal operation and only close if the actuator
overruns its stops

146. Linear actuators used in aircraft are of

# a) split field series wound type.
b) split field shunt wound type
c) compound wound type

147. If a generator sparks, a possible reason is

# a) The brush springs are loose
b) The brushes have been placed around the magnetic coil
c) Magnetic flux deflecting the EMF

148. The charge on a proton is

a) neutral
# b) positive
c) negative

Page 19 – Mod 3
149. in conventional current flow, what is Fleming's right hand rule used for
a) Motors
# b) Generators
c) Inductors
150. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency is increased
# a) the current increases
b) impedance increases
c) reactance remains the same

151. Three 12 µF capacitors are in series. The total capacitance is

a) 12 µF
# b) 4 µF
c) 36 µF

152. A 500 ohm resistor carries a 3 amp current. What is the power
dissipated?
a) 5 kW
# b) 4.5 kW
c) 500 W

153. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability

a) less than unity
# b) greater than unity
c) equal to unity

154. What is the PD of a circuit which has a 40 mA current and a 1 k ohm

resistance?
a) 400 V
b) 4 V
# c) 40 V

155. The time constant of a capacitor is the time

# a) for the emf to reach 36.8% of maximum
b) the current to reach 70.7% of maximum
c) to reach maximum current

156. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms

and 1500 turns. For the primary winding to have an impedance of 1 k ohm,
how many turns must it have?
# a) 15,000
b) 150,000
c) 1,500,000

157. A potentiometer has which of the following properties?

# a) 3 terminals
b) preset values
c) wire wound
Page 20 – Mod 3
158. A 3 ohm resistor dissipates 27 Watts. How much current flows
through it?
# a) 3 A
b) 9 A
c) 0.15 A

159. in a 2 phase generator, how far apart are the windings electrically?
a) 45o
# b) 90o
c) 180o

160. The SI unit of work is

a) Joules per second (Watts)
# b) Kilogram metres - force
c) Joules per metre

161. in the circuit below, what happens to the total circuit impedance if L is
tripled?

# a) Increases
b) Remains the same
c) Reduces

162. in a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?

# a) Polarization
b) Sulphation
c) Hydration

163. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds. What is the
frequency
a) 200 Hz
# b) 2 kHz
c) 20 kHz

164. Three branches in a circuit have currents entering of 3A, 4 A and 5 A.

A forth branch has 10 A leaving. A fifth branch must have
a) 2A entering
# b) 2A leaving
c) 22A leaving
 Page 21 – Mod 3
165. Where are the output windings on an AC generator?
# a) Stator
b) Rotor with slip rings
c) Rotor with commutator

166. If the field strength of a generator is doubled, and the speed is

doubled, the output EMF will
# a) quadruple
b) double
c) stay the same

167. If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will

a) double
# b) stay the same
c) halve

168. If a capacitor of 50 microfarads has a current of 25 mA, how long does

it take to charge to 100 V
# a) 200 milliseconds
b) 200 seconds
c) 150 seconds

169. in a Wheatstone Bridge, the ammeter reads zero, and the variable
resistor is adjusted to 5 ohms. Resistor P has a value of 10 ohms and Q
has a value of 100 ohms. What is the value of the unknown resistor?
a) 0.5 ohms
b) 5 ohms
# c) 50 ohms

170. in a tuned circuit at resonance, the circuit will be

a) inductive
# b) resistive
c) capacitive

171. The time constant for an inductor is

# a) L/R
b) R/L
c) L x R
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172. In a DC motor the pole pairs are

# a) imbedded within the field coils
b) part of the armature
 c) connected to the brush gear

173. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by

# a) decreasing the thickness of the laminates
b) increasing the thickness of the laminates
c) making the core from a solid block

Page 22 – Mod 3
174. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the
loss will be
a) 110 Watts
b) 440 Watts
# c) 55 Watts

175. The earth's magnetic field is greatest at the

# a) magnetic poles
b) geographic poles
c) magnetic equator

176. If a 1 ohm circuit produces a 50 W output, the phase angle is

# a) 0o
b) 90o
c) 45o

177. A series wound DC motor, the field has

# a) few turns of thick wire
b) few turns of thin wire
c) many turns of thin wire

178. What effect do the electrons of one atom have upon the electrons of
another atom?
# a) They repel each other
b) They attract each other
c) They have no effect on each other

179. What is a molecule?

# a) The smallest part of a compound
b) The smallest part of an electron
c) The smallest part of an atom

180. A coulomb is
a) one ampere per second
# b) one ampere x second
c) one second per ampere

181. in a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in

parallel, one resistor goes open circuit. The current in the other two
resistors will
a) increase
b) decrease
# c) remain the same

182. 20 amperes flow for 20 seconds. How many coulombs has flowed?
# a) 400
b) 20
c) 1

Page 23 – Mod 3
183. An atom is
# a) the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics
b) the smallest part of a compound that can exist independently
c) the smallest particle of matter

184. A neutron is a particle which is

# a) contained within the nucleus of most atoms
b) orbits the nucleus of the atom
c) contained in the nucleus of all atoms

185. An electric current is a flow of

a) electrons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area
b) protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area
# c) electrons from a negatively charged area to a positively charged area

186. An element could be considered to be a conductor if it has

a) a large number of electrons
b) a large number of electrons in its outer orbit
# c) a small number of electrons in its outer orbit

187. A volt can be considered to be a

# a) unit of electrical pressure
b) quantity of electrical energy
c) unit of electrical power

188. If the resistance of an electrical circuit is increased

a) the voltage will increase
b) the current will increase
# c) the current will decrease

189. If 2 coulombs flowed through a circuit in 2 seconds, the circuit would

have
a) 2 volts PD
b) 2 amps
# c) 1 amp

190. In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable

# a) enables it to carry more current
b) enables it to carry more voltage
c) increases its resistance

191. Doubling the running time of an electrical machine would

# a) double the joules used
b) double the watts used
c) double the current used

Page 24 – Mod 3
192. What is 3.25 volts in millivolts
a) 3.25 millivolts
# b) 3,250 millivolts
c) 325,000 millivolts

193. Electromotive force is measured in

a) Watts
b) Ohms
# c) Volts

194. Six resistors each of 6 ohms would be

a) 36 ohms in parallel
b) 1 ohm in series
# c) 1 ohm in parallel

195. A capacitor in a single phase motor is to

# a) provide a phase shift
b) prevent sparking at the switch
c) provide smoothing

196. The mass of an atom is contained mainly in the

a) electron
# b) nucleus
c) proton

197. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be
a) higher than the phase voltage
b) lower than the phase voltage
# c) the same as the phase voltage

198. On a linear actuator, the field cutoff coil will be energized when
# a) the actuator is running
b) the actuator is not running
 c) only as the actuator commences movement

199. Kirchhoff's law states

# a) the algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to zero
b) the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to one
c) the inverse sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of
components will be equal to one

200. The lines of magnetic flux from a magnet will

# a) repel each other
b) attract each other
c) have no effect upon each other

Page 25 – Mod 3
201. A photozoidal cell produces electricity when subjected to
# a) light
b) heat
c) pressure

202. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of

a) milliammeter
# b) millivoltmeter
c) milliohmeter

203. An electric motor produces a force of 5 N at a distance of 0.2m from

the centre of rotation and rotates at a speed of 100 revs/sec. The motors
output is
a) 100 horsepower
# b) 628.4 watts
c) 314.2 watts

204. A potentiometer varies

# a) voltage
b) current
c) resistance

205. Starter motors are usually

# a) series wound
b) compound wound
c) shunt wound

206. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its

turns shorted together?
a) measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter
# b) the transformer will get hot in normal operation
c) the output voltage will be high

207. An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected

generator is
a) a balance load is guaranteed
# b) two potentials are available
c) the line and phase voltages are equal

208. What does a rectifier do?

a) Changes direct current into alternating current
# b) Changes alternating current into direct current
c) Reduces voltage

209. Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce
a) 24V 80 ah
# b) 12V 80 ah
c) 24V 40 ah

Page 26 – Mod 3
210. When an atom loses or gains an electron it is called
a) a current
# b) an ion
c) a molecule

211. A circuit has a resistance of 50 ohms and an inductance of 0.2 Henry.

If it is connected to a 200 volt 50 Hz supply the reactance will be
a) 31.42 ohms
# b) 62.84 ohms
c) 6.284 ohms

212. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit

consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the voltage drop across
each resistor?
a) 12 volts
# b) 24 volts
c) 3 volts

213. Of the following which pair of materials would most readily become
magnetized?
a) copper and steel
b) nickel and bronze
# c) iron and steel

214. The formula for resistance in series is

# a) RT = R1 + R2 + R3...RN
 b) RT = R1 x R2 x R3...RN
c) 1/RT = 1/ (R1 x R2 x R3 ...RN)

215. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because
# a) it demagnetizes easily
b) its magnetism is not easily destroyed
c) it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized

216. What is the combined value of resistances of 4 ohm and 6 ohm

connected in parallel?
a) 24 ohm
# b) 2.4 ohm
c) 0.24 ohm

217. Permanent magnets in an AC generator are

# a) to provide initial excitation
b) to control the frequency
c) to rectify the current

Page 27 – Mod 3
218. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid
battery is by checking
a) the voltage off load
b) the voltage on open circuit
# c) the voltage with rated load switched ON.

219. Generator brushes are normally made of

# a) carbon
b) brass
c) steel
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220. If the voltage across a resistor is doubled

# a) the current is doubled
b) the resistance is halved
c) the current is halved

221. As the generator load is increases (within its rated capacity), the
voltage will
a) remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
b) decrease and the amperage output will increase
# c) remain constant and the amperage output will increase

222. If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance

is
a) the same as the lowest
# b) smaller than the lowest
c) greater than the lowest

223. A charged body is said to have

# a) a surplus or deficiency of electrons
b) a surplus of protons
c) a deficiency of neutrons

224. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
a) efficiency
b) power rating
# c) power factor

225. The voltage output of a generator is controlled by

a) varying the current of the output
b) varying the resistance of the output
# c) varying the current of the field

226. The total current flowing in a circuit of 200 lamps in parallel, each of a
resistance of 400 ohm and connected across an input of 100 volts is
# a) 50 amps
b) 25 amps
c) 40 amps

Page 28 – Mod 3
227. The current flowing in the armature of a DC motor is equal to
a) (applied volts - generated volts) x armature resistance
b) applied volts + generated volts
armature resistance
# c) applied volts - generated volts
armature resistance

228. In the circuit shown the 24 volt battery has an internal resistance of 1
ohm and the ammeter indicates a current of 12 amperes. The value of the
load resistance is
# a) 1 ohm
b) 2 ohms
c) 6 ohms

229. One advantage of using Ac electrical power in aircraft is

# a) the greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down
b) AC electrical motors can be reversed while dc motors cannot
c) the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous
voltage; therefore, less power input is required

230. The quill drive on an aircraft generator

a) makes possible the use of roller bearings at the drive end
# b) damps out vibrations
c) damps out any commutator ripple

231. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional

to the
a) distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate
area
b) plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates
# c) plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the
plates

232. When resistors are in parallel, the total resistance is

# a) smaller than the smallest resistor
b) the sum of all the resistors
c) larger than the smallest resistor

Page 29 – Mod 3
233. What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been
induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a DC generator into
direct current as it leaves the generator?
# a) a commutator
b) an inverter
c) a rectifier

234. Two similar 12v batteries connected in parallel will produce

 a) 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
b) 24v e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
# c) 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery

235. Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in
an AC circuit are assumed to be
a) maximum values
# b) effective values
c) instantaneous values

236. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor

# a) the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease
b) the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease
c) the speed will increase and the armature current will increase

237. In a vector diagram showing the magnitude and direction of the

inductance, capacitance and resistance in an AC circuit
# a) the inductive reactance would be in opposition to the capacitive
reactance and resistance at 90 degrees
b) the inductive and capacitance reactance would be additive with the
resistance subtractive
c) it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors

238. If service No. 1 is isolated from the supply busbar shown there will be

a) an increase in supply voltage

b) a decrease in supply voltage
# c) a decrease in total current consumption

239. An increase in operating temperature in most electrical devices

carrying current results in
# a) an increase in resistance and a decrease in current
b) a decrease in resistance and an increase in current
c) no effect on the resistance and current

Page 30 – Mod 3
240. The voltage of a secondary cell is
a) determined by the number of plates
b) determined by the area of the plates
# c) determined by the active materials on the plates

241. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is
mutual
a) reactance
# b) inductance
c) capacitance

242. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with

electrical power from
a) permanent magnets
b) the busbar
# c) a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC
windings

243. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage

constant, the current will
a) halve
# b) double
c) remain constant

244. Eddy currents in a transformer can be reduced by

a) using a special non metallic material
b) using a single solid piece of metal
# c) laminations

245. If two resistors of 5 and 10 ohm respectively are connected in series

and the current in the 5 ohm resistor is 1A. what is the current in the 10
ohm resistor?
a) 1/3 amp
b) it cannot be found without knowing the applied voltage
# c) 1 amp

246. The term used to denote the strength of a magnetic field is

a) retentivity
b) hysterisis
# c) flux density

247. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and
current of an AC supply feeding an inductive and capacitive network is
# a) 0 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 90 degrees
Page 31 – Mod 3
248. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the
secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input
voltage?
a) primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary
b) primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary
# c) primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary

249. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a

resistance of 1000 ohms. The power dissipated by the circuit is
a) 12 milliwatts
b) 12 watts
# c) 144 milliwatts

250. The voltage in a series circuit

# a) is different in each component
b) is the same in each component
c) is less than it would be in a parallel circuit

251. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V
AC?
# a) windscreen heating
b) hydraulic pump
c) standby compass

252. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?
# a) To reduce the effects of eddy currents
b) To increase the core permeability
c) To reduce the core reluctance

253. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit

consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is the value of each
resistor?
a) 12 ohm
b) 4 ohm
# c) 36 ohm

254. If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current?

a) 2500 amperes
# b) 4 amperes
c) 0.4 amperes

255. A soft iron core is used in an ELECTRO magnet because

a) it has HIGH permeability and HIGH coercivity
# b) it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity
c) it has LOW permeability and HIGH coercivity

Page 32 – Mod 3
256. The resistance to electrical flow in a wire depends on
# a) the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature
b) the material only - copper or aluminum
c) the length and material of the wire only

257. A transformer should always have its

# a) secondary open circuit or on load
b) secondary shorted or on load
c) primary shorted or off load

258. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?

a) interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power
source
# b) reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature
windings
c) rotate the positive brush one commutator segment

259. An AC generator's frequency will

a) always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed
b) vary with changes in field strength
# c) be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven

260. A short circuit between the supply and earth

a) does not matter if the circuit uses the aircraft earth as a return
# b) could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high
c) is not dangerous as the current drawn will be low

261. When two coils are linked by a common flux, a voltage can be induced
in one by a changing current in the other. This process is known as
# a) mutual induction
b) the magnetic effect
c) self induction

262. A circuit consists of 3 ohm, 5 ohm and 12 ohm resistors in series, the
current flowing in the 5 ohm resistor is 10 amps. What is the applied
voltage?
a) 100v
b) 10v
# c) 200v
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263. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminum when comparing

# a) weight for weight
b) load for load
c) CSA with CSA
 Page 33 – Mod 3
264. In an AC circuit how is the value of true power calculated?
# a) By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor
b) By wattmeter readings multiplied by power factor
c) By voltmeter readings multiplied by ammeter readings

265. A frequency wild AC generator is used for

a) instruments and navigation
# b) de-icing loads
c) any AC load

266. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a

generator?
# a) Reduce field strength
b) Overcome armature reaction
c) Reduce arcing at the brushes

267. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns

ratio?
a) primary turns × secondary turns
b) primary turns ÷ secondary turns
# c) secondary turns ÷ primary turns

268. A good electrical insulator is a material which

a) has more protons than electrons
# b) has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms
c) contains a large number of positive ions

269. To reverse the direction of a series motor

a) the direction of the current through the field is reversed
# b) a second series field is fitted
c) the direction of the current through the field and the armature is
reversed

270. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator

of the revolving-field type, with each revolution of the rotor?
a) Four
b) Six
# c) Three

271. The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for

# a) supplying non-inductive loads
b) the AC supply instead of using inverters
 c) driving AC operated instruments

272. The capacitance of a capacitor is dependant upon

# a) the type of material separating the plates
b) the rate of change of current in the circuit
c) the charge on it
Page 34 – Mod 3
273. A piece of equipment is rated at 750 watts and the applied voltage is
30 volts. The value of the protection fuse should be
a) 20 amps
# b) 30 amps
c) 15 amps

274. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

a) remain relatively constant over the starting speed range
b) increase as the engine speed increases
# c) decrease as the engine speed increases

275. When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit,

the total capacitance is
a) equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor
b) less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor
# c) equal to the sum of all the capacitances

276. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as

many loops as the primary coil will be
a) less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
b) greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
# c) greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil

277. How are generators rated?

a) Impedance at rated voltage
b) Amperes at rated voltage
# c) Watts at rated voltage

278. in a single phase AC generator, frequency is determined by

# a) the generator speed
b) controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings
c) the number of pairs of poles

279. The risk of a fire due to static electricity is overcome

a) by fitting static wicks and insulating all metal components
# b) by connecting all metal components by bonding
c) by fitting static wicks and isolating the battery from inflammable gas
sources
280. Due to armature reaction in a DC motor
# a) the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened
b) the leading pole tips are magnetically weakened
c) the magnetic flux is restored by moving the MNA towards the GNA

Page 35 – Mod 3
281. Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts
across them. If the voltages across the resistances are V1 and V2 then by
Kirchhoff's law
# a) V = V1 + V2
b) V2 = V1 + V
c) V1 = V2 + V

282. When an electrical supply becomes open-circuit

# a) the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning
b) the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the
increased current drawn
c) the component will operate normally but will not switch off

283. Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite
directions so that the
a) speed of the motor can be more closely controlled
# b) motor can be operated in either direction
c) power output of the motor can be more closely controlled

284. The amount of electrical power for a given generator weight is

a) determined by the size of the aircraft
b) greater for DC generator
# c) greater for AC generator

285. When resistors are in parallel the total current is equal to

a) the current through one resistor
# b) the sum of the currents
c) the reciprocal of all the currents

286. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to

deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?
a) 90.0 ampere-hour
# b) 112.5 ampere-hour
c) 45.0 ampere-hour
287. How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which
contains the following series loads?
5 ohm, 3 ohm and 12 ohm
a) 450 watts
b) 402 watts
# c) 28.8 watts

288. A volt meter is connected

a) in series or parallel
# b) in parallel
c) in series

Page 36 – Mod 3
289. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?
# a) The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation
b) Either, provided they lay on the MNA
c) The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation

290. On a typical AC generator the output is taken

a) direct from the rotor via slip rings
b) direct from the exciter
# c) direct from the stator windings

291. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating
some of the services would
# a) reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar
b) increase the current consumption from the bus-bar
c) not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage

292. One Picofarad is

a) 1 x 1012 farad
b) 1 x 10-6 farad
# c) 1 x 10-12 farad

293. Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?

a) Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area
# b) Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area
c) Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area

294. The purpose of bonding is to

a) give generated static an easy return path to the generator
# b) stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks
c) ensure all components have been securely fitted
295. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the
a) Weber
b) Henry
# c) Tesla

296. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor?

a) Low starting torque
b) Suitable for constant speed use
# c) High starting torque

297. Interpole windings fitted to DC series wound generators are

a) in series with the field
b) in parallel with the armature
# c) in series with the armature

Page 37 – Mod 3
298. One of the chief advantages of alternating current is that it can be
transmitted at a high voltage with a low power loss; the voltage can then be
changed to any desired value of
# a) AC by means of transformers
b) DC by means of transformers
c) DC by means of inverters

299. An AC generator is producing the required voltage but a higher

frequency than that required. To remedy this, the following action must be
taken?
a) Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then decrease the
strength of the field
b) Decrease the speed of the prime mover
# c) Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the
strength of the field

300. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a

circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of
6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each?
# a) 25.23 amperes
b) 1 ampere
c) 1.11 amperes

301. The area of a hysteresis loop is proportional to the

# a) energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of
magnetization and demagnetization
b) relative permeability of the material being magnetized
c) energy absorbed in completely demagnetizing the material

302. The current flowing through a circuit can be increased to four times its
original value by
# a) doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance
b) halving the applied voltage and halving the resistance
c) doubling the resistance and doubling the applied voltage

303. When more than two inductors of different inductances are connected
in parallel in a circuit, the total inductance is
a) equal to the sum of the individual inductances
# b) less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor
c) equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor

304. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC generator?

# a) the same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation
b) the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation
c) either, providing they lay on M.N.A.

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Page 38 – Mod 3
305. What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor when the
temperature increases?
# a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same

306. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature
reaction is through the use of
a) shaded poles
# b) interpoles
c) drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected
series field

307. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because
# a) it demagnetizes easily
b) it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized
c)its magnetism is not easily destroyed

308. The switch on a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is

opened. The voltage across the capacitor
a) drops immediately to zero
b) starts to fall exponentially to zero
# c) remains equal to the original charging voltage supply

309. in a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the
neutral point and earth is
a) equal to line volts
b) equal to phase volts
# c) zero volts

310. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a

resistance of 1000 ohms. The power dissipated by the circuit is
a) 12 milliwatts
b) 12 watts
# c) 144 milliwatts

311. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in

the inductive reactance of a circuit?
a) Resistance and capacitive reactance
b) Resistance and voltage
# c) Inductance and frequency

312. in transformer operation, hysteresis losses are

a) current overcoming coil resistance
b) induced current in the iron core
# c) energy wasted in reversing core magnetization

Page 39 – Mod 3
313. The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through
both the field and armature windings produces a
a) low starting torque
b) speed slightly higher when unloaded
# c) high starting torque

314. A non-magnetic metal

# a) has no permeability
b) has high retentivity
c) is a poor conductor

315. The power output of an AC parallel generator system is measured in

a) KVA
# b) KW / KVARS
c) amperes

316. The shape of the output waveform of an AC generator is known as a

# a) sine wave
b) cosine wave
c) frequency wave

317. in a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in

series and one of the resistors short circuits, the effect is for the current in
the other two resistors to
# a) increase
b) remain the same
c) decrease

318. To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed

a) in series with the armature
b) in parallel with the field
# c) in series with the field

319. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

a) revolution
b) minute
# c) second

320. In a series resistive circuit

a) the total voltage equals the difference between the individual voltages
# b) the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages
c) the total voltage is the same as the highest individual

321. The current in a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is

# a) zero
b) is dependent upon the size of the capacitance of the capacitor
c) maximum
Page 40 – Mod 3
322. The sum of the instantaneous E.M.F.'s in a three phase system is
a) equal to the line voltage
b) three times the phase voltage
# c) zero

323. A capacitor is a barrier to

a) both
b) A.C
# c) D.C

324. One revolution of a three phase generator will produce

a) 3 cycles
b) 2 cycles
# c) 1 cycle

325. If the North pole of a magnet is brought nearer to the North pole of
another magnet
a) attraction between them will be increased
# b) repulsion between them will be increased
c) repulsion between them will be reduced
326. A 200 volt motor is taking 10 amperes armature current, the armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. The [Link] under these conditions will be
a) 201 volts
# b) 199 volts
c) 1 volt

327. What is the effect of inserting an iron core into a current carrying coil?
# a) The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is
increased
b) The flux density of the original magnetic field remains constant
c) The core tends to move from a stronger to a weaker part of the field

328. What is the total capacitance of a parallel circuit containing three

capacitors with capacitance of 0.25microfarad, 0.03microfarad, and
0.12microfarad, respectively?
a) 0.04 µF
b) 0.04 pF
# c) 0.4 µF

329. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and
current of an AC supply feeding an inductive and capacitive network is
# a) 0 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 90 degrees
Page 41 – Mod 3
330. The frequency of a power wave in an AC resistance circuit is
a) the same as the frequency for voltage and current
b) half the frequency for voltage and current
# c) twice the frequency for voltage and current

331. The reading on the ammeter in the circuit shown is

a) 3A
# b) 6A
c) 12A

332. The 'A' phase of a three phase power system is colour coded
a) blue
b) yellow
# c) red

333. The total resistance of the circuit shown is

a) 12 Ohms
# b) 3 Ohms
c) 7.5 Ohms

334. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual

magnetism?
# a) Flash the fields
b) Reseat the brushes
c) Energize the armature

335. A 1µF capacitor is equivalent to

# a) 0.000,001 Farads
b) 1,000,000 Farads
c) 0.001 Farads

336. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is

called (disregard resistance)
a) impedance
b) reluctance
# c) inductive reactance
Page 42 – Mod 3
337. A high surge of current is required when a DC electric motor is first
started. As the speed of the motor increase
a) the applied emf increases proportionally
b) the counter emf decreases proportionally
# c) the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus
reducing the current flow through the armature

338. The tolerance of the AC generator frequency is

a) 40 Hz
# b) 10 Hz
c) 20 Hz

339. The various parts of an aircraft airframe are maintained at the same
potential by
a) the supply bus-bars
b) static discharge wicks
# c) bonding
340. When two capacitors are connected in series
a) the charge stored on each is directly proportional to its capacitance
# b) the charge stored on each is the same
c) the charge stored on each is inversely proportional to the voltage
across it

341. Aircraft generators are cooled by

a) oil cooling radiators around the main body
b) fuel cooling radiators
# c) ram air

342. The voltage of an AC generator

a) rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same
direction
# b) rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in
the opposite direction
c) rises to max in one direction and remains

343. The charge on a capacitor is expressed as

a) the ratio Q/V
b) the product Q x V
# c) the product C x V

344. A shunt is used with

# a) an ammeter
b) an ohmmeter
c) a voltmeter
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Page 43 – Mod 3
345. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always
considered negligible, provided the
a) generator is properly grounded
b) voltage drop across the circuit is checked
# c) structure is adequately bonded

346. An ammeter is connected into a circuit in

a) parallel
b) shunt
# c) series

347. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be

sure it
a) has a full charge before removing it from the circuit
# b) is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit
c) has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit

348. When a circuit with a series inductance and capacitance is at resonant

frequency
a) the current in the circuit decreases
# b) the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with
the current
c) the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage leads the current
by exactly 90 degrees

349. in an AC circuit, the effective voltage is

a) equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage
b) greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage
# c) less than the maximum instantaneous voltage

350. On a combined DC starter - generator system

# a) the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start
cycle is completed
b) the series coil is open circuit during the engine start sequence
c) the voltage regulator controls the start sequence during engine
starting

351. A pure capacitor, inductor and resistor are connected in series and the
voltage drops across each are 10V and the total current flowing in the
circuit is 1A. How much true power is the circuit consuming?
a) 30VA
b) 30W
# c) 10W

352. If a capacitor 1µF and an inductor 10mH are connected in parallel what
is their approximate resonant frequency?
a) 62Hz
b) 3.2MHz
# c) 1.6kHz
Page 44 – Mod 3
353. Which wave form is stepped positive and negative with unequal length
sides?
# a) Trapezoidal wave
b) Rectangular wave
c) Saw tooth wave

354. The value of an AC sine wave that will give an equivalent heating effect
in a DC resistor is the
 a) average value
# b) RMS value
c) peak value

355. Where is the magnetic dip least?

a) Poles
# b) Equator
c) Isoclinals

356. The dielectric constant of a capacitor is a measurement of

# a) the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric
b) the electrical resistance of the capacitor dielectric
c) the electrical repulsion of electrons within the dielectric material

357. To reverse the direction of rotation on a DC shunt motor, you must

change the direction of the current through
# a) the field windings or the armature windings
b) the armature windings only
c) the field windings and the armature windings

358. If the field current to a shunt wound DC motor is decreased when

operating at a constant load, the motor speed will
a) reduce
# b) increase
c) not change

359. An electric current is

a) a surplus of free electron
b) an excitement of electrons in a metal
# c) an ordered flow of electrons

360. An atom contains

a) molecules
b) hydrogen
# c) electrons

361. What causes a transformer to be noisy?

a) High coil resistance
# b) An air gap in the core
c) High core losses
Page 45 – Mod 3
362. Carbon has a
# a) negative temperature coefficient
b) positive temperature coefficient
c) temperature coefficient of zero
363. The peak factor for a sine wave is
a) 0.707
# b) 1.414
c) 1.11

364. If a motor is spinning at 50 cycles per second, how long is 1 cycle?

# a) 0.02 seconds
b) 50 seconds
c) 0.83 seconds

365. An integrated step input at unequal time base produces

a) a square wave
b) a sine wave
# c) a saw tooth wave

366. A capacitor in series and inductor in parallel make what kind of filter?
a) Band pass
# b) High pass
c) Low pass

367. If a load in series has a current passing through it, the magnetic field
can be worked out by using
# a) the corkscrew rule
b) left hand rule
c) right hand rule

368. If the current flowing into a junction is 5A, 3A, 4A in and 10A out. What
is the 5th wire carrying?
a) 2A in
# b) 2A out
c) 5A out

369. If an insulated conductor is placed near to a negatively charged rod,

the nearest end of the conductor becomes
a) negatively charged
# b) positively charged
c) No change will occur

Page 46 – Mod 3
370. If 2 resistors, one red, yellow, black, gold and the other violet, blue,
black, silver were replaced by a single resistor. Ignoring tolerance, what
would the color coding be?
# a) Brown, black, brown
 b) Brown, black, black
c) Black, brown, black

371. Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell
# a) 4
b) 2
c) 6

372. If a free electron is given to another atom, that atom is a

a) positive ion
# b) negative ion
c) valency atom

373. If a nicad battery is not to be used immediately it should be stored

a) fully charged
# b) fully dissipated
c) dry

374. A light / heat sensitive cell is a

# a) transducer
b) diode
c) transistor

375. In a mercury cell the steel casing is

# a) the positive terminal
b) the negative terminal
c) neither
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376. To improve the life of a dry cell you would

# a) use more zinc
b) use more electrolyte paste
c) us a a pure carbon positive rod
 Page 47 – Mod 3
377. What is the voltage at A?

# a) 26V
b) 28V
c) 2V

378. The unit for power is equal to

a) N/m
# b) Joules per second
c) Volts/Amps

379. The source voltage in the circuit below is

a) 50V
# b) 200V
c) 150V

380. The 5th colored band on a resistor represents the

a) tolerance
b) multiplier
# c) reliability or temperature coefficient

381. Three 12 microfarad capacitors in parallel. The overall circuit

capacitance is
a) 4 microfarads
 b) 1 microfarads
# c) 36 microfarads

Page 48 – Mod 3
382. Flux density will
a) increase linearly with coercive force
# b) increase linearly with magnetic flux
c) decrease linearly with magnetic flux

383. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 24V output. What is the input
a) 120 V DC
b) 4.8 V AC
# c) 120 V AC

384. The mark-to-space ratio of the following waveform is

a) A to B
B to C
# b) A to D
D to E
c) D to E
D to C

385. A generator supplies 25 A, 4 V and 50 W. What is the apparent power

and the power factor?
a) 100 VA and 2
b) 400 VA and 0.5
# c) 100 VA and 0.5

386. In a power circuit, the purpose of an inductor is

# a) to dampen power surges
b) to dampen current surges
c) to dampen voltage surges

387. When a number of ferrite pieces are grouped together, they

a) are semi-permanent magnets when DC is passed through them
# b) can be used to store binary code
 c) electromagnets

388. Ampere turns is calculated by the number of turns

# a) multiplied by current
b) divided by current
c) multiplied by magnetic flux

Page 49 – Mod 3
389. A conventional aircraft generator will be
a) series wound
b) delta wound
# c) star wound

390. Storage of magnets should be

a) in pairs end to end
b) in a non magnetic pox
# c) in pairs with keeper plates

391. A circuit has 1 megohm and 8 microfarads. What is the time constant?
a) 1 second
# b) 8 seconds
c) 40 seconds

392. Current in an inductive circuit will

a) lead voltage
# b) lag voltage
c) be at unity

393. Power factor of a generator is

a) sin ø
# b) cos ø
c) tan ø

394. In a an AC motor, the rotation of the MNA

a) is the same as the rotation of the armature
# b) is opposite to the rotation of the armature
c) is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature

395. in a wave wound generator with 4 poles, what would be the minimum
number of brushes?
a) 4
# b) 2
c) 8

396. A capacitor rating is

# a) the maximum continuous voltage it can take
 b) the voltage it will rupture at
c) the voltage it will charge to

397. in conventional flow, the left hand rule applies to

a) generators
# b) motors
c) batteries

Page 50 – Mod 3
398. Copper losses in a transformer are caused by
a) circulating currents through the transformer
# b) the resistance in the windings
c) wasting of the copper wires due to friction

399. in AC generators, 0.637 is

a) RMS
# b) average value
c) form factor

400. In a 3 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
a) 180o
# b) 120o
c) 0o
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401. In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
# a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o

402. Delta wound line current is

a) equal to phase current
# b) root 3 x phase current
c) less than the phase current

403. The multiplier color coding on a capacitor is in

a) farads
b) microfarads
# c) picofarads

404. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is

a) 0.707
 b) 1.414
# c) 1.1

405. In a simple voltaic cell the collection of ions on the cathode causes
a) hydration
b) sulphation
# c) polarisation

406. The electrolyte in a nicad battery would rise if the battery was
a) discharging
# b) charging
c) remaining at constant voltage

Page 51 – Mod 3
407. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced.
This is
a) Lenz's Law
# b) Faraday's Law
c) Kerchoof's Law

408. Two 2 volt 10AH cells are connected in series, the output voltage and
the capacity would be
a) 2 volt, 20 AH
# b) 4 volt 10 AH
c) 4 volt 20 AH

409. The electrolyte in a nicad battery is

a) cadmium hydroxide
b) nickel hydroxide
# c) potassium hydroxide

410. Referring to the drawing below, if the volts dropped across the 20 ohm
resistor is 10 volts, the resistance of R1 is
# a) 20 ohms
b) 16 ohms
c) 2 ohms

411. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of

# a) protons
b) electrons
c) neutrons

412. In a Leclanche cell the plates are made of

a) mercury and lithium
b) nickel and cadmium
# c) zinc and carbon

Page 52 – Mod 3
413. in a simple voltaic cell, polarization reduces output voltage because of
the
a) transfer of material between the anode and the cathode
# b) build up of hydrogen on the anode
c) build up of hydrogen on the cathode

414. When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG

a) goes up
# b) goes down
c) remains the same

41 5. A 47 kilohm resistor has the following color code

# a) Yellow, Violet, Orange
b) Orange, Violet, Red
c) Red, Orange, Yellow

416. If the temperature of a pure metal is reduced to absolute zero, its

resistance will be
a) infinity
# b) practically zero
c) unaffected

417. The bridge circuit shown will be balanced when the value of the
unknown resistor R is
 a) 18 ohms
b) 14 ohms
# c) 2 ohms

Page 53 – Mod 3
418. The current in the circuit below is

a) 5 A
b) 0.2 A
# c) 5 mA

419. In the previous question, the power developed across the 10 k ohm
resistor is
# a) 250 mW
b) 250 W
c) 50 mW

420. What is represented by this diagram?

# a) Potentiometer
b) Rheostat
c) Thermister

421. In the following circuit, the input at P is 4 amps and at Q is 5 amps.

What is the voltage across the 6 ohm resistor?

# a) 54V
b) 1.5V
c) 6V

Page 54 – Mod 3
422. The unknown current in the network below is

a) 22A
# b) 3A
c) 47A

423. The Watt can be expressed as

# a) Joules per second
b) Joules x seconds
c) Seconds per Joule
424. A single phase circuit has an input voltage of 100V. The current is 10A
and the circuit has a power factor of 0.5. The true power is
a) 1000W
b) 50W
# c) 500W

425. Power in a DC circuit is found by

a) multiplying current by resistance
b) multiplying the voltage by itself and dividing by the current
# c) multiplying the resistance by the current squared

426. The total capacitance of the circuit shown is

# a) 4µF
b) 36µF
c) 3µF

427. When a capacitor is charged from a DC supply, the voltage / time

curve is
a) logarithmic
# b) exponential
c) linear
Page 55 – Mod 3
428. An electrolytic capacitor is used because it has a
a) large physical size for a large capacity
# b) small physical size for a large capacity
c) small physical size for low leakage current

429. An electrolytic capacitor would be used in circuits supplying

a) heavy loads
b) light loads
# c) heavy / light loads
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430. The symbol for flux density is

a) H
# b) B
c) MMF
431. The hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is on a graph with
a) total flux against flux density
b) current against flux density
# c) flux density against magnetising force

432. To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a conductor

you would use
# a) the corkscrew rule
b) Fleming's left hand rule
c) Fleming's right hand rule

433. A material with a narrow hysteresis loop

a) will have high retentivity
# b) will have low retentivity
c) cannot be magnetised

434. If a bar magnet is cut in half

a) the magnet is destroyed
# b) two bar magnets are formed
c) one bar magnet and one non-magnet is formed

435. The diagram shows a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

The conductor will move

a) upwards
# b) downwards
c) sideways

Page 56 – Mod 3
436. The electromagnetic force between two charged bodies is
a) proportional to the distance between them
b) inversely proportional to the distance between them
# c) inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them

437. Copper is a
a) paramagnetic materials
b) ferromagnetic material
# c) diamagnetic material

438. Switching on or off the current in one coil produces an emf in another
coil adjacent to it. The two coils are said to have
a) self inductance
# b) mutual inductance
c) auto inductance

439. the time constant in an inductive circuit is the time required for the
current to reach
# a) 63.2% of maximum value
b) 63.7% of maximum value
c) 70.7% of maximum value

440. Self induced emf in a coil supplied with a current varying at a uniform
rate can be found by
a) - N dI
dt
b) - L dØ
dt
# c) - L dI
dt

441. The MMF of a coil fed with 2 amps and having 10 turns is
a) 5 ampere turns
# b) 20 ampere turns
c) 20 amperes / turn

442. An AC inductive circuit has an inductance 0f 10 mH and a frequency

input of 1000Hz. The opposition to current flow is approximately
a) 63,000 ohms
b) 630 ohms
# c) 63 ohms

443. A sine wave of RMS value 7.07 volts has a peak to peak value of
# a) 10.0 volts
b) 0.707 volts
c) 20.0 volts

Page 57 – Mod 3
444. The true power in an AC circuit is given by
a) voltmeter reading x PF
b) volts x amps
# c) volts x amps x PF

445. The average value of 100 volts peak AC is

a) 70.7 volts
b) 141.4 volts
# c) 63.7 volts
446. The RMS value of 200 volts peak to peak is
# a) 141.4 volts
b) 70.7 volts
c) 127.4 volts

447. The impedance of a series tuned circuit at resonance is

a) zero
b) maximum
# c) minimum

448. The copper loss on a single phase transformer is 25 Watts on full load.
What will it be on half load?
a) 5 Watts
b) 12.5 Watts
# c) 6.25 Watts

449. Rotating coil B through 90o will

a) increase the EMF induced into B

# b) decrease the EMF induced into B
c) increase the EMF induced into A

450. A transformer is designed to operate at 60 Hz. It is connected across a

50 Hz supply. The primary windings would
# a) draw more current
b) draw less current
c) draw the same current

451. A current transformer, when disconnected from a circuit must be

a) left open circuit
# b) short circuited
c) have a resistor connected across the terminals

Page 58 – Mod 3
452. What is the reflected impedance in the primary?
 a) 20 ohms
# b) 500 ohms
c) 50 ohms

453. A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz

a) may be used at any other frequency
# b) may only be used at the rated frequency or above
c) may only be used at the rated frequency or below

454. The dots are called, and indicate

a) quadrature dots, points are 90o out of phase

# b) phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment
in time
c) phasing dots, point that have the opposite polarity at the same
moment in time

455. The power factor of an AC circuit is the

a) sine of the phase angle
# b) cosine of the phase angle
c) tangent of the phase angle

456. The Form Factor of an AC waveform can be found by

# a) RMS value divided by the average value
b) average value divided by the RMS value
c) average value times the RMS value

457. A differentiator has a time constant which is

a) long
# b) short
c) equal to the input pulse
 Page 59 – Mod 3
458. If the frequency is increased in an AC circuit of pure resistance, the
effect is
a) increased resistance
b) decreased resistance
# c) nothing

459. A wire is rotated through a magnetic field. To give DC it must be

connected to
# a) a commutator
b) slip rings
c) a rectifier

460. In an inductive resistive circuit, 1 amp flows from a supply of 100V

dissipating 50 Watts of power. The phase angle is
# a) 60o
b) 90o
c) 45o
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461. A transformer is built with a material having a

# a) narrow hysteresis loop
b) wide hysteresis loop
c) high coercive force

462. An alternator delivers 500V RMS at 1 ampere. The power factor is 0.8.
The true power is
a) 100VA
# b) 400W
c) 500W

463. in a circuit which possesses mutual inductance, current is increased

to the primary
# a) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit which opposes the increase in flux due to the increase of
current in the primary
b) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit which assists the increase in flux due to the increase of
current in the primary
c) the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the
secondary circuit whose flux has no effect on the flux in the primary

464. A component that produces an output voltage due to incident light is

called a
a) liquid crystal
b) light emitting diode
# c) solar cell

Page 60 – Mod 3
465. If the supply to a DC shunt motor was reversed
a) it would rotate in the opposite direction
b) it would fail to run
# c) it would rotate in the same direction

466. Slip on a synchronous motor on start is

a) 0%
b) 50%
# c) 100%

467. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to

a) increase efficiency
# b) create a rotating field
c) reduce interference

468. A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current
reduces. This is due to
a) the resistance of the field and the armature in series
# b) the back EMF
c) the resistance of the field and armature in parallel

469. on a brushless AC generator, the main rotating field is fed with

a) AC
# b) DC via diodes on the rotor
c) AC from the rotating field exciter

470. Single phase components in a three phase system may be connected

between
a) phase A and B only
b) phase and neutral only
# c) any phase and neutral OR between any two phases

471. Interpoles in a DC generator are connected

a) in parallel with the armature
# b) in series with the armature
c) in series with the field
472. in a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction may be reduced by
moving the brush gear
a) from MNA to GNA
# b) in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA
c) against the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA

473. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a DC generator are

a) interpoles
b) commutating coils
# c) compensating windings

Page 61 – Mod 3
474. A 6 pole wave-wound generator has
# a) 2 brushes
b) 6 brushes
c) 3 brushes

475. In a 2 phase induction motor the control winding is fed with

a) variable phase AC supply
b) fixed AC supply
# c) variable amplitude supply only

476. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by

a) isolating one phase
b) reversing the rotor connections
# c) changing over any two phases

477. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the

a) field current
# b) pairs of poles
c) armature current

478. A generator rated at 30 KVA and power factor 0.8 has a maximum
continuous power output of
a) 30 kW
# b) 24 kW
c) 37.5 kW

479. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency
is called
a) a universal motor
b) an induction motor
# c) a synchronous motor

480. In the circuit shown, impedance will be

 a) 9 ohms
# b) 5 ohms
c) 7 ohms

Page 62 – Mod 3
481. In the circuit shown, if the frequency is increased from zero to
resonant frequency, the circuit current would

# a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same

482. The true power developed in this circuit is

# a) 12W
b) 50W
c) 20W

483. The filter shown is a

 a) band stop filter
# b) low pass filter
c) high pass filter

484. An example of a paramagnetic material is

# a) iron
b) silver
c) glass

Page 63 – Mod 3
485. in a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there
is
# a) no current flow
b) no voltage present at either end
c) current and voltage at maximum

486. A 24V battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm. When connected to

a load, 12 amps flows. The value of the load is
a) 12 ohms
# b) 1 ohm
c) 1/2 ohm

487. The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called

# a) permeability
b) reluctance
c) retentivity

488. Armature reaction in a DC generator causes

# a) MNA to move in the direction of rotation
b) MNA to move in the opposite direction of rotation
c) GNA to move in the direction of rotation

489. in a DC motor, B-EMF rises if the motor

# a) speed rises
b) speed falls
c) load rises

490. Vibration in a magnet causes

a) flux to increase
# b) flux to decrease
 c) flux to stay the same

491. A high pass filter has

# a) high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency
b) high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency
c) high impedance to both high and low frequency

492. What sort of wave would be used in a CR oscillascope to control

sweep?
# a) Sawtooth
b) Square
c) Sine wave

Page 64 – Mod 3
493. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage
with respect to the current would
# a) lead
b) lag
c) be in phase

494. on a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output

is
a) DC
# b) AC
c) pulsed

495. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
# a) the rotor
b) the stator
c) either the rotor or the stator

496. A frequency wild AC generator system has

a) variable voltage and frequency
# b) variable frequency only
c) variable voltage only

497. in a series LCR circuit at resonance, R = 100 ohms, L and C are each
10 ohms. The total impedance is
# a) 100 ohms
b) 30 ohms
c) zero ohms

498. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400Hz it

must achieve a speed of
a) 6000 RPM
b) 8000 RPM
# c) 12000 RPM

499. If an AC sinewave has an RMS value of 5V its peak value is

a) 14.14 V
b) 6.37 V
# c) 7.07 V

500. The Daniel Cell electrodes are

# a) copper and zinc
b) carbon and zinc
c) zinc and manganese dioxide

Page 65 – Mod 3
501. An inductor of resistance 5 k ohms and inductance 2mH is connected
to a DC circuit. The time constant is
# a) 400 ns
b) 10 seconds
c) 40 ms

502. The unit of flux is the

# a) Weber
b) Ampere turns
c) Ampere turns / metre
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503. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the
conductor in the field is 2 m and the speed of the conductor is 10 m/s. The
EMF induced is
a) 0.3 V
# b) 30 V
c) 7.5 V

504. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number
of brushes required are
# a) 6
b) 2
c) 3
505. Reactive sparking is reduced by
# a) interpoles
b) compensating windings
c) auxiliary windings

506. The back EMF in a DC motor is

a) equal to the applied EMF
# b) less than the applied EMF
c) greater than the applied EMF

507. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the
conductor in the field is 2 m and the current flowing through the conductor
is 5 amps. The force on the conductor is
# a) 15 Newtons
b) 0.6 Newtons
c) 3.75 Newtons

508. A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the
armature of 2 ohms resistance is 1 amp. The BEMF is
a) 30 V
b) 27 V
# c) 26 V

Page 66 – Mod 3
509. in a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move
a) in the direction of rotation
# b) against the direction of rotation
c) to the GNA

510. A circuit with good selectivity will have

a) a large bandwidth
# b) a narrow bandwidth
c) a low L/C ratio

511. Apparent power in an AC circuit is found by

# a) V x I
b) V x I x cosØ
c) V x I x sinØ

512. A 300 ohm resistor would have a colour code of

a) orange, orange, brown
b) orange, brown, black
# c) orange, black brown
513. in a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is
a) 100%
b) 5%
# c) 0%

514. In a two-phase induction motor there are

a) 2 poles
b) 3 poles
# c) 4 poles

515. The diagram shown is a

a) short shunt compound wound machine

# b) long shunt compound wound machine
c) shunt wound machine

Page 67 – Mod 3
516. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the
secondary. When connected to a 100 V supply, the output is
a) 500 V
# b) 20 V
c) 25 V

517. in the previous question, the secondary is connected to a 10 ohm load.

The primary current is
a) 10 amps
# b) 0.4 amps
c) 2 amps

518. Magneto motive force can be found by

a) N/I
# b) I x N
c) Blv

519. Permeability of a material can be found by

# a) flux density / MMF
 b) MMF x flux density
c) MMF / flux density

520. A filter with a small bandwidth has

# a) a high value of Q
b) a low value of Q
c) a Q of zero

521. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What
value of load resistance would be required to give a reflected impedance of
1000 ohms
a) 1 kohm
b) 4 kohm
# c) 16 kohm

522. An autotransformer windings are

a) on separate formers
# b) connected
c) wired in parallel

523. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?
a) Combined line voltages
# b) Zero voltage
c) Phase voltage

524. in a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used

a) in series with the field to prevent oscillations
# b) to prevent voltage overshoot
c) to control output current

Page 68 – Mod 3
525. When magnetizing a piece of material, magnetic strength will rise
a) linearly with coercive force
b) linearly with magnetic force
# c) non-linearly with magnetic force

526. The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator

a) is wound in series with the field
b) is usually delta wound
# c) is usually star wound

527. In a resistive/inductive motor

# a) the resistor circuit must be disconnected after starting
b) is less efficient than a capacitor start motor
c) can only be used for light loads
528. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced.
This is
a) Lenz's Law
# b) Faraday's Law
c) Kirchoff's Law

529. A 47K resistor has the following color code

# a) Yellow, Violet, Orange
b) Orange, Violet, Red
c) Red, Orange, Yellow

530. A material with a narrow hysterisis loop

a) has a high retentivity
# b) has a low retentivity
c) cannot be magnetised

531. The power output of a similar sized 3 phase compared to a single

phase generator is
a) less
b) same
# c) more

532. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?

a) brushes
# b) stator
c) rotor

533. in a high Q parallel resonant circuit, what happens to impedance if

capacitance is increased by a factor of 4?
# a) It reduces by 75%
b) It remains the same
c) It increases by factor of 4

Page 69 – Mod 3
534. In a thermocouple where is voltage measured?
a) At the hot junction
# b) At the cold junction
c) At both junctions

535. Mercury cells are covered with a metal cover

a) as a protective cover
# b) as a positive terminal
c) as a negative terminal

536. When switching off the supply, the back emf in a collapsing field in an
inductor
a) never exceeds forward emf
# b) can be multiple times bigger than forward emf
c) is equal to forward emf

537. If the energy supplied to a circuit for 4hrs 15 mins at 800 j/sec what
would be the energy consumed?
# a) 3.4 KW Hrs
b) 3400 KW Hrs
c) 340 KW Hrs

538. A parallel circuit at resonance has its impedance at a

# a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero

539. A parallel circuit with any number of 2 terminal connections

a) has the same current throughout
# b) the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf
c) the resistance is dependent on current

540. In this circuit, Rx is equal to

# a) R3 x R2 ÷ R4
b) R3 x R4 ÷ R2
c) R2 x R4 ÷ R3

Page 70 – Mod 3
541. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turn's ratio will have
what primary supply?
a) 120 VDC
b) 48 VAC
# c) 4.8 V

542. A material exposed to heat will

# a) be harder to magnetise
 b) be easier to magnetise
c) have no effect on magnetism

543. A 20 Pico farad capacitor with a 1MW resistor takes how long to
charge?
# a) 20 microseconds
b) 0.1 second
c) 10 seconds

544. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the
secondary. What would be the line voltage if the transformer were
Delta/Star connected?
a) 200V
# b) 346V
c) 450V
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545. The main advantage of a starter-generator over conventional units is

a) for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter
drive remains engaged
# b) for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive
is constantly engaged
c) it can produce a greater power output

546. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependant on

a) the strength of the field
# b) the number of pairs of poles
c) the strength of the armature current

547. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor.
The resistor would be
# a) in series with the supply
b) in series with the field
c) in series with the armature

548. The time to fully charge a 1 micro farad capacitor in series with a 100K
ohm resistor is
# a) 100 ms
b) 10 ms
c)1 ms
Page 71 – Mod 3
549. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds, what is its
frequency?
a) 200 Hz
# b) 2Khz
c) 20Khz

550. In a voltage equalizing circuit the generators are regulated so

a) the lower output is increased to that of the higher
b) the higher output is decreased to that of the lower
# c) the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are
equal

551. The capacity of a battery is measured in

a) volts
b) cubic centimeters
# c) ampere-hours

552. Phase angle is

# a) the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages
or currents or a voltage and a current
b) the difference in degrees between the positive and negative parts of
an ac sine wave
c) the cosine of the peak value of an ac voltage

553. A battery's internal resistance is determined by

# a) IR = OCV – CCV
i
b) IR = OCV + CCV
i
c) IR = OCV - CCV
V

554. The impedance of an ac circuit is measured in

a) kilovolt-amperes
b) amperes
# c) ohms

555. The formula for impedance in a series circuit is

# a)

b)

c)
 Page 72 – Mod 3
556. Motor slip is
# a) the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor
fields
b) a shifting of the MNA of the motor
c) a symptom of a weak field

557. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is

# a) it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current
b) it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate
c) it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current

558. There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery
because
# a) the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is
taking place only on one side
b) it reduces the internal resistance of the cell
c) it is necessary for chemical action to take place

559. Commutator ripple can be reduced by

# a) the use of a ripple filter
b) increasing generator frequency
c) a resistor in series with the armature

560. In this circuit applied voltage is

# a) Vt = IXC
b) Vt = IXL
c) Vt = I/R

561. What is the internal resistance of a Leclanche cell?

a) 6 ohms - 10 ohms
# b) 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms
c) 20 ohms - 30 ohms

562. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the

# a) field
 b) rotor assembly
c) stator assembly
Page 73 – Mod 3
563. The line voltage in a wye wound transformer is
a) root 3 / phase voltage
b) the same as phase voltage
# c) root 3 x phase voltage

564. The valence electron is

# a) the electron in outer shell of atom
b) the electron in inner shell of atom
c) a positive electron

565. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes

a) internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the
decreasing charging current
# b)battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge
current decreases
c) battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged

566. What happens to the current in a series resistive resonant circuit?

# a) It is maximum
b) It is minimum
c) It is zero

567. An atom with a deficiency in electrons has

a) high resistance
# b) low resistance
c) high impendence

568. What effect does hydrogen have in a battery cell?

# a) Polarization
b) Sulphation
c) Nothing

569. Eddy current losses in a transformer are

a) current used in magnetising the core
# b) current flow induced into the core
c) hysteresis losses

570. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives

a) 90° phase shift
b) no phase shift
# c) 30° phase shift

571. In a parallel circuit containing resistors

# a) the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit
b) the sum of the voltage drops equals applied voltage
c) resistance is determined by value of current flow

Page 74 – Mod 3
572. An induced current in a coil
# a) opposes the EMF producing it
b) aids the EMF producing it
c) does not affect the EMF producing it

573. Armature reaction is

a) reactive sparking
b) due to dirty or worn commutator
# c) the MMF opposing rotation

574. in a 4:1 step up transformer, what would give a reflected impedance of

1K ohm
a) 1 k ohm
b) 4k ohm
# c) 16k ohm

575. Lines of magnetic flux pass from

# a) N to S
b) E to W
c) S to N

576. A shunt motor

a) gives constant torque with variations in speed
# b) is constant speed
c) has high starting torque

577. The direction of current in a wire rotating in a magnetic field can be

determined by
# a) Fleming's right hand rule
b) Fleming's left hand rule
c) cork screw rule

578. The diagram shows a 200V long shunt generator. What is the voltage
across the series resistor?
 a) 30V
# b) 6V
c) 10V

Page 75 – Mod 3
579. in a parallel LCR circuit, if the capacitance is increased by 4 times,
what happens to the impendence?
a) increases by 4 times
# b) decreases by 75%
c) remains the same

580. in a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens

to the back EMF?
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) remains the same

581. Why is ferrite used in memory circuits?

# a) High remanence
b) Low permeability
c) High reluctance

582. What semi-conductor material is used in memory circuits?

# a) Ferrite
b) Permeomag
c) Iron

583. The discharge curve of a capacitor is

a) Linear
b) Logarithmic
# c) Exponential

584. to generate electricity with a fuel cell, you need a constant supply of
# a) Oxygen & Hydrogen
b) Kerosene & Heat
c) Nitrogen & Sunlight
585. Five different value resistors all have the same voltage dropped
across them, how are the resistors connected?
a) In Series
# b) In Parallel
c) In Series/Parallel

Page 76 – Mod 3
586.

The input is 115V and is applied across the 300 turn portion. What is the
output?
# a) 460V
b) 115V
c) 28V

587. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to
120VAC, if the secondary is connected to a load with 1600 ohms resistance
what is the current in the primary
a) 1 amp
b) 0.3 amps
# c) 1.2 amps
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questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
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588. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by
a) the use of primary shielding
# b) winding the primary on top of the secondary
c) laminating the core

589. A ni-cad battery found to be below normal capacity should

a) be removed and used for ground use only
# b) be re-charged with a freshening charge
c) have its electrolyte adjusted

590. In cold weather a battery must be kept

# a) fully charged
b) fully discharged
c) does not matter

591. A simple basic induction motor has

# a) poor starting torque, good running torque
b) good starting torque, poor running torque
c) poor starting torque, poor running torque

Page 77 – Mod 3
592. If the frequency to a capacitor increases, the current through it
# a) is zero
b) increases
c) decreases

593. In a 3-phase delta wound circuit, line current is

a) same as the phase current
b) in phase with the phase current
# c) the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents

594. Conductance of a circuit is 2 milliMhos. What is its resistance?

a) 5 MegaOhms
# b) 500 Ohms
c) 5000 Ohms

595. To increase the voltage output of a generator you can

# a) increase speed
b) decrease speed
c) It is not speed dependant

596. How would you find the direction of the current flow in an armature
located in a magnetic field?
 a) Maxwells corkscrew rule
# b) Flemings right hand rule
c) Fleming's left hand rule

597. If in a electrical circuit there is a difference between the capacitive

reactance and the inductive reactance, what would the power factor of the
circuit be?
a) Unity
# b) Less than unity
c) More than unity

598. What is the SI unit of conductance?

# a) Sieman
b) Ohm
c) Ohm-metre

599. What is the SI unit of resistivity?

# a) Ohm metre
b) Ohms/metre
c) Ohms

600. Generator voltage is

# a) dependant on speed of rotation
b) independent of speed of rotation
c) not dependant on speed of rotation

Page 78 – Mod 3
601. If a negatively charged conductor is placed next to an insulated rod
a) the rod has no charge
b) the rod becomes negatively charged
# c) the rod becomes positively charged

602. What is the formula for conductance?

# a) 1/R
b) 1 - R
c) R + 1

603. What happens if you reverse the supply to the field and armature of a
DC shunt motor?
a) Reverses direction of rotation
# b) Continues to rotate in same direction
c) Fails to start

604. The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is

# a) same
 b) increased
c) decreased

605. What is the rating of a monolithic capacitor with 103 on it

# a) 10000pf
b) 100000pf
c) 1000pf

606. What is the formula for working out the capacitance of a capacitor if K
= dielectric constant, A = area of the plates, d = distance plates apart?
# a) c = KA/d
b) c = Kd/A
c) c = d/KA

607. 115V RMS 2.5A at 60 degrees what is the power disipated?

a) 79 W
# b) 143 W
c) 300 VA

608. If cobalt has a permeability of 4800 it is a

# a) ferromagnetic
b) paramagnetic
c) diamagnetic

609. The output from a generator to a commutator is

# a) AC
b) DC
c) pulsed DC

Page 79 – Mod 3
610. When light hits a photodiode resistance
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) stays the same

611. What type of wave is it when the vertical and horizontal distances are
equal?
# a) Square
b) Rectangular
c) Sawtooth

612. Cobalt has permeability

# a) greater than unity
b) same as unity
 c) less than unity

613. In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is

a) in series with the field
# b) star wound
c) delta wound

614. to supply a 24 volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio,
the input required is
# a) 120V
b) 4.8V
c) 24V

615. in a resonant parallel circuit, current is

a) max
# b) min
c) zero

616. Total capacitance of 3 capacitors each 12mF in a parallel circuit

# a) 36mF
b) 12mF
c) 6mf

617. Band stop filter

# a) attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band
b) stops frequencies in a narrow band
c) pass all frequencies in that band

618. A combination of 1 megohm and 8 microfarad would give a time

constant of
a) 40 seconds
# b) 8 seconds
c) 400 ms

Page 80 – Mod 3
619. Power factor is
a) sin theta
# b) cos theta
c) tan theta

620. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?

# a) Will not supply output at low rpm
b) Heavier than like for like
c) Can only be used on piston engines
621. What is the voltage across a fully charged capacitor?
# a) Same as circuit voltage
b) Less than circuit voltage
c) More than circuit voltage

622. When would you use an electrolytic capacitor?

a) On a balanced circuit
# b) Large output compared to size required
c) Low output compared to size required

623. If the phase voltage of a star wound generator is 115V, what would be
the line-to-line voltage?
# a) 200V
b) 180V
c) 220V

624. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is

# a) at operating speed
b) just starting to rotate
c) under heavy load

625. What are the factors affecting the frequency of an ac generator?

a) Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm
# b) Number of pole pairs and rpm
c) Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs

626. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously

rated" motor
a) Flap drive actuator
# b) Fuel pump motor
c) Cargo door actuator

627. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?
# a) Air core
b) Laminated core
c) Steel Core

Page 81 – Mod 3
628. Spontaneous magnetisation occurs in a
a) permomagnet
# b) ferromagnet
c) diamagnet

629. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort

would be used?
 a) Air core
# b) Laminated core
c) Solid core

630. A conductor is placed in a magnetized coil. What will happen?

a) A force will be created
# b) Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved
c) The conductor will move

631. An atom with less than 4 electrons in its outer shell has
# a) low electrical resistance
b) high electrical resistance
c) no electrical resistance

632. in a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the
load on the secondary is 1600 Ohms. What is the current in the primary?
a) 0.075A
# b) 1.2A
c) 3A

633. Two 12V, 40Ah cells in series gives

# a) 24V 40Ah
b) 24V 80Ah
c) 12V 40Ah

634. A 2 Megohm resistor can be written

a) M20F
# b) 2M0F
c) 20MF

635. If a resistor is too small or misshapen to fit the colour code bands,
how else is it's value indicated?
a) Dots
# b) Letter code
c) Number code

636. Elements such as phosphorus with 5 electrons in their outer shell,

when combined with pure silicon, is a
# a) donor
b) acceptor
c) isotopic
Page 82 – Mod 3
637. This is a diagram of a
# a) Light Dependant Resistor
b) Logarithmic Differential Resistor
c) Laser Diode Rectifier

638. A centrifugal speed switch is used

# a) to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor
b) to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor
c) to cut in the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor

639. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the
motor to
a) stop
b) run a 2/3 speed
# c) run at the same speed

640. To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current

a) use the formula R = V x I
# b) find the lost volts of the circuit
c) find the EMF of the circuit

641. A capacitor has Brown Black Orange bands. It's value is

a) 10 picofarads
# b) 10 nanofarads
c) 100 picofarads

642. Hydrogen atom consist of

a) Proton, Neutron and Electron
# b) Proton and Electron only
c) Neutron and proton only

643. A generator with more than two phases is known as

# a) polyphase
b) delta phase
c) multiphase

644. Magnetic lines are flowing parallel they will

# a) repel each other
b) attract each other
c) have no effect on each other
 Page 83 – Mod 3
645. Magnetic flux
a) is more concentrated at the centre of bar magnet
b) occupies the space around the magnet with equal flux density
# c) exist in all space around the magnet

646. In electrical circuit, direct current power in represented by

a) Ampere
# b) Watt
c) Joules

647. in S.I. units, work is denoted by

# a) Newton-meter which is Joules
b) Kilogram-force-meter/sec which is Metric Horsepower
c) Joules/sec which is Watts

648. When a conductor carrying a current and placed in a magnetic field it

experiences
a) an electrostatic force
# b) an electromagnetic force
c) a magnetic force

649. Peak factor in AC circuit.

# a) 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage
b) 1.11 times max. value of applied voltage
c) 0.707 time max. value of applied voltage

650. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is most

strongly felt at
a) poles
# b) equator
c) 45 degrees latitude

651. This is a diagram of a

# a) Variable Voltage source

b) Variable Resistor
c) Variable Current source
For full explanations of all these questions, and for many more new and up-to-date
questions, with correct answers, full explanations, downloadable material and Tutorial
Support, please visit [Link]

Page 84 – Mod 3
652. Find voltage at point "B"

# a) 10V
b) 7V
c) 26V

653. Voltage measured between the plates of a capacitor will be

# a) same as applied voltage
b) less than applied voltage
c) can dangerously higher than applied voltage

654. In a Series LC circuit if the value of the capacitance is increased then

the power factor will be
a) greater than 1
b) equal to 1
# c) less than 1

655. A heater which consumes 800 Kilojoules/sec is on for 4hrs 15min. The
power consumed is
# a) 3400 kWh
b) 3.4 kWh
c) 340 kWh

656. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What
is the power supplied?
a) 100W
b) 10VA
# c) 10W

657. A 24V 40AH battery discharges at 200mA. How long will it last?
# a) 200 hours
b) 300 hours
c) 400 hours

[Link] a Wheatstone bridge at balance the galvanometer reads zero

a) volts
# b) amps
c) ohms

Page 85 – Mod 3
659.1 Volt is produced when a current of 1 Amp per second is varied in a
coil - this is a definition of
# a) 1 Henry
b) 1 Coulomb per second
c) 1 Ampere per meter

660. A generator supplies 150VAC phase and load is 10 Ohms per phase -
what is the phase current?
# a) 15 A
b) 1.5 A
c) 25.5 A

661. Band pass filter in a circuit

a) allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass
b) allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass
# c) only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass

662. Eddy current losses is due to

a) resistant of the copper conductors used in windings
# b) I flowing in transformer core caused by induced V
c) magnetic flux produced by primary winding not linking with
secondary winding

663. The ability of a circuit to produce a magnetic flux under the influence
of a MMF
# a) permeability
b) permeance
c) permanence

664. Two inductor coils in very close proximity; if one of the coils is rotated
90 degrees slowly away from the other the mutual inductance
a) increases
# b) decreases
c) remains the same
665. Magnetic flux saturation takes place when
# a) the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux
b) the magnetic field starts to reduce with increased magnetising force
c) the magnetic field drops to zero

666. Dielectric constant of a capacitor is

# a) electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric
b) max I stored in the capacitor
c) max V that can be applied to a capacitor

Page 86 – Mod 3
667. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is
a) compound
# b) series
c) parallel (shunt wound)

668. The phases on a three phase a.c generator are spaced at

a) 90 degrees
b) 180 degrees
# c) 120 degrees

669. The controlling wave in a CRT is

a) sinusoidal
b) square
# c) sawtooth

670. if the speed of a coil in a magnetic field is doubled and the field
strength is doubled the output will
a) half
b) stay the same
# c) quadruple

671. A wave form having equal amplitude and time base is a

# a) square waveform
b) sawtooth
c) rectangular

672. An inductor is said to be saturated when

a) the current is at a maximum
# b) it will no longer accept lines of flux
c) the current through it is zero

673. The controlling phase on a two phase generator is of a

# a) fixed amplitude
b) variable amplitude
c) direct current

674. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine
# a) 2
b) 6
c) 8

675. A high pass filter consists of a

a) capacitor and inductor in series
# b) capacitor and inductor in parallel
c) an inductor and a capacitor in parallel

Page 87 – Mod 3
676. For an atom to become a negative ion it must
# a) gain at least one electron
b) lose at least one electron
c) have undergone ionisation by the sun

677. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell M of an atom?

a) 6
b) 16
# c) 18

678. A neutral atom with an atomic no. of 3 has how many electrons?
a) 1
# b) 3
C) Dependant on type of atom

679. The nucleus of an atom is

# a) +ve charged
b) neutral
c) -ve charged

680. Electron orbits are called

# a) shells
b) waves
c) valences

681. The unit of energy is the

a) Watt
# b) Joule
 c) Coulomb

682. Potential difference is another term for

a) energy
# b) voltage
c) charge

683. The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery

# a) falls during discharge
b) falls during charge
c) rises during discharge

684. A thermocouple is basically a type of

# a) milliammeter
b) millivoltmeter
c) miliohmeter

685. XL is the symbol of

# a) inductive reactance
b) capacitive reactance
c) impedance
Page 88 – Mod 3
686. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by
a) a separate supply
# b) the armature
c) the load

687. Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automa

# a) field circuit resistance increase
b) field circuit resistance decrease
c) armature circuit resistance increase

688. Which generators are usually used on aircraft?

a) Series
# b) Shunt
c) Compound

689. In a cumulative compound wound generator the

a) the series and shunt fields oppose each other
# b) the series and shunt fields assist each other
c) the voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load

690. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in

# a) series with the armature
b) series with the field
c) parallel with the field
691. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will
a) reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount
# b) reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount
c) increase the terminal voltage by a small amount

692. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below
saturation
# a) increase with an increase in load
b) decrease with an increase in load
c) decrease with a decrease in rotational speed

693. The shunt wound generator is normally started

# a) off load
b) on load
c) Either of the above

694. Two 3 phase generators operating in parallel with different phase and
line voltages will be connected in
# a) star configuration
b) delta configuration
c) Parallel configuration

Page 89 – Mod 3
695. Extra windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense
# a) overvolt
b) phase shift
c) field oscillations

696. Cables are shielded to prevent "H" magnetic interference in wires with
the following material:
# a) Copper braiding
b) Ferromagnetic material
c) Diamagnetic material

697. Using Ohm's law

# a) current is directly proportional to the EMF
b) resistance is directly proportional to EMF
c) current is directly proportional to the resistance

698. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through
the primary, and 0.285 A flowing through the secondary what is the
efficiency?
a) 90%
# b) 95%
c) 85%

699. When light energises a component, what is the component?

# a) Photodiode
b) Lazerdiode
c) Light emitting diode

700. Delta wound alternator currents are

a) the same as line current
b) the same as phase current
# c) the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3

701. Aircraft autotransformers are of what type

# a) Open core
b) Twin core
c) Laminated core

702. In a series circuit with 3 resistors, the current is

a) lower than the smallest
# b) even in all 3
c) the total of all 3 using ohms law to find the current

703. An oxygen atom has

# a) electrons, neutrons and protons
b) protons and electrons only
c) protons and neutrons only

Page 90 – Mod 3
704. What is the voltage dropped across resistor 'A'?

a) 2 V
b) 10 V
# c) 20 V
705. What is the current through resistor C?

a) 9A
# b) 4.5A
c) 18A

706. One volt is induced into a circuit with a current varying at 1 amp per
second. The circuit has
# a) 1 Henry
b) 1 ampere turn
c) 1 Tesla

Page 91 – Mod 3
707. How do you reduce ripple on the output of a DC generator?
a) Increase the speed of the armature and add more turns
# b) Increase the commutator segments and connect each to a separate
parallel winding
c) Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings
1/13/2018 EASA PART 66 GUIDE: EASA Part 66 : Electrical Question

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EASA PART 66 GUIDE

A guide to student and LAE (License Aircraft Engineer) who want to get the LWTR license or convert it from BCAR Section
L to EASA Part 66.. Including EASA Part 66 Module, EASA part 66 Question Examination, EASA Part 66 Note, EASA Part 66
Tutor and aviation tool. Viewers can get information related to this program in this site.

What is Part 66 Part 66 Module Part 66 Question Part 66 Tutor Passive Income Forum

PART-66 MODULE Thursday, 31 May 2012

LIMITATION REMOVAL
EASA Part 66 : Electrical Question
MODULE 1
MODULE 2
Module 03. Electrical Fundamentals
MODULE 3
MODULE 4
01. Electron Theory.
MODULE 5
MODULE 6 Question Number. 1. A neutron has.
MODULE 7 Option A. the opposite charge to an Electron but half the weight of a proton.
MODULE 8 Option B. the same charge as an Electron but half the mass.
Option C. no electrical charge but will add weight to the nucleus.
MODULE 9
Correct Answer is. no electrical charge but will add weight to the nucleus.
MODULE 10 Explanation. NIL.
MODULE 11
MODULE 12
MODULE 13 Question Number. 2. The unit which consists of two or more different types of atoms is known as a.
Option A. particle of an element.
MODULE 14
Option B. molecule of a compound.
MODULE 15 Option C. molecule of an element.
MODULE 16 Correct Answer is. molecule of a compound.
MODULE 17 Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. In what equipment is a photon radiated when an electron leaves a hole?.
Option A. Photo-cell.
Option B. LED.
Option C. Photo diode.
Correct Answer is. LED.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A good electrical insulating material will contain.

Option A. Only a small number of electrons in the outer shell of each atom of the material.
Option B. strongly bound electrons in the atoms of the material.
Option C. Weakly bound 'free' electrons in the atoms of the material.
Correct Answer is. strongly bound electrons in the atoms of the material.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. The smallest particle that a substance can be split and show the same properties as the
Surabaya 2 whole is known as.
Option A. an Element.
Manama 2
Option B. a Molecule.
Al Ain 2 Option C. an Atom.
Correct Answer is. an Atom.
Abu Dhabi 2
Explanation. NIL.
Colombo 12

Berlin 7
Question Number. 6. What charge does the nucleus of an atom possess?.
Today 93 users Option A. Positive.
Total 573,314 Option B. Neutral.
Live 2 Option C. Negative.
Correct Answer is. Positive.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell N of an atom?.

Option A. 18.

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Pageviews Option B. 32.
Option C. 16.
327984 Correct Answer is. 32.

3 Explanation. Shell k = 2 electrons, shell L= 8 electrons, shell M = 18 electrons and shell N = 32 electrons (or use the 2n2
exclusion rule).

Question Number. 8. An oxygen molecule is made up of.

Option A. two oxygen atoms sharing neutrons.
Option B. two oxygen atoms sharing protons.
Option C. two oxygen atoms sharing electrons.
Correct Answer is. two oxygen atoms sharing electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If electrons are added to an atom it becomes.

Option A. a neutral ion.
Option B. a positive ion.
Option C. a negative ion.
Correct Answer is. a negative ion.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. An element whose atoms have fewer than 4 electrons in their valency shell are.
Option A. semiconductors.
Option B. good insulators.
Option C. good conductors.
Correct Answer is. good conductors.
Explanation. The further away from a 'complete' shell the better a conductor it is.

Question Number. 11. The charge on a proton is.

Option A. positive.
Option B. negative.
Option C. neutral.
Correct Answer is. positive.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. What effect do the electrons of one atom have upon the electrons of another
atom?.
Option A. They have no effect on each other.
Option B. They repel each other.
Option C. They attract each other.
Correct Answer is. They repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. What is a molecule?.

Option A. The smallest part of an atom.
Option B. The smallest part of a compound.
Option C. The smallest part of an electron.
Correct Answer is. The smallest part of a compound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. An atom is.

Option A. the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics.
Option B. the smallest part of a compound that can exist independently.
Option C. the smallest particle of matter.
Correct Answer is. the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. A neutron is a particle which is.

Option A. is contained in the nucleus of all atoms.
Option B. orbits the nucleus of the atom.
Option C. is contained within the nucleus of most atoms.
Correct Answer is. is contained within the nucleus of most atoms.
Explanation. Most atoms' because hydrogen has no neutron.

Question Number. 16. The mass of an atom is contained mainly in the.

Option A. proton.
Option B. nucleus.
Option C. electron.
Correct Answer is. nucleus.
Explanation. The proton and the neutron are approximately the same mass (neutron very slightly heavier). The electron
is just under 1/2000th of a proton or neutron.

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Question Number. 17. When an atom loses or gains an electron it is called.

Option A. a molecule.
Option B. a current.
Option C. an ion.
Correct Answer is. an ion.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. A good electrical insulator is a material which.

Option A. contains a large number of positive ions.
Option B. has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms.
Option C. has more protons than electrons.
Correct Answer is. has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. An electric current is.

Option A. an ordered flow of electrons.
Option B. a surplus of free electron.
Option C. an excitement of electrons in a metal.
Correct Answer is. an ordered flow of electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. An atom contains.

Option A. hydrogen.
Option B. molecules.
Option C. electrons.
Correct Answer is. electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell?.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. All semiconductors (including carbon) has 4 electrons in their outer shell.

Question Number. 22. If a free electron is given to another atom, that atom is a.
Option A. valency atom.
Option B. negative ion.
Option C. positive ion.
Correct Answer is. negative ion.
Explanation. That atom will be negatively charged due to the additional electron.

Question Number. 23. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of.
Option A. protons.
Option B. electrons.
Option C. neutrons.
Correct Answer is. protons.
Explanation. Atomic number = number of protons. Mass number = number of protons + neutrons.

Question Number. 24. The valence electron is.

Option A. the electron in outer shell of atom.
Option B. the electron in inner shell of atom.
Option C. a positive electron.
Correct Answer is. the electron in outer shell of atom.
Explanation. The valence electrons is/are in the outer shell.

Question Number. 25. An atom with a deficiency in electrons has.

Option A. low resistance.
Option B. high resistance.
Option C. high impedance.
Correct Answer is. low resistance.
Explanation. An atom with a deficiency of electrons will be positively charged and able to accept electrons freely. Module
4 theory of holes as majority carriers.

Question Number. 26. An atom with less than 4 electrons in its outer shell has.
Option A. low electrical resistance.
Option B. no electrical resistance.
Option C. high electrical resistance.
Correct Answer is. low electrical resistance.
Explanation. Low electrical resistance, i.e. a good conductor.

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1/13/2018 EASA PART 66 GUIDE: EASA Part 66 : Electrical Question

Question Number. 27. Elements such as phosphorus with 5 electrons in their outer shell, when combined with pure
silicon, is a.
Option A. isotopic.
Option B. acceptor.
Option C. donor.
Correct Answer is. donor.
Explanation. Phosphorus 'donates' an electron to the silicon crystal structure.

Question Number. 28. An hydrogen atom consist of a.

Option A. Proton, Neutron and an Electron.
Option B. Proton and an Electron only.
Option C. Neutron and a proton only.
Correct Answer is. Proton and an Electron only.
Explanation. Hydrogen has no Neutron.

Question Number. 29. For an atom to become a negative ion it must.

Option A. gain at least one electron.
Option B. have undergone ionisation by the sun.
Option C. lose at least one electron.
Correct Answer is. gain at least one electron.
Explanation. Gaining at least one electron produces a negative ion.

Question Number. 30. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell M of an atom?.
Option A. 18.
Option B. 6.
Option C. 16.
Correct Answer is. 18.
Explanation. Use Pauli's exclusion formula. M is the 3rd shell (n=3). 2*3*3 = 18.

Question Number. 31. A neutral atom with an atomic no. of 3 has how many electrons?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 3.
Option C. Dependant on type of atom.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons.

Question Number. 32. The nucleus of an atom is.

Option A. neutral.
Option B. positive charged.
Option C. negative charged.
Correct Answer is. positive charged.
Explanation. Nucleus is positively charged.

Question Number. 33. Electron orbits are called.

Option A. waves.
Option B. shells.
Option C. valences.
Correct Answer is. shells.
Explanation. shells, or energy levels.

Question Number. 34. A neutral atom gains electrons.

Option A. It gains a positive charge.
Option B. It gains a negative charge.
Option C. It remains neutral.
Correct Answer is. It gains a negative charge.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. An oxygen atom has.

Option A. protons and electrons.
Option B. neutrons and protons.
Option C. protons, neutrons and electrons.
Correct Answer is. protons, neutrons and electrons.
Explanation. Jepperson, A+P Technician General Handbook, Chapter 2 Matter and Energy.

02. Static Electricity and Conduction.

Question Number. 1. A semi-conductor will have.

Option A. two electrons in the outer shell.
Option B. four electrons in the outer shell.

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1/13/2018 EASA PART 66 GUIDE: EASA Part 66 : Electrical Question
Option C. eight electrons in the outer shell.
Correct Answer is. four electrons in the outer shell.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Ion current is found in.

Option A. conductors and semi-conductors.
Option B. liquids and gasses.
Option C. semi-conductors.
Correct Answer is. liquids and gasses.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Electricity conducts through.

Option A. vacuum.
Option B. solids and liquids only.
Option C. solids only.
Correct Answer is. solids and liquids only.
Explanation. Electricity can conduct through a vacuum by thermionic emmission.

Question Number. 4. An example of a good electrical insulator is.

Option A. aluminium.
Option B. glass.
Option C. mercury.
Correct Answer is. glass.
Explanation. You MUST know that surely!.

Question Number. 5. Static charges remaining in an aircraft are dissipated by.

Option A. earthing the aircraft as soon as possible.
Option B. the use of a conducting type nose wheel.
Option C. bonding the aircraft to a refuel tanker.
Correct Answer is. the use of a conducting type nose wheel.
Explanation. Usually, the nose wheel tyre contains graphite, to dissipate the static electricity on landing.

Question Number. 6. An element could be considered to be a conductor if it has.

Option A. a small number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Option B. a large number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Option C. a large number of electrons.
Correct Answer is. a small number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Explanation. The lower the number of electrons in the outer shell, the more readily it will give them up.

Question Number. 7. A charged body is said to have.

Option A. a surplus or deficiency of electrons.
Option B. a deficiency of neutrons.
Option C. a surplus of protons.
Correct Answer is. a surplus or deficiency of electrons.
Explanation. If it has a surplus of electrons it is negatively charged. A deficiency of electrons makes it positively charged.

Question Number. 8. The risk of a fire due to static electricity is overcome.

Option A. by connecting all metal components by bonding.
Option B. by fitting static wicks and isolating the battery from inflammable gas sources.
Option C. by fitting static wicks and insulating all metal components.
Correct Answer is. by connecting all metal components by bonding.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. The purpose of bonding is to.

Option A. ensure all components have been securely fitted.
Option B. stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks.
Option C. give generated static an easy return path to the generator.
Correct Answer is. stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The various parts of an aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by.
Option A. the supply bus-bars.
Option B. bonding.
Option C. static discharge wicks.
Correct Answer is. bonding.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered
negligible, provided the.
Option A. structure is adequately bonded.

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Option B. voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
Option C. generator is properly grounded.
Correct Answer is. structure is adequately bonded.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. If an insulated conductor is placed near to a negatively charged rod, the nearest end of the
conductor becomes.
Option A. No change will occur.
Option B. negatively charged.
Option C. positively charged.
Correct Answer is. positively charged.
Explanation. The free electrons in the conductor will be repelled away from the rod, leaving that end positively charged.

Question Number. 13. The electromagnetic force between two charged bodies is.
Option A. inversely proportional to the distance between them.
Option B. inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Option C. proportional to the distance between them.
Correct Answer is. inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. If a negatively charged conductor is placed next to an insulated rod.
Option A. the rod becomes negatively charged.
Option B. the rod has no charge.
Option C. the rod becomes positively charged.
Correct Answer is. the rod becomes positively charged.
Explanation. The negative charges on the rod are repelled by the charged conductor (regardless of its insulation).

03. Electrical Terminology.

Question Number. 1. If a photon radiating into an electronic device causes the production of an electron/hole
pair, the device is known as a.
Option A. light emitting diode.
Option B. laser diode.
Option C. photodiode.
Correct Answer is. photodiode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Faraday's Law States that.

Option A. the magnitude of the EMF is indirectly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Option B. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux.
Option C. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Correct Answer is. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Which of the following is 1 Amp?.

Option A. 1000 mA.
Option B. 1000 kA.
Option C. 1000 μA.
Correct Answer is. 1000 mA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit is.
Option A. resistance.
Option B. total resistance.
Option C. impedance.
Correct Answer is. impedance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Ohm's law states that:.

Option A. e.m.f. = current divided by resistance.
Option B. current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
Option C. resistance = current divided by e.m.f.
Correct Answer is. current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. E.M.F. in an electric circuit corresponds to what in a magnetic circuit.

Option A. MMF.
Option B. reluctance.
Option C. flux.
Correct Answer is. MMF.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 7. In conventional current flow, what is Fleming's right hand rule used for?.
Option A. Generators.
Option B. Motors.
Option C. Inductors.
Correct Answer is. Generators.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. The SI unit of work is.

Option A. Kilogram metres-force.
Option B. Joules per metre.
Option C. Joules per second (Watts).
Correct Answer is. Kilogram metres-force.
Explanation. Work is measured in joules, which is [Link] or [Link] force (since Newtons are kilograms
force).

Question Number. 9. A coulomb is.

Option A. one ampere * second.
Option B. one second per ampere.
Option C. one ampere per second.
Correct Answer is. one ampere * second.
Explanation. Current (amps) = charge (coulombs) per second. You do the transposition.

Question Number. 10. An electric current is a flow of.

Option A. electrons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
Option B. electrons from a negatively charged area to a positively charged area.
Option C. protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
Correct Answer is. protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area. OR electrons from a negatively
charged area to a positively charged area.
Explanation. Electrons flow from negative to positive.

Question Number. 11. A volt can be considered to be a.

Option A. unit of electrical power.
Option B. quantity of electrical energy.
Option C. unit of electrical pressure.
Correct Answer is. unit of electrical pressure.
Explanation. Electrical pressure' is sometimes used instead of voltage, due to its analogy to a head of pressure in
fluids.

Question Number. 12. What is 3.25 volts in millivolts?.

Option A. 3,250 millivolts.
Option B. 325,000 millivolts.
Option C. 3.25 millivolts.
Correct Answer is. 3,250 millivolts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. Electromotive force is measured in.

Option A. Watts.
Option B. Ohms.
Option C. Volts.
Correct Answer is. Volts.
Explanation. EMF is another term for voltage, or potential difference (PD) or electrical pressure, all measured in
Volts.

Question Number. 14. Kirchhoff's law states.

Option A. the algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to zero.
Option B. the inverse sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one.
Option C. the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one.
Correct Answer is. the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one.
OR the algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or eaving a series of components will be equal to zero.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual.
Option A. inductance.
Option B. capacitance.
Option C. reactance.
Correct Answer is. inductance.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 16. When two coils are linked by a common flux, a voltage can be induced in one by a changing
current in the other. This process is known as.
Option A. self induction.
Option B. the magnetic effect.
Option C. mutual induction.
Correct Answer is. mutual induction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. When an electrical supply becomes 'open-circuit'.

Option A. the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the increased current drawn.
Option B. the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
Option C. the component will operate normally but will not switch off.
Correct Answer is. the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
Explanation. Open circuit means 'no continuity'. Function stops.

Question Number. 18. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the.
Option A. Henry.
Option B. Weber.
Option C. Tesla.
Correct Answer is. Tesla.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. A 1µF capacitor is equivalent to.

Option A. 1,000,000 Farads.
Option B. 0.000,001 Farads.
Option C. 0.001 Farads.
Correct Answer is. 0.000,001 Farads.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called (disregarding
resistance).
Option A. inductive reactance.
Option B. impedance.
Option C. reluctance.
Correct Answer is. inductive reactance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. A shunt is used with.

Option A. an ammeter.
Option B. a voltmeter.
Option C. an ohmmeter.
Correct Answer is. an ammeter.
Explanation. A shunt is used to change the working range of an ammeter, by 'shunting' around the ammeter, a major
portion of the current being measured.

Question Number. 22. If a load in series has a current passing through it, the magnetic field can be worked out by
using.
Option A. the corkscrew rule.
Option B. left hand rule.
Option C. right hand rule.
Correct Answer is. the corkscrew rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. The unit for power is.

Option A. Joules per second.
Option B. N/m.
Option C. Volts/Amps.
Correct Answer is. Joules per second.
Explanation. Power = energy (joules) / time (seconds).

Question Number. 24. In conventional flow, the left hand rule applies to.
Option A. generators.
Option B. batteries.
Option C. motors.
Correct Answer is. motors.
Explanation. Remember MG - the British car manufacturers (MG left to right) - or remember geneRIGHTer.

Question Number. 25. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is.
Option A. Lenz's Law.
Option B. Faraday's Law.
Option C. Kirchhoff's Law.

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Correct Answer is. Faraday's Law.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 26. The Watt can be expressed as.

Option A. Seconds per Joule.
Option B. Joules * seconds.
Option C. Joules per second.
Correct Answer is. Joules per second.
Explanation. Power = Energy(J) / Time(s).

Question Number. 27. The symbol for flux density is.

Option A. B.
Option B. H.
Option C. MMF.
Correct Answer is. B.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a conductor you would
use.
Option A. Fleming's right hand rule.
Option B. Fleming's left hand rule.
Option C. the corkscrew rule.
Correct Answer is. the corkscrew rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. Switching on or off the current in one coil produces an emf in another coil adjacent to it.
The two coils are said to have.
Option A. self inductance.
Option B. auto inductance.
Option C. mutual inductance.
Correct Answer is. mutual inductance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. Self induced emf in a coil supplied with a current varying at a uniform rate can be found
by.
Option A. -L dØ / dt
Option B. -N dI / dt
Option C. -L dI / dt
Correct Answer is. -L dI / dt.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called.
Option A. retentivity.
Option B. reluctance.
Option C. permeability.
Correct Answer is. permeability.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 32. Magnetomotive force can be found by.

Option A. I * N.
Option B. Blv.
Option C. N/I.
Correct Answer is. I * N.
Explanation. MMF (symbol H) = amps * turns (units are ampere turns).

Question Number. 33. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is.
Option A. Kirkchoff's Law.
Option B. Faraday's Law.
Option C. Lenz's Law.
Correct Answer is. Faraday's Law.
Explanation. Faraday's Law is induced EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.

Question Number. 34. The direction of induced conventional current in a wire rotating in a magnetic field can be
determined by.
Option A. cork screw rule.
Option B. Fleming's right hand rule.
Option C. Fleming's left hand rule.
Correct Answer is. Fleming's right hand rule.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 35. How would you find the direction of the electron flow in an armature located in a magnetic
field?.
Option A. Flemings left hand rule.
Option B. Flemings right hand rule.
Option C. Maxwells corkscrew rule.
Correct Answer is. Flemings left hand rule.
Explanation. Assuming conventional current flow.

Question Number. 36. What is the SI unit of conductance?.

Option A. Ohm.
Option B. Siemen.
Option C. Ohm-metre.
Correct Answer is. Siemen.
Explanation. Conductance is 1/R and is measured in Siemens.

Question Number. 37. What is the SI unit of resistivity?.

Option A. Ohms.
Option B. Ohm metre.
Option C. Ohms/metre.
Correct Answer is. Ohm metre.
Explanation. Resistivity is ohm metre (transpose the resistance formula R = ρL / A, and see what units it gives).

Question Number. 38. What is the formula for conductance? (R=Resistance).

Option A. R + 1.
Option B. 1/R.
Option C. 1-R.
Correct Answer is. 1/R.
Explanation. Conductance is the inverse of resistance.

Question Number. 39. In electrical circuit, Direct Current power is represented by the.
Option A. Ampere.
Option B. Watt.
Option C. Joule.
Correct Answer is. Watt.
Explanation. DC power is measured in Watts.

Question Number. 40. In S.I. units, work is denoted by.

Option A. Newton-meter which is Joules.
Option B. Joules/sec which is Watts.
Option C. Kilogram-force-meter/sec which is Metric Horsepower.
Correct Answer is. Newton-meter which is Joules.
Explanation. Work has the same unit as energy, i.e. Nm or Joule.

Question Number. 41. The unit of energy is the.

Option A. Joule.
Option B. Watt.
Option C. Coulomb.
Correct Answer is. Joule.
Explanation. Energy is measured in Joules.

Question Number. 42. Potential difference is another term for.

Option A. voltage.
Option B. charge.
Option C. energy.
Correct Answer is. voltage.
Explanation. Potential difference, electromotive force, electrical pressure, are all terms for voltage.

Question Number. 43. XL is the symbol of.

Option A. inductive reactance.
Option B. capacitive reactance.
Option C. impedance.
Correct Answer is. inductive reactance.
Explanation. 'L' is for inductance, 'X' is for reactance.

Question Number. 44. Using Ohm's law.

Option A. current is directly proportional to the resistance.
Option B. current is directly proportional to the EMF.
Option C. resistance is directly proportional to EMF.
Correct Answer is. current is directly proportional to the EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 45. One volt is induced into a circuit with a current varying at 1 amp per second. The circuit
has.
Option A. 1 ampere turn.
Option B. 1 Tesla.
Option C. 1 Henry.
Correct Answer is. 1 Henry.
Explanation. 1 Henry = 1 Volt per Amp per Second.

Question Number. 46. The property of a conductor of electricity that limits or restricts the flow of electric current
is.
Option A. limiter.
Option B. resistance.
Option C. fuse.
Correct Answer is. resistance.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 6, pg 101.

Question Number. 47. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to.

Option A. parallel networks.
Option B. series networks.
Option C. closed loop networks.
Correct Answer is. closed loop networks.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. The SI unit of work is the.

Option A. Watt.
Option B. Newton Meter.
Option C. Joule.
Correct Answer is. Joule.
Explanation.

Question Number. 49. The EMF of a generator can be calculated from which law?.
Option A. Faraday's law.
Option B. Kirchhoff’s law.
Option C. Lenz's law.
Correct Answer is. Faraday's law.
Explanation. [Link]

04. Generation of Electricity.

Question Number. 1. Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the thermocouple so
that.
Option A. mini junctions are not formed.
Option B. the resistance is not increased beyond limits.
Option C. they will not corrode.
Correct Answer is. mini junctions are not formed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Point A on the armature of the generator shown is producing.

Option A. minimum current.
Option B. zero current.
Option C. maximum current.
Correct Answer is. maximum current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. A piezoelectric device generates electricity through.

Option A. friction.
Option B. light.
Option C. pressure.
Correct Answer is. pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A photozoidal cell produces electricity when subjected to.

Option A. light.
Option B. pressure.
Option C. heat.
Correct Answer is. light.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of.

Option A. millivoltmeter.

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Option B. milliammeter.
Option C. milliohmeter.
Correct Answer is. millivoltmeter.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A light/heat sensitive cell is a.

Option A. transistor.
Option B. diode.
Option C. transducer.
Correct Answer is. transducer.
Explanation. Any transducer turns one energy type into another energy type. In this case light or heat into electricity.

Question Number. 7. The diagram shows a current carrying conductor (A) in a magnetic field. The conductor will
move.
Option A. upwards.
Option B. sideways.
Option C. downwards.
Correct Answer is. downwards.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. A component that produces an output voltage due to incident light is called a.
Option A. liquid crystal.
Option B. solar cell.
Option C. light emitting diode.
Correct Answer is. solar cell.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m
and the speed of the conductor is 10 m/s. The EMF induced is.
Option A. 0.3 V.
Option B. 7.5 V.
Option C. 30 V.
Correct Answer is. 30 V.
Explanation. EMF = Blv = 1.5 * 2 * 10 = 30V.

Question Number. 10. A conductor is placed in a magnetised coil. What will happen?.
Option A. Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved.
Option B. The conductor will move.
Option C. A force will be created.
Correct Answer is. Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved.
Explanation. Faraday's Law.

Question Number. 11. The maximum output voltage from a basic single loop generator is when the loop
is.
Option A. rotating anti-clockwise relative to the direction of the magnetic flux.
Option B. cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
Option C. at 45o to the magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 83.

05. DC Sources of Electricity.

Question Number. 1. A 20 cell battery with each cell having an internal resistance of 0.1 ohms is charged with 2
leads having a total resistance of 0.1 ohms. The battery is charged with a current of 5 amps. What is the charging voltage
?.
Option A. 0.5 volts.
Option B. 10.5 volts.
Option C. 0.005 volts.
Correct Answer is. 10.5 volts.
Explanation. Total battery internal resistance = 0.1 * 20 = 2 ohms, Total circuit resistance, including leads = 2 + 0.1 = 2.1
ohms, V = I * R = 5A * 2.1 ohms = 10.5V.

Question Number. 2. Two 10V, 20 Ah batteries are connected in parallel and connected across a 10 ohm load. How
long could they supply normal current before the voltage begins to decay?.
Option A. 40 hours.
Option B. 20 hours.
Option C. 4 hours.
Correct Answer is. 40 hours.
Explanation. Use Ohms law to work out the current (1A). Two batteries in parallel then rating is doubled (40 Ah).

Question Number. 3. A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for.

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Option A. 200 hours.
Option B. 20 hours.
Option C. 5 hours.
Correct Answer is. 200 hours.
Explanation. 200 mA = 0.2 A. 40 Ah / 0.2 A = 200 hours.

Question Number. 4. A zinc-carbon battery life depends upon.

Option A. the amount of zinc.
Option B. the purity of the carbon rod.
Option C. the amount of the electrolyte paste.
Correct Answer is. the amount of zinc.
Explanation. The zinc is slowly eaten away in a zinc carbon battery (primary cell).

Question Number. 5. When checking the SG of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you should.
Option A. check any cell because they will all be the same.
Option B. check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell.
Option C. check all cells because they may be different.
Correct Answer is. check all cells because they may be different.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The PD at the terminals of an open circuit battery with a small internal resistance will
be.
Option A. more than the EMF.
Option B. less than the EMF.
Option C. the same as the EMF.
Correct Answer is. the same as the EMF.
Explanation. EMF is the battery voltage (i.e. that which is written on the side of it) and the PD is the actual terminal
voltage. If it is open circuit, no current flows to drop a voltage across the internal resistance so they are the same.

Question Number. 7. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as.

Option A. polarization.
Option B. ionization.
Option C. hydration.
Correct Answer is. polarization.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?.

Option A. Anode.
Option B. Both the anode and the cathode.
Option C. Cathode.
Correct Answer is. Anode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium
battery?.
Option A. A high internal resistance condition.
Option B. High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
Option C. Excessive current draw from the battery.
Correct Answer is. High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
Explanation. Thermal runaway usually occurs on charging.

Question Number. 10. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by
checking.
Option A. the voltage with rated load switched ON.
Option B. the voltage on open circuit.
Option C. the voltage off load.
Correct Answer is. the voltage off load.
Explanation. If just checking the voltage (as opposed to a charge test) then the battery must be off load to prevent the
internal resistance dropping the terminal voltage.

Question Number. 11. Two batteries 12V and 40 Ah each, are in series. What is the total capacity?.
Option A. 12V 80 Ah.
Option B. 24V 40 Ah.
Option C. 24V 80Ah.
Correct Answer is. 24V 40 Ah.
Explanation. Batteries in series - voltage increases but capacity remains the same (vice versa if they were in parallel).

Question Number. 12. If a battery has got low internal resistance, then the.
Option A. no load voltage will be the same as on load voltage.
Option B. on load voltage will be greater than no load voltage.
Option C. no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage.

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Correct Answer is. no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage.
Explanation. The internal resistance will always drop the voltage and reduce the terminal voltage. It is the same whether
it is high or low internal resistance - just a matter of 'how much'.

Question Number. 13. Conventional current flow inside a battery is from.

Option A. either anode to cathode or cathode to anode, depending on the active elements.
Option B. cathode to anode.
Option C. anode to cathode.
Correct Answer is. anode to cathode.
Explanation. The cathode is positive. Conventional current flows from positive to negative on the external circuit, but to
close the circuit must flow negative to positive INSIDE the battery.

Question Number. 14. In a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?.
Option A. Hydration.
Option B. Polarization.
Option C. Sulphation.
Correct Answer is. Sulphation.
Explanation. Polarization is build-up of hydrogen on the ANODE. Sulphation however, is build-up of lead-sulphate on BOTH
anode and cathode.

Question Number. 15. Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 24V 80 ah.
Option B. 12V 80 ah.
Option C. 24V 40 ah.
Correct Answer is. 12V 80 ah.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors
of equal value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor?.
Option A. 12 volts.
Option B. 24 volts.
Option C. 3 volts.
Correct Answer is. 24 volts.
Explanation. Resistors ion parallel, voltage across each one is the same and equal to the source voltage (if nothing else is
in series with them).

Question Number. 17. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by
checking.
Option A. the voltage on open circuit.
Option B. the voltage off load.
Option C. the voltage with rated load switched ON.
Correct Answer is. the voltage off load.
Explanation. Assuming it is just a voltage check (and not a charge test) then it must be off load when carrying out the
test. Otherwise the internal resistance will drop the voltage by an amount which varies according to the external load.

Question Number. 18. Two similar 12v batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 24v e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
Option B. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option C. 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
Correct Answer is. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Explanation. Batteries in parallel - voltage remains the same but the current rating is increased.

Question Number. 19. The voltage of a secondary cell is.

Option A. determined by the active materials on the plates.
Option B. determined by the number of plates.
Option C. determined by the area of the plates.
Correct Answer is. determined by the active materials on the plates.
Explanation. Voltage of a battery is determined by what the plates are made from, and how many plates are in series.
However, a 'cell' is not a battery and can only ever have two plates.

Question Number. 20. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes
for 2.5 hours?.
Option A. 112.5 ampere-hour.
Option B. 90.0 ampere-hour.
Option C. 45.0 ampere-hour.
Correct Answer is. 112.5 ampere-hour.
Explanation. [Link] means amps * hours.

Question Number. 21. If a nicad battery is not to be used immediately it should be stored.
Option A. dry.
Option B. fully charged.

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Option C. fully dissipated.
Correct Answer is. fully dissipated.
Explanation. Ni-cad batteries must be stored fully discharged. Often with a metal bar across their terminals to ensure
they are fully dissipated.

Question Number. 22. In a mercury cell the steel casing is.

Option A. the negative terminal.
Option B. neither.
Option C. the positive terminal.
Correct Answer is. the positive terminal.
Explanation. The 'outer can' is in contact with the zinc anode, which is positive.

Question Number. 23. To improve the life of a dry cell it would be manufactured with.
Option A. more electrolyte paste.
Option B. more zinc.
Option C. a pure carbon positive rod.
Correct Answer is. more zinc.
Explanation. The zinc (negative electrode or cathode) gets eaten away.

Question Number. 24. In a simple voltaic cell the collection of ions on the cathode causes.
Option A. polarisation.
Option B. sulphation.
Option C. hydration.
Correct Answer is. sulphation.
Explanation. The formation of lead sulphate on both plates of a lead acid battery is called SULPHATION.

Question Number. 25. The electrolyte in a nicad battery would rise if the battery was.
Option A. remaining at constant voltage.
Option B. charging.
Option C. discharging.
Correct Answer is. charging.
Explanation. The physical level of electrolyte drops a as Ni-Cad battery discharges.

Question Number. 26. Two 2 volt 10AH cells are connected in series, the output voltage and the capacity would
be.
Option A. 4 volt 10 AH.
Option B. 4 volt 20 AH.
Option C. 2 volt, 20 AH.
Correct Answer is. 4 volt 10 AH.
Explanation. Batteries in series - voltage doubles, but the rating stays the same.

Question Number. 27. The electrolyte in a nicad battery is.

Option A. potassium hydroxide.
Option B. nickel hydroxide.
Option C. cadmium hydroxide.
Correct Answer is. potassium hydroxide.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. In a Leclanche cell the plates are made of.
Option A. mercury and lithium.
Option B. nickel and cadmium.
Option C. zinc and carbon.
Correct Answer is. zinc and carbon.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. In a simple voltaic cell, polarization reduces output voltage because of the.
Option A. build up of hydrogen on the cathode.
Option B. transfer of material between the anode and the cathode.
Option C. build up of hydrogen on the anode.
Correct Answer is. build up of hydrogen on the anode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG.
Option A. remains the same.
Option B. goes up.
Option C. goes down.
Correct Answer is. goes down.
Explanation. Volume rises with temperature, but mass does not. SG is a measure of the electrolyte density (which is mass
/ volume).

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Question Number. 31. The Daniel Cell electrodes are.
Option A. copper and zinc.
Option B. carbon and zinc.
Option C. zinc and manganese dioxide.
Correct Answer is. copper and zinc.
Explanation. The Daniel Cell was an improvement on the first ever cell made by Voltaire. Both used copper and zinc
electrodes.

Question Number. 32. In a thermocouple, where is voltage measured?.

Option A. At both junctions.
Option B. At the hot junction.
Option C. At the cold junction.
Correct Answer is. At the cold junction.
Explanation. The voltmeter measures the voltmeter across the cold junction of a thermocouple.

Question Number. 33. Mercury cells are covered with a metal cover.
Option A. as a protective cover.
Option B. as a negative terminal.
Option C. as a positive terminal.
Correct Answer is. as a positive terminal.
Explanation. The outer cover (or case) of a mercury cell is the positive terminal - Have a look at your watch or calculator
battery to verify.

Question Number. 34. The capacity of a battery is measured in.

Option A. volts.
Option B. ampere-hours.
Option C. cubic centimetres.
Correct Answer is. ampere-hours.
Explanation. Battery capacity is in amperehours.

Question Number. 35. A battery's internal resistance is determined by (OCV = Open Circuit Voltage, CCV = Closed
Circuit Voltage).
Option A. IR = (OCV – CCV)/ i.
Option B. IR = (OCV + CCV) / i.
Option C. IR = (OCV - CCV) / V.
Correct Answer is. IR = (OCV – CCV)/ i.
Explanation. Internal resistance (IR) has no effect on output voltage when Open Circuit. So Open Circuit Voltage (ocv) is
higher than Closed Circuit Voltage (ccv). Using ohm's law (R=V/I), IR = (ocv) - ccv) all divided by current.

Question Number. 36. There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery because.
Option A. it is necessary for chemical action to take place.
Option B. it reduces the internal resistance of the cell.
Option C. the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.
Correct Answer is. the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one
side.
Explanation. A lead acid battery normally has one more negative plate than positive plate because the positive plates are
prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.

Question Number. 37. What is the approximate internal resistance of a Leclanche cell?.
Option A. 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms.
Option B. 6 ohms - 10 ohms.
Option C. 20 ohms - 30 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms.
Explanation. A leclanche cell is just another name for the zinc-carbon cell. Its IR is more like 0.4 - 4 ohms. Some good
info on the types of cells and their IRs at External website…

Question Number. 38. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes.
Option A. battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge current decreases.
Option B. internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the decreasing charging current.
Option C. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.
Correct Answer is. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.
Explanation. As the battery voltage increases, the current charging it decreases.

Question Number. 39. What effect does hydrogen have in a battery cell?.
Option A. Sulphation.
Option B. Nothing.
Option C. Polarization.
Correct Answer is. Polarization.
Explanation. Hydrogen, if allowed to form on the anode, reduces the battery output. This is polarization.

Question Number. 40. To generate electricity with a fuel cell, you need a constant supply of.

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Option A. Nitrogen & Sunlight.
Option B. Oxygen & Hydrogen.
Option C. Kerosene & Heat.
Correct Answer is. Oxygen & Hydrogen.
Explanation. [Link]

Question Number. 41. A ni-cad battery found to be below normal capacity should.
Option A. have its electrolyte adjusted.
Option B. be removed and used for ground use only.
Option C. be re-charged with a freshening charge.
Correct Answer is. be re-charged with a freshening charge.
Explanation. See Jeppesen's Aircraft Batteries.

Question Number. 42. In cold weather, to prevent the electrolyte freezing, a battery must be kept.
Option A. fully charged.
Option B. does not matter.
Option C. fully discharged.
Correct Answer is. fully charged.
Explanation. Checkout [Link]/primer/winter/.

Question Number. 43. The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is.
Option A. the same.
Option B. increased.
Option C. decreased.
Correct Answer is. the same.
Explanation. Internal resistance is constant, regardless of load.

Question Number. 44. Two 12V, 40Ah cells in series gives.

Option A. 24V 80Ah.
Option B. 12V 40Ah.
Option C. 24V 40Ah.
Correct Answer is. 24V 40Ah.
Explanation. Cells in series, voltage doubles, Amp hour rating remains the same.

Question Number. 45. A 24V 40AH battery discharges at 200mA. How long will it last?.
Option A. 400 hours.
Option B. 300 hours.
Option C. 200 hours.
Correct Answer is. 200 hours.
Explanation. 200mA goes into 1A-5 times. 5 * 40 = 200 hours.

Question Number. 46. The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery.

Option A. falls during charge.
Option B. falls during discharge.
Option C. rises during discharge.
Correct Answer is. falls during discharge.
Explanation. The electrolyte level of a nicad battery falls during discharge (but the s.g. remains constant).

Question Number. 47. When light energises a component, what is the component?.
Option A. Light emitting diode.
Option B. Photodiode.
Option C. Laser diode.
Correct Answer is. Photodiode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. Formation of white crystals of potassium carbonate on a properly serviced Ni-cd battery
indicates.
Option A. over charged.
Option B. full charged.
Option C. under charged.
Correct Answer is. over charged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 49. Thermal runaway causes.

Option A. violent gassing only.
Option B. violent gassing, boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Option C. no gassing, but boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Correct Answer is. violent gassing, boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 50. A primary cell.
Option A. can not recharged.
Option B. can be recharged but only a few times.
Option C. can be recharged.
Correct Answer is. can not recharged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. If the insulation resistance of a lead/acid battery is down, it indicates.
Option A. case leakage.
Option B. leakage between positive and negative terminals.
Option C. intercell leakage.
Correct Answer is. case leakage.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. When the battery is connected to the aircraft, which terminal should you connect
first?.
Option A. Any.
Option B. Positive.
Option C. Negative.
Correct Answer is. Positive.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 43.

Question Number. 53. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the.
Option A. rate of current used to charge the battery.
Option B. amperage available for use.
Option C. total amperes being used in the aeroplane.
Correct Answer is. rate of current used to charge the battery.
Explanation. Whilst charging (as the question says) the ammeter shows current flow TO the battery.

Question Number. 54. For how many hours will a 140AH battery deliver 15A?.
Option A. 9.33 hours.
Option B. 27.25 hours.
Option C. 15.15 hours.
Correct Answer is. 9.33 hours.
Explanation. 15 * H = 140, H = 9.33 hrs.

Question Number. 55. What part of a nickel-cadmium cell helps to prevent thermal runaway?.
Option A. The separator.
Option B. The negative plate.
Option C. The positive plate.
Correct Answer is. The separator.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 47 2nd para.

Question Number. 56. When charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas
only.
Option A. when the electrolyte level is low.
Option B. if the cells are defective.
Option C. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Correct Answer is. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Explanation. EEL/1-3 4.5.5.

Question Number. 57. What is the internal resistance of a battery?.

Option A. The resistance measured across the two terminals.
Option B. The resistance measured when the battery is half charged.
Option C. The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.
Correct Answer is. The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics page 33.

06. DC Circuits.

Question Number. 1. A potential difference of 50 volts produces a current of 10 milliamperes through a resistance
of.
Option A. 500 ohms.
Option B. 5 ohms.
Option C. 5,000 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 5,000 ohms.
Explanation. PD = 50V, I = 0.01A, R = ?, R=PD/I.

Question Number. 2. A conductor with a positive Q (charge) of 4C has 12.56 x 1018 electrons added to it. It will
have a Q =.
Option A. 6.

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Option B. 2.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. 6.
Explanation. A charge of 1 Coulomb (C) is 6.28 * 1018. Hence 4 + 2 = 6 C.

Question Number. 3. The power dissipated by a load of known resistance connected across a known potential
difference can be calculated by.
Option A. dividing the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Option B. multiplying the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Option C. working out the current flowing in the circuit by using ohms law and multiplying the result by the
resistance.
Correct Answer is. working out the current flowing in the circuit by using ohms law and multiplying the result by the
resistance. OR dividing the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A current of 5A flows for 2 minutes. How many coulombs passed a point in the
circuit?.
Option A. 2.5.
Option B. 600.
Option C. 100.
Correct Answer is. 600.
Explanation. Q = IT, Q = 5 * 120 = 600C.

Question Number. 5. A circuit has a current flow of 6A. If the voltage is trebled, the new current will
be.
Option A. 6A.
Option B. 18A.
Option C. 2A.
Correct Answer is. 18A.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the work
done?.
Option A. 60J.
Option B. 600J.
Option C. 10J.
Correct Answer is. 600J.
Explanation. Work out power. Then Energy = Power * Time (time must be in seconds).

Question Number. 7. A galvanometer measures.

Option A. millivolts.
Option B. megohms.
Option C. milliamps.
Correct Answer is. milliamps.
Explanation. A galvanometer measures milliamps.

Question Number. 8. The voltage at point A is.

Option A. 28 V.
Option B. 21 V.
Option C. 7 V.
Correct Answer is. 7 V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. A loss of electrical insulation results in.

Option A. an open circuit between the supply and earth.
Option B. a short circuit between the supply and earth.
Option C. an open circuit in the supply.
Correct Answer is. a short circuit between the supply and earth.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. A 3, 5 and 2 ohms resistance is connected in series with a 10 V battery. The voltage across
the 2 ohms resistor is.
Option A. 2 V.
Option B. 10V.
Option C. 4 V.
Correct Answer is. 2 V.
Explanation. Each resistor takes its relative share of the voltage drop. Total resistance is 10 ohms, so the 2 ohm resistor
takes 2/10ths of the voltage.

Question Number. 11. What is the PD of a circuit which has a 40 mA current and a 1 kilohm resistance?.
Option A. 40 V.

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Option B. 400 V.
Option C. 4 V.
Correct Answer is. 40 V.
Explanation. V = I x R. mA * kohms cancel each others' prefix.

Question Number. 12. Three branches in a circuit have currents entering of 3A, 4A and 5A. A forth branch has 10 A
leaving. A fifth branch must have.
Option A. 22A leaving.
Option B. 2A leaving.
Option C. 2A entering.
Correct Answer is. 2A leaving.
Explanation. Basic Kirkchoff's current law. Sum of currents entering = sum of currents leaving.

Question Number. 13. In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in parallel, one resistor goes
open circuit. The current in the other two resistors will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. 20 amperes flow for 20 seconds. How many coulombs have flowed?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 20.
Option C. 400.
Correct Answer is. 400.
Explanation. Q = It.

Question Number. 15. If the resistance of an electrical circuit is increased.

Option A. the current will increase.
Option B. the voltage will increase.
Option C. the current will decrease.
Correct Answer is. the current will decrease.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. If 2 coulombs flowed through a circuit in 2 seconds, the circuit would have.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. 2 volts PD.
Option C. 4 amps.
Correct Answer is. 1 amp.
Explanation. Q = It so I = Q/t.

Question Number. 17. If the voltage across a resistor is doubled.

Option A. the current is doubled.
Option B. the current is halved.
Option C. the resistance is halved.
Correct Answer is. the current is doubled.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. The total current flowing in a circuit of 200 lamps in parallel, each of a resistance of 400
ohm and connected across an input of 100 volts is.
Option A. 25 amps.
Option B. 50 amps.
Option C. 40 amps.
Correct Answer is. 50 amps.
Explanation. Total resistance is 400 / 200 = 2 ohms. Ohms law for current I = V/R = 100/2 = 50 amps.

Question Number. 19. In the circuit shown the 24 volt battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm and the ammeter
indicates a current of 12 amperes. The value of the load resistance is.
Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 6 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Find the total resistance R = V/I = 24/12 = 2 ohms. Subtracting internal resistance leaves 1 ohm.

Question Number. 20. If service No. 1 is isolated from the supply busbar shown there will be.
Option A. an increase in supply voltage.
Option B. a decrease in total current consumption.
Option C. a decrease in supply voltage.
Correct Answer is. a decrease in total current consumption.

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Explanation. Shutting down a service on an aircraft (by pulling the circuit breaker for example), increases the total
resistance and reduces the current consumption.

Question Number. 21. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage constant, the current
will.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. double.
Option C. halve.
Correct Answer is. double.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor - and apply ohms law to it.

Question Number. 22. If two resistors of 5 and 10 ohm respectively are connected in series and the current in the 5
ohm resistor is 1A. what is the current in the 10 ohm resistor?.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. It cannot be found without knowing the applied voltage.
Option C. 1/3 amp.
Correct Answer is. 1 amp.
Explanation. Resistors in series - current is the same in each one.

Question Number. 23. The voltage in a series circuit.

Option A. is different in each component.
Option B. is the same in each component.
Option C. is less than it would be in a parallel circuit.
Correct Answer is. is different in each component.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current?.
Option A. 4 amperes.
Option B. 0.4 amperes.
Option C. 2500 amperes.
Correct Answer is. 4 amperes.
Explanation. Ohms Law I = V/R.

Question Number. 25. A short circuit between the supply and earth.
Option A. is not dangerous as the current drawn will be low.
Option B. does not matter if the circuit uses the aircraft earth as a return.
Option C. could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high.
Correct Answer is. could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high.
Explanation. In a short circuit, the resistance is zero. By ohms law, I = V/R. If R = 0, I = V/0 so what is I (it is not zero!!!).

Question Number. 26. A circuit consists of 3 ohm, 5 ohm and 12 ohm resistors in series. The current flowing in the 5
ohm resistor is 10 amps. What is the applied voltage?.
Option A. 10 V.
Option B. 100 V.
Option C. 200 V.
Correct Answer is. 200 V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts across them. If the
voltages across the resistances are V1 and V2 then by Kirchhoff's law.
Option A. V2 = V1 + V.
Option B. V1 = V2 + V.
Option C. V = V1 + V2.
Correct Answer is. V = V1 + V2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. A voltmeter is connected.

Option A. in parallel.
Option B. in series or parallel.
Option C. in series.
Correct Answer is. in parallel.
Explanation. Voltmeters are connected 'across' the component (i.e. in parallel with it. Ammeters are connected in series.

Question Number. 29. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services
would.
Option A. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar.
Option B. increase the current consumption from the bus-bar.
Option C. not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage.
Correct Answer is. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar.
Explanation. Isolating some of the services increases the resistance of the total circuit similar to removing a resistor from
a parallel circuit. So total current consumption reduces.

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Question Number. 30. The current flowing through a circuit can be increased to four times its original value
by.
Option A. doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Option B. doubling the resistance and doubling the applied voltage.
Option C. halving the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Correct Answer is. doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in series and one of the
resistors short circuits, the effect is for the current in the other two resistors to.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. Reducing one resistor to zero ohms (short circuit) means the source emf is now applied to the two remaining
resistors, and causes a greater current flow through them.

Question Number. 32. In a series resistive circuit.

Option A. the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages.
Option B. the total voltage is the same as the highest individual.
Option C. the total voltage equals the difference between the individual voltages.
Correct Answer is. the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. The reading on the ammeter in the circuit shown is.
Option A. 3A.
Option B. 12A.
Option C. 6A.
Correct Answer is. 6A.
Explanation. Total resistance = 2 ohms. I = V/R = 12/2 = 6 A.

Question Number. 34. An ammeter is connected into a circuit in.

Option A. series.
Option B. shunt.
Option C. parallel.
Correct Answer is. series.
Explanation. ammeter is always put into a circuit in series with the component it is measuring the current
through.

Question Number. 35. What is the voltage at A?.

Option A. 26V.
Option B. 2V.
Option C. 28V.
Correct Answer is. 26V.
Explanation. 4 ohm resistor will drop 4/62ths of the 28V supply (i.e. 1.8V). So there will be approximately 26V
left.

Question Number. 36. The source voltage in the circuit shown is.
Option A. 200V.
Option B. 50V.
Option C. 150V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
Explanation. This is a standard potentiometer. It splits the voltage by the same ratio as the number of turns. So 50V is
300/1200ths of the source voltage (50 = 3/12V). Transpose for V.

Question Number. 37. Referring to the drawing, if the volts dropped across the 20 ohm resistor is 10 volts, the
resistance of R1 is.
Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 16 ohms.
Option C. 20 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 20 ohms.
Explanation. Find the current through the 20 ohm resistor (I = V/R = 10/20 = 0.5). The same current goes through all
parts of a series circuit. Next find total circuit resistance (R = V/I = 28/0.5 = 56 ohms). Subtract 20 and 16 from
56.

Question Number. 38. The current in the circuit shown is.

Option A. 5 mA.
Option B. 0.2 A.
Option C. 5 A.
Correct Answer is. 5 mA.

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Explanation. Total R = 40 k ohms. I = V/R = 200/40,000 = 0.005A = 5mA. (don't forget the 'k' means times by
1000).

Question Number. 39. In the following circuit, the input at P is 4 amps and at Q is 5 amps. What is the voltage
across the 6 ohm resistor?.
Option A. 54V.
Option B. 6V.
Option C. 1.5V.
Correct Answer is. 54V.
Explanation. V = I * R = 9 * 6 = 54V. A combination of Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's Law.

Question Number. 40. The unknown current in the network below is.

Option A. 22A.
Option B. 3A.
Option C. 47A.
Correct Answer is. 3A.
Explanation. Kirchhoff's current law.

Question Number. 41. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there is.
Option A. current and voltage at maximum.
Option B. no current flow.
Option C. no voltage present at either end.
Correct Answer is. no current flow.
Explanation. The ammeter reads zero when it is balanced.

Question Number. 42. A 24V battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm. When connected to a load, 12 amps flows.
The value of the load is.
Option A. 12 ohms.
Option B. 1/2 ohm.
Option C. 1 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Total R = V/I = 24/12 = 2 ohms. Subtract the internal resistance to get the external resistance (i.e. the
load).

Question Number. 43. A parallel circuit with any number of 2 terminal connections.
Option A. the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf.
Option B. has the same current throughout.
Option C. the resistance is dependent on current.
Correct Answer is. the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf.
Explanation. Parallel circuit - the voltage drops across each branch is the source voltage (regardless of the resistance in
the branches).

Question Number. 44. The diagram shows a 200V long shunt generator. What is the voltage across the series

resistor.
Option A. 10V.
Option B. 6V.
Option C. 30V.
Correct Answer is. 6V.
Explanation. The 0.04 and 100 ohm resistor are the field windings of the generator, so the 100 amps goes through the
0.06 ohm resistor. V = I * R = 100 * 0.06 = 6V.

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Question Number. 45. To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current.
Option A. use the formula R = V * I.
Option B. find the lost volts of the circuit.
Option C. find the emf of the circuit.
Correct Answer is. find the lost volts of the circuit.
Explanation. Find the difference between the Voltage On-load and the Voltage Off-load (the volts 'lost' across the internal
resistance), then use R = V/I (Ohm's Law).

Question Number. 46. For the diagram shown find the voltage at point B.

Option A. 7V.
Option B. 26V.
Option C. 10V.
Correct Answer is. 10V.
Explanation. Each resistor drops its own proportion of the voltage. Total resistance is 60 ohms. Voltage dropped by 4 ohm
resistor is 4/60 * 30. Voltage dropped by 36 ohm resistor is 36/60 * 30. Total dropped by point B is 40/60 * 30 = 20V.
Therefore, remaining voltage at B = 10V.

Question Number. 47. In a series circuit with 3 resistors, the current is.
Option A. lower than the smallest.
Option B. the total of all 3 using ohms law to find the current.
Option C. even in all 3.
Correct Answer is. even in all 3.
Explanation. The current is the same in all components in a series circuit.

Question Number. 48. What is the voltage dropped across resistor 'A'?.

Option A. 2 V.
Option B. 20 V.
Option C. 10 V.
Correct Answer is. 20 V.
Explanation. 28-(2 + 6) = 20 V (voltage across both the parallel resistors is the same 20 V).

Question Number. 49. What is the current through resistor C?.

Option A. 4.5A.
Option B. 18A.
Option C. 9A.
Correct Answer is. 4.5A.
Explanation. You need to know what the ohmic value of resistor C is to know the current through it, or at least the
relative value of C compared to D - as the 9A current splits through C and D. It is 9A/2 (4.5A) only if C and D are the same.
Besides, it cannot ever be 9A or 18A.

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Question Number. 50. Which is not thermally operated?.

Option A. A limiting resistor.
Option B. A current limiter.
Option C. A fuse.
Correct Answer is. A limiting resistor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. In a Desynn indicator system, the rotor is.

Option A. an electromagnet.
Option B. a permanent magnet.
Option C. an AC magnet.
Correct Answer is. a permanent magnet.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. A load that is subject to a potential difference with a current running through it
will.
Option A. have a magnetic field around it with the magnitude and direction of the field determined by the corkscrew
rule.
Option B. dissipate power in the form of heat.
Option C. will move in a direction shown by the right hand rule.
Correct Answer is. dissipate power in the form of heat.
Explanation. NIL.

07a. Resistance/Resistor.

Question Number. 1. The resistance of a material is.

Option A. independent of the material type.
Option B. the same as its conductance.
Option C. the reciprocal of its conductance.
Correct Answer is. the reciprocal of its conductance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Resistance is measured using what unit of temperature?.

Option A. Absolute.
Option B. Centigrade.
Option C. Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. Absolute.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. A resistor has 4 bands on it coloured blue, yellow, yellow, gold. It’s value is.
Option A. 640 kΩ ± 5%.
Option B. 6.4 mΩ ± 10%.
Option C. 64 kΩ ± 5%.
Correct Answer is. 640 kΩ ± 5%.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. The electron flow through a conductor will be decreased the most if the cross sectional
area.
Option A. is decreased and the length is increased.
Option B. and the length are both decreased.
Option C. and the length are both increased.
Correct Answer is. is decreased and the length is increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Small resistors too small or mis-shapen for the application of colour are marked instead
using.
Option A. an abbreviated resistance value.
Option B. a letter code.
Option C. a dot code.
Correct Answer is. a letter code.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. Total resistance in a parallel resistor circuit, of R1 and R2 is.

Option A. RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Option B. 1/RT = (R1 * R2) ÷ (R1 + R2).
Option C. 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Correct Answer is. 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 7. If the resistance of a resistor which is in series with two other resistors is doubled.
Option A. the current in that resistance is doubled.
Option B. the volts drop across that resistor increases.
Option C. the current in that resistance is halved.
Correct Answer is. the volts drop across that resistor increases.
Explanation. The current will reduce, but not halved, since it depends on how big the other two resistors are in relation
to it. It will however take a greater share of the voltage drop in the circuit.

Question Number. 8. The total resistance of the circuit shown is.

Option A. 3 Ohms.
Option B. 1.33 Ohms.
Option C. 12 Ohms.
Correct Answer is. 3 Ohms.
Explanation. Series 3 + 3 = 6 ohms. Then, two 6 ohm resistors in parallel, total is half = 3 ohms.

Question Number. 9. Potentiometers are used as a.

Option A. variable voltage source.
Option B. variable resistor.
Option C. variable current source.
Correct Answer is. variable resistor.
Explanation. Potentiometers are not a 'source' of voltage.

Question Number. 10. In a Wheatstone Bridge, the ammeter reads zero, and the variable resistor is adjusted to 5
ohms. Resistor P has a value of 10 ohms and Q has a value of 100 ohms. What is the value of the unknown
resistor?.
Option A. 5 ohms.
Option B. 0.5 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 ohms.
Explanation. R = Rv * P/Q.

Question Number. 11. In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable.
Option A. increases its resistance.
Option B. enables it to carry more voltage.
Option C. enables it to carry more current.
Correct Answer is. enables it to carry more current.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a cable. If you increase the cross sectional area, its resistance will
decrease and it can carry more current. 'Carrying voltage' is not technically correct terminology, and besides, Any size
cable can 'carry' any size voltage, but it is the current which will destroy it.

Question Number. 12. Six resistors each of 6 ohms would be.

Option A. 1 ohm in series.
Option B. 1 ohm in parallel.
Option C. 36 ohms in parallel.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm in parallel.
Explanation. Get the formulas for resistors in parallel and resistors in series. Or, remember that resistors in series, total
is greater than the largest, and resistors in parallel, total is less than the smallest.

Question Number. 13. A potentiometer varies.

Option A. resistance.
Option B. current.
Option C. voltage.
Correct Answer is. voltage.
Explanation. A potentiometer is basically a variable voltage splitter.

Question Number. 14. The formula for resistance in series is.

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Option A. RT = R1 + R2 + R3 .....Rn.
Option B. RT = R1 * R2 * R3 .....Rn.
Option C. 1/RT = 1/( R1 * R2 * R3 .....Rn).
Correct Answer is. RT = R1 + R2 + R3 .....Rn.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. What is the combined value of resistances of 4 ohm and 6 ohm connected in
parallel?.
Option A. 0.24 ohm.
Option B. 2.4 ohm.
Option C. 24 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 2.4 ohm.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel, the total resistance will be less than the smallest (but only slightly less).

Question Number. 16. If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance is.
Option A. smaller than the lowest.
Option B. the same as the lowest.
Option C. greater than the lowest.
Correct Answer is. smaller than the lowest.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel. Total resistance is smaller than the lowest single resistor.

Question Number. 17. The resistance to electrical flow in a wire depends on.
Option A. the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature.
Option B. the material only - copper or aluminium.
Option C. the length and material of the wire only.
Correct Answer is. the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor, and don't forget that most materials have a positive
temperature coefficient.

Question Number. 18. When resistors are in parallel the total current is equal to.
Option A. the current through one resistor.
Option B. the sum of the currents.
Option C. the reciprocal of all the currents.
Correct Answer is. the sum of the currents.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?.
Option A. Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area.
Option B. Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area.
Option C. Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor.

Question Number. 20. If 2 resistors, one red, yellow, black, gold and the other violet, blue, black, silver were
replaced by a single resistor. Ignoring tolerance, what would the colour coding be?.
Option A. Brown, black, brown.
Option B. Black, brown, black.
Option C. Brown, black, black.
Correct Answer is. Brown, black, brown.
Explanation. The red/yellow/black resistor is 24 ohms (get a colour code chart). The violet/blue/black resistor is 76
ohms. Total is 100 ohms. A 100 ohm resistor is brown/black/brown.

Question Number. 21. A 47 kilohm resistor has the following colour code:.
Option A. Yellow, Violet, Orange.
Option B. Red, Orange, Yellow.
Option C. Orange, Violet, Red.
Correct Answer is. Yellow, Violet, Orange.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. The bridge circuit shown will be balanced when the value of the unknown resistor R

is.
Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 18 ohms.
Option C. 14 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 2 ohms.
Explanation. 72 / 24 = 6 / R, R = 2 ohms.

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Question Number. 23. A 300 ohm resistor would have a colour code of.
Option A. orange, brown, black.
Option B. orange, orange, brown.
Option C. orange, black brown.
Correct Answer is. orange, black brown.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. In this circuit, Rx is equal to.

Option A. R2 * R4 ÷ R3.
Option B. R3 * R4 ÷ R2.
Option C. R3 * R2 ÷ R4.
Correct Answer is. R3 * R2 ÷ R4.
Explanation. Assuming the diagram is incomplete (no cross branch with a zeroed ammeter as per a Wheatstone bridge)
Take Rx/R3 = R2/R4 and transpose.

Question Number. 25. In a parallel circuit containing resistors.

Option A. the sum of the voltage drops equals applied voltage.
Option B. the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit.
Option C. resistance is determined by value of current flow.
Correct Answer is. the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit.
Explanation. In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is the same.

Question Number. 26. Five different value resistors all have the same voltage dropped across them. How are the
resistors connected?.
Option A. In Series/Parallel.
Option B. In Series.
Option C. In Parallel.
Correct Answer is. In Parallel.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel with each other all have the same voltage drop.

Question Number. 27. Conductance of a circuit is 2 milliMhos. What is its resistance?.

Option A. 5000 Ohms.
Option B. 500 Ohms.
Option C. 5 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. 500 Ohms.
Explanation. Conductance is the ease at which current flows. It is the inverse of resistance. (The unit 'Mho' is 'Ohm'
backwards). Conductance = 2/1000 Mhos. Therefore Resistance = 1000/2 Ohms.

Question Number. 28. When light hits a photodiode, its resistance.

Option A. stays the same.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. Resistance decreases with light intensity.

Question Number. 29. A 2 Megohm resistor can be written.

Option A. 2M0F.
Option B. 20MF.
Option C. M20F.
Correct Answer is. 2M0F.

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Explanation. Sometimes the multiplier, like M (for meg), or K (for kilo) or R (for 1) is put in place of the decimal point.
The last letter is the tolerance. See Forum for more info.

Question Number. 30. In a Wheatstone bridge at balance the galvanometer reads zero.
Option A. amps.
Option B. ohms.
Option C. volts.
Correct Answer is. amps.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The unit for resistivity is the.

Option A. ohms/square meter.
Option B. ohms/meter.
Option C. [Link].
Correct Answer is. [Link].
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 32. A 47 Kilohm resistor with a 10% tolerance has the following colour code:.
Option A. Yellow, Violet, Orange, Silver.
Option B. Orange, Violet, Red, Gold.
Option C. Red, Orange, Yellow, Silver.
Correct Answer is. Yellow, Violet, Orange, Silver.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 100.

Question Number. 33. The total resistance in a circuit is greater than the least resistor. This is true for a.
Option A. series and parallel circuit.
Option B. series circuit only.
Option C. parallel circuit only.
Correct Answer is. series circuit only.
Explanation. NIL.

07b. Resistance/Resistor.

Question Number. 1. The unknown resistance R in the Wheatstone bridge shown is.

Option A. 4 ohms.
Option B. 16 ohms.
Option C. 1 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 4 ohms.
Explanation. R = 2 * 8/4. Read up on Wheatstone bridges.

Question Number. 2. This is a symbol for.

Option A. a visual display rectifier.
Option B. a variable differential resistor.
Option C. a voltage dependant resistor.
Correct Answer is. a voltage dependant resistor.
Explanation. VDR = Voltage Dependant Resistor.

Question Number. 3. A potentiometer has which of the following properties?.

Option A. Wire wound.
Option B. 3 terminals.
Option C. Preset values.
Correct Answer is. 3 terminals.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. An increase in operating temperature in most electrical devices carrying current results
in.
Option A. a decrease in resistance and an increase in current.
Option B. no effect on the resistance and current.
Option C. an increase in resistance and a decrease in current.
Correct Answer is. an increase in resistance and a decrease in current.
Explanation. Most conductors have a 'positive temperature coefficient'. The exceptions are semiconductors.

Question Number. 5. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminium when comparing.

Option A. CSA with CSA.
Option B. weight for weight.
Option C. load for load.

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Correct Answer is. weight for weight.
Explanation. Copper is a better inductor but aluminium is much lighter. CSA = cross sectional area (not Child Support
Agency).

Question Number. 6. What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor when the temperature
increases?.
Option A. It decreases.
Option B. It increases.
Option C. It remains the same.
Correct Answer is. It increases.
Explanation. All materials excepts semiconductors have a positive temperature coefficient.

Question Number. 7. Carbon has a.

Option A. temperature coefficient of zero.
Option B. positive temperature coefficient.
Option C. negative temperature coefficient.
Correct Answer is. negative temperature coefficient.
Explanation. Carbon is a semiconductor, so its resistance reduces with temperature.

Question Number. 8. The 5th coloured band on a resistor represents the.

Option A. reliability or temperature coefficient.
Option B. tolerance.
Option C. multiplier.
Correct Answer is. tolerance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If the temperature of a pure metal is reduced to absolute zero, its resistance will
be.
Option A. unaffected.
Option B. practically zero.
Option C. infinity.
Correct Answer is. practically zero.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. What is represented by this diagram?.

Option A. Thermistor.
Option B. Rheostat.
Option C. Potentiometer.
Correct Answer is. Potentiometer.
Explanation. A potentiometer has 3 connections, a rheostat has only 2.

Question Number. 11. If a resistor is too small or misshapen to fit the colour code bands, how else is it's value
indicated?.
Option A. Dots.
Option B. Number code.
Option C. Letter code.
Correct Answer is. Letter code.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. This is a diagram of a.

Option A. Light Dependant Resistor.

Option B. Laser Diode Rectifier.
Option C. Logarithmic Differential Resistor.
Correct Answer is. Light Dependant Resistor.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 13. This is a diagram of a.
Option A. Variable Voltage source.
Option B. Variable Current source.
Option C. Variable Resistor.
Correct Answer is. Variable Resistor.
Explanation. A potentiometer is not a voltage or current 'source'.

Question Number. 14. Resistors required to carry a comparatively high current and dissipate high power are usually
of.
Option A. Wire wound metal type.
Option B. Carbon compound type.
Option C. Wire wound ceramic type.
Correct Answer is. Wire wound ceramic type.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 6, pg 101.

Question Number. 15. A thyristor.

Option A. if energized on, will switch on a circuit.
Option B. has a positive temperature coefficient.
Option C. if energized on, will switch off a circuit.
Correct Answer is. if energized on, will switch on a circuit.
Explanation. An SCR is an example of a thyristor.

Question Number. 16. The temperature of a pure metal can greatly affect the resistance of it. What temperature
scale is used?.
Option A. Absolute.
Option B. Centigrade.
Option C. Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. Centigrade.
Explanation. NIL.

08. Power.

Question Number. 1. A 10 V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the power
supplied?.
Option A. 100 W.
Option B. 10 VA.
Option C. 10 W.
Correct Answer is. 10 W.
Explanation. Power = I2R (time is not required). Resistive load only, so answer is in Watts.

Question Number. 2. A resistor dissipates 80 Watts. If it runs for 4 hours 15 minutes, how much energy is
dissipated in total?.
Option A. 20.4 kJ.
Option B. 1.224 MJ.
Option C. 191.25 J.
Correct Answer is. 1.224 MJ.
Explanation. Energy = Power * Time. Time must be in seconds. There are 3600 seconds in 1 hour - not 60.

Question Number. 3. The earth lead of a 24 V equipment is 0.5 ohm resistance and carries 80 A. How much power
does it dissipate?.
Option A. 1.92 kW.
Option B. 1.152 kW.
Option C. 3.2 kW.
Correct Answer is. 3.2 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2R. Since it is an earth lead it will not have the full 24V on it, so disregard voltage.

Question Number. 4. What is the power dissipated in a 500 ohm resistor with a 3A flow?.
Option A. 4.5 kW.
Option B. 1.5 kW.
Option C. 750 kW.
Correct Answer is. 4.5 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2R.

Question Number. 5. A DC circuit containing a total resistance of 100 ohms has a current flow of 250 mA. The
power dissipated in the circuit is.
Option A. 0.4 watts.
Option B. 5 watts.
Option C. 6.25 watts.
Correct Answer is. 6.25 watts.
Explanation. Power = I2R.

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Question Number. 6. Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in.
Option A. joules/second.
Option B. joules * seconds.
Option C. watts/second.
Correct Answer is. joules/second.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The power in a circuit when voltage and resistance is given can be found by.
Option A. V*R.
Option B. V*V*R.
Option C. V*V / R.
Correct Answer is. V*V / R.
Explanation. Power = V2 /R.

Question Number. 8. A 500 ohm resistor carries a 3 amp current. What is the power dissipated?.
Option A. 500 W.
Option B. 5 kW.
Option C. 4.5 kW.
Correct Answer is. 4.5 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2 R.

Question Number. 9. A 3 ohm resistor dissipates 27 Watts. How much current flows through it?.
Option A. 9 A.
Option B. 0.15 A.
Option C. 3 A.
Correct Answer is. 3 A.
Explanation. power = I2 R. Transpose for I.";.

Question Number. 10. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of three
resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor?.
Option A. 4 ohm.
Option B. 36 ohm.
Option C. 12 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 36 ohm.
Explanation. Each resistor dissipates 192/3 = 64 Watts. Voltage is the same across all resistors in parallel = 48 Volts.
Power = V-squared/R. Work out R.

Question Number. 11. A piece of equipment is rated at 750 watts and the applied voltage is 30 volts. The value of
the protection fuse should be.
Option A. 20 amps.
Option B. 15 amps.
Option C. 30 amps.
Correct Answer is. 30 amps.
Explanation. Power = amps * volts. Find the amperage from that. Then choose the fuse of the nearest size up.

Question Number. 12. How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which contains the following
series loads? 5 ohm, 3 ohm and 12 ohm.
Option A. 402 watts.
Option B. 28.8 watts.
Option C. 450 watts.
Correct Answer is. 28.8 watts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a resistance of 1000
ohms. The power dissipated by the circuit is.
Option A. 144 milliwatts.
Option B. 12 watts.
Option C. 12 milliwatts.
Correct Answer is. 144 milliwatts.
Explanation. Power = I2 R. Watch the prefix 'milli'. 'Milli' means divide by 1000. Square it and you must divide by
1,000,000.

Question Number. 14. In a power circuit, the purpose of an inductor is.

Option A. to dampen voltage surges.
Option B. to dampen current surges.
Option C. to dampen power surges.
Correct Answer is. to dampen power surges.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 15. In the circuit shown, the power developed across the 10 kilo ohm resistor is.

Option A. 250 mW.

Option B. 250 W.
Option C. 50 mW.
Correct Answer is. 250 mW.
Explanation. Power = I2 R = 0.005 * 0.005 * 10,000 = 0.000,025 * 10,000 = 0.25W = 250mW.

Question Number. 16. A single phase circuit has an input voltage of 100V. The current is 10A and the circuit has a
power factor of 0.5. The true power is.
Option A. 50W.
Option B. 1000W.
Option C. 500W.
Correct Answer is. 500W.
Explanation. Apparent Power = IV = 100 * 10 = 1000 VA. True Power = PF * Apparent Power = 0.5 * 1000 = 500W.

Question Number. 17. Power in a DC circuit is found by.

Option A. multiplying the voltage by itself and dividing by the current.
Option B. multiplying current by resistance.
Option C. multiplying the resistance by the current squared.
Correct Answer is. multiplying the resistance by the current squared.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. If the energy supplied to a circuit for 4hrs 15 minutes at 800 j/sec what would be the energy
consumed?.
Option A. 3400 KW Hrs.
Option B. 3.4 KW Hrs.
Option C. 340 KW Hrs.
Correct Answer is. 3.4 KW Hrs.
Explanation. 4 hours 15 minutes = 4 1/4 hours. Energy = power * time = 800 * 4 1/4 = 3400 = 3.4 kW hrs.

Question Number. 19. A heater which consumes 800 Kilojoules/sec is on for 4hrs 15min. The energy consumed
is.
Option A. 340 kWh.
Option B. 3.4 kWh.
Option C. 3400 kWh.
Correct Answer is. 3400 kWh.
Explanation. kJ/s = kW. 800 * 4.25 = 3400 kWh.

Question Number. 20. A voltage of 250V causes a current of 30mA. What is the wattage?.
Option A. 7.5W.
Option B. 7500W.
Option C. 0.225W.
Correct Answer is. 7.5W.
Explanation. Power = IV = 30/1000 * 250 = 7.5W.

Question Number. 21. Which requires the most electrical power during operation?.
Option A. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes.
Option B. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit.
Option C. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24volt parallel system.
Correct Answer is. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24volt parallel system.
Explanation. a is 12*8=96W, b is 30*4 = 120W, c is 3*24*2=144W.

Question Number. 22. The power dissipated in a circuit with a known potential difference and resistance is
calculated by.
Option A. multiplying the square of the potential difference by the resistance.
Option B. dividing the square of the potential difference by the resistance.
Option C. finding the current and multiplying the answer by the resistance.
Correct Answer is. finding the current and multiplying the answer by the resistance. OR dividing the square of the
potential difference by the resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. The power expended in a given circuit is.

Option A. inversely proportional to cube-root of the current.
Option B. proportional to the square-root of the voltage.
Option C. proportional to the square of the voltage.

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Correct Answer is. proportional to the square of the voltage.
Explanation. NIL.

09. Capacitance/capacitor.

Question Number. 1. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20 Volts. The battery is
replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage across the capacitor after one time constant?.
Option A. 0 volts.
Option B. 7.36 volts.
Option C. 12.64 volts.
Correct Answer is. 7.36 volts.
Explanation. The capacitor is discharging - so it discharges 63.2% in one time constant - so what is left?.

Question Number. 2. The voltage rating of a capacitor is.

Option A. the max voltage that can be constantly applied.
Option B. the min voltage required to charge.
Option C. the normal operating voltage.
Correct Answer is. the max voltage that can be constantly applied.
Explanation. Exceed the voltage at which the capacitor is rated, and you destroy the capacitor.

Question Number. 3. The relative permittivity of a capacitor is.

Option A. the permittivity of the dielectric.
Option B. the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum.
Option C. the permittivity of dielectric in relation to dry air.
Correct Answer is. the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum.
Explanation. 'Relative' means relative to 'free space' (a 'vacuum' in other words).

Question Number. 4. When checking a capacitor with an ohmmeter, if the reading shows charging but the final
reading is less than normal then the possible fault is a.
Option A. leaking dielectric capacitor.
Option B. short circuit dielectric.
Option C. open circuit dielectric.
Correct Answer is. leaking dielectric capacitor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Three capacitors 10 microfarads, 10 nanofarads and 10 millifarads are connected in parallel.
What is the total capacitance?.
Option A. 10.01001 millifarads.
Option B. 111 millifarads.
Option C. 1.001001 millifarads.
Correct Answer is. 10.01001millifarads.
Explanation. The biggest capacitor of the three is the 10 milliFarad. The other two are fractions of one milliFarad. So the
answer must be 10.**** milliFarad (no sums required).

Question Number. 6. If a 1milliFarad capacitor has a potential difference across it of 5V, what is the energy
stored?.
Option A. 12.5 Joules.
Option B. 12.5 milliJoules.
Option C. 25 mJoules.
Correct Answer is. 12.5 mJoules.
Explanation. Energy stored in a capacitor = 1/2 C V-squared (only the V is squared).

Question Number. 7. A capacitor with double the area and double the dielectric thickness will have.
Option A. double the capacitance.
Option B. the same capacitance.
Option C. half the capacitance.
Correct Answer is. the same capacitance.
Explanation. Get the formula for capacitance of a capacitor.

Question Number. 8. An electrolytic capacitor is used where.

Option A. minimum losses are essential.
Option B. there is a polarized input.
Option C. high frequency AC is used.
Correct Answer is. there is a polarized input.
Explanation. Wiring an electrolytic capacitor wrong polarity will destroy it. AC will therefore destroy it. Current must be
DC (i.e. polarised) and the right way.

Question Number. 9. What must you do to make a 3 F capacitor circuit into a 2 F circuit?.
Option A. Put a 2 F capacitor in parallel.
Option B. Put a 6 F capacitor in series.
Option C. Put a 1 F capacitor in series.

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Correct Answer is. Put a 6 F capacitor in series.
Explanation. To reduce the capacitance of a circuit you must place a capacitor in series (formula is same as resistors in
parallel). You do the maths to see which one it is.

Question Number. 10. The time required to fully charge a 1 µ(micro)F capacitor in series with a 100k ohm resistor
is.
Option A. 100 seconds.
Option B. 100 milliseconds.
Option C. 500 milliseconds.
Correct Answer is. 500 milliseconds.
Explanation. Time-constant (=RC) is 100 ms. Time-constant is time to reach 63.2% of full charge. Time to fully charge = 5
* TC = 500 ms.

Question Number. 11. A 50 μ(micro) Farad capacitor is fed with a current of 25 milliAmpere. How long will it take
to charge it to 100Volts?.
Option A. 1 second.
Option B. 0.2 seconds.
Option C. 12 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 1 second.
Explanation. Work out the resistance in the circuit first (R=V/I) (4000 ohms). Then work out the time constant (TC=RC).
Time to charge = 5RC.

Question Number. 12. In a circuit C = 25 microfarads and the current flow is 40 microamps for 4 seconds. What is
the voltage?.
Option A. 6.4Volts.
Option B. 3.2Volts.
Option C. 12.8Volts.
Correct Answer is. 6.4Volts.
Explanation. Since Q = VC and Q = It, then VC = It right? So V = It/C. Watch those unit prefixes.

Question Number. 13. Three 12 µ(micro)F capacitors are in series. The total capacitance is.
Option A. 12 µ(micro)F.
Option B. 4 µ(micro)F.
Option C. 36 µ(micro)F.
Correct Answer is. 4 µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Capacitors in series - total capacitance reduces. equal capacitors and total will be 1/3rd of one.

Question Number. 14. The time constant of a capacitor is the time.

Option A. the current to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Option B. for the emf to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Option C. to reach maximum current.
Correct Answer is. for the emf to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Explanation.

Question Number. 15. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the.
Option A. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
Option B. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area.
Option C. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates.
Correct Answer is. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates. OR plate area and inversely
proportional to the distance between the plates.
Explanation. Get the formula for the capacitance of a capacitor.

Question Number. 16. The capacitance of a capacitor is dependant upon.

Option A. the rate of change of current in the circuit.
Option B. the type of material separating the plates.
Option C. the charge on it.
Correct Answer is. the type of material separating the plates.
Explanation. The capacitance of a capacitor is only dependant upon its physical properties (size and material) and not
what you apply to it.

Question Number. 17. When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total capacitance
is.
Option A. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor.
Option B. equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor.
Option C. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.
Correct Answer is. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.
Explanation. Get the formula for capacitors in parallel (it is like resistors in series).

Question Number. 18. One Picofarad is.

Option A. 1 * 1012 farad.
Option B. 1 * 10-6 farad.

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Option C. 1 * 10-12 farad.
Correct Answer is. 1 * 10-12 farad.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. The switch on a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is opened. The voltage across
the capacitor.
Option A. drops immediately to zero.
Option B. starts to fall exponentially to zero.
Option C. remains equal to the original charging voltage supply.
Correct Answer is. remains equal to the original charging voltage supply.
Explanation. If there is no external circuit, the charge can go nowhere.

Question Number. 20. The current in a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is.
Option A. zero.
Option B. is dependent upon the size of the capacitance of the capacitor.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. If the capacitor is fully charged, it is equal and opposite to the source voltage, so no current flows.

Question Number. 21. A capacitor is a barrier to.

Option A. both.
Option B. A.C.
Option C. D.C.
Correct Answer is. D.C.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. What is the total capacitance of a parallel circuit containing three capacitors with
capacitance of 0.25microfarad, 0.03microfarad, and 0.12microfarad, respectively?.
Option A. 0.4 µ(micro)F.
Option B. 0.04 µ(micro)F.
Option C. 0.04 piko Farad.
Correct Answer is. 0.4 µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Capacitors in parallel, the same formula as resistors in series - i.e. just add them all up.

Question Number. 23. When two capacitors are connected in series.

Option A. the charge stored on each is inversely proportional to the voltage across it.
Option B. the charge stored on each is the same.
Option C. the charge stored on each is directly proportional to its capacitance.
Correct Answer is. the charge stored on each is the same.
Explanation. If they were not the same, there would be a current flow between them, until they equalised out.

Question Number. 24. The charge on a capacitor is expressed as.

Option A. the ratio Q/V.
Option B. the product Q * V.
Option C. the product C * V.
Correct Answer is. the product C * V.
Explanation. Remember Q = VC.

Question Number. 25. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it.
Option A. has a full charge before removing it from the circuit.
Option B. is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
Option C. has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit.
Correct Answer is. is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
Explanation. Charged capacitors can be lethal, even when charged to say, 1 volt.

Question Number. 26. The dielectric constant of a capacitor is a measurement of.

Option A. the electrical resistance of the capacitor dielectric.
Option B. the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric.
Option C. the electrical repulsion of electrons within the dielectric material.
Correct Answer is. the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. Three 12 microfarad capacitors in parallel. The overall circuit capacitance is.
Option A. 4 microfarads.
Option B. 1 microfarads.
Option C. 36 microfarads.
Correct Answer is. 36 microfarads.
Explanation. Capacitors in parallel - just add them up.

Question Number. 28. A circuit has 1 megohm and 8 microfarads. What is the time constant?.

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Option A. 8 seconds.
Option B. 1 second.
Option C. 40 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 seconds.
Explanation. Time constant = RC. The mega and the micro cancel.

Question Number. 29. A capacitor rating is.

Option A. the voltage it will charge to.
Option B. the maximum continuous voltage it can take.
Option C. the voltage it will rupture at.
Correct Answer is. the maximum continuous voltage it can take.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. The multiplier colour coding on a capacitor is in.

Option A. picofarads.
Option B. farads.
Option C. microfarads.
Correct Answer is. picofarads.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The total capacitance of the circuit shown is.

Option A. 36µ(micro)F.
Option B. 4µ(micro)F.
Option C. 3µ(micro)F.
Correct Answer is. 4µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Total capacitance (of capacitors in series) = 12/3 = 4 microfarads.

Question Number. 32. When a capacitor is charged from a DC supply, the voltage/time curve is.
Option A. logarithmic.
Option B. linear.
Option C. exponential.
Correct Answer is. exponential.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. An electrolytic capacitor is used because it has a.

Option A. small physical size for low leakage current.
Option B. large physical size for a large capacity.
Option C. small physical size for a large capacity.
Correct Answer is. small physical size for a large capacity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. An electrolytic capacitor would be used in circuits supplying.

Option A. heavy loads.
Option B. light loads.
Option C. heavy / light loads.
Correct Answer is. heavy / light loads.
Explanation. Electrolytic capacitors are used in circuits of all sizes.

Question Number. 35. A 20 Picofarad capacitor with a 1 Megohm resistor takes how long to charge?.
Option A. 100 microseconds.
Option B. 20 milliseconds.
Option C. 0.1 second.
Correct Answer is. 100 microseconds.
Explanation. Time constant (TC) = RC = 20/1,000,000,000,000 * 1,000,000 = 20/1,000,000 = 20 microseconds. But fully
charged is 5 * TC = 100 microseconds.

Question Number. 36. The discharge curve of a capacitor is.

Option A. Exponential.
Option B. Logarithmic.
Option C. Linear.
Correct Answer is. Exponential.

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Explanation. The capacitor discharge curve is an exponential decay, however, the charge curve is logarithmic (the inverse
of exponential).

Question Number. 37. What is the value of a monolithic capacitor with 103 on it?.
Option A. 1000pf.
Option B. 10,000pf.
Option C. 100,000pf.
Correct Answer is. 10,000pf.
Explanation. 103 means 10 followed by 3 zeros. Capacitors are always measured in picofarads.

Question Number. 38. What is the formula for working out the capacitance of a capacitor if K = dielectric constant,
A = area of the plates, d = distance plates apart?.
Option A. c = K*A/d.
Option B. c = d/K*A.
Option C. c = K*d/A.
Correct Answer is. c = K*A/d.
Explanation. C = K*A/d.

Question Number. 39. Total capacitance of 3 capacitors each 12milliFarad in a parallel circuit.
Option A. 36milliFarad.
Option B. 12milliFarad.
Option C. 6mf.
Correct Answer is. 36milliFarad.
Explanation. Total C = = C1 + C2 + C3 (capacitors in parallel).

Question Number. 40. A combination of 1 megohm and 8 microfarad would give a time constant of.
Option A. 40 seconds.
Option B. 400 ms.
Option C. 8 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 seconds.
Explanation. 1,000,000 * 8/1,000,000 = 8 seconds. Note: Time Constant is asked for, not 'time to charge'.

Question Number. 41. Generally, what is the voltage across a fully charged capacitor?.
Option A. Less than circuit voltage.
Option B. Same as circuit voltage.
Option C. More than circuit voltage.
Correct Answer is. Same as circuit voltage.
Explanation. The answer to this question depends upon how accurate you want to go. Normal theory is that a fully
charged capacitor has an equal (and opposite) voltage to the supply. However, a capacitor is never fully charged (something
in the order of 99.999999% charged).

Question Number. 42. When would you use an electrolytic capacitor?.

Option A. On a balanced circuit.
Option B. Low output compared to size required.
Option C. Large output compared to size required.
Correct Answer is. Large output compared to size required.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 43. A capacitor has Brown, Black and Orange bands. It's value is.
Option A. 10 picofarads.
Option B. 10 nanofarads.
Option C. 100 picofarads.
Correct Answer is. 10 nanofarads.
Explanation. Brown = 1, Black = 0, Orange = x1000. Total is 10,000 picofarads (always picofarads with capacitors) = 10
nanofarads.

Question Number. 44. Voltage measured between the plates of a capacitor will be generally.
Option A. can dangerously higher than applied voltage.
Option B. the same as applied voltage.
Option C. less than applied voltage.
Correct Answer is. the same as applied voltage.
Explanation. Technically the voltage on a charged capacitor never reaches the applied voltage. It gets to 99.99999% (and
more).

Question Number. 45. Dielectric constant of a capacitor is.

Option A. max V that can be applied to a capacitor.
Option B. electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric.
Option C. max I stored in the capacitor.
Correct Answer is. electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric.
Explanation. The dielectric stores electrical energy.

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Question Number. 46. One microfarad is.

Option A. 1 * 10-12 farads.
Option B. 1 * 1012 farads.
Option C. 1 * 10-6 farads.
Correct Answer is. 1 * 10-6 farads.
Explanation. Jepperson, A+P Technician General Handbook, Chapter 1, page 22.

Question Number. 47. A circuit with a capacitor has 6 volts applied to it with a charge of 2400 pico-coulombs. What
would the charge be if the applied voltage was 1.5 volts ?.
Option A. 2400 * 10-12 coulombs.
Option B. 600 * 10-9 coulombs.
Option C. 600 * 10-12 coulombs.
Correct Answer is. 600 * 10-12 coulombs.
Explanation. Q = CV, so direct relationship of charge to voltage. 1.5V is 1/4 of 6V, so charge is 1/4 of 2400 picocoulombs.
Note this is more of a question on pico and nano and whether you know the difference.

Question Number. 48. In a capacitor, the dielectric strength is measured in.

Option A. Farads per meter.
Option B. Volts per metre.
Option C. Coulombs per m2.
Correct Answer is. Farads per meter.
Explanation.

Question Number. 49. Three capacitors connected in series, each having a value of 12 picofarads, calculate the
total capacitance.
Option A. 36 picofarads.
Option B. 4 picofarads.
Option C. 12 picofarads.
Correct Answer is. 4 picofarads.
Explanation. 12/3 = 4.

10a. Magnetism.

Question Number. 1. Magnetic inclination is the least at the.

Option A. poles.
Option B. equator.
Option C. isoclines.
Correct Answer is. equator.
Explanation. 'Inclination' is the same as 'dip'. Dip is greatest at the poles and least at the equator.

Question Number. 2. Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized.

Option A. below a certain temperature.
Option B. above a certain temperature.
Option C. within a band of temperatures.
Correct Answer is. below a certain temperature.
Explanation. Read up on the 'Curie Point'.

Question Number. 3. Glass is an example of a.

Option A. coercive material.
Option B. paramagnetic material.
Option C. diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. diamagnetic material.
Explanation. Glass is diamagnetic.

Question Number. 4. A solenoid of 10 turns per metre carries a current of 5A. If the current is reduced to 2.5A,
how many turns would be required to maintain the same magnetic field?.
Option A. 20.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 5.
Correct Answer is. 20.
Explanation. Flux = N*I, so halve the current you must double the windings.

Question Number. 5. Which of the following materials is easiest to magnetize?.

Option A. High grade steel.
Option B. Soft iron.
Option C. Cast iron.
Correct Answer is. Soft iron.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. To find which end of an electromagnet is the north pole, use the.

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Option A. Fleming's Left Hand Rule.
Option B. Right Hand Clasp Rule.
Option C. Cork Screw Rule.
Correct Answer is. Right Hand Clasp Rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The earth's magnetic field is greatest at the.

Option A. magnetic equator.
Option B. geographic poles.
Option C. magnetic poles.
Correct Answer is. magnetic poles.
Explanation. Flux density is greatest at the magnetic poles, where all the flux lines converge.

Question Number. 8. The lines of magnetic flux from a magnet will.

Option A. attract each other.
Option B. repel each other.
Option C. have no effect upon each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. Of the following which pair of materials would most readily become
magnetized?.
Option A. Iron and steel.
Option B. Copper and steel.
Option C. Nickel and bronze.
Correct Answer is. Iron and steel.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because.
Option A. its magnetism is not easily destroyed.
Option B. it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized.
Option C. it demagnetizes easily.
Correct Answer is. it demagnetizes easily.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. If the North pole of a magnet is brought nearer to the North pole of another
magnet.
Option A. attraction between them will be increased.
Option B. repulsion between them will be reduced.
Option C. repulsion between them will be increased.
Correct Answer is. repulsion between them will be increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Where is the magnetic dip least?.

Option A. Poles.
Option B. Isoclinals.
Option C. Equator.
Correct Answer is. Equator.
Explanation. Magnetic dip is another name for inclination. It is least at the equator, and maximum (90 degrees)at the
magnetic poles.

Question Number. 13. When a number of ferrite pieces are grouped together, they.
Option A. are semi-permanent magnets when DC is passed through them.
Option B. electromagnets.
Option C. can be used to store binary code.
Correct Answer is. can be used to store binary code.
Explanation. Magnetic tape uses tiny ferrite particles coated onto a plastic tape.

Question Number. 14. Ampere turns is calculated by the number of turns.

Option A. multiplied by current.
Option B. divided by current.
Option C. multiplied by magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. multiplied by current.
Explanation. Ampere turns means AMPS * TURNS.

Question Number. 15. The unit of flux is the.

Option A. Ampere turns / metre.
Option B. Weber.
Option C. Ampere turns.
Correct Answer is. Weber.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 16. Lines of magnetic flux pass from.

Option A. South to North.
Option B. East to West.
Option C. North to South.
Correct Answer is. North to South.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. Why is ferrite used in memory circuits?.

Option A. High reluctance.
Option B. Low permeability.
Option C. High remanence.
Correct Answer is. High remanence.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. Magnetic lines are flowing parallel. They will.
Option A. have no effect on each other.
Option B. attract each other.
Option C. repel each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. Assuming this means parallel AND in the same direction, they will repel each other. Like the magnetic fields
around two wires, carrying current in opposite directions.

Question Number. 19. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is most strongly felt at.
Option A. equator.
Option B. 45 degrees latitude.
Option C. poles.
Correct Answer is. equator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. Two parallel lines of magnetic flux in the same polarity.
Option A. repel each other.
Option B. have no effect on each other.
Option C. attract each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. Magnetic fields around two parallel conductors carrying current in the same directions
will.
Option A. repel.
Option B. attract.
Option C. will attract or repel depending on the type of current.
Correct Answer is. attract.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 22. Magnetic field on a solenoid is.

Option A. the same both inside and outside the coil.
Option B. weakest outside the coil.
Option C. strongest outside the coil.
Correct Answer is. weakest outside the coil.
Explanation. NIL.

10b. Magnetism.

Question Number. 1. Which of the following is absolute permeability?.

Option A. µ(micro)r.
Option B. µo(micro node).
Option C. µ(micro).
Correct Answer is. µ(micro). Explanation µ(micro) = µo(micro node)*µ(micro)r.

Question Number. 2. The symbol for flux density is.

Option A. H(capital).
Option B. ø(phy).
Option C. B(capital).
Correct Answer is. B(capital).
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability of.

Option A. zero.
Option B. less than unity.
Option C. greater than unity.
Correct Answer is. greater than unity.

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Explanation. A paramagnetic material has a greater permeability than free space (vacuum). so its relative permeability is
greater than 1.

Question Number. 4. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily?.
Option A. Copper.
Option B. Iron.
Option C. Aluminium.
Correct Answer is. Iron.
Explanation. Iron (especially soft iron) has the greatest permeability.

Question Number. 5. Permanent magnets have.

Option A. high reluctance, high coercive force.
Option B. low reluctance, high coercive force.
Option C. high reluctance, low coercive force.
Correct Answer is. high reluctance, high coercive force.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The term used to denote the strength of a magnetic field is.
Option A. retentivity.
Option B. hysteresis.
Option C. flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density. Explanation Flux density is the number of flux lines per unit cross sectional
area.

Question Number. 7. A soft iron core is used in an ELECTRO magnet because.

Option A. it has LOW permeability and HIGH coercivity.
Option B. it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity.
Option C. it has HIGH permeability and HIGH coercivity.
Correct Answer is. it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. A non-magnetic metal.

Option A. has high retentivity.
Option B. has no permeability.
Option C. is a poor conductor.
Correct Answer is. has no permeability.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. What is the effect of inserting an iron core into a current carrying coil?.
Option A. The flux density of the original magnetic field remains constant.
Option B. The core tends to move from a stronger to a weaker part of the field.
Option C. The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is increased.
Correct Answer is. The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. Flux density will.

Option A. increase linearly with coercive force.
Option B. decrease linearly with magnetic flux.
Option C. increase linearly with magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. increase linearly with magnetic flux.
Explanation Flux density = magnetic flux lines per unit cross sectional area.

Question Number. 11. Storage of magnets should be.

Option A. in a non magnetic pox.
Option B. in pairs with keeper plates.
Option C. in pairs end to end.
Correct Answer is. in pairs with keeper plates.
Explanation. Bar magnets are stored in pairs (end-to-end) and with keeper plates. (See forum for explanation).

Question Number. 12. The hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is on a graph with.
Option A. current against flux density.
Option B. flux density against magnetising force.
Option C. total flux against flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density against magnetising force.
Explanation. The hysteresis curve is MMF against B.

Question Number. 13. A material with a narrow hysteresis loop.

Option A. cannot be magnetised.
Option B. will have high retentivity.

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Option C. will have low retentivity.
Correct Answer is. will have low retentivity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. If a bar magnet is cut in half.

Option A. the magnet is destroyed.
Option B. two bar magnets are formed.
Option C. one bar magnet and one non-magnet is formed.
Correct Answer is. two bar magnets are formed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. Copper is a.

Option A. ferromagnetic material.
Option B. paramagnetic materials.
Option C. diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. diamagnetic material.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. The MMF of a coil fed with 2 amps and having 10 turns is.
Option A. 5 ampere turns.
Option B. 20 amperes / turn.
Option C. 20 ampere turns.
Correct Answer is. 20 ampere turns.
Explanation. MMF (symbol H) is amps * turns. Unit is Ampere Turns.

Question Number. 17. An example of a paramagnetic material is.

Option A. silver.
Option B. iron.
Option C. glass.
Correct Answer is. iron.
Explanation. Iron is a paramagnetic (ferromagnetic actually), the other 2 are diamagnetics (LBP notes are wrong about
glass).

Question Number. 18. Vibration in a magnet causes.

Option A. flux to stay the same.
Option B. flux to decrease.
Option C. flux to increase.
Correct Answer is. flux to decrease.
Explanation. A good way to destroy a magnet is to drop it or subject it to high frequency vibrations.

Question Number. 19. Permeability of a material can be found by.

Option A. flux density / MMF.
Option B. MMF * flux density.
Option C. MMF / flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density / MMF.
Explanation. Permeability = B/H (Reluctance = H/B, similar to resistance R = V/I).

Question Number. 20. When magnetizing a piece of material, magnetic strength will rise.
Option A. non-linearly with magnetic force.
Option B. linearly with coercive force.
Option C. linearly with magnetic force.
Correct Answer is. non-linearly with magnetic force.
Explanation. Magnetic force is MMF (or H in Henries). It is not linear because of magnetic saturation.

Question Number. 21. A material exposed to heat will.

Option A. have no effect on magnetism.
Option B. be easier to magnetise.
Option C. be harder to magnetise.
Correct Answer is. be harder to magnetise.
Explanation. The 'curie' temperature is the temperature above which the material cannot be magnetised.

Question Number. 22. If cobalt has a permeability of 4800 it is a.

Option A. ferromagnetic.
Option B. paramagnetic.
Option C. diamagnetic.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic.
Explanation Cobalt is a hard ferromagnetic silver-white element. [Link]

Question Number. 23. Cobalt has a permeability.

Option A. greater than unity.

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Option B. less than unity.
Option C. same as unity.
Correct Answer is. greater than unity.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 24. Magnetic flux.

Option A. exist in all space around the magnet.
Option B. is more concentrated at the centre of bar magnet.
Option C. occupies the space around the magnet with equal flux density.
Correct Answer is. exist in all space around the magnet.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. The ability of a circuit to produce a magnetic flux under the influence of a MMF.
Option A. permeance.
Option B. permeability.
Option C. permanence.
Correct Answer is. permeability.
Explanation Aircraft Electrical System. Pallett 3rd Edition appendix one page 196.

Question Number. 26. Magnetic flux saturation takes place when.

Option A. the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux.
Option B. the magnetic field drops to zero.
Option C. the magnetic field starts to reduce with increased magnetising force.
Correct Answer is. the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux.
Explanation See a B-H diagram.

Question Number. 27. Cables are shielded to prevent 'H' magnetic interference in wires with the following
material.
Option A. Copper braiding.
Option B. Ferromagnetic material.
Option C. Diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. Copper braiding.
Explanation Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th edition Page 78.

Question Number. 28. Spontaneous magnetism is associated with.

Option A. diamagnetic materials.
Option B. ferromagnetic materials.
Option C. paramagnetic materials.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic materials.
Explanation NIL. [Link]

11. Inductance/inductor.

Question Number. 1. Two inductive coils are placed in close proximity with each other at 90 degrees. The number
of flux linkages is.
Option A. 0.
Option B. maximum negative.
Option C. maximum positive.
Correct Answer is. 0.
Explanation The coils must be parallel for maximum flux linkages (coupling factor). Coupling factor reduces as angular
difference increases to.

Question Number. 2. What is the mutual inductance if two coils of 10mH and 500mH have 90% of the flux
transferred from one to the other?.
Option A. 459mH.
Option B. 4.5mH.
Option C. 63mH.
Correct Answer is. 63mH.
Explanation Total inductance = 0.9 * root * 10 * 500 = 63.

Question Number. 3. An inductor has 1,000 turns of wire and a cross sectional area of 0.001m2. If the core has a
permeability of 0.000,001 and the coil is 0.1m. What is the value of the inductor?.
Option A. 100microH.
Option B. 100mH.
Option C. 10mH.
Correct Answer is. 10mH.
Explanation 0.000001*1000*0.001/0.1 = 0.01 = 10 mH.

Question Number. 4. Three inductors 10 mH, 5 mH and 20 mH are connected in parallel. What is the total
inductance?.
Option A. Without knowing the coupling factor the total inductance cannot be found.

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Option B. 2.86mH.
Option C. 35mH.
Correct Answer is. 2.86mH.
Explanation In parallel, the total inductance is lower than the lowest single inductance.

Question Number. 5. If the current reaches a maximum through an inductor of 2A in 15 seconds, what is the
current after 3 seconds?.
Option A. 1.26A.
Option B. 0.63A.
Option C. 1A.
Correct Answer is. 1.26A.
Explanation 1 time constant = 15/5 = 3s. 100% charge = 2A, so 1 time constant (63.2%) = 1.26A.

Question Number. 6. The time constant of an inductor is.

Option A. L/R.
Option B. L2 /R.
Option C. LR.
Correct Answer is. L/R.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 7. If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will.
Option A. stay the same.
Option B. halve.
Option C. double.
Correct Answer is. stay the same.
Explanation Get the formula for mutual inductance. Rate of change of current (i.e. frequency) is not in it.

Question Number. 8. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?.
Option A. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
Option B. To reduce the core reluctance.
Option C. To increase the core permeability.
Correct Answer is. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 9. When more than two inductors of different inductance are connected in parallel in a circuit,
the total inductance is.
Option A. equal to the sum of the individual inductance.
Option B. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor.
Option C. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.
Correct Answer is. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.
Explanation Adding inductors in parallel is the same formula as resistors in parallel (i.e. adding an inductor actually
decreases the inductance).

Question Number. 10. The time constant in an inductive circuit is the time required for the current to
reach.
Option A. 70.7% of maximum value.
Option B. 63.2% of maximum value.
Option C. 63.7% of maximum value.
Correct Answer is. 63.2% of maximum value.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 11. An AC inductive circuit has an inductance 0f 10 mH and a frequency input of 1000Hz. The
opposition to current flow is approximately.
Option A. 63 ohms.
Option B. 63,000 ohms.
Option C. 630 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 63 ohms.
Explanation Inductive reactance is 2pi * f * L = 6.28 * 1000 * 10/1000 = 62.8 ohms.

Question Number. 12. Rotating coil B through 90° will.

Option A. increase the EMF induced into B.

Option B. increase the EMF induced into A.
Option C. decrease the EMF induced into B.
Correct Answer is. decrease the EMF induced into B.
Explanation Coupling factor is maximum when the coils are parallel. It is zero if they are at 90° to each other.

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Question Number. 13. An inductor of resistance 5 kΩ and inductance 2mH is connected to a DC circuit. The time
constant is.
Option A. 400 ns.
Option B. 10 seconds.
Option C. 40 ms.
Correct Answer is. 400 ns.
Explanation Time constant = L/R = 2mH/5000 = 0.000,000,4 seconds = 400 ns.

Question Number. 14. When switching off the supply, the back EMF in a collapsing field in an inductor.
Option A. can be multiple times bigger than forward EMF.
Option B. never exceeds forward EMF.
Option C. is equal to forward EMF.
Correct Answer is. can be multiple times bigger than forward EMF.
Explanation The size of the back-emf depends upon how fast the magnetic field is collapsing. That is how your car
ignition turns 12V into several thousand volts.

Question Number. 15. An induced current in a coil.

Option A. opposes the EMF producing it.
Option B. does not affect the EMF producing it.
Option C. aids the EMF producing it.
Correct Answer is. opposes the EMF producing it.
Explanation The induced current in a coil (inductor) opposes the current which produces it.

Question Number. 16. 1 Volt is produced when a current of 1 Amp per second is varied in a coil'. This is a definition
of.
Option A. 1 Ampere per metre.
Option B. 1 Henry.
Option C. 1 Coulomb per second.
Correct Answer is. 1 Henry.
Explanation Lens' Law BEMF = -L dI/dt Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallet's 3rd Edition Appendix 1 page 195.

Question Number. 17. Two inductor coils in very close proximity; if one of the coils is rotated 90 degrees slowly
away from the other the mutual inductance.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation Coupling factor (mutual inductance) decreases to zero at 90 degrees.

Question Number. 18. An inductor is said to be saturated when.

Option A. the current is at a maximum.
Option B. the current through it is zero.
Option C. it will no longer accept lines of flux.
Correct Answer is. it will no longer accept lines of flux.
Explanation NIL.

12. DC Motor/Generator Theory .

Question Number. 1. In a DC motor, the stator's magnetic field, due to armature reaction, moves.
Option A. in the same direction of rotation of the armature.
Option B. in the opposite direction of rotation of the armature.
Option C. into alignment with the GNA.
Correct Answer is. in the opposite direction of rotation of the armature.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A small air gap between magnetic poles results.

Option A. in a weaker field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Option B. in a stronger field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Option C. in the same field as a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Correct Answer is. in the same field as a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Explanation. Magnetic field (number of flux lines) is the same regardless of distance between poles. However, the field
density (flux density) will increase with a smaller air gap.

Question Number. 3. The electromagnetic brake coil in an actuator would be energised.

Option A. only at the instant of starting and stopping.
Option B. all the time in flight.

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Option C. only when the actuator is running.
Correct Answer is. only when the actuator is running.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a shunt wound direct current motor with a constant voltage field supply, the torque
developed by the motor is.
Option A. independent of load.
Option B. directly proportional to armature current.
Option C. inversely proportional to the armature current.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to armature current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will.

Option A. decrease speed and increase torque.
Option B. increase speed and increase torque.
Option C. increase speed and decrease torque.
Correct Answer is. increase speed and increase torque.
Explanation. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will reduce the back emf in the armature so the armature
current will increase giving a rise in torque and the RPM will increase as a consequence.

Question Number. 6. To calculate generator output you need to know the.

Option A. armature speed and number of series conductors.
Option B. armature speed and field strength.
Option C. armature speed and number of parallel conductors.
Correct Answer is. armature speed and field strength.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and the armature current, the motor
will.
Option A. stop.
Option B. change direction.
Option C. continue to run in the same direction.
Correct Answer is. continue to run in the same direction.
Explanation. Prove it with Fleming's left hand rule.

Question Number. 8. A starter generator has a.

Option A. low resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.
Option B. low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field.
Option C. high resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.
Correct Answer is. low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If the brake coil on an actuator motor goes open circuit, the actuator will.
Option A. run slower.
Option B. stop.
Option C. over-ride its mechanical stops.
Correct Answer is. stop.
Explanation. The brake coil is wired in series with the actuator motor coil. It withdraws a spring loaded lock to release
the actuator when current is applied.

Question Number. 10. The diagram shows a 200 V long shunt generator. What is the voltage dropped across the
series resistor?.
Option A. 0.12 V.
Option B. 0.2 V.
Option C. 200 V.
Correct Answer is. 0.12 V.
Explanation. Don't let the field configuration confuse you. The 0.04 and 100 ohm resistors are part of the generator and
can be ignored. Just consider the 0.06 ohm (the series resistor) and the load resistor. Calculate current (about 2A) then
calculate voltage across 0.06 ohm resistor.

Question Number. 11. If a generator speed is halved and the field strength is doubled, the voltage output will
be.
Option A. unchanged.
Option B. doubled.
Option C. halved.
Correct Answer is. unchanged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?.
Option A. reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Option B. rotate the positive brush one commutator segment.

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Option C. interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source.
Correct Answer is. reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft
generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the.
Option A. speed at which the armature rotates.
Option B. strength of the magnetic field.
Option C. number of conductors in the armature.
Correct Answer is. strength of the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and
armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type?.
Option A. Compound.
Option B. Shunt (parallel).
Option C. Series.
Correct Answer is. Series.
Explanation. Series motors have the highest starting torque.

Question Number. 15. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor.
Option A. the speed will increase and the armature current will increase.
Option B. the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease.
Option C. the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease.
Correct Answer is. the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease.
Explanation. Speed increases and increases the back emf which decreases the armature current.

Question Number. 16. If the correct supply were connected to a DC shunt motor which had lost its residual
magnetism it would.
Option A. run in the reverse direction.
Option B. fail to run.
Option C. run normally.
Correct Answer is. run normally.
Explanation. Its a motor, not a generator!.

Question Number. 17. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:.
Option A. a shorted armature.
Option B. a broken field lead.
Option C. an out-of-round commutator.
Correct Answer is. a shorted armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. The purpose of an end-travel microswitch in a linear actuator is to.
Option A. remain open and closes at end travel only.
Option B. remain open during normal operation and only close if the actuator overruns its stops.
Option C. remain closed and opens at end travel only.
Correct Answer is. remain closed and opens at end travel only.
Explanation. See Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems, pg 140.

Question Number. 19. Linear actuators used in aircraft are of.

Option A. split field series wound type.
Option B. compound wound type.
Option C. split field shunt wound type.
Correct Answer is. split field series wound type.
Explanation. See Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems, pg 141.

Question Number. 20. If a generator sparks, a possible reason is.

Option A. the brush springs are loose.
Option B. magnetic flux deflecting the EMF.
Option C. the brushes have been placed around the magnetic coil.
Correct Answer is. the brush springs are loose.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. If the field strength of a generator is doubled, and the speed is doubled, the output EMF
will.
Option A. stay the same.
Option B. double.
Option C. quadruple.
Correct Answer is. quadruple.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 22. In a DC motor the pole pairs are.

Option A. connected to the brush gear.
Option B. part of the armature.
Option C. embedded within the field coils.
Correct Answer is. embedded within the field coils.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. A series wound DC motor, the field has.

Option A. few turns of thin wire.
Option B. many turns of thin wire.
Option C. few turns of thick wire.
Correct Answer is. few turns of thick wire.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. Doubling the running time of an electrical machine would.
Option A. double the current used.
Option B. double the joules used.
Option C. double the watts used.
Correct Answer is. double the joules used.
Explanation. Power (watts) is the rate of using energy (Joules). So doubling running time will not change the power.
Current is the rate of charge flow - so more charge (coulombs) will be used but not at a faster or slower 'rate'.

Question Number. 25. On a linear actuator, the field cutoff coil will be energized when.
Option A. only as the actuator commences movement.
Option B. the actuator is not running.
Option C. the actuator is running.
Correct Answer is. the actuator is running.
Explanation. Field cutoff coil is believed to be the brake coil.

Question Number. 26. An electric motor produces a force of 5 N at a distance of 0.2m from the centre of rotation
and rotates at a speed of 100 revs/sec. The motors output is.
Option A. 100 horsepower.
Option B. 628.4 watts.
Option C. 314.2 watts.
Correct Answer is. 628.4 watts.
Explanation. Power in a motor = torque * 2pi * revs/sec. Torque = force * radius.

Question Number. 27. Starter motors are usually.

Option A. series wound.
Option B. compound wound.
Option C. shunt wound.
Correct Answer is. series wound.
Explanation. Series wound motors have the greatest starting torque.

Question Number. 28. Generator brushes are normally made of.

Option A. steel.
Option B. carbon.
Option C. brass.
Correct Answer is. carbon.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will.
Option A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
Option B. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Option C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Correct Answer is. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Explanation. The voltage regulator keeps the generator voltage output the same. Current will increase as the load
resistance drops.

Question Number. 30. The voltage output of a generator is controlled by.

Option A. varying the current of the output.
Option B. varying the resistance of the output.
Option C. varying the current of the field.
Correct Answer is. varying the current of the field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The current flowing in the armature of a DC motor is equal to.
Option A. (applied volts-generated volts) / armature resistance.
Option B. (applied volts-generated volts) * armature resistance.
Option C. applied volts + generated volts / armature resistance.

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Correct Answer is. (applied volts-generated volts) / armature resistance.
Explanation. Ohms law I = V/R. Voltage in the armature is the applied voltage - back emf (generated voltage).

Question Number. 32. What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of
the rotating armature of a DC generator into direct current as it leaves the generator?.
Option A. An inverter.
Option B. A commutator.
Option C. A rectifier.
Correct Answer is. A commutator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?.
Option A. Overcome armature reaction.
Option B. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
Option C. Reduce field strength.
Correct Answer is. Reduce field strength.
Explanation. NOT' one of the purposes. The purpose of interpoles is to overcome (in fact 'prevent') armature reaction.
Armature reaction is partially responsible for arcing at the brushes.

Question Number. 34. To reverse the direction of a series motor.

Option A. the direction of the current through the field and the armature is reversed.
Option B. the direction of the current through the field is reversed.
Option C. a second series field is fitted.
Correct Answer is. a second series field is fitted.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will.

Option A. remain relatively constant over the starting speed range.
Option B. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Option C. increase as the engine speed increases.
Correct Answer is. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. How are generators rated?.

Option A. Impedance at rated voltage.
Option B. Amperes at rated voltage.
Option C. Watts at rated voltage.
Correct Answer is. Watts at rated voltage.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 37. Due to armature reaction in a DC motor.

Option A. the leading pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Option B. the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Option C. the magnetic flux is restored by moving the MNA towards the GNA.
Correct Answer is. the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 38. Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite directions so that
the.
Option A. speed of the motor can be more closely controlled.
Option B. motor can be operated in either direction.
Option C. power output of the motor can be more closely controlled.
Correct Answer is. motor can be operated in either direction.
Explanation. Specifically series motors.

Question Number. 39. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?.

Option A. Either, provided they lay on the MNA.
Option B. The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.
Option C. The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. The interpole must pull back the magnetic field. In a motor, the magnetic field deflects in the opposite
direction to the armature.

Question Number. 40. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound DC motor?.
Option A. Suitable for constant speed use.
Option B. High starting torque.
Option C. Low starting torque.
Correct Answer is. High starting torque.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 41. Interpole windings fitted to DC series wound generators are.
Option A. in series with the armature.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in parallel with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the armature.
Explanation. Interpole windings are always in series with the armature, so they carry the same current as the armature.

Question Number. 42. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC generator?.

Option A. the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Option B. either, providing they lay on M.N.A.
Option C. the same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. On a generator, the field is deflected in the same direction as the armature rotates. The interpoles must
drag back the field.

Question Number. 43. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the
use of.
Option A. shaded poles.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field.
Correct Answer is. interpoles.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 44. The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through both the field and
armature windings produces a.
Option A. speed slightly higher when unloaded.
Option B. high starting torque.
Option C. low starting torque.
Correct Answer is. high starting torque.
Explanation. At low speed (i.e starting) there is a very high current in the armature (due to no back-emf). Since the field
is in series with the armature, the same high current flows in it, resulting in a very high torque.

Question Number. 45. To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed.
Option A. in parallel with the field.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field.
Explanation. An apparent anomaly. Increasing the field resistance decreases the field strength which reduces the back-
emf in the armature. Armature current therefore increases and its speed increases.

Question Number. 46. A 200 volt motor is taking 10 amperes armature current, the armature resistance is 0.1 ohm.
The Back-EMF under these conditions will be.
Option A. 201 volts.
Option B. 199 volts.
Option C. 1 volt.
Correct Answer is. 199 volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 47. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?.
Option A. Energize the armature.
Option B. Flash the fields.
Option C. Reseat the brushes.
Correct Answer is. Flash the fields.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. A high surge of current is required when a DC electric motor is first started. As the speed of
the motor increase.
Option A. the counter emf decreases proportionally.
Option B. the applied emf increases proportionally.
Option C. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the
armature.
Correct Answer is. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the
armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 49. Aircraft generators are cooled by.

Option A. fuel cooling radiators.
Option B. oil cooling radiators around the main body.
Option C. ram air.
Correct Answer is. ram air.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 50. On a combined DC starter - generator system.

Option A. the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start cycle is completed.
Option B. the voltage regulator controls the start sequence during engine starting.
Option C. the series coil is open circuit during the engine start sequence.
Correct Answer is. the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start cycle is completed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. If the field current to a shunt wound DC motor is decreased when operating at a constant
load, the motor speed will.
Option A. reduce.
Option B. not change.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. This may seem strange, but decreasing the field strength of a shunt motor will decrease the back emf of the
armature and hence increase the current through the armature. This in turn increases the armature speed.

Question Number. 52. If a motor is spinning at 50 cycles per second, how long is 1 cycle of the output?.
Option A. 50 seconds.
Option B. 0.83 seconds.
Option C. 0.02 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 0.02 seconds.
Explanation. Time period = 1/frequency.

Question Number. 53. In a an DC motor, the rotation of the MNA.

Option A. is opposite to the rotation of the armature.
Option B. is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature.
Option C. is the same as the rotation of the armature.
Correct Answer is. is opposite to the rotation of the armature.
Explanation. The field in a motor reacts to the armature current by 'distorting' in the opposite direction to the armature -
called armature reaction.

Question Number. 54. In a wave wound generator with 4 poles, what would be the minimum number of
brushes?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 2.
Option C. 8.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 55. A wire is rotated through a magnetic field. To give DC it must be connected to.
Option A. a commutator.
Option B. slip rings.
Option C. a rectifier.
Correct Answer is. a commutator.
Explanation. A commutator turns AC to DC in a generator.

Question Number. 56. If the supply to a DC shunt motor was reversed.

Option A. it would rotate in the same direction.
Option B. it would fail to run.
Option C. it would rotate in the opposite direction.
Correct Answer is. it would rotate in the same direction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 57. A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current reduces. This is due
to.
Option A. the resistance of the field and the armature in series.
Option B. the resistance of the field and armature in parallel.
Option C. the back EMF.
Correct Answer is. the back EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. Interpoles in a DC generator are connected.

Option A. in series with the armature.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in parallel with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 59. In a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction may be reduced by moving the brush
gear.

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Option A. in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Option B. from MNA to GNA.
Option C. against the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Correct Answer is. in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Explanation. The MNA leads the GNS in a generator. The brushes should be put on the MNA.

Question Number. 60. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a DC generator are.
Option A. commutating coils.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. compensating windings.
Correct Answer is. compensating windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 61. A 6 pole wave-wound generator has.

Option A. 3 brushes.
Option B. 2 brushes.
Option C. 6 brushes.
Correct Answer is. 2 brushes.
Explanation. A wave-wound generator needs only 2 brushes regardless of the number of poles, but some may have more
for increased efficiency.

Question Number. 62. Armature reaction in a DC generator causes.

Option A. MNA to move in the opposite direction of rotation.
Option B. MNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Option C. GNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. MNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 63. In a DC motor, back-EMF rises if the motor.

Option A. speed falls.
Option B. speed faload rises.
Option C. speed rises.
Correct Answer is. speed rises.
Explanation. B-EMF is due to generator action in the motor.

Question Number. 64. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required
are.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 6.
Correct Answer is. 6.
Explanation. 6 poles is 3 pairs. Lap wound generators require 1 pair of brushes for each pair of poles.

Question Number. 65. Reactive sparking is reduced by.

Option A. interpoles.
Option B. compensating windings.
Option C. auxiliary windings.
Correct Answer is. interpoles.
Explanation. Interpoles 'reduce' armature reaction (which causes reactive sparking). Compensating windings 'prevent'
armature reaction.

Question Number. 66. The back-EMF in a DC motor is.

Option A. equal to the applied EMF.
Option B. less than the applied EMF.
Option C. greater than the applied EMF.
Correct Answer is. less than the applied EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 67. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m
and the current flowing through the conductor is 5 amps. The force on the conductor is.
Option A. 0.6 Newtons.
Option B. 15 Newtons.
Option C. 3.75 Newtons.
Correct Answer is. 15 Newtons.
Explanation. F = BIl = 1.5 * 5 * 2 = 15N.

Question Number. 68. A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the armature of 2 ohms
resistance is 1 amp. The Back-EMF is.
Option A. 26 V.
Option B. 30 V.
Option C. 27 V.

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Correct Answer is. 26 V.
Explanation. Total V = I * R = 1 * 2 = 2V. So 26V B-EMF must be generated by the generator action.

Question Number. 69. In a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move.
Option A. against the direction of rotation.
Option B. in the direction of rotation.
Option C. to the GNA.
Correct Answer is. against the direction of rotation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 70. The diagram shown is a.

Option A. shunt wound machine.

Option B. short shunt compound wound machine.
Option C. long shunt compound wound machine.
Correct Answer is. long shunt compound wound machine.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 71. In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used.

Option A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations.
Option B. to control output current.
Option C. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Correct Answer is. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Explanation. See CAIP EEL/1-2. The stabilizing winding picks up a 'rate of change' from the output of an AC brushless
generator and damps out voltage overshoot and prevents system oscillation. The pickup is an induction coil wound around
the output so is NOT wired in series.

Question Number. 72. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?.
Option A. brushes.
Option B. rotor.
Option C. stator.
Correct Answer is. stator.
Explanation. The poles are a part of the field - which is the stator on a DC motor.

Question Number. 73. The main advantage of a starter-generator over conventional units is.
Option A. it can produce a greater power output.
Option B. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter drive remains engaged.
Option C. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged.
Correct Answer is. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter drive remains engaged. OR for
the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 74. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would
be.
Option A. in series with the field.
Option B. in series with the supply.
Option C. in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the supply.
Explanation. Must be referring to a universal motor (AC shunt wound?) The volts dropping resistor is placed in series with
the supply.

Question Number. 75. Commutator ripple can be reduced by.

Option A. increasing generator frequency.
Option B. the use of a ripple filter.
Option C. a resistor in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. the use of a ripple filter.
Explanation. A ripple filter is made of a capacitor in parallel with the generator output and an inductor in series with the
generator output.

Question Number. 76. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the.

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Option A. rotor assembly.
Option B. stator assembly.
Option C. field.
Correct Answer is. field.
Explanation. Interpoles are a part of the Field. Rotor and Stator are terms for AC motors.

Question Number. 77. Armature reaction is.

Option A. the MMF opposing rotation.
Option B. due to dirty or worn commutator.
Option C. reactive sparking.
Correct Answer is. the MMF opposing rotation.
Explanation. The MMF is the ampere-turns of the armature, producing a magnetic field in the armature, which opposes
the main field and causes it to distort (in direction of motion of the armature).

Question Number. 78. A shunt motor.

Option A. is constant speed.
Option B. has high starting torque.
Option C. gives constant torque with variations in speed.
Correct Answer is. is constant speed.
Explanation. DC Shunt motors are 'constant speed' motors, but starting torque is small.

Question Number. 79. In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens to the back
EMF?.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. The back EMF decreases with an increase in the field resistance. The armature current would increase and
the motor speed would increase.

Question Number. 80. To increase the voltage output of a generator you can.
Option A. decrease speed.
Option B. It is not speed dependant.
Option C. increase speed.
Correct Answer is. increase speed.
Explanation. Increasing the speed makes the armature cut the magnetic field faster, inducing a greater voltage.

Question Number. 81. Generator voltage is.

Option A. dependant on speed of rotation.
Option B. independent of speed of rotation.
Option C. not dependant on speed of rotation.
Correct Answer is. dependant on speed of rotation.
Explanation. The faster the generator turns, the more voltage it produces. Besides, 'Independent' and 'not dependant'
mean the same thing.

Question Number. 82. The output from a generator to a commutator is.

Option A. pulsed DC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. Output of all generators (before the commutator) is AC.

Question Number. 83. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?.

Option A. Heavier than like for like.
Option B. Will not supply output at low rpm.
Option C. Can only be used on piston engines.
Correct Answer is. Will not supply output at low rpm.
Explanation. At low RPM, starter-generator is still in motor configuration.

Question Number. 84. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is.

Option A. at operating speed.
Option B. under heavy load.
Option C. just starting to rotate.
Correct Answer is. at operating speed.
Explanation. Back EMF is greatest when motor is at high speed.

Question Number. 85. When a conductor carrying a current and placed in a magnetic field it experiences.
Option A. an electrostatic force.
Option B. an electromagnetic force.
Option C. a magnetic force.
Correct Answer is. an electromagnetic force.

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Explanation. The force is generated by interaction of two magnetic fields.

Question Number. 86. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is.
Option A. parallel (shunt wound).
Option B. compound.
Option C. series.
Correct Answer is. series.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 140.

Question Number. 87. If the speed of a coil in a magnetic field is doubled and the field strength is doubled the
output will.
Option A. quadruple.
Option B. stay the same.
Option C. halve.
Correct Answer is. quadruple.
Explanation. Voltage = Blv. Double B (field strength) and double v (velocity) and Voltage will quadruple.

Question Number. 88. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. Any wave wound DC generator usually has only 1 pair of brushes.

Question Number. 89. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by.
Option A. the load.
Option B. the armature.
Option C. a separate supply.
Correct Answer is. the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 90. Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automatic.
Option A. field circuit resistance decrease.
Option B. armature circuit resistance increase.
Option C. field circuit resistance increase.
Correct Answer is. field circuit resistance increase.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 91. Which generators are usually used on aircraft?.

Option A. Shunt.
Option B. Compound.
Option C. Series.
Correct Answer is. Shunt.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 92. In a cumulative compound wound generator the.

Option A. the series and shunt fields assist each other.
Option B. the series and shunt fields oppose each other.
Option C. the voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load.
Correct Answer is. the series and shunt fields assist each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 93. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in.
Option A. parallel with the field.
Option B. series with the armature.
Option C. series with the field.
Correct Answer is. series with the field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 94. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below saturation.
Option A. increase with an increase in load.
Option B. decrease with an increase in load.
Option C. decrease with a decrease in rotational speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease with an increase in load.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 95. The shunt wound generator is normally started.

Option A. on load.
Option B. Either of the above.
Option C. off load.

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Correct Answer is. off load.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 96. How do you reduce ripple on the output of a DC generator?.
Option A. Increase the speed of the armature and add more turns.
Option B. Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings.
Option C. Increase the commutator segments and connect each to a separate parallel winding.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings. OR Increase the commutator
segments and connect each to a separate parallel winding.
Explanation. This amounts to increasing the separate armature windings which will increase the ripple frequency but
decrease their amplitude.

Question Number. 97. Armature reaction in a DC motor causes the neutral axis to shift in.
Option A. the direction in the direction of armature rotation.
Option B. the direction opposite to the direction of armature rotation.
Option C. either direction depending on current flow.
Correct Answer is. the direction opposite to the direction of armature rotation.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 10, pg 194.

Question Number. 98. An indication of good commutation on a DC machine would be.

Option A. high armature currents.
Option B. little or no sparking at the commutator.
Option C. silent operation of the machine.
Correct Answer is. little or no sparking at the commutator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 99. If compound DC generators are operated in parallel they must.
Option A. all rotate at the same speed.
Option B. have an equalising or load sharing loop.
Option C. all use the same voltage.
Correct Answer is. have an equalising or load sharing loop.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 199.

Question Number. 100. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a generator are.
Option A. commutating coils.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. compensating coils.
Correct Answer is. compensating coils.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 195.

Question Number. 101. Prolonged reactive sparking in a DC generator could damage the.
Option A. armature.
Option B. commutator.
Option C. pole pieces.
Correct Answer is. commutator.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 197.

Question Number. 102. The poles of a DC generator are laminated to.

Option A. reduce eddy current losses.
Option B. reduce flux losses.
Option C. reduce hysteresis losses.
Correct Answer is. reduce hysteresis losses.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 186.

Question Number. 103. One advantage of a DC motor over an AC motor is.

Option A. the direction of rotation of the rotor can be changed.
Option B. less voltage is required in DC than AC.
Option C. the DC motor will use less current.
Correct Answer is. the DC motor will use less current.
Explanation. Due to the generated back emf, a DC motor will use less current.

Question Number. 104. In a shunt wound direct current motor the torque is.
Option A. inversely proportional to the current in the armature.
Option B. independent of load.
Option C. proportional to the current in the armature.
Correct Answer is. proportional to the current in the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

13. AC Theory.

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Question Number. 1. Convention requires that in a symmetrical 3 phase system, the.
Option A. red voltage is taken as the reference phase.
Option B. yellow voltage phase leads the red phase by 120 degrees.
Option C. red voltage phase leads the blue phase by 120 degrees.
Correct Answer is. red voltage is taken as the reference phase.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. What is the phase difference in a circuit with 100V, drawing 0.5 amps, consuming 50
Watts?.
Option A. 0°.
Option B. 45°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 0°.
Explanation. When power is in Watts, it is all true power - there is no apparent power.

Question Number. 3. The power factor of a circuit containing an imbalance of inductive and capacitive reactance
is.
Option A. greater than unity.
Option B. unity.
Option C. less than unity.
Correct Answer is. less than unity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. If you apply this waveform to this circuit, what is the output across the

capacitor?.
Option A. Pulsed negative.
Option B. Pulsed positive.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Pulsed positive.
Explanation. With the output taken across the capacitor, this is a basic integrator - so the output is.

Question Number. 5. What value is the same as the equivalent D.C. heating effect?.
Option A. Peak.
Option B. Average.
Option C. Root Mean Square.
Correct Answer is. Root Mean Square.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. What shape is the waveform when the input pulse and the time base are unequal?.
Option A. Saw tooth.
Option B. Square.
Option C. Rectangular.
Correct Answer is. Rectangular.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. A sine wave has 5 amps RMS value. What is the peak value?.
Option A. 7.07 amps.
Option B. 6.37 amps.
Option C. 10 amps.
Correct Answer is. 7.07 amps.
Explanation. Peak = 1.414 * RMS (also remember that 5 is half of 10).

Question Number. 8. What is the wave shape of the x-axis input of a traversing oscilloscope image?.
Option A. Rectangular.
Option B. Triangular.
Option C. Square.
Correct Answer is. Triangular.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current vector is.

Option A. +90° out of phase with the voltage vector.
Option B. in phase with the voltage vector.
Option C. -90° out of phase with the voltage vector.
Correct Answer is. in phase with the voltage vector.
Explanation. Purely resistive - current and voltage must be in phase.

Question Number. 10. When comparing the average values of an AC generator output, to the peak
values.

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Option A. average voltage = 0.707 * peak voltage.
Option B. average voltage = 0.63 * peak voltage.
Option C. average voltage = same as the peak voltage.
Correct Answer is. average voltage = 0.63 * peak voltage.
Explanation. Don't get confused with RMS value.

Question Number. 11. A parallel circuit at resonance has.

Option A. maximum impedance.
Option B. zero impedance.
Option C. minimum impedance.
Correct Answer is. maximum impedance.
Explanation. A 'series' circuit at resonance has zero impedance. A 'parallel' circuit at resonance has maximum impedance.

Question Number. 12. A 10 ohm resistor has a 14.14 V peak drop across it. What power is dissipated?.
Option A. 10 W.
Option B. 19.99 W.
Option C. 1.414 W.
Correct Answer is. 10 W.
Explanation. Since it mentions peak, it is AC. Always use RMS voltage when calculating power. RMS voltage = peak voltage
/ 1.414 (more than coincidence that 14.14 / 1.414 = 10). Power = V2/ R.

Question Number. 13. If a 1 ohm circuit produces a 50 W output, the phase angle is.
Option A. 45°.
Option B. 0°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 0°.
Explanation. Going by the power being quoted in Watts (rather than VA) the circuit is purely resistive and therefore the
phase angle is 0 degrees.

Question Number. 14. What does a rectifier do?.

Option A. Changes alternating current into direct current.
Option B. Reduces voltage.
Option C. Changes direct current into alternating current.
Correct Answer is. Changes alternating current into direct current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the.
Option A. power rating.
Option B. power factor.
Option C. efficiency.
Correct Answer is. power factor.
Explanation. Power factor = true power / apparent power.

Question Number. 16. One advantage of using AC electrical power in aircraft is.
Option A. the greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.
Option B. AC electrical motors can be reversed while DC motors cannot.
Option C. the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is
required.
Correct Answer is. AC electrical motors can be reversed while DC motors cannot. OR the greater ease in stepping the
voltage up or down.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an AC circuit are
assumed to be.
Option A. effective values.
Option B. instantaneous values.
Option C. maximum values.
Correct Answer is. effective values.
Explanation. Effective values' is another term for RMS because it is the same heating 'effect' as DC.

Question Number. 18. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?.
Option A. Hydraulic pump.
Option B. Windscreen heating.
Option C. Standby compass.
Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating.
Explanation. Frequency wild can only be used on resistive circuits (such as heating and lighting).

Question Number. 19. In an AC circuit how is the value of true power calculated?.
Option A. By voltmeter readings multiplied by ammeter readings.
Option B. By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor.
Option C. By watt meter readings multiplied by power factor.

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Correct Answer is. By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. One of the chief advantages of alternating current is that it can be transmitted at a high
voltage with a low power loss; the voltage can then be changed to any desired value of.
Option A. DC by means of transformers.
Option B. DC by means of inverters.
Option C. AC by means of transformers.
Correct Answer is. AC by means of transformers.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five
lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms
each?.
Option A. 1 ampere.
Option B. 25.23 amperes.
Option C. 1.11 amperes.
Correct Answer is. 25.23 amperes.
Explanation. resistance, then use ohms law (I=V/R) to find the total current. It is a tricky calculation to do without a
calculator, so round the total resistance up (to 1 ohms) then choose the nearest answer for I.

Question Number. 22. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per.

Option A. minute.
Option B. second.
Option C. revolution.
Correct Answer is. second.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. The frequency of a power wave in an AC resistance circuit is.
Option A. half the frequency for voltage and current.
Option B. the same as the frequency for voltage and current.
Option C. twice the frequency for voltage and current.
Correct Answer is. twice the frequency for voltage and current.
Explanation. Look at a diagram of a power wave.

Question Number. 24. In an AC circuit, the effective voltage is.

Option A. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Option B. equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Option C. greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Correct Answer is. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Explanation. Effective voltage is another term for RMS voltage, due to it being equal to the DC heating effect.

Question Number. 25. Which wave form is stepped positive and negative with unequal length sides?.
Option A. Rectangular wave.
Option B. Trapezoidal wave.
Option C. Saw tooth wave.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoidal wave.
Explanation. A trapezoidal waveform ALWAYS has unequal (vertical) sides. However, a sawtooth wave could also be
considered to have unequal length sides (but does not necessarily have).

Question Number. 26. The value of an AC sine wave that will give an equivalent heating effect in a DC resistor is
the.
Option A. peak value.
Option B. RMS value.
Option C. average value.
Correct Answer is. RMS value.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. The peak factor for a sine wave is.
Option A. 1.11.
Option B. 0.707.
Option C. 1.414.
Correct Answer is. 1.414.
Explanation. Peak factor (sometimes called 'crest factor') is calculated by peak value/RMS value. For a sine wave it is
1.414.

Question Number. 28. An integrated step input at unequal time base produces.
Option A. a sine wave.
Option B. a square wave.
Option C. a saw tooth wave.
Correct Answer is. a saw tooth wave.

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Explanation. Integrating a step input produces a 'ramp' or sawtooth waveform.

Question Number. 29. The mark-to-space ratio of the waveform shown is.

Option A. A to D / D to E.
Option B. D to E / D to C.
Option C. A to B / B to C.
Correct Answer is. A to D / D to E.
Explanation. Mark-to-space is the ratio of the duration of the square wave's positive amplitude (represented by a mark)
to its negative amplitude (represented by a space).

Question Number. 30. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is.
Option A. 1.1.
Option B. 1.414.
Option C. 0.707.
Correct Answer is. 1.1.
Explanation. Form Factor = RMS / Average = 0.707 / 0.63 (for a sine wave).

Question Number. 31. A sine wave of RMS value 7.07 volts has a peak to peak value of.
Option A. 20.0 volts.
Option B. 10.0 volts.
Option C. 0.707 volts.
Correct Answer is. 20.0 volts.
Explanation. Peak = RMS * 1.414 7.07 * 1.414 = 10V Peak-to-peak = 2 * peak = 20V.

Question Number. 32. The true power in an AC circuit is given by.

Option A. volts * amps.
Option B. PF * volts * amps.
Option C. voltmeter reading * PF.
Correct Answer is. PF * volts * amps.
Explanation. True power = PF * Apparent power. Apparent power = volts * amps.

Question Number. 33. The average value of 100 volts peak AC is.
Option A. 70.7 volts.
Option B. 141.4 volts.
Option C. 63.7 volts.
Correct Answer is. 63.7 volts.
Explanation. Average value of a sine wave is 0.637 * peak.

Question Number. 34. The RMS value of 200 volts peak to peak is.
Option A. 127.4 volts.
Option B. 70.7 volts.
Option C. 141.4 volts.
Correct Answer is. 141.4 volts.
Explanation. RMS = 0.707 * peak. Peak is 1/2 of peak-to-peak.

Question Number. 35. The power factor of an AC circuit is the.

Option A. cosine of the phase angle.
Option B. tangent of the phase angle.
Option C. sine of the phase angle.
Correct Answer is. cosine of the phase angle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. The Form Factor of an AC waveform can be found by.
Option A. RMS value divided by the average value.
Option B. average value divided by the RMS value.
Option C. average value times the RMS value.
Correct Answer is. RMS value divided by the average value.
Explanation. Form Factor = RMS / Average.

Question Number. 37. A differentiator has a time constant which is.

Option A. long.
Option B. equal to the input pulse.
Option C. short.
Correct Answer is. short.

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Explanation. A differentiator provides a voltage proportional to the rate of change of the input. So for a square wave
input, it needs to give a pulse on the step up, nothing on the straight bit of the square wave, then a negative pulse as the
input drops back to zero. Only a very short time constant can do this.

Question Number. 38. If the frequency is increased in an AC circuit of pure resistance, the effect is.
Option A. nothing.
Option B. decreased resistance.
Option C. increased resistance.
Correct Answer is. nothing.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 39. What sort of wave would be used in a CR oscilloscope to control sweep?.
Option A. Square.
Option B. Sine wave.
Option C. Sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth.
Explanation. A sawtooth wave is used in an oscilloscope to control sweep.

Question Number. 40. If an AC sine wave has an RMS value of 5V its peak value is.
Option A. 6.37 V.
Option B. 7.07 V.
Option C. 14.14 V.
Correct Answer is. 7.07 V.
Explanation. Peak value = 1.414 * RMS = 1.414 * 5 = 7.07 V.

Question Number. 41. Apparent power in an AC circuit is found by.

Option A. V * I * cosØ.
Option B. V * I * sinØ.
Option C. V * I.
Correct Answer is. V * I.
Explanation. Apparent power = amps * volts.

Question Number. 42. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds, what is its frequency?.
Option A. 200 Hz.
Option B. 2Khz.
Option C. 20Khz.
Correct Answer is. 2Khz.
Explanation. Frequency is 1/time period. Watch that prefix 'milli'. f = 1/T = 1/0.0005 = 10,000/5 = 2000 Hz = 2 kHz.

Question Number. 43. Phase angle is.

Option A. the cosine of the peak value of an ac voltage.
Option B. the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a
current.
Option C. the difference in degrees between the positive and negative parts of an AC sine wave.
Correct Answer is. the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a
current.
Explanation. Phase angle is the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage
and a current.

Question Number. 44. The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in.

Option A. ohms.
Option B. kilovolt-amperes.
Option C. amperes.
Correct Answer is. ohms.
Explanation. Impedance is 'resistance to electron flow' in an AC circuit and is measured in Ohms.

Question Number. 45. What happens to the current in a series resistive resonant circuit?.
Option A. It is maximum.
Option B. It is minimum.
Option C. It is zero.
Correct Answer is. It is maximum.
Explanation. At resonance the impedance is minimum (zero apart from the resistance in the circuit) and so current is
highest.

Question Number. 46. A circuit has 115 V RMS, 2.5A at 60 degrees, what is the power dissipated?.
Option A. 79 W.
Option B. 300 VA.
Option C. 143 W.
Correct Answer is. 143 W.
Explanation. Apparent Power = 115 * 2.5 = 287.5. PF = cos 60 = 0.5. True Power = Apparent Power * PF.

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Question Number. 47. In a resonant parallel circuit, current is.

Option A. zero.
Option B. minimum.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. minimum.
Explanation. At resonance in a PARALLEL circuit, current is minimum (would be zero if it were not for the resistance in
the circuit).

Question Number. 48. Power factor is.

Option A. sin theta.
Option B. tan theta.
Option C. cos theta.
Correct Answer is. cos theta.
Explanation. Power factor is cos of the phase angle (theta).

Question Number. 49. Peak factor in a standard AC circuit is.

Option A. 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage.
Option B. 1.11 times max. value of applied voltage.
Option C. 0.707 time max. value of applied voltage.
Correct Answer is. 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage.
Explanation. Peak Factor (or Crest Factor) = Peak/RMS = 1.414 for a sinusoidal wave.

Question Number. 50. The controlling wave in a CRT is.

Option A. square.
Option B. sawtooth.
Option C. sinusoidal.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth.
Explanation. A sawtooth wave is required to control the electron beam vertical and horizontal scan.

Question Number. 51. A wave form having equal amplitude and time base is a.
Option A. rectangular.
Option B. sawtooth.
Option C. square waveform.
Correct Answer is. square waveform.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. The Sine wave signals of a circular time base are.
Option A. in phase.
Option B. phase separated by 90°.
Option C. phase separated by 180°.
Correct Answer is. phase separated by 90°.
Explanation. The two sine wave time bases (X and Y) for a CRT are displaced by 90° to produce a circle on the screen.

Question Number. 53. A differentiator has a time constant that will give.
Option A. a long pulse.
Option B. a short pulse.
Option C. a continuous output.
Correct Answer is. a short pulse.
Explanation. A differentiator turns a ramp signal into a steady state (of level corresponding to the slope of the ramp).

Question Number. 54. What is the power factor in a purely resistive circuit?.
Option A. Equal to 1.
Option B. Less than 1 but greater than zero.
Option C. Greater than 1.
Correct Answer is. Equal to 1.
Explanation. NIL.

14. Resistive (R), Capacitive (C) and Inductive (L) Circuits.

Question Number. 1. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?.

Option A. Inductive elements may be damaged.
Option B. Capacitive elements may be damaged.
Option C. There will be no effect.
Correct Answer is. Inductive elements may be damaged.
Explanation. Lower frequency will decrease the reactance of the inductor which will increase its current, possibly
damaging it.

Question Number. 2. What is the relationship between the voltage and the current in an A.C circuit containing
resistance and inductance?.
Option A. Current lags voltage by 90°.

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Option B. Current lags voltage by up to 90°.
Option C. Current leads voltage by up to 90°.
Correct Answer is. Current lags voltage by up to 90°.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'. But lag is not quite 90 degrees because of the resistance in the circuit.

Question Number. 3. In this circuit.

Option A. current = voltage.

Option B. current lags voltage.
Option C. current leads voltage.
Correct Answer is. current leads voltage.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'.

Question Number. 4. Power factor relates to.

Option A. horsepower and Watts.
Option B. KW and KVAR.
Option C. true power and apparent power.
Correct Answer is. true power and apparent power.
Explanation. Power factor = True Power / Apparent Power.

Question Number. 5. If current lags voltage by 90°, the circuit is.

Option A. resistive.
Option B. capacitive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. inductive.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'.

Question Number. 6. What does the following circuit represent?.

Option A. Low pass filter.

Option B. Differentiator.
Option C. Integrator.
Correct Answer is. Differentiator.
Explanation. An RC circuit with the output taken across the resistor is a differentiator.

Question Number. 7. A low frequency supply.

Option A. will make the circuit operate faster due to the reduced impedance.
Option B. may damage inductive components.
Option C. will have no effect on inductive components.
Correct Answer is. may damage inductive components.
Explanation. Lowering the frequency of the current through an inductive component will reduce its reactance and
increase the current, possibly burning out the component.

Question Number. 8. In a parallel R, L, C circuit, the value of the capacitor is quadrupled, then the value of the
impedance would.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. reduce.
Option C. increased.
Correct Answer is. reduce.
Explanation. Increasing the capacitor will decrease the capacitive reactance (and therefore the impedance) - just look at
the formula for capacitive reactance. This will decrease the total reactance in the parallel circuit.

Question Number. 9. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency is increased.

Option A. reactance remains the same.
Option B. impedance increases.
Option C. the current increases.
Correct Answer is. the current increases.

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Explanation. Get the formula for capacitive reactance. The current increases because the reactance decreases.

Question Number. 10. In the circuit shown, what happens to the total circuit impedance if L is tripled?.

Option A. Reduces.
Option B. Increases.
Option C. Remains the same.
Correct Answer is. Increases.
Explanation. If the inductance of the inductor is tripled, then its reactance will triple which will increase the impedance
of the circuit. (But not by three times - be careful).

Question Number. 11. In a tuned circuit at resonance, the circuit will be.
Option A. resistive.
Option B. capacitive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. resistive.
Explanation. In a tuned circuit, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactances cancel each other, leaving just
pure resistance.

Question Number. 12. A circuit has a resistance of 50 ohms and an inductance of 0.2 Henry. If it is connected to a
200 volt 50 Hz supply the reactance will be.
Option A. 31.42 ohms.
Option B. 62.84 ohms.
Option C. 6.284 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 62.84 ohms.
Explanation. Inductive reactance = 2πfL. 2 * 3.14 * 50 * 0.2 = 62.84 ohms. Since it asks for reactance (not impedance) you
can neglect the resistance of 50 ohms.

Question Number. 13. In a vector diagram showing the magnitude and direction of the inductance, capacitance and
resistance in an AC circuit.
Option A. the inductive and capacitance reactance would be additive with the resistance subtractive.
Option B. it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors.
Option C. the inductive reactance would be in opposition to the capacitive reactance and resistance at 90
degrees.
Correct Answer is. it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors. OR the inductive reactance would be in
opposition to the capacitive reactance and resistance at 90 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and current of an AC supply
feeding an inductive and capacitive network is.
Option A. 90 degrees.
Option B. 0 degrees.
Option C. 180 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 0 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive
reactance of a circuit?.
Option A. Inductance and frequency.
Option B. Resistance and capacitive reactance.
Option C. Resistance and voltage.
Correct Answer is. Inductance and frequency.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. When a circuit with a series inductance and capacitance is at resonant frequency.
Option A. the current in the circuit decreases.
Option B. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with the current.
Option C. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage leads the current by exactly 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with the current.
Explanation. At resonance, the capacitive reactance and the inductive reactance cancel each other, leaving a circuit with
a phase angle of zero degrees.

Question Number. 17. A pure capacitor, inductor and resistor are connected in series and the voltage drops across
each are 10V and the total current flowing in the circuit is 1A. How much true power is the circuit consuming?.
Option A. 30VA.
Option B. 30W.

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Option C. 10W.
Correct Answer is. 10W.
Explanation. Get the formula for resonant frequency. Tricky calculation to do without a calculator though.

Question Number. 18. If a capacitor 1µF and an inductor 10mH are connected in parallel what is their approximate
resonant frequency?.
Option A. 1.6 kHz.
Option B. 62 Hz.
Option C. 3.2 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 1.6 kHz.
Explanation. Get the formula for resonant frequency. Tricky calculation to do without a calculator though.

Question Number. 19. Current in an inductive circuit will.

Option A. lag voltage.
Option B. lead voltage.
Option C. be at unity.
Correct Answer is. lag voltage.
Explanation. Remember CIVIL.

Question Number. 20. The impedance of a series tuned circuit at resonance is.
Option A. zero.
Option B. minimum.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. minimum.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. In an inductive resistive circuit, 1 amp flows from a supply of 100V dissipating 50 Watts of
power. The phase angle is.
Option A. 60°.
Option B. 90°.
Option C. 45°.
Correct Answer is. 60°.
Explanation. Apparent power = amps * volts = 1 * 100 = 100VA. But True power = 50W. Power Factor = TP/AP = 50/100 =
0.5. Also, PF = COSINE of phase angle. 0.5 = COSINE of phase angle. Phase angle is therefore 60 degrees.

Question Number. 22. In the circuit shown, impedance will be.

Option A. 5 ohms.
Option B. 9 ohms.
Option C. 7 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 5 ohms.
Explanation. Draw the vector diagram and find the resultant by Pythagoras - it is a 3-4-5 triangle.

Question Number. 23. In the circuit shown, if the frequency is increased from zero to resonant frequency, the
circuit current would.

Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. stay the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance is a minimum (and equal only to the resistance of the resistor in
the circuit).

Question Number. 24. The true power developed in this circuit is.

Option A. 20W.

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Option B. 50W.
Option C. 12W.
Correct Answer is. 12W.
Explanation. True power is only in the resistor = I2 R = 2x2x3 = 12W.
Option A.
Option A.
Option A.

Question Number. 25. In a series LCR circuit at resonance, R = 100 ohms, L and C are each 10 ohms. The total
impedance is.
Option A. zero ohms.
Option B. 100 ohms.
Option C. 30 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 100 ohms.
Explanation. Resultant reactance (XL-XC) is 10-10 = 0 ohms. So the total impedance of the circuit is the remaining 100
ohm resistor.

Question Number. 26. In a high Q parallel resonant circuit, what happens to impedance if capacitance is increased
by a factor of 4?.
Option A. It increases by factor of 4.
Option B. It reduces by 75%.
Option C. It remains the same.
Correct Answer is. It reduces by 75%.
Explanation. Impedance cannot be any higher in a parallel circuit at resonance. If capacitance is changed, circuit will no
longer be at resonance and impedance will drop.

Question Number. 27. A parallel circuit at resonance has its impedance at a.

Option A. maximum.
Option B. zero.
Option C. minimum.
Correct Answer is. maximum.
Explanation. Parallel circuit - impedance is maximum at resonance.

Question Number. 28. The formula for impedance in a series circuit is the root of.
Option A. R2 + (XC-XL)2 .
Option B. R2 -(XL-XC)2 .
Option C. R2 + (XL-XC)2 .
Correct Answer is. R2 + (XL-XC)2 .
Explanation. XL is normally considered to be positive reactance and XC negative reactance. So formula is with XL-XC (not
XC-XL).

Question Number. 29. In this circuit applied voltage is.

Option A. V = IXL.
Option B. V = I/R.
Option C. V = IXC.
Correct Answer is. V = IXC.
Explanation. V = I * XC (from Ohm's Law).

Question Number. 30. In a parallel LCR circuit, if the capacitance is increased by 4 times, what happens to the
impedance of the capacitor?.
Option A. increases by 4 times.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. decreases by 75%.
Correct Answer is. decreases by 75%.
Explanation. Presumably this is referring to the impedance of the capacitor alone, which would reduce to 1/4 as X =
1/2πfC. The impedance of the parallel circuit would reduce also, but how much depends upon the relative size of the other
components.

Question Number. 31. If the frequency to a capacitor increases, the current through it.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is zero.

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Correct Answer is. is zero.
Explanation. If it really does mean 'through' it, the answer is zero, as no current goes 'through' a capacitor regardless of
its frequency. However, if it means the current in the circuit, the capacitive reactance will go down, thus its current will go
UP.

Question Number. 32. If in a electrical circuit there is a difference between the capacitive reactance and the
inductive reactance, what would the power factor of the circuit be?.
Option A. More than unity.
Option B. Less than unity.
Option C. Unity.
Correct Answer is. Less than unity.
Explanation. Power Factor is always less than one (unity).

Question Number. 33. In a Series LC circuit if the value of the capacitance is increased then the power factor will
be.
Option A. greater than 1.
Option B. less than 1.
Option C. equal to 1.
Correct Answer is. less than 1.
Explanation. The power factor is always less than 1 unless the circuit is at resonance.

Question Number. 34. What is the current in the circuit with a resistance of 8 ohms, inductive reactance of 12
ohms, capacitive reactance of 18 ohms with 20 volts applied across it?.
Option A. 10 amps.
Option B. 1 amp.
Option C. 2 amps.
Correct Answer is. 2 amps.
Explanation. Calculate the total impedance Z = √(36 + 64) = 10 and then use formula V = Z * I to find current.

Question Number. 35. A circuit containing a resistor, capacitor and inductor where resonant frequency is met, what
will the impedance of the circuit be?.
Option A. Maximum.
Option B. Resistance across the resistor.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Resistance across the resistor.
Explanation. The XL and XC cancel at resonance, leaving only the R.

15. Transformers.

Question Number. 1. How many turns does the secondary winding of a 2:1 step-up transformer have?.
Option A. Less than primary.
Option B. More than primary.
Option C. Less turns but with thicker wire.
Correct Answer is. More than primary.
Explanation. Clearly using British notation of Secondary:Primary.

Question Number. 2. To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would.

Option A. increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Option B. reduce the number of turns on the primary winding.
Option C. reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Correct Answer is. reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Explanation. Read up on transformer losses.

Question Number. 3. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer is delta / star
wound, what will the line voltage output be?.
Option A. 115V.
Option B. 346V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. Star wound output - line voltage is 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 4. A Transformer with 115V primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load
24V 45 amps) is used, what is the current drawn?.
Option A. 205 amps.
Option B. 4.5 amps.
Option C. 9 amps.
Correct Answer is. 9 amps.
Explanation. When the voltage is stepped DOWN, the current has been stepped UP. So with a 45A output current on a 5:1
transformer.

Question Number. 5. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is.

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Option A. 1:6.
Option B. 1/6.
Option C. 6:1.
Correct Answer is. 6:1.
Explanation. Turns ratio is Secondary:Primary (using British notation).

Question Number. 6. The point of coercivity occurs when the.

Option A. magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being applied.
Option B. magnetizing force reaches a peak positive or negative value.
Option C. magnetizing force applied causes the material to become magnetically saturated.
Correct Answer is. magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being applied.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer.

Option A. is delta wound.
Option B. could be either delta or star wound.
Option C. is star wound.
Correct Answer is. could be either delta or star wound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual inductance
will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain the same.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. Transformer ratio (which is dependant upon the mutual inductance) is not a function of frequency.

Question Number. 9. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power will be.
Option A. 460 V at 0.25 A.
Option B. 28.5 V at 16 A.
Option C. 28.5 V at 4 A.
Correct Answer is. 28.5 V at 4 A.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 Ω resistance. The primary coil has
1kΩ resistance. How many turns does the primary coil have?.
Option A. 15,000.
Option B. 1,500,000.
Option C. 150,000
Correct Answer is. 15,000.
Explanation. Turns ratio = square root of the impedance ratio.

Question Number. 11. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the secondary
winding?.
Option A. star only.
Option B. either delta or star.
Option C. delta only.
Correct Answer is. either delta or star.
Explanation. The opposite type of winding is preferred because this reduces interference between the two. However, the
connecting circuits may dictate which is used - either way, any combination is possible.

Question Number. 12. A step up transformer has.

Option A. two windings.
Option B. one winding.
Option C. three windings.
Correct Answer is. two windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no load. What is the core loss
at full load?.
Option A. 200 W.
Option B. 0 W.
Option C. 220 W.
Correct Answer is. 200 W.
Explanation. Since the flux is (almost) the same when on load as it is off load, the core loss is the same. (However,
copper loss will be greater ON load because of the higher current).

Question Number. 14. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms and 1500 turns. For the
primary winding to have an impedance of 1 kilohm, how many turns must it have?.
Option A. 15,000.

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Option B. 1,500,000.
Option C. 150,000
Correct Answer is. 15,000.
Explanation. Turns ratio = square root of impedance ratio.

Question Number. 15. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by.
Option A. decreasing the thickness of the laminates.
Option B. making the core from a solid block.
Option C. increasing the thickness of the laminates.
Correct Answer is. decreasing the thickness of the laminates.
Explanation. To reduce eddy currents, the thinner the laminates, the better.

Question Number. 16. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the loss will be.
Option A. 440 Watts.
Option B. 110 Watts.
Option C. 55 Watts.
Correct Answer is. 55 Watts.
Explanation. Since copper loss is given by I2R, if the load doubles, the copper loss will quadruple. So it must have been
55 Watts on half load to be 220Watts on full load. (Note: Core loss does not change with load).

Question Number. 17. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted
together?.
Option A. measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.
Option B. the output voltage will be high.
Option C. the transformer will get hot in normal operation.
Correct Answer is. the transformer will get hot in normal operation.
Explanation. Copper loss (heat) is given by I2R. If some turns are shorted together, the resistance (R) goes down and the
current (I) goes up. But since the current is squared, the heat loss will increase on a square law.

Question Number. 18. Eddy currents in a transformer can be reduced by.

Option A. using a single solid piece of metal.
Option B. laminations.
Option C. using a special non metallic material.
Correct Answer is. laminations.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of
a transformer designed to triple its input voltage?.
Option A. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
Option B. primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary.
Option C. primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary.
Correct Answer is. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. A transformer should always have its.

Option A. primary shorted or off load.
Option B. secondary shorted or on load.
Option C. secondary open circuit or on load.
Correct Answer is. secondary open circuit or on load.
Explanation. If you short out the secondary winding, the primary will burn out.

Question Number. 21. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?.
Option A. secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
Option B. primary turns × secondary turns.
Option C. primary turns ÷ secondary turns.
Correct Answer is. secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
Explanation. If the American version of turns ratio is used it is Primary:Secondary. English notation is Secondary:Primary.

Question Number. 22. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as many loops as the primary
coil will be.
Option A. less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil.
Option B. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil.
Option C. greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil.
Correct Answer is. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil. OR greater and the amperage less than in
the primary coil.
Explanation. It is a step up transformer. The voltage is therefore stepped up and the current stepped down by the same
ratio. It must do this because the power (IV) is the same in the primary and secondary (neglecting efficiency).

Question Number. 23. The area of a hysteresis loop is proportional to the.

Option A. energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of magnetization and
demagnetization.

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Option B. relative permeability of the material being magnetized.
Option C. energy absorbed in completely demagnetizing the material.
Correct Answer is. energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of magnetization and
demagnetization.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. In transformer operation, hysteresis losses are.

Option A. current overcoming coil resistance.
Option B. induced current in the iron core.
Option C. energy wasted in reversing core magnetization.
Correct Answer is. energy wasted in reversing core magnetization.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. What causes a transformer to be noisy?.

Option A. High core losses.
Option B. An air gap in the core.
Option C. High coil resistance.
Correct Answer is. An air gap in the core.
Explanation. An air gap in the magnetic core causes noise.

Question Number. 26. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 24V output. What is the input?.
Option A. 120 V DC.
Option B. 4.8 V AC.
Option C. 120 V AC.
Correct Answer is. 120 V AC.
Explanation. 5:1 is step down. So input must be 5 * 24 = 120 V. Transformers only work on AC.

Question Number. 27. Copper losses in a transformer are caused by.

Option A. the resistance in the windings.
Option B. wasting of the copper wires due to friction.
Option C. circulating currents through the transformer.
Correct Answer is. the resistance in the windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. The copper loss on a single phase transformer is 25 Watts on full load. What will it be on half
load?.
Option A. 5 Watts.
Option B. 6.25 Watts.
Option C. 12.5 Watts.
Correct Answer is. 6.25 Watts.
Explanation. Copper loss = I2 R . So halve the current (load) and you reduce the copper loss to 1/4.

Question Number. 29. A transformer is designed to operate at 60 Hz. It is connected across a 50 Hz supply. The
primary windings would.
Option A. draw more current.
Option B. draw the same current.
Option C. draw less current.
Correct Answer is. draw more current.
Explanation. The inductive reactance decreases with a decreased frequency - so it will draw MORE current.

Question Number. 30. A current transformer, when disconnected from a circuit must be.
Option A. left open circuit.
Option B. short circuited.
Option C. have a resistor connected across the terminals.
Correct Answer is. short circuited.
Explanation. Current transformers must be short circuited when disconnected.

Question Number. 31. What is the reflected impedance in the primary of the transformer circuit shown?.

Option A. 20 ohms.
Option B. 500 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 500 ohms.
Explanation. Turns ratio = √(turns ratio). 10/1 = √Zin/5. 100 = Zin/5 Zin = 500.

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Question Number. 32. A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz.

Option A. may be used at any other frequency.
Option B. may only be used at the rated frequency or above.
Option C. may only be used at the rated frequency or below.
Correct Answer is. may only be used at the rated frequency or above.
Explanation. Since the reactance of the primary coil decreases with decreasing frequency, using below the rated
frequency may damage it due to increased current flow.

Question Number. 33. The dots on the transformer symbol shown are called, and indicate.

Option A. phasing dots, point that have the opposite polarity at the same moment in time.
Option B. phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment in time.
Option C. quadrature dots, points are 90o out of phase.
Correct Answer is. phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment in time.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. A transformer is built with a material having a.

Option A. high coercive force.
Option B. wide hysteresis loop.
Option C. narrow hysteresis loop.
Correct Answer is. narrow hysteresis loop.
Explanation. The area of the hysteresis loop is the power lost in repeatedly reversing the magnetism.

Question Number. 35. In a circuit which possesses mutual inductance, current is increased to the
primary.
Option A. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which opposes the increase in
flux due to the increase of current in the primary.
Option B. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which assists the increase in
flux due to the increase of current in the primary.
Option C. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit whose flux has no effect on
the flux in the primary.
Correct Answer is. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which opposes the
increase in flux due to the increase of current in the primary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. When connected
to a 100 V supply, the output is.
Option A. 500 V.
Option B. 25 V.
Option C. 20 V.
Correct Answer is. 20 V.
Explanation. 5:1 step down. 100/5 = 20V.

Question Number. 37. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. The secondary
supplies 20V and is connected to a 10 ohm load. The primary current is.
Option A. 0.4 amps.
Option B. 2 amps.
Option C. 10 amps.
Correct Answer is. 0.4 amps.
Explanation. Secondary current = V/R = 20/10 = 2A. Primary current = 2A/5 = 0.4A.

Question Number. 38. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What value of load
resistance would be required to give a reflected impedance of 1000 ohms?.
Option A. 4 kilohm.
Option B. 1 kilohm.
Option C. 16 kilohm.
Correct Answer is. 16 kilohm.
Explanation. Impedance matching formula, Turns Ratio = √(Impedance Ratio).

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Question Number. 39. An autotransformer windings are.
Option A. wired in parallel.
Option B. on separate formers.
Option C. connected.
Correct Answer is. connected.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?.
Option A. Zero voltage.
Option B. Phase voltage.
Option C. Combined line voltages.
Correct Answer is. Zero voltage.
Explanation. The neutral line is grounded.

Question Number. 41. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turns ratio will have what primary
supply?.
Option A. 120 V AC.
Option B. 48 V AC.
Option C. 120 V DC.
Correct Answer is. 120 V AC.
Explanation. 5:1 is step down, so the supply voltage must be 5 * 24 = 120 VAC (AC because transformers don't work with
DC).

Question Number. 42. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the secondary. What
would be the line voltage if the transformer were Delta/Star connected?.
Option A. 200V.
Option B. 450V.
Option C. 346V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. It is a 10:1 step down transformer. Phase voltage in secondary = 200V. With star wound secondary, line
voltage = 1.73 * 200 = 346V.

Question Number. 43. The line voltage in a Wye wound transformer is.
Option A. root 3 / phase voltage.
Option B. root 3 * phase voltage.
Option C. the same as phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. root 3 * phase voltage.
Explanation. Line voltage = root 3 * phase voltage in a Wye (star) wound transformer.

Question Number. 44. Eddy current losses in a transformer are.

Option A. magnetic flows induced into the core.
Option B. current used in magnetising the core.
Option C. hysteresis losses.
Correct Answer is. magnetic flows induced into the core.
Explanation.

Question Number. 45. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives.

Option A. 30° phase shift.
Option B. 90° phase shift.
Option C. no phase shift.
Correct Answer is. 30° phase shift.
Explanation. A star-delta wound transformer gives a 30 degree phase shift.

Question Number. 46. In a 4:1 step up transformer, what would give a reflected impedance of
1Kilohm?.
Option A. 1 k ohm.
Option B. 16k ohm.
Option C. 4k ohm.
Correct Answer is. 16k ohm.
Explanation. Turns ratio = √(impedance ratio).

Question Number. 47. The input is 115V and is applied across the 300 turn portion of the autotransformer shown.
What is the output?.

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Option A. 115V.
Option B. 28V.
Option C. 460V.
Correct Answer is. 460V.
Explanation. Autotransformer 300:1200 ratio 1:4. Output = 4 * 115V.

Question Number. 48. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to 120VAC, if the secondary
is connected to a load with 1600 ohms resistance, what is the current in the primary?.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. 0.3 amps.
Option C. 1.2 amps.
Correct Answer is. 1.2 amps.
Explanation. Secondary voltage = 480V, Secondary current = 480/1600 = 0.3A, Primary current = 4 * 0.3 = 1.2A.

Question Number. 49. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by.

Option A. winding the primary on top of the secondary.
Option B. the use of primary shielding.
Option C. laminating the core.
Correct Answer is. winding the primary on top of the secondary.
Explanation. Flux losses are due to primary flux lines not going through the secondary.

Question Number. 50. To supply a 24volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio, the input required
is.
Option A. 4.8V.
Option B. 24V.
Option C. 120V.
Correct Answer is. 120V.
Explanation. Assuming this is a step-down transformer (i.e 5:1 means Primary:Secondary).

Question Number. 51. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?.
Option A. Air core.
Option B. Laminated core.
Option C. Steel Core.
Correct Answer is. Air core.
Explanation. A current transformer uses the generator output cable as its primary, so it must have a hollow (air) core.

Question Number. 52. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?.
Option A. Air core.
Option B. Solid core.
Option C. Laminated core.
Correct Answer is. Laminated core.
Explanation. Laminated core transformers are most efficient.

Question Number. 53. In a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the load on the secondary is
1600 Ohms. What is the current in the primary?.
Option A. 0.075A.
Option B. 1.2A.
Option C. 3A.
Correct Answer is. 1.2A.
Explanation. Voltage in secondary = 4 * 120 = 480V. Current in Secondary = 480/1600 (Ohm's Law) = 3/10A. Current in
Primary = 4 * 3/10A = 12/10A = 1.2A (Remember that current is stepped down Primary to Secondary in a step-up
transformer).

Question Number. 54. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A
flowing through the secondary what is the efficiency?.
Option A. 90%.
Option B. 95%.
Option C. 85%.
Correct Answer is. 95%.
Explanation. Power in primary = 120 * 3 = 360W. Power in secondary = 1200 * 0.285 = 342W. 342/360 = 0.95.

Question Number. 55. Aircraft autotransformers are of what type?.

Option A. Open core.
Option B. Twin core.
Option C. Laminated core.
Correct Answer is. Laminated core.

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Explanation. Pg 60 Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett.

Question Number. 56. An autotransformer is.

Option A. primary and secondary coils.
Option B. primary coil only.
Option C. primary and secondary coils on single bar.
Correct Answer is. primary and secondary coils on single bar.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 57. The windings on a autotransformer are.

Option A. wound on separate legs of core.
Option B. wound with no magnetic core.
Option C. wound with the primary over the secondary.
Correct Answer is. wound with no magnetic core. OR wound with the primary over the secondary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. How do you reduce Hysteresis loss of a transformer?.

Option A. Wind the coils one over the other and by careful design of the transformer.
Option B. By laminating the core.
Option C. By using a core material which can be easily demagnetised.
Correct Answer is. By laminating the core. OR By usinga core material which can be easily demagnetised.
Explanation. NIL.

16. Filters.

Question Number. 1. Which is a high-pass filter?.

Option A. L type with series L and shunt C.
Option B. L type with series C and shunt L.
Option C. Π type with series C and L.
Correct Answer is. Π type with series C and L.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A high pass filter will.

Option A. allow frequencies above a certain value to pass.
Option B. allow frequencies within a range to pass.
Option C. allow frequencies below a certain value to pass.
Correct Answer is. allow frequencies above a certain value to pass.
Explanation. Read up on filters - especially high pass, low pass, band pass and band stop.

Question Number. 3. A band stop filter.

Option A. attenuates frequencies either side of a narrow range.
Option B. stops a narrow range of frequencies.
Option C. stops frequencies either side of a narrow range.
Correct Answer is. stops a narrow range of frequencies.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. This is a diagram of a.

Option A. high pass filter.

Option B. band pass filter.
Option C. low pass filter.
Correct Answer is. low pass filter.
Explanation. This is a very simple low pass filter, since the capacitor will absorb all high frequencies.

Question Number. 5. A capacitor in series and inductor in parallel make what kind of filter?.
Option A. Low pass.
Option B. Band pass.
Option C. High pass.
Correct Answer is. High pass.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A high pass filter has.

Option A. high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency.

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Option B. high impedance to both high and low frequency.
Option C. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency.
Correct Answer is. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. A circuit with good selectivity will have.

Option A. a large bandwidth.
Option B. a narrow bandwidth.
Option C. a low L/C ratio.
Correct Answer is. a narrow bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. A filter with a small bandwidth has.

Option A. a high value of Q.
Option B. a Q of zero.
Option C. a low value of Q.
Correct Answer is. a high value of Q.
Explanation. Q is the 'quality' of a filter.

Question Number. 9. Band stop filter.

Option A. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band.
Option B. stops frequencies in a narrow band.
Option C. pass all frequencies in that band.
Correct Answer is. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band.
Explanation. Attenuates means 'to reduce'. No filter will totally stop the unwanted filter band.

Question Number. 10. Band pass filter in a circuit.

Option A. only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass.
Option B. allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass.
Option C. allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass.
Correct Answer is. only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. A high pass filter consists of a.

Option A. capacitor in series and inductor in series.
Option B. capacitor in series and inductor in parallel.
Option C. an inductor in series and a capacitor in parallel.
Correct Answer is. capacitor in series and inductor in parallel.
Explanation. NIL.

17. AC Generators.

Question Number. 1. In an alternating current Star wired system, the phase voltage is 115 volts and the line
voltage will be approximately.
Option A. 200 volts.
Option B. 115 volts.
Option C. 163 volts.
Correct Answer is. 200 volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. An alternating current generator is operating at 50 kVA in a circuit with a power factor of
0.8. The real power is.
Option A. 40kW.
Option B. 72kW.
Option C. 50kW.
Correct Answer is. 40kW.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. The two factors which govern the output frequency of an AC generator are the.
Option A. the number of poles (in pairs) and the rotor RPM.
Option B. strength of the stator field flux and number of poles.
Option C. speed of rotation of the rotor and the stator field flux strength.
Correct Answer is. the number of poles (in pairs) and the rotor RPM.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a delta-connected generator.

Option A. line voltage = root 3 times phase voltage, line current = phase current.
Option B. line volts = phase volts, line current = phase current divided by root 3.
Option C. line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
Correct Answer is. line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 5. When measuring the phase and line voltages of a generator, it was found that line and phase
voltages were equal. The generator is?.
Option A. either delta or star wound.
Option B. delta wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. delta wound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The permanent magnet in an A.C generator induces.

Option A. A.C. in the main generator.
Option B. A.C. in the exciter generator.
Option C. D.C. in the exciter generator.
Correct Answer is. A.C. in the exciter generator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. If the phase voltage in a star connected generator is 200V what will be the line
voltage?.
Option A. 115V.
Option B. 346V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. Star connected generator - line voltage is 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 8. A generator is labeled as having 115V/200V, 20A and PF 0.8. What is the apparent power in
each line that the generator can produce?.
Option A. 2.3kVA.
Option B. 2.3kW.
Option C. 4kVA.
Correct Answer is. 4kVA.
Explanation. Apparent power is measured in VA. Line voltage is 200V (always the higher of the two voltages - and the
presence of 2 voltages confirms it as star wound). So 200 * 20 = 4 KVA (PF not required).

Question Number. 9. AC generators are rated in.

Option A. kVA.
Option B. kVARs.
Option C. kW.
Correct Answer is. kVA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The frequency of the output of a 4 pole generator is 400 Hz. The generator is turning
at.
Option A. 6000 RPM.
Option B. 12000 RPM.
Option C. 3000 RPM.
Correct Answer is. 12000 RPM.
Explanation. Get the formula for frequency.

Question Number. 11. The voltage induced in the stator of an AC generator is produced by.
Option A. an alternating field.
Option B. a rotating magnetic field.
Option C. a fixed magnetic field.
Correct Answer is. a rotating magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. A 30 KVA rated generator has a power factor of 0.8. What is its maximum consistent
power?.
Option A. 30 KW.
Option B. 37.5 KW.
Option C. 24 KW.
Correct Answer is. 24 KW.
Explanation. Power factor = true power / apparent power.

Question Number. 13. The three voltages of a three phase generator are connected.
Option A. in series with each other.
Option B. independently of each other.
Option C. in parallel with each other.
Correct Answer is. independently of each other.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 14. In a 2 phase generator, how far apart are the windings electrically?.
Option A. 45°.
Option B. 180°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. Where are the output windings on an AC generator?.

Option A. Rotor with slip rings.
Option B. Rotor with commutator.
Option C. Stator.
Correct Answer is. Stator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be.
Option A. lower than the phase voltage.
Option B. higher than the phase voltage.
Option C. the same as the phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. the same as the phase voltage.
Explanation. Line and phase voltages are the same with a delta connections (it is the current that is different).

Question Number. 17. An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected generator is.
Option A. the line and phase voltages are equal.
Option B. two potentials are available.
Option C. a balance load is guaranteed.
Correct Answer is. two potentials are available.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. Permanent magnets in an AC generator are.

Option A. to provide initial excitation.
Option B. to control the frequency.
Option C. to rectify the current.
Correct Answer is. to provide initial excitation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with electrical power
from.
Option A. permanent magnets.
Option B. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings.
Option C. the busbar.
Correct Answer is. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings. OR permanent
magnets.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 220.

Question Number. 20. An AC generator's frequency will.

Option A. always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed.
Option B. be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven.
Option C. vary with changes in field strength.
Correct Answer is. be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. A frequency wild AC generator is used for.

Option A. any AC load.
Option B. deicing loads.
Option C. instruments and navigation.
Correct Answer is. deicing loads.
Explanation. Frequency wild can only be used on resistive circuits (heating and lighting).

Question Number. 22. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field
type, with each revolution of the rotor?.
Option A. Six.
Option B. Four.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. Each pair of poles produces 1 cycle.

Question Number. 23. The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for.
Option A. driving AC operated instruments.
Option B. supplying non-inductive loads.
Option C. the AC supply instead of using inverters.
Correct Answer is. supplying non-inductive loads.

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Explanation. Variable frequency (frequency wild) can only be used for resistive loads (i.e. non inductive and non
capacitive).

Question Number. 24. In a single phase AC generator, frequency is determined by.

Option A. the number of pairs of poles.
Option B. controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings.
Option C. the generator speed.
Correct Answer is. controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings. OR the generator speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. The amount of electrical power for a given generator weight is.
Option A. greater for AC generator.
Option B. determined by the size of the aircraft.
Option C. greater for DC generator.
Correct Answer is. greater for AC generator.
Explanation. This is one of the advantages of AC power.

Question Number. 26. On a typical AC generator the output is taken.

Option A. direct from the rotor via slip rings.
Option B. direct from the stator windings.
Option C. direct from the exciter.
Correct Answer is. direct from the stator windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. An AC generator is producing the required voltage but a higher frequency than that required.
To remedy this, the following action must be taken?.
Option A. Decrease the speed of the prime mover.
Option B. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then decrease the strength of the field.
Option C. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the strength of the field.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the strength of the field.
Explanation. Decreasing the speed of the prime mover decreases the frequency, but it also decreases the output voltage.
So you must then return the output voltage to the required level by increasing the generator field strength.

Question Number. 28. In a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the neutral point and earth
is.
Option A. equal to line volts.
Option B. zero volts.
Option C. equal to phase volts.
Correct Answer is. zero volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. The power output of an AC parallel generator system is measured in.
Option A. KW / KVARS.
Option B. amperes.
Option C. KVA.
Correct Answer is. KVA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. The shape of the output waveform of an AC generator is known as a.
Option A. sine wave.
Option B. frequency wave.
Option C. cosine wave.
Correct Answer is. sine wave.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The sum of the instantaneous E.M.F.'s in a three phase system is.
Option A. three times the phase voltage.
Option B. zero.
Option C. equal to the line voltage.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. Look at a diagram of 3 phases. Add up all three at any vertical line and it always comes to zero.

Question Number. 32. One revolution of a three phase generator will produce.
Option A. 1 cycle.
Option B. 3 cycles.
Option C. 2 cycles.
Correct Answer is. 1 cycle.
Explanation. Although there are three phases, they are considered separate - so one cycle is generated per revolution.

Question Number. 33. The 'A' phase of a three phase power system is colour coded.

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Option A. red.
Option B. blue.
Option C. yellow.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. The tolerance of the AC generator frequency is.

Option A. 10 Hz.
Option B. 40 Hz.
Option C. 20 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 20 Hz.
Explanation. +/-10Hz (for paralleling of generators).

Question Number. 35. The voltage of an AC generator.

Option A. rises to max in one direction and remains.
Option B. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction.
Option C. rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction.
Correct Answer is. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction. OR rises to max in one
direction then falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. A generator supplies 25 A, 4 V and 50 W. What is the apparent power and the power
factor?.
Option A. 400 VA and 0.5.
Option B. 100 VA and 2.
Option C. 100 VA and 0.5.
Correct Answer is. 100 VA and 0.5.
Explanation. PF = true power / apparent power. Apparent power = IV = 100 VA. PF = 50/100 = 0.5.

Question Number. 37. A conventional aircraft generator will be.

Option A. delta wound.
Option B. series wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. star wound.
Explanation. Star wound will give 2 choices of voltage. Aircraft never use series wound generators.

Question Number. 38. Power factor of a generator is.

Option A. tan ø.
Option B. cos ø.
Option C. sin ø.
Correct Answer is. cos ø.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 39. In a 3 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?.
Option A. 180°.
Option B. 120°.
Option C. 0°.
Correct Answer is. 120°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?.
Option A. 90°.
Option B. 0°.
Option C. 180°.
Correct Answer is. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 41. Delta wound line current is.

Option A. equal to phase current.
Option B. root 3 * phase current.
Option C. less than the phase current.
Correct Answer is. root 3 * phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 42. An alternator delivers 500V RMS at 1 ampere. The power factor is 0.8. The true power
is.
Option A. 500W.
Option B. 100VA.
Option C. 400W.
Correct Answer is. 400W.

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Explanation. Apparent Power = amps * volts = 1 * 500 = 500VA. Power Factor = TP/AP. 0.8 = TP/500. TP = 500 * 0.8 =
400W.

Question Number. 43. On a brushless AC generator, the main rotating field is fed with.
Option A. DC via diodes on the rotor.
Option B. AC.
Option C. AC from the rotating field exciter.
Correct Answer is. DC via diodes on the rotor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 44. Single phase components in a three phase system may be connected between.
Option A. phase A and B only.
Option B. any phase and neutral OR between any two phases.
Option C. phase and neutral only.
Correct Answer is. any phase and neutral OR between any two phases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 45. A generator rated at 30 KVA and power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output
of.
Option A. 30 kW.
Option B. 24 kW.
Option C. 48 kW.
Correct Answer is. 24 kW.
Explanation. True Power = PF * Apparent Power = 0.8 * 30 = 24kW.

Question Number. 46. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the
current would.
Option A. lag.
Option B. be in phase.
Option C. lead.
Correct Answer is. lead.
Explanation. Remember CIVIL.

Question Number. 47. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is.
Option A. DC.
Option B. pulsed.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. The output is AC before it is rectified by the diodes inside the shaft.

Question Number. 48. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from.
Option A. either the rotor or the stator.
Option B. the rotor.
Option C. the stator.
Correct Answer is. the rotor.
Explanation. View Comment/Reference (if available).

Question Number. 49. A frequency wild AC generator system has.

Option A. variable voltage only.
Option B. variable voltage and frequency.
Option C. variable frequency only.
Correct Answer is. variable frequency only.
Explanation. The voltage is held constant by a voltage regulator, which varies the resistance of the field current.

Question Number. 50. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400Hz it must achieve a speed
of.
Option A. 6000 RPM.
Option B. 3000 RPM.
Option C. 12000 RPM.
Correct Answer is. 12000 RPM.
Explanation. If it had the minimum of 2 poles (1 pair) it would require 400 revs/sec = 400 * 60 = 24,000 revs/min. With 4
poles (2 pairs), that speed can be halved.

Question Number. 51. The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator.

Option A. is usually star wound.
Option B. is wound in series with the field.
Option C. is usually delta wound.
Correct Answer is. is usually star wound.
Explanation. Star wound is more common due to the provision of two voltages.

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Question Number. 52. The power output of a similar sized 3 phase compared to a single phase generator
is.
Option A. more.
Option B. same.
Option C. less.
Correct Answer is. more.
Explanation. 3 phase generators are lighter and more compact for their output power.

Question Number. 53. In a voltage equalising circuit the generators are regulated so.
Option A. the higher output is decreased to that of the lower.
Option B. the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are equal.
Option C. the lower output is increased to that of the higher.
Correct Answer is. the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are equal.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 54. In a 3-phase delta wound circuit, line current is.
Option A. same as the phase current.
Option B. the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents.
Option C. in phase with the phase current.
Correct Answer is. the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents.
Explanation. Line current is root 3 * phase current (rules out a). There is a 30 degree phase shift (rules out b). The root 3
is derived from the vector sum of all three phases.

Question Number. 55. In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is.

Option A. in series with the field.
Option B. delta wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. star wound.
Explanation. The armature is normally Star Wound to give a choice of 2 voltages.

Question Number. 56. If the phase voltage of a star wound generator is 115V, what would be the line to line
voltage?.
Option A. 220V.
Option B. 180V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
Explanation. Line to line voltage means 'Line' voltage. For star wound, Line voltage = 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 57. What are the factors affecting the frequency of an AC generator?.
Option A. Number of pole pairs and rpm.
Option B. Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs.
Option C. Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm.
Correct Answer is. Number of pole pairs and rpm.
Explanation. See formula for frequency of generator output.

Question Number. 58. A generator with more than two phases is known as.
Option A. polyphase.
Option B. multiphase.
Option C. delta phase.
Correct Answer is. polyphase.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition Page 92.

Question Number. 59. A generator supplies 150VAC phase and load is 10 Ohms per phase. What is the phase current
?.
Option A. 25.5 A.
Option B. 1.5 A.
Option C. 15 A.
Correct Answer is. 15 A.
Explanation. I = V/R = 150/10 = 15A.

Question Number. 60. The phases on a three phase AC generator are spaced at.
Option A. 120 degrees.
Option B. 90 degrees.
Option C. 180 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 120 degrees.
Explanation. The phases are equally spaced.

Question Number. 61. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will.
Option A. reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount.
Option B. reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount.
Option C. increase the terminal voltage by a small amount.

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Correct Answer is. reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pg 193 and Electrical Systems for A&Ps Pg 106.

Question Number. 62. Two 3 phase generators operating in parallel with different phase and line voltages will be
connected in.
Option A. Parallel configuration.
Option B. star configuration.
Option C. delta configuration.
Correct Answer is. star configuration.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 63. The Stability windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense.
Option A. field oscillations.
Option B. overvolt.
Option C. phase shift.
Correct Answer is. overvolt.
Explanation. Stability Winding CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.4.5 (d).

Question Number. 64. Delta wound alternator currents are.

Option A. the same as line current.
Option B. the same as phase current.
Option C. the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3.
Correct Answer is. the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3.
Explanation. Delta wound Line current = root 3 * phase current.

Question Number. 65. In smaller single or twin engine aircraft the primary DC power is supplied in the form of
rectified output from.
Option A. constant frequency ac generator.
Option B. inverter.
Option C. frequency wild ac generator.
Correct Answer is. frequency wild ac generator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 66. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between.
Option A. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Option B. any phase and earth.
Option C. phase A and B only.
Correct Answer is. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 67. Under frequency in an AC supply would cause.

Option A. overheating of inductive devices.
Option B. overspeeding of AC motors.
Option C. overvoltage of capacitive devices.
Correct Answer is. overheating of inductive devices.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 68. The line voltage of a 3 phase star connected AC generator is.
Option A. equal to the phase voltage.
Option B. greater than the phase voltage.
Option C. less than the phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. greater than the phase voltage.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 69. In an AC generator of the brushless type the rotating field winding is fed with.
Option A. AC via rotating exciter windings.
Option B. DC via the slip rings from an external supply.
Option C. DC via diodes from the main exciter winding on the rotor.
Correct Answer is. DC via diodes from the main exciter winding on the rotor.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 70. An AC generator is rated at 30 kVA at 0.8 Power Factor: this means that the maximum
continuous output should not exceed.
Option A. 24 KW.
Option B. 30 KW.
Option C. 37.5 KW.
Correct Answer is. 24 KW.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 90.

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Question Number. 71. To adjust the voltage of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is
necessary to.
Option A. alter the reactance of the starter winding circuit.
Option B. alter the field current.
Option C. alter the driving speed.
Correct Answer is. alter the field current.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 199.

Question Number. 72. In a Delta connected generator the line current is equal to.
Option A. 1.7 * phase voltage.
Option B. 1.7 * phase current.
Option C. phase current.
Correct Answer is. 1.7 * phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

18. AC Motors.

Question Number. 1. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as supply frequency is called.
Option A. a universal machine.
Option B. a synchronous motor.
Option C. an induction motor.
Correct Answer is. a synchronous motor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A three phase AC motor is running at speed on constant load. If one phase goes open circuit,
the motor will run at.
Option A. same speed.
Option B. ⅓ speed.
Option C. ⅔ speed.
Correct Answer is. same speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Shaded poles in an alternating current motor are intended to.
Option A. reduce eddy current losses.
Option B. prevent overshooting.
Option C. facilitate starting.
Correct Answer is. facilitate starting.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a 3 phase motor, if 1 phase is lost, the motor.

Option A. runs at 2 thirds speed.
Option B. runs at 1 third speed.
Option C. remains at the same speed.
Correct Answer is. remains at the same speed.
Explanation. The speed of a 3-phase motor is dependent only on the frequency of the power supply.

Question Number. 5. A three-phase motor has the windings.

Option A. 180°apart.
Option B. 120° apart.
Option C. 90° apart.
Correct Answer is. 120° apart.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. To change the direction of a 3-phase induction motor you would.
Option A. swap all of the input connections.
Option B. remove one of the input connections.
Option C. swap two of the stator connections.
Correct Answer is. swap two of the stator connections.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. A capacitor in a single phase AC motor is to.

Option A. provide a phase shift.
Option B. prevent spikes.
Option C. block DC.
Correct Answer is. provide a phase shift.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. The slip speed of an induction motor is.

Option A. stator speed-rotor speed.
Option B. stator speed / rotor speed.
Option C. stator speed + rotor speed.

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Correct Answer is. stator speed-rotor speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. An inductance/resistance motor is.

Option A. restricted to low loads only.
Option B. less efficient than a capacitance motor.
Option C. better than a capacitance motor.
Correct Answer is. less efficient than a capacitance motor.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Third Edition. Page 143.

Question Number. 10. If a connection to a 3-phase AC motor is disconnected, the motor will.
Option A. slow down and stop.
Option B. continue to run.
Option C. stop.
Correct Answer is. continue to run.
Explanation. 3 phase motor, disconnecting a phase will not slow down or stop the motor, since the speed is dependant
upon the frequency and the load (slip). It will however have less torque.

Question Number. 11. The phases in supply to a 2 phase motor are electrically.
Option A. 120 degrees apart from each other.
Option B. 180 degrees apart from each other.
Option C. 90 degrees apart from each other.
Correct Answer is. 180 degrees apart from each other. OR 90 degrees apart from each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine.
Option A. 12,000 rpm.
Option B. 6000 rpm.
Option C. 8000 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 12,000 rpm.
Explanation. See formula for speed of an AC motor.

Question Number. 13. A capacitor in a single phase motor is to.

Option A. prevent sparking at the switch.
Option B. provide smoothing.
Option C. provide a phase shift.
Correct Answer is. provide a phase shift.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Slip on a synchronous motor on start is.

Option A. 0 %.
Option B. 100 %.
Option C. 50 %.
Correct Answer is. 100 %.
Explanation. The rotating field commences instantly upon start, but the rotor takes time to 'lock-on'.

Question Number. 15. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to.
Option A. create a rotating field.
Option B. reduce interference.
Option C. increase efficiency.
Correct Answer is. create a rotating field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. In a 2 phase induction motor the control winding is fed with.
Option A. variable phase AC supply.
Option B. constant phase AC supply.
Option C. DC supply.
Correct Answer is. constant phase AC supply. OR variable phase AC supply.
Explanation. A two phase induction motor used on a servo system uses one fixed reference phase and one control phase.
The control phase is the same frequency as the reference phase (and is constant) but varies in amplitude. When the
amplitude goes negative it is effectively 180 degrees out of phase with the reference phase and the motor turns
backwards. More on this subject in module 4.

Question Number. 17. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by.

Option A. isolating one phase.
Option B. changing over any two phases.
Option C. reversing the rotor connections.
Correct Answer is. reversing the rotor connections. OR changing over any two phases.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 18. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the.
Option A. field current.
Option B. armature current.
Option C. pairs of poles.
Correct Answer is. pairs of poles.
Explanation. The number of pairs of poles depends upon the frequency of the supply, which is the only thing which can
vary the speed.

Question Number. 19. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called.
Option A. a synchronous motor.
Option B. a universal motor.
Option C. an induction motor.
Correct Answer is. a synchronous motor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. In a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is.
Option A. 0%.
Option B. 5%.
Option C. 100%.
Correct Answer is. 0%.
Explanation. Synchronous motors have no slip, at any time.

Question Number. 21. In a two-phase induction motor there are.

Option A. 3 poles.
Option B. 4 poles.
Option C. 2 poles.
Correct Answer is. 4 poles.
Explanation. A pair of poles per phase.

Question Number. 22. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependant on.
Option A. the strength of the armature current.
Option B. the number of pairs of poles.
Option C. the strength of the field.
Correct Answer is. the number of pairs of poles.
Explanation. Any AC motor's speed is determined by the supply frequency and/or the number of poles. A stronger field or
armature current results in only more torque but not speed. [Link]

Question Number. 23. Motor slip is.

Option A. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.
Option B. a symptom of a weak field.
Option C. a shifting of the MNA of the motor.
Correct Answer is. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.
Explanation. Motor slip is the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.

Question Number. 24. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is.

Option A. it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate.
Option B. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current.
Option C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.
Correct Answer is. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.
Explanation. A synchronous motor rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.

Question Number. 25. A simple basic induction motor has.

Option A. good starting torque, poor running torque.
Option B. poor starting torque, good running torque.
Option C. poor starting torque, poor running torque.
Correct Answer is. poor starting torque, good running torque.
Explanation. Starting torque is usually about 60% of maximum. See forum topic 'Induction Motors' for more info.

Question Number. 26. Which of the following applications would require a 'continuously rated' motor?.
Option A. Fuel pump motor.
Option B. Flap drive actuator.
Option C. Cargo door actuator.
Correct Answer is. Fuel pump motor.
Explanation. Most pump motors are 'continuous rated' to provide a constant output.

Question Number. 27. A centrifugal speed switch is used.

Option A. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor.
Option B. to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor.
Option C. to cut out the slow start resistor on an AC motor.
Correct Answer is. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 143.

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Question Number. 28. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to.
Option A. run at the same speed.
Option B. run at 2/3 speed.
Option C. stop.
Correct Answer is. run at the same speed.
Explanation. It will run at the same speed.

Question Number. 29. The controlling phase on a two phase motor is of a.

Option A. variable amplitude.
Option B. fixed amplitude.
Option C. direct current.
Correct Answer is. variable amplitude.
Explanation. Pg 141 Aircraft instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett.

Question Number. 30. The difference in speed between a synchronous motor's rotor and stator is known
as.
Option A. phase lag.
Option B. rotor lag.
Option C. slip speed.
Correct Answer is. slip speed.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 31. What is the purpose of the capacitor used in a single phase AC motor?.
Option A. Smoothing.
Option B. Changing direction of motor.
Option C. Provides a high starting torque.
Correct Answer is. Provides a high starting torque.
Explanation. NIL.

19.

Question Number. 1. Three 5-microfarad capacitors are connected in parallel. What is there total
capacitance?.
Option A. 15 microfarad.
Option B. 5 microfarad.
Option C. 1.66 microfarad.
Correct Answer is. 15 microfarad.
Explanation. Capacitance in parallel add up directly.

Question Number. 2. When capacitors are joined in parallel, the total capacitance is.
Option A. less than the smallest of the individual capacitors.
Option B. equal to the sum of the individual capacitors.
Option C. dependant upon the voltage applied.
Correct Answer is. equal to the sum of the individual capacitors.
Explanation. Capacitors in series/parallel theory, is the opposite to resistors in series/parallel theory.

Question Number. 3. If the distance between the two plates of a capacitor is reduced, what will be the
effect?.
Option A. Capacitance increases.
Option B. Capacitance decreases.
Option C. Capacitance is unaffected.
Correct Answer is. Capacitance increases.
Explanation. Get a formula for the capacitance of a capacitor. See that 'd' is inversely proportional to the capacitance.

Question Number. 4. The circuit shown is at resonance. If the value of the inductance is trebled, the impedance
will.

Option A. stay the same.

Option B. treble.
Option C. reduce by one-third.
Correct Answer is. reduce by one-third.
Explanation. At resonance, the impedance of the L-C pair is maximum. If you upset the L-C balance you destroy the
resonance. The impedance of the L-C pair will then reduce, reducing the impedance of the circuit as a whole (although 'by
one-third' is debatable).

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Question Number. 5. The strength of the EMF generated by a DC generator is given the formula : E = EMF, B = flux
density, l = length of conductors in the armature, V = velocity of conductors.
Option A. E = (B*l)/V.
Option B. E = B*l*V.
Option C. E = (l*V)/B.
Correct Answer is. E = B*l*V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The rotating part of a motor/generator is called.

Option A. commutator.
Option B. armature.
Option C. yoke.
Correct Answer is. armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. No EMF is induced in the loop of a generator when.

Option A. it is moving at right angles to the field.
Option B. it is moving parallel to the field.
Option C. the field is at a minimum.
Correct Answer is. it is moving parallel to the field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. The instantaneous value of the EMF induced in a rotating wire loop is.
Option A. directly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Option B. indirectly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Option C. directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Explanation. When the loop is laying parallel with the field (0o) there is maximum EMF. Cos0o = 1.

Question Number. 9. One purpose of the commutator is to.

Option A. switch the direction of the current flow every half cycle.
Option B. switch the direction of current flow every cycle.
Option C. switch the direction of current flow every two cycles.
Correct Answer is. switch the direction of the current flow every half cycle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The power output of a DC generator is governed primarily by.
Option A. its speed of rotation.
Option B. its ability to dissipate heat.
Option C. its method of construction.
Correct Answer is. its ability to dissipate heat.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. A DC machine has internal resistance due to.

Option A. armature windings, brushes and brushes to commutator contact.
Option B. armature windings, brushes and commutator inertia.
Option C. armature windings and brushes.
Correct Answer is. armature windings, brushes and brushes to commutator contact.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Compensation windings are fitted to a generator in.

Option A. series with the field windings.
Option B. parallel with armature windings.
Option C. series with armature windings.
Correct Answer is. series with armature windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. Armature reaction has the effect of.

Option A. reducing the output by displacing the geometrical neutral axis.
Option B. reducing the output by distorting the magnetic field.
Option C. reducing the output by increasing internal resistance.
Correct Answer is. reducing the output by distorting the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Reactive sparking maybe overcome by.

Option A. decreasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
Option B. increasing the time constant of the armature by decreasing its resistance.
Option C. increasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
Correct Answer is. decreasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.

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Explanation. The ratio of armature inductance to its resistance is the electrical time constant of a brush type motor.

Posted by soul at 21:11

13 comments:

Sabeeka 14 May 2013 at 03:07

I cannot see the images - the diagrams - what to do ?

Reply

Replies

Anonymous 10 September 2016 at 00:00

FUCK U

Reply

Lim Ken 27 November 2013 at 07:22

This is nice...

Reply

Anonymous 24 February 2014 at 01:06

cannot see the images

Reply

Romesh Raban 16 August 2014 at 05:05

Don't worry about the damn images just fu**** do the questions over and over and you will pass your damned
M3!!

Reply

Anonymous 15 February 2015 at 20:41

@Romesh a bit rude! :'D

Reply

Muhammad Umar Atta Sandhu 2 March 2015 at 09:53

@Romesh Are you sure that by doing these questions one can pass EASA M3 ?

Reply

Replies

Junaid Akbar 6 April 2015 at 13:21

about 60%

Reply

Anonymous 17 November 2015 at 06:54

chapter 1 q#28 i guxx its all the 3 particles

Reply

Anonymous 13 January 2017 at 02:10

is this enough for passing mod3?

Reply

Anonymous 30 January 2017 at 00:48

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1/13/2018 EASA PART 66 GUIDE: EASA Part 66 : Electrical Question
On mod.# chapter #13 question #34 gives the right explanation for the answer, but the answer indicated is
wrong. Right answer should be answer B (70.7 V)

Reply

Anonymous 30 January 2017 at 00:49

On mod.#3 ... Sorry

Reply

Atoosh alkhaili 18 April 2017 at 10:18

This comment has been removed by the author.

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 Module 03.

01. Electron Theory.

Question Number. 1. A neutron has.

Option A. the opposite charge to an Electron but half the weight of a proton.
Option B. the same charge as an Electron but half the mass.
Option C. no electrical charge but will add weight to the nucleus.
Correct Answer is. no electrical charge but will add weight to the nucleus.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. The unit which consists of two or more different types of atoms is known as a.
Option A. particle of an element.
Option B. molecule of a compound.
Option C. molecule of an element.
Correct Answer is. molecule of a compound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. In what equipment is a photon radiated when an electron leaves a hole?.
Option A. Photo-cell.
Option B. LED.
Option C. Photo diode.
Correct Answer is. LED.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A good electrical insulating material will contain.

Option A. Only a small number of electrons in the outer shell of each atom of the material.
Option B. strongly bound electrons in the atoms of the material.
Option C. Weakly bound 'free' electrons in the atoms of the material.
Correct Answer is. strongly bound electrons in the atoms of the material.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. The smallest particle that a substance can be split and show the same properties as the whole is known
as.
Option A. an Element.
Option B. a Molecule.
Option C. an Atom.
Correct Answer is. an Atom.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. What charge does the nucleus of an atom possess?.

Option A. Positive.
Option B. Neutral.
Option C. Negative.
Correct Answer is. Positive.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell N of an atom?.

Option A. 18.
Option B. 32.
Option C. 16.
Correct Answer is. 32.
Explanation. Shell k = 2 electrons, shell L= 8 electrons, shell M = 18 electrons and shell N = 32 electrons (or use the 2n2 exclusion
rule).
Question Number. 8. An oxygen molecule is made up of.
Option A. two oxygen atoms sharing neutrons.
Option B. two oxygen atoms sharing protons.
Option C. two oxygen atoms sharing electrons.
Correct Answer is. two oxygen atoms sharing electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If electrons are added to an atom it becomes.

Option A. a neutral ion.
Option B. a positive ion.
Option C. a negative ion.
Correct Answer is. a negative ion.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. An element whose atoms have fewer than 4 electrons in their valency shell are.
Option A. semiconductors.
Option B. good insulators.
Option C. good conductors.
Correct Answer is. good conductors.
Explanation. The further away from a 'complete' shell the better a conductor it is.

Question Number. 11. The charge on a proton is.

Option A. positive.
Option B. negative.
Option C. neutral.
Correct Answer is. positive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What effect do the electrons of one atom have upon the electrons of another atom?.
Option A. They have no effect on each other.
Option B. They repel each other.
Option C. They attract each other.
Correct Answer is. They repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. What is a molecule?.

Option A. The smallest part of an atom.
Option B. The smallest part of a compound.
Option C. The smallest part of an electron.
Correct Answer is. The smallest part of a compound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. An atom is.

Option A. the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics.
Option B. the smallest part of a compound that can exist independently.
Option C. the smallest particle of matter.
Correct Answer is. the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. A neutron is a particle which is.

Option A. is contained in the nucleus of all atoms.
Option B. orbits the nucleus of the atom.
Option C. is contained within the nucleus of most atoms.
Correct Answer is. is contained within the nucleus of most atoms.
Explanation. Most atoms' because hydrogen has no neutron.
Question Number. 16. The mass of an atom is contained mainly in the.
Option A. proton.
Option B. nucleus.
Option C. electron.
Correct Answer is. nucleus.
Explanation. The proton and the neutron are approximately the same mass (neutron very slightly heavier). The electron is just under
1/2000th of a proton or neutron.

Question Number. 17. When an atom loses or gains an electron it is called.

Option A. a molecule.
Option B. a current.
Option C. an ion.
Correct Answer is. an ion.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. A good electrical insulator is a material which.

Option A. contains a large number of positive ions.
Option B. has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms.
Option C. has more protons than electrons.
Correct Answer is. has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. An electric current is.

Option A. an ordered flow of electrons.
Option B. a surplus of free electron.
Option C. an excitement of electrons in a metal.
Correct Answer is. an ordered flow of electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. An atom contains.

Option A. hydrogen.
Option B. molecules.
Option C. electrons.
Correct Answer is. electrons.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell?.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. All semiconductors (including carbon) has 4 electrons in their outer shell.

Question Number. 22. If a free electron is given to another atom, that atom is a.
Option A. valency atom.
Option B. negative ion.
Option C. positive ion.
Correct Answer is. negative ion.
Explanation. That atom will be negatively charged due to the additional electron.

Question Number. 23. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of.
Option A. protons.
Option B. electrons.
Option C. neutrons.
Correct Answer is. protons.
Explanation. Atomic number = number of protons. Mass number = number of protons + neutrons.

Question Number. 24. The valence electron is.

Option A. the electron in outer shell of atom.
Option B. the electron in inner shell of atom.
Option C. a positive electron.
Correct Answer is. the electron in outer shell of atom.
Explanation. The valence electrons is/are in the outer shell.

Question Number. 25. An atom with a deficiency in electrons has.

Option A. low resistance.
Option B. high resistance.
Option C. high impedance.
Correct Answer is. low resistance.
Explanation. An atom with a deficiency of electrons will be positively charged and able to accept electrons freely. Module 4 theory
of holes as majority carriers.

Question Number. 26. An atom with less than 4 electrons in its outer shell has.
Option A. low electrical resistance.
Option B. no electrical resistance.
Option C. high electrical resistance.
Correct Answer is. low electrical resistance.
Explanation. Low electrical resistance, i.e. a good conductor.
Question Number. 27. Elements such as phosphorus with 5 electrons in their outer shell, when combined with pure silicon, is a.

Option A. isotopic.
Option B. acceptor.
Option C. donor.
Correct Answer is. donor.
Explanation. Phosphorus 'donates' an electron to the silicon crystal structure.

Question Number. 28. An hydrogen atom consist of a.

Option A. Proton, Neutron and an Electron.
Option B. Proton and an Electron only.
Option C. Neutron and a proton only.
Correct Answer is. Proton and an Electron only.
Explanation. Hydrogen has no Neutron.

Question Number. 29. For an atom to become a negative ion it must.

Option A. gain at least one electron.
Option B. have undergone ionisation by the sun.
Option C. lose at least one electron.
Correct Answer is. gain at least one electron.
Explanation. Gaining at least one electron produces a negative ion.

Question Number. 30. What is the maximum number of electrons in shell M of an atom?.
Option A. 18.
Option B. 6.
Option C. 16.
Correct Answer is. 18.
Explanation. Use Pauli's exclusion formula. M is the 3rd shell (n=3). 2*3*3 = 18.
Question Number. 31. A neutral atom with an atomic no. of 3 has how many electrons?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 3.
Option C. Dependant on type of atom.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons.

Question Number. 32. The nucleus of an atom is.

Option A. neutral.
Option B. positive charged.
Option C. negative charged.
Correct Answer is. positive charged.
Explanation. Nucleus is positively charged.

Question Number. 33. Electron orbits are called.

Option A. waves.
Option B. shells.
Option C. valences.
Correct Answer is. shells.
Explanation. shells, or energy levels.

Question Number. 34. A neutral atom gains electrons.

Option A. It gains a positive charge.
Option B. It gains a negative charge.
Option C. It remains neutral.
Correct Answer is. It gains a negative charge.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. An oxygen atom has.

Option A. protons and electrons.
Option B. neutrons and protons.
Option C. protons, neutrons and electrons.
Correct Answer is. protons, neutrons and electrons.
Explanation. Jepperson, A+P Technician General Handbook, Chapter 2 Matter and Energy.

02. Static Electricity and Conduction.

Question Number. 1. A semi-conductor will have.

Option A. two electrons in the outer shell.
Option B. four electrons in the outer shell.
Option C. eight electrons in the outer shell.
Correct Answer is. four electrons in the outer shell.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Ion current is found in.

Option A. conductors and semi-conductors.
Option B. liquids and gasses.
Option C. semi-conductors.
Correct Answer is. liquids and gasses.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Electricity conducts through.

Option A. vacuum.
Option B. solids and liquids only.
Option C. solids only.
Correct Answer is. solids and liquids only.
Explanation. Electricity can conduct through a vacuum by thermionic emmission.

Question Number. 4. An example of a good electrical insulator is.

Option A. aluminium.
Option B. glass.
Option C. mercury.
Correct Answer is. glass.
Explanation. You MUST know that surely!.

Question Number. 5. Static charges remaining in an aircraft are dissipated by.

Option A. earthing the aircraft as soon as possible.
Option B. the use of a conducting type nose wheel.
Option C. bonding the aircraft to a refuel tanker.
Correct Answer is. the use of a conducting type nose wheel.
Explanation. Usually, the nose wheel tyre contains graphite, to dissipate the static electricity on landing.

Question Number. 6. An element could be considered to be a conductor if it has.

Option A. a small number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Option B. a large number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Option C. a large number of electrons.
Correct Answer is. a small number of electrons in its outer orbit.
Explanation. The lower the number of electrons in the outer shell, the more readily it will give them up.

Question Number. 7. A charged body is said to have.

Option A. a surplus or deficiency of electrons.
Option B. a deficiency of neutrons.
Option C. a surplus of protons.
Correct Answer is. a surplus or deficiency of electrons.
Explanation. If it has a surplus of electrons it is negatively charged. A deficiency of electrons makes it positively charged.

Question Number. 8. The risk of a fire due to static electricity is overcome.

Option A. by connecting all metal components by bonding.
Option B. by fitting static wicks and isolating the battery from inflammable gas sources.
Option C. by fitting static wicks and insulating all metal components.
Correct Answer is. by connecting all metal components by bonding.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. The purpose of bonding is to.

Option A. ensure all components have been securely fitted.
Option B. stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks.
Option C. give generated static an easy return path to the generator.
Correct Answer is. stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The various parts of an aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by.
Option A. the supply bus-bars.
Option B. bonding.
Option C. static discharge wicks.
Correct Answer is. bonding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided
the.
Option A. structure is adequately bonded.
Option B. voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
Option C. generator is properly grounded.
Correct Answer is. structure is adequately bonded.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. If an insulated conductor is placed near to a negatively charged rod, the nearest end of the conductor
becomes.
Option A. No change will occur.
Option B. negatively charged.
Option C. positively charged.
Correct Answer is. positively charged.
Explanation. The free electrons in the conductor will be repelled away from the rod, leaving that end positively charged.

Question Number. 13. The electromagnetic force between two charged bodies is.
Option A. inversely proportional to the distance between them.
Option B. inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Option C. proportional to the distance between them.
Correct Answer is. inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. If a negatively charged conductor is placed next to an insulated rod.
Option A. the rod becomes negatively charged.
Option B. the rod has no charge.
Option C. the rod becomes positively charged.
Correct Answer is. the rod becomes positively charged.
Explanation. The negative charges on the rod are repelled by the charged conductor (regardless of its insulation).

03. Electrical Terminology.

Question Number. 1. If a photon radiating into an electronic device causes the production of an electron/hole pair, the device
is known as a.
Option A. light emitting diode.
Option B. laser diode.
Option C. photodiode.
Correct Answer is. photodiode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Faraday's Law States that.

Option A. the magnitude of the EMF is indirectly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Option B. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux.
Option C. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Correct Answer is. the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Which of the following is 1 Amp?.

Option A. 1000 mA.
Option B. 1000 kA.
Option C. 1000 μA.
Correct Answer is. 1000 mA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit is.
Option A. resistance.
Option B. total resistance.
Option C. impedance.
Correct Answer is. impedance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Ohm's law states that:.

Option A. e.m.f. = current divided by resistance.
Option B. current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
Option C. resistance = current divided by e.m.f.
Correct Answer is. current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. E.M.F. in an electric circuit corresponds to what in a magnetic circuit.

Option A. MMF.
Option B. reluctance.
Option C. flux.
Correct Answer is. MMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. In conventional current flow, what is Fleming's right hand rule used for?.
Option A. Generators.
Option B. Motors.
Option C. Inductors.
Correct Answer is. Generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. The SI unit of work is.
Option A. Kilogram metres-force.
Option B. Joules per metre.
Option C. Joules per second (Watts).
Correct Answer is. Kilogram metres-force.
Explanation. Work is measured in joules, which is [Link] or [Link] force (since Newtons are kilograms force).

Question Number. 9. A coulomb is.

Option A. one ampere * second.
Option B. one second per ampere.
Option C. one ampere per second.
Correct Answer is. one ampere * second.
Explanation. Current (amps) = charge (coulombs) per second. You do the transposition.

Question Number. 10. An electric current is a flow of.

Option A. electrons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
Option B. electrons from a negatively charged area to a positively charged area.
Option C. protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area.
Correct Answer is. protons from a positively charged area to a negatively charged area. OR electrons from a negatively charged
area to a positively charged area.
Explanation. Electrons flow from negative to positive.

Question Number. 11. A volt can be considered to be a.

Option A. unit of electrical power.
Option B. quantity of electrical energy.
Option C. unit of electrical pressure.
Correct Answer is. unit of electrical pressure.
Explanation. Electrical pressure' is sometimes used instead of voltage, due to its analogy to a head of pressure in fluids.

Question Number. 12. What is 3.25 volts in millivolts?.

Option A. 3,250 millivolts.
Option B. 325,000 millivolts.
Option C. 3.25 millivolts.
Correct Answer is. 3,250 millivolts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. Electromotive force is measured in.

Option A. Watts.
Option B. Ohms.
Option C. Volts.
Correct Answer is. Volts.
Explanation. EMF is another term for voltage, or potential difference (PD) or electrical pressure, all measured in Volts.

Question Number. 14. Kirchhoff's law states.

Option A. the algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to zero.
Option B. the inverse sum of all the voltages entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one.
Option C. the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one.
Correct Answer is. the algebraic sum of all the currents entering or leaving a series of components will be equal to one. OR the
algebraic sum of all the voltages entering or eaving a series of components will be equal to zero.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual.
Option A. inductance.
Option B. capacitance.
Option C. reactance.
Correct Answer is. inductance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. When two coils are linked by a common flux, a voltage can be induced in one by a changing current in
the other. This process is known as.
Option A. self induction.
Option B. the magnetic effect.
Option C. mutual induction.
Correct Answer is. mutual induction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. When an electrical supply becomes 'open-circuit'.

Option A. the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the increased current drawn.
Option B. the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
Option C. the component will operate normally but will not switch off.
Correct Answer is. the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
Explanation. Open circuit means 'no continuity'. Function stops.

Question Number. 18. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the.
Option A. Henry.
Option B. Weber.
Option C. Tesla.
Correct Answer is. Tesla.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. A 1µF capacitor is equivalent to.

Option A. 1,000,000 Farads.
Option B. 0.000,001 Farads.
Option C. 0.001 Farads.
Correct Answer is. 0.000,001 Farads.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called (disregarding resistance).

Option A. inductive reactance.

Option B. impedance.
Option C. reluctance.
Correct Answer is. inductive reactance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. A shunt is used with.

Option A. an ammeter.
Option B. a voltmeter.
Option C. an ohmmeter.
Correct Answer is. an ammeter.
Explanation. A shunt is used to change the working range of an ammeter, by 'shunting' around the ammeter, a major portion of the
current being measured.

Question Number. 22. If a load in series has a current passing through it, the magnetic field can be worked out by using.
Option A. the corkscrew rule.
Option B. left hand rule.
Option C. right hand rule.
Correct Answer is. the corkscrew rule.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. The unit for power is.
Option A. Joules per second.
Option B. N/m.
Option C. Volts/Amps.
Correct Answer is. Joules per second.
Explanation. Power = energy (joules) / time (seconds).

Question Number. 24. In conventional flow, the left hand rule applies to.
Option A. generators.
Option B. batteries.
Option C. motors.
Correct Answer is. motors.
Explanation. Remember MG - the British car manufacturers (MG left to right) - or remember geneRIGHTer.

Question Number. 25. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is.
Option A. Lenz's Law.
Option B. Faraday's Law.
Option C. Kirchhoff's Law.
Correct Answer is. Faraday's Law.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 26. The Watt can be expressed as.

Option A. Seconds per Joule.
Option B. Joules * seconds.
Option C. Joules per second.
Correct Answer is. Joules per second.
Explanation. Power = Energy(J) / Time(s).

Question Number. 27. The symbol for flux density is.

Option A. B.
Option B. H.
Option C. MMF.
Correct Answer is. B.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a conductor you would use.
Option A. Fleming's right hand rule.
Option B. Fleming's left hand rule.
Option C. the corkscrew rule.
Correct Answer is. the corkscrew rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. Switching on or off the current in one coil produces an emf in another coil adjacent to it. The two coils
are said to have.
Option A. self inductance.
Option B. auto inductance.
Option C. mutual inductance.
Correct Answer is. mutual inductance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. Self induced emf in a coil supplied with a current varying at a uniform rate can be found by.
Option A. -L dØ / dt
Option B. -N dI / dt
Option C. -L dI / dt
Correct Answer is. -L dI / dt.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called.
Option A. retentivity.
Option B. reluctance.
Option C. permeability.
Correct Answer is. permeability.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 32. Magnetomotive force can be found by.

Option A. I * N.
Option B. Blv.
Option C. N/I.
Correct Answer is. I * N.
Explanation. MMF (symbol H) = amps * turns (units are ampere turns).

Question Number. 33. When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is.
Option A. Kirkchoff's Law.
Option B. Faraday's Law.
Option C. Lenz's Law.
Correct Answer is. Faraday's Law.
Explanation. Faraday's Law is induced EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.

Question Number. 34. The direction of induced conventional current in a wire rotating in a magnetic field can be determined
by.
Option A. cork screw rule.
Option B. Fleming's right hand rule.
Option C. Fleming's left hand rule.
Correct Answer is. Fleming's right hand rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. How would you find the direction of the electron flow in an armature located in a magnetic field?.

Option A. Flemings left hand rule.

Option B. Flemings right hand rule.
Option C. Maxwells corkscrew rule.
Correct Answer is. Flemings left hand rule.
Explanation. Assuming conventional current flow.

Question Number. 36. What is the SI unit of conductance?.

Option A. Ohm.
Option B. Siemen.
Option C. Ohm-metre.
Correct Answer is. Siemen.
Explanation. Conductance is 1/R and is measured in Siemens.

Question Number. 37. What is the SI unit of resistivity?.

Option A. Ohms.
Option B. Ohm metre.
Option C. Ohms/metre.
Correct Answer is. Ohm metre.
Explanation. Resistivity is ohm metre (transpose the resistance formula R = ρL / A, and see what units it gives).
Question Number. 38. What is the formula for conductance? (R=Resistance).
Option A. R + 1.
Option B. 1/R.
Option C. 1-R.
Correct Answer is. 1/R.
Explanation. Conductance is the inverse of resistance.

Question Number. 39. In electrical circuit, Direct Current power is represented by the.
Option A. Ampere.
Option B. Watt.
Option C. Joule.
Correct Answer is. Watt.
Explanation. DC power is measured in Watts.

Question Number. 40. In S.I. units, work is denoted by.

Option A. Newton-meter which is Joules.
Option B. Joules/sec which is Watts.
Option C. Kilogram-force-meter/sec which is Metric Horsepower.
Correct Answer is. Newton-meter which is Joules.
Explanation. Work has the same unit as energy, i.e. Nm or Joule.

Question Number. 41. The unit of energy is the.

Option A. Joule.
Option B. Watt.
Option C. Coulomb.
Correct Answer is. Joule.
Explanation. Energy is measured in Joules.
Question Number. 42. Potential difference is another term for.
Option A. voltage.
Option B. charge.
Option C. energy.
Correct Answer is. voltage.
Explanation. Potential difference, electromotive force, electrical pressure, are all terms for voltage.

Question Number. 43. XL is the symbol of.

Option A. inductive reactance.
Option B. capacitive reactance.
Option C. impedance.
Correct Answer is. inductive reactance.
Explanation. 'L' is for inductance, 'X' is for reactance.

Question Number. 44. Using Ohm's law.

Option A. current is directly proportional to the resistance.
Option B. current is directly proportional to the EMF.
Option C. resistance is directly proportional to EMF.
Correct Answer is. current is directly proportional to the EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 45. One volt is induced into a circuit with a current varying at 1 amp per second. The circuit has.
Option A. 1 ampere turn.
Option B. 1 Tesla.
Option C. 1 Henry.
Correct Answer is. 1 Henry.
Explanation. 1 Henry = 1 Volt per Amp per Second.

Question Number. 46. The property of a conductor of electricity that limits or restricts the flow of electric current is.
Option A. limiter.
Option B. resistance.
Option C. fuse.
Correct Answer is. resistance.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 6, pg 101.

Question Number. 47. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to.

Option A. parallel networks.
Option B. series networks.
Option C. closed loop networks.
Correct Answer is. closed loop networks.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. The SI unit of work is the.

Option A. Watt.
Option B. Newton Meter.
Option C. Joule.
Correct Answer is. Joule.
Explanation.

Question Number. 49. The EMF of a generator can be calculated from which law?.
Option A. Faraday's law.
Option B. Kirchhoff’s law.
Option C. Lenz's law.
Correct Answer is. Faraday's law.
Explanation. [Link]

04. Generation of Electricity.

Question Number. 1. Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the thermocouple so that.
Option A. mini junctions are not formed.
Option B. the resistance is not increased beyond limits.
Option C. they will not corrode.
Correct Answer is. mini junctions are not formed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Point A on the armature of the generator shown is producing.

Option A. minimum current.
Option B. zero current.
Option C. maximum current.
Correct Answer is. maximum current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. A piezoelectric device generates electricity through.

Option A. friction.
Option B. light.
Option C. pressure.
Correct Answer is. pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A photozoidal cell produces electricity when subjected to.

Option A. light.
Option B. pressure.
Option C. heat.
Correct Answer is. light.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of.

Option A. millivoltmeter.
Option B. milliammeter.
Option C. milliohmeter.
Correct Answer is. millivoltmeter.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A light/heat sensitive cell is a.

Option A. transistor.
Option B. diode.
Option C. transducer.
Correct Answer is. transducer.
Explanation. Any transducer turns one energy type into another energy type. In this case light or heat into electricity.

Question Number. 7. The diagram shows a current carrying conductor (A) in a magnetic field. The conductor will move.

Option A. upwards.
Option B. sideways.
Option C. downwards.
Correct Answer is. downwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A component that produces an output voltage due to incident light is called a.
Option A. liquid crystal.
Option B. solar cell.
Option C. light emitting diode.
Correct Answer is. solar cell.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m and the speed
of the conductor is 10 m/s. The EMF induced is.
Option A. 0.3 V.
Option B. 7.5 V.
Option C. 30 V.
Correct Answer is. 30 V.
Explanation. EMF = Blv = 1.5 * 2 * 10 = 30V.

Question Number. 10. A conductor is placed in a magnetised coil. What will happen?.
Option A. Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved.
Option B. The conductor will move.
Option C. A force will be created.
Correct Answer is. Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved.
Explanation. Faraday's Law.

Question Number. 11. The maximum output voltage from a basic single loop generator is when the loop is.
Option A. rotating anti-clockwise relative to the direction of the magnetic flux.
Option B. cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
Option C. at 45o to the magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 83.

05. DC Sources of Electricity.

Question Number. 1. A 20 cell battery with each cell having an internal resistance of 0.1 ohms is charged with 2 leads having
a total resistance of 0.1 ohms. The battery is charged with a current of 5 amps. What is the charging voltage ?.
Option A. 0.5 volts.
Option B. 10.5 volts.
Option C. 0.005 volts.
Correct Answer is. 10.5 volts.
Explanation. Total battery internal resistance = 0.1 * 20 = 2 ohms, Total circuit resistance, including leads = 2 + 0.1 = 2.1 ohms, V =
I * R = 5A * 2.1 ohms = 10.5V.

Question Number. 2. Two 10V, 20 Ah batteries are connected in parallel and connected across a 10 ohm load. How long
could they supply normal current before the voltage begins to decay?.
Option A. 40 hours.
Option B. 20 hours.
Option C. 4 hours.
Correct Answer is. 40 hours.
Explanation. Use Ohms law to work out the current (1A). Two batteries in parallel then rating is doubled (40 Ah).

Question Number. 3. A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for.

Option A. 200 hours.
Option B. 20 hours.
Option C. 5 hours.
Correct Answer is. 200 hours.
Explanation. 200 mA = 0.2 A. 40 Ah / 0.2 A = 200 hours.
Question Number. 4. A zinc-carbon battery life depends upon.
Option A. the amount of zinc.
Option B. the purity of the carbon rod.
Option C. the amount of the electrolyte paste.
Correct Answer is. the amount of zinc.
Explanation. The zinc is slowly eaten away in a zinc carbon battery (primary cell).

Question Number. 5. When checking the SG of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you should.
Option A. check any cell because they will all be the same.
Option B. check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell.
Option C. check all cells because they may be different.
Correct Answer is. check all cells because they may be different.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The PD at the terminals of an open circuit battery with a small internal resistance will be.
Option A. more than the EMF.
Option B. less than the EMF.
Option C. the same as the EMF.
Correct Answer is. the same as the EMF.
Explanation. EMF is the battery voltage (i.e. that which is written on the side of it) and the PD is the actual terminal voltage. If it is
open circuit, no current flows to drop a voltage across the internal resistance so they are the same.

Question Number. 7. An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as.

Option A. polarization.
Option B. ionization.
Option C. hydration.
Correct Answer is. polarization.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?.

Option A. Anode.
Option B. Both the anode and the cathode.
Option C. Cathode.
Correct Answer is. Anode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?.
Option A. A high internal resistance condition.
Option B. High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
Option C. Excessive current draw from the battery.
Correct Answer is. High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
Explanation. Thermal runaway usually occurs on charging.

Question Number. 10. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by checking.
Option A. the voltage with rated load switched ON.
Option B. the voltage on open circuit.
Option C. the voltage off load.
Correct Answer is. the voltage off load.
Explanation. If just checking the voltage (as opposed to a charge test) then the battery must be off load to prevent the internal
resistance dropping the terminal voltage.

Question Number. 11. Two batteries 12V and 40 Ah each, are in series. What is the total capacity?.
Option A. 12V 80 Ah.
Option B. 24V 40 Ah.
Option C. 24V 80Ah.
Correct Answer is. 24V 40 Ah.
Explanation. Batteries in series - voltage increases but capacity remains the same (vice versa if they were in parallel).

Question Number. 12. If a battery has got low internal resistance, then the.
Option A. no load voltage will be the same as on load voltage.
Option B. on load voltage will be greater than no load voltage.
Option C. no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage.
Correct Answer is. no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage.
Explanation. The internal resistance will always drop the voltage and reduce the terminal voltage. It is the same whether it is high or
low internal resistance - just a matter of 'how much'.

Question Number. 13. Conventional current flow inside a battery is from.

Option A. either anode to cathode or cathode to anode, depending on the active elements.
Option B. cathode to anode.
Option C. anode to cathode.
Correct Answer is. anode to cathode.
Explanation. The cathode is positive. Conventional current flows from positive to negative on the external circuit, but to close the
circuit must flow negative to positive INSIDE the battery.

Question Number. 14. In a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?.
Option A. Hydration.
Option B. Polarization.
Option C. Sulphation.
Correct Answer is. Sulphation.
Explanation. Polarization is build-up of hydrogen on the ANODE. Sulphation however, is build-up of lead-sulphate on BOTH anode
and cathode.
Question Number. 15. Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 24V 80 ah.
Option B. 12V 80 ah.
Option C. 24V 40 ah.
Correct Answer is. 12V 80 ah.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal
value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor?.
Option A. 12 volts.
Option B. 24 volts.
Option C. 3 volts.
Correct Answer is. 24 volts.
Explanation. Resistors ion parallel, voltage across each one is the same and equal to the source voltage (if nothing else is in series
with them).

Question Number. 17. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by checking.
Option A. the voltage on open circuit.
Option B. the voltage off load.
Option C. the voltage with rated load switched ON.
Correct Answer is. the voltage off load.
Explanation. Assuming it is just a voltage check (and not a charge test) then it must be off load when carrying out the test. Otherwise
the internal resistance will drop the voltage by an amount which varies according to the external load.

Question Number. 18. Two similar 12v batteries connected in parallel will produce.
Option A. 24v e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
Option B. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option C. 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
Correct Answer is. 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Explanation. Batteries in parallel - voltage remains the same but the current rating is increased.

Question Number. 19. The voltage of a secondary cell is.

Option A. determined by the active materials on the plates.
Option B. determined by the number of plates.
Option C. determined by the area of the plates.
Correct Answer is. determined by the active materials on the plates.
Explanation. Voltage of a battery is determined by what the plates are made from, and how many plates are in series. However, a
'cell' is not a battery and can only ever have two plates.

Question Number. 20. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?.

Option A. 112.5 ampere-hour.

Option B. 90.0 ampere-hour.
Option C. 45.0 ampere-hour.
Correct Answer is. 112.5 ampere-hour.
Explanation. [Link] means amps * hours.

Question Number. 21. If a nicad battery is not to be used immediately it should be stored.
Option A. dry.
Option B. fully charged.
Option C. fully dissipated.
Correct Answer is. fully dissipated.
Explanation. Ni-cad batteries must be stored fully discharged. Often with a metal bar across their terminals to ensure they are fully
dissipated.
Question Number. 22. In a mercury cell the steel casing is.
Option A. the negative terminal.
Option B. neither.
Option C. the positive terminal.
Correct Answer is. the positive terminal.
Explanation. The 'outer can' is in contact with the zinc anode, which is positive.

Question Number. 23. To improve the life of a dry cell it would be manufactured with.
Option A. more electrolyte paste.
Option B. more zinc.
Option C. a pure carbon positive rod.
Correct Answer is. more zinc.
Explanation. The zinc (negative electrode or cathode) gets eaten away.

Question Number. 24. In a simple voltaic cell the collection of ions on the cathode causes.
Option A. polarisation.
Option B. sulphation.
Option C. hydration.
Correct Answer is. sulphation.
Explanation. The formation of lead sulphate on both plates of a lead acid battery is called SULPHATION.

Question Number. 25. The electrolyte in a nicad battery would rise if the battery was.
Option A. remaining at constant voltage.
Option B. charging.
Option C. discharging.
Correct Answer is. charging.
Explanation. The physical level of electrolyte drops a as Ni-Cad battery discharges.
Question Number. 26. Two 2 volt 10AH cells are connected in series, the output voltage and the capacity would be.
Option A. 4 volt 10 AH.
Option B. 4 volt 20 AH.
Option C. 2 volt, 20 AH.
Correct Answer is. 4 volt 10 AH.
Explanation. Batteries in series - voltage doubles, but the rating stays the same.

Question Number. 27. The electrolyte in a nicad battery is.

Option A. potassium hydroxide.
Option B. nickel hydroxide.
Option C. cadmium hydroxide.
Correct Answer is. potassium hydroxide.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. In a Leclanche cell the plates are made of.
Option A. mercury and lithium.
Option B. nickel and cadmium.
Option C. zinc and carbon.
Correct Answer is. zinc and carbon.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. In a simple voltaic cell, polarization reduces output voltage because of the.
Option A. build up of hydrogen on the cathode.
Option B. transfer of material between the anode and the cathode.
Option C. build up of hydrogen on the anode.
Correct Answer is. build up of hydrogen on the anode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG.
Option A. remains the same.
Option B. goes up.
Option C. goes down.
Correct Answer is. goes down.
Explanation. Volume rises with temperature, but mass does not. SG is a measure of the electrolyte density (which is mass / volume).

Question Number. 31. The Daniel Cell electrodes are.

Option A. copper and zinc.
Option B. carbon and zinc.
Option C. zinc and manganese dioxide.
Correct Answer is. copper and zinc.
Explanation. The Daniel Cell was an improvement on the first ever cell made by Voltaire. Both used copper and zinc electrodes.

Question Number. 32. In a thermocouple, where is voltage measured?.

Option A. At both junctions.
Option B. At the hot junction.
Option C. At the cold junction.
Correct Answer is. At the cold junction.
Explanation. The voltmeter measures the voltmeter across the cold junction of a thermocouple.

Question Number. 33. Mercury cells are covered with a metal cover.
Option A. as a protective cover.
Option B. as a negative terminal.
Option C. as a positive terminal.
Correct Answer is. as a positive terminal.
Explanation. The outer cover (or case) of a mercury cell is the positive terminal - Have a look at your watch or calculator battery to
verify.

Question Number. 34. The capacity of a battery is measured in.

Option A. volts.
Option B. ampere-hours.
Option C. cubic centimetres.
Correct Answer is. ampere-hours.
Explanation. Battery capacity is in amperehours.

Question Number. 35. A battery's internal resistance is determined by (OCV = Open Circuit Voltage, CCV = Closed Circuit
Voltage).
Option A. IR = (OCV – CCV)/ i.
Option B. IR = (OCV + CCV) / i.
Option C. IR = (OCV - CCV) / V.
Correct Answer is. IR = (OCV – CCV)/ i.
Explanation. Internal resistance (IR) has no effect on output voltage when Open Circuit. So Open Circuit Voltage (ocv) is higher
than Closed Circuit Voltage (ccv). Using ohm's law (R=V/I), IR = (ocv) - ccv) all divided by current.

Question Number. 36. There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery because.
Option A. it is necessary for chemical action to take place.
Option B. it reduces the internal resistance of the cell.
Option C. the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.
Correct Answer is. the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.
Explanation. A lead acid battery normally has one more negative plate than positive plate because the positive plates are prone to
warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.
Question Number. 37. What is the approximate internal resistance of a Leclanche cell?.
Option A. 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms.
Option B. 6 ohms - 10 ohms.
Option C. 20 ohms - 30 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 0.02 ohms - 4 ohms.
Explanation. A leclanche cell is just another name for the zinc-carbon cell. Its IR is more like 0.4 - 4 ohms. Some good info on the
types of cells and their IRs at External website…

Question Number. 38. An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes.
Option A. battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge current decreases.
Option B. internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the decreasing charging current.
Option C. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.
Correct Answer is. battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.
Explanation. As the battery voltage increases, the current charging it decreases.

Question Number. 39. What effect does hydrogen have in a battery cell?.
Option A. Sulphation.
Option B. Nothing.
Option C. Polarization.
Correct Answer is. Polarization.
Explanation. Hydrogen, if allowed to form on the anode, reduces the battery output. This is polarization.

Question Number. 40. To generate electricity with a fuel cell, you need a constant supply of.
Option A. Nitrogen & Sunlight.
Option B. Oxygen & Hydrogen.
Option C. Kerosene & Heat.
Correct Answer is. Oxygen & Hydrogen.
Explanation. [Link]

Question Number. 41. A ni-cad battery found to be below normal capacity should.
Option A. have its electrolyte adjusted.
Option B. be removed and used for ground use only.
Option C. be re-charged with a freshening charge.
Correct Answer is. be re-charged with a freshening charge.
Explanation. See Jeppesen's Aircraft Batteries.

Question Number. 42. In cold weather, to prevent the electrolyte freezing, a battery must be kept.
Option A. fully charged.
Option B. does not matter.
Option C. fully discharged.
Correct Answer is. fully charged.
Explanation. Checkout [Link]/primer/winter/.

Question Number. 43. The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is.
Option A. the same.
Option B. increased.
Option C. decreased.
Correct Answer is. the same.
Explanation. Internal resistance is constant, regardless of load.

Question Number. 44. Two 12V, 40Ah cells in series gives.

Option A. 24V 80Ah.
Option B. 12V 40Ah.
Option C. 24V 40Ah.
Correct Answer is. 24V 40Ah.
Explanation. Cells in series, voltage doubles, Amp hour rating remains the same.

Question Number. 45. A 24V 40AH battery discharges at 200mA. How long will it last?.
Option A. 400 hours.
Option B. 300 hours.
Option C. 200 hours.
Correct Answer is. 200 hours.
Explanation. 200mA goes into 1A-5 times. 5 * 40 = 200 hours.

Question Number. 46. The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery.

Option A. falls during charge.
Option B. falls during discharge.
Option C. rises during discharge.
Correct Answer is. falls during discharge.
Explanation. The electrolyte level of a nicad battery falls during discharge (but the s.g. remains constant).

Question Number. 47. When light energises a component, what is the component?.
Option A. Light emitting diode.
Option B. Photodiode.
Option C. Laser diode.
Correct Answer is. Photodiode.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. Formation of white crystals of potassium carbonate on a properly serviced Ni-cd battery indicates.

Option A. over charged.

Option B. full charged.
Option C. under charged.
Correct Answer is. over charged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 49. Thermal runaway causes.

Option A. violent gassing only.
Option B. violent gassing, boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Option C. no gassing, but boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Correct Answer is. violent gassing, boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 50. A primary cell.

Option A. can not recharged.
Option B. can be recharged but only a few times.
Option C. can be recharged.
Correct Answer is. can not recharged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. If the insulation resistance of a lead/acid battery is down, it indicates.
Option A. case leakage.
Option B. leakage between positive and negative terminals.
Option C. intercell leakage.
Correct Answer is. case leakage.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. When the battery is connected to the aircraft, which terminal should you connect first?.
Option A. Any.
Option B. Positive.
Option C. Negative.
Correct Answer is. Positive.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 43.

Question Number. 53. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the.
Option A. rate of current used to charge the battery.
Option B. amperage available for use.
Option C. total amperes being used in the aeroplane.
Correct Answer is. rate of current used to charge the battery.
Explanation. Whilst charging (as the question says) the ammeter shows current flow TO the battery.

Question Number. 54. For how many hours will a 140AH battery deliver 15A?.
Option A. 9.33 hours.
Option B. 27.25 hours.
Option C. 15.15 hours.
Correct Answer is. 9.33 hours.
Explanation. 15 * H = 140, H = 9.33 hrs.

Question Number. 55. What part of a nickel-cadmium cell helps to prevent thermal runaway?.
Option A. The separator.
Option B. The negative plate.
Option C. The positive plate.
Correct Answer is. The separator.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 47 2nd para.
Question Number. 56. When charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only.
Option A. when the electrolyte level is low.
Option B. if the cells are defective.
Option C. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Correct Answer is. toward the end of the charging cycle.
Explanation. EEL/1-3 4.5.5.

Question Number. 57. What is the internal resistance of a battery?.

Option A. The resistance measured across the two terminals.
Option B. The resistance measured when the battery is half charged.
Option C. The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.
Correct Answer is. The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics page 33.

06. DC Circuits.

Question Number. 1. A potential difference of 50 volts produces a current of 10 milliamperes through a resistance of.
Option A. 500 ohms.
Option B. 5 ohms.
Option C. 5,000 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 5,000 ohms.
Explanation. PD = 50V, I = 0.01A, R = ?, R=PD/I.

Question Number. 2. A conductor with a positive Q (charge) of 4C has 12.56 x 1018 electrons added to it. It will have a Q =.

Option A. 6.
Option B. 2.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. 6.
Explanation. A charge of 1 Coulomb (C) is 6.28 * 1018. Hence 4 + 2 = 6 C.

Question Number. 3. The power dissipated by a load of known resistance connected across a known potential difference can
be calculated by.
Option A. dividing the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Option B. multiplying the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Option C. working out the current flowing in the circuit by using ohms law and multiplying the result by the resistance.
Correct Answer is. working out the current flowing in the circuit by using ohms law and multiplying the result by the resistance.
OR dividing the square of the potential difference by the value of the load resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. A current of 5A flows for 2 minutes. How many coulombs passed a point in the circuit?.
Option A. 2.5.
Option B. 600.
Option C. 100.
Correct Answer is. 600.
Explanation. Q = IT, Q = 5 * 120 = 600C.

Question Number. 5. A circuit has a current flow of 6A. If the voltage is trebled, the new current will be.
Option A. 6A.
Option B. 18A.
Option C. 2A.
Correct Answer is. 18A.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the work done?.
Option A. 60J.
Option B. 600J.
Option C. 10J.
Correct Answer is. 600J.
Explanation. Work out power. Then Energy = Power * Time (time must be in seconds).

Question Number. 7. A galvanometer measures.

Option A. millivolts.
Option B. megohms.
Option C. milliamps.
Correct Answer is. milliamps.
Explanation. A galvanometer measures milliamps.

Question Number. 8. The voltage at point A is.

Option A. 28 V.
Option B. 21 V.
Option C. 7 V.
Correct Answer is. 7 V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. A loss of electrical insulation results in.

Option A. an open circuit between the supply and earth.
Option B. a short circuit between the supply and earth.
Option C. an open circuit in the supply.
Correct Answer is. a short circuit between the supply and earth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. A 3, 5 and 2 ohms resistance is connected in series with a 10 V battery. The voltage across the 2 ohms
resistor is.
Option A. 2 V.
Option B. 10V.
Option C. 4 V.
Correct Answer is. 2 V.
Explanation. Each resistor takes its relative share of the voltage drop. Total resistance is 10 ohms, so the 2 ohm resistor takes 2/10ths
of the voltage.

Question Number. 11. What is the PD of a circuit which has a 40 mA current and a 1 kilohm resistance?.
Option A. 40 V.
Option B. 400 V.
Option C. 4 V.
Correct Answer is. 40 V.
Explanation. V = I x R. mA * kohms cancel each others' prefix.

Question Number. 12. Three branches in a circuit have currents entering of 3A, 4A and 5A. A forth branch has 10 A leaving. A
fifth branch must have.
Option A. 22A leaving.
Option B. 2A leaving.
Option C. 2A entering.
Correct Answer is. 2A leaving.
Explanation. Basic Kirkchoff's current law. Sum of currents entering = sum of currents leaving.

Question Number. 13. In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in parallel, one resistor goes open circuit.
The current in the other two resistors will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. 20 amperes flow for 20 seconds. How many coulombs have flowed?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 20.
Option C. 400.
Correct Answer is. 400.
Explanation. Q = It.

Question Number. 15. If the resistance of an electrical circuit is increased.

Option A. the current will increase.
Option B. the voltage will increase.
Option C. the current will decrease.
Correct Answer is. the current will decrease.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. If 2 coulombs flowed through a circuit in 2 seconds, the circuit would have.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. 2 volts PD.
Option C. 4 amps.
Correct Answer is. 1 amp.
Explanation. Q = It so I = Q/t.

Question Number. 17. If the voltage across a resistor is doubled.

Option A. the current is doubled.
Option B. the current is halved.
Option C. the resistance is halved.
Correct Answer is. the current is doubled.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. The total current flowing in a circuit of 200 lamps in parallel, each of a resistance of 400 ohm and
connected across an input of 100 volts is.
Option A. 25 amps.
Option B. 50 amps.
Option C. 40 amps.
Correct Answer is. 50 amps.
Explanation. Total resistance is 400 / 200 = 2 ohms. Ohms law for current I = V/R = 100/2 = 50 amps.

Question Number. 19. In the circuit shown the 24 volt battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm and the ammeter indicates a
current of 12 amperes. The value of the load resistance is.
Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 6 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Find the total resistance R = V/I = 24/12 = 2 ohms. Subtracting internal resistance leaves 1 ohm.

Question Number. 20. If service No. 1 is isolated from the supply busbar shown there will be.
Option A. an increase in supply voltage.
Option B. a decrease in total current consumption.
Option C. a decrease in supply voltage.
Correct Answer is. a decrease in total current consumption.
Explanation. Shutting down a service on an aircraft (by pulling the circuit breaker for example), increases the total resistance and
reduces the current consumption.
Question Number. 21. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage constant, the current will.
Option A. remain constant.
Option B. double.
Option C. halve.
Correct Answer is. double.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor - and apply ohms law to it.

Question Number. 22. If two resistors of 5 and 10 ohm respectively are connected in series and the current in the 5 ohm resistor
is 1A. what is the current in the 10 ohm resistor?.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. It cannot be found without knowing the applied voltage.
Option C. 1/3 amp.
Correct Answer is. 1 amp.
Explanation. Resistors in series - current is the same in each one.

Question Number. 23. The voltage in a series circuit.

Option A. is different in each component.
Option B. is the same in each component.
Option C. is less than it would be in a parallel circuit.
Correct Answer is. is different in each component.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current?.
Option A. 4 amperes.
Option B. 0.4 amperes.
Option C. 2500 amperes.
Correct Answer is. 4 amperes.
Explanation. Ohms Law I = V/R.

Question Number. 25. A short circuit between the supply and earth.
Option A. is not dangerous as the current drawn will be low.
Option B. does not matter if the circuit uses the aircraft earth as a return.
Option C. could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high.
Correct Answer is. could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high.
Explanation. In a short circuit, the resistance is zero. By ohms law, I = V/R. If R = 0, I = V/0 so what is I (it is not zero!!!).

Question Number. 26. A circuit consists of 3 ohm, 5 ohm and 12 ohm resistors in series. The current flowing in the 5 ohm
resistor is 10 amps. What is the applied voltage?.
Option A. 10 V.
Option B. 100 V.
Option C. 200 V.
Correct Answer is. 200 V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts across them. If the voltages across
the resistances are V1 and V2 then by Kirchhoff's law.
Option A. V2 = V1 + V.
Option B. V1 = V2 + V.
Option C. V = V1 + V2.
Correct Answer is. V = V1 + V2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. A voltmeter is connected.

Option A. in parallel.
Option B. in series or parallel.
Option C. in series.
Correct Answer is. in parallel.
Explanation. Voltmeters are connected 'across' the component (i.e. in parallel with it. Ammeters are connected in series.

Question Number. 29. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services would.

Option A. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar.

Option B. increase the current consumption from the bus-bar.
Option C. not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage.
Correct Answer is. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar.
Explanation. Isolating some of the services increases the resistance of the total circuit similar to removing a resistor from a parallel
circuit. So total current consumption reduces.

Question Number. 30. The current flowing through a circuit can be increased to four times its original value by.
Option A. doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Option B. doubling the resistance and doubling the applied voltage.
Option C. halving the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Correct Answer is. doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in series and one of the resistors short
circuits, the effect is for the current in the other two resistors to.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. Reducing one resistor to zero ohms (short circuit) means the source emf is now applied to the two remaining resistors,
and causes a greater current flow through them.

Question Number. 32. In a series resistive circuit.

Option A. the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages.
Option B. the total voltage is the same as the highest individual.
Option C. the total voltage equals the difference between the individual voltages.
Correct Answer is. the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. The reading on the ammeter in the circuit shown is.
Option A. 3A.
Option B. 12A.
Option C. 6A.
Correct Answer is. 6A.
Explanation. Total resistance = 2 ohms. I = V/R = 12/2 = 6 A.

Question Number. 34. An ammeter is connected into a circuit in.

Option A. series.
Option B. shunt.
Option C. parallel.
Correct Answer is. series.
Explanation. ammeter is always put into a circuit in series with the component it is measuring the current through.

Question Number. 35. What is the voltage at A?.

Option A. 26V.
Option B. 2V.
Option C. 28V.
Correct Answer is. 26V.
Explanation. 4 ohm resistor will drop 4/62ths of the 28V supply (i.e. 1.8V). So there will be approximately 26V left.

Question Number. 36. The source voltage in the circuit shown is.
Option A. 200V.
Option B. 50V.
Option C. 150V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
Explanation. This is a standard potentiometer. It splits the voltage by the same ratio as the number of turns. So 50V is 300/1200ths of
the source voltage (50 = 3/12V). Transpose for V.

Question Number. 37. Referring to the drawing, if the volts dropped across the 20 ohm resistor is 10 volts, the resistance of R1
is.
Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 16 ohms.
Option C. 20 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 20 ohms.
Explanation. Find the current through the 20 ohm resistor (I = V/R = 10/20 = 0.5). The same current goes through all parts of a series
circuit. Next find total circuit resistance (R = V/I = 28/0.5 = 56 ohms). Subtract 20 and 16 from 56.

Question Number. 38. The current in the circuit shown is.

Option A. 5 mA.
Option B. 0.2 A.
Option C. 5 A.
Correct Answer is. 5 mA.
Explanation. Total R = 40 k ohms. I = V/R = 200/40,000 = 0.005A = 5mA. (don't forget the 'k' means times by 1000).
Question Number. 39. In the following circuit, the input at P is 4 amps and at Q is 5 amps. What is the voltage across the 6 ohm
resistor?.
Option A. 54V.
Option B. 6V.
Option C. 1.5V.
Correct Answer is. 54V.
Explanation. V = I * R = 9 * 6 = 54V. A combination of Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's Law.

Question Number. 40. The unknown current in the network below is.

Option A. 22A.
Option B. 3A.
Option C. 47A.
Correct Answer is. 3A.
Explanation. Kirchhoff's current law.

Question Number. 41. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there is.
Option A. current and voltage at maximum.
Option B. no current flow.
Option C. no voltage present at either end.
Correct Answer is. no current flow.
Explanation. The ammeter reads zero when it is balanced.

Question Number. 42. A 24V battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm. When connected to a load, 12 amps flows. The value
of the load is.
Option A. 12 ohms.
Option B. 1/2 ohm.
Option C. 1 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Total R = V/I = 24/12 = 2 ohms. Subtract the internal resistance to get the external resistance (i.e. the load).

Question Number. 43. A parallel circuit with any number of 2 terminal connections.
Option A. the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf.
Option B. has the same current throughout.
Option C. the resistance is dependent on current.
Correct Answer is. the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf.
Explanation. Parallel circuit - the voltage drops across each branch is the source voltage (regardless of the resistance in the
branches).

Question Number. 44. The diagram shows a 200V long shunt generator. What is the voltage across the series resistor.
Option A. 10V.
Option B. 6V.
Option C. 30V.
Correct Answer is. 6V.
Explanation. The 0.04 and 100 ohm resistor are the field windings of the generator, so the 100 amps goes through the 0.06 ohm
resistor. V = I * R = 100 * 0.06 = 6V.

Question Number. 45. To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current.
Option A. use the formula R = V * I.
Option B. find the lost volts of the circuit.
Option C. find the emf of the circuit.
Correct Answer is. find the lost volts of the circuit.
Explanation. Find the difference between the Voltage On-load and the Voltage Off-load (the volts 'lost' across the internal
resistance), then use R = V/I (Ohm's Law).

Question Number. 46. For the diagram shown find the voltage at point B.
Option A. 7V.
Option B. 26V.
Option C. 10V.
Correct Answer is. 10V.
Explanation. Each resistor drops its own proportion of the voltage. Total resistance is 60 ohms. Voltage dropped by 4 ohm resistor is
4/60 * 30. Voltage dropped by 36 ohm resistor is 36/60 * 30. Total dropped by point B is 40/60 * 30 = 20V. Therefore, remaining
voltage at B = 10V.

Question Number. 47. In a series circuit with 3 resistors, the current is.
Option A. lower than the smallest.
Option B. the total of all 3 using ohms law to find the current.
Option C. even in all 3.
Correct Answer is. even in all 3.
Explanation. The current is the same in all components in a series circuit.

Question Number. 48. What is the voltage dropped across resistor 'A'?.

Option A. 2 V.
Option B. 20 V.
Option C. 10 V.
Correct Answer is. 20 V.
Explanation. 28-(2 + 6) = 20 V (voltage across both the parallel resistors is the same 20 V).
Question Number. 49. What is the current through resistor C?.

Option A. 4.5A.
Option B. 18A.
Option C. 9A.
Correct Answer is. 4.5A.
Explanation. You need to know what the ohmic value of resistor C is to know the current through it, or at least the relative value of
C compared to D - as the 9A current splits through C and D. It is 9A/2 (4.5A) only if C and D are the same. Besides, it cannot ever be
9A or 18A.

Question Number. 50. Which is not thermally operated?.

Option A. A limiting resistor.
Option B. A current limiter.
Option C. A fuse.
Correct Answer is. A limiting resistor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. In a Desynn indicator system, the rotor is.

Option A. an electromagnet.
Option B. a permanent magnet.
Option C. an AC magnet.
Correct Answer is. a permanent magnet.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. A load that is subject to a potential difference with a current running through it will.
Option A. have a magnetic field around it with the magnitude and direction of the field determined by the corkscrew rule.
Option B. dissipate power in the form of heat.
Option C. will move in a direction shown by the right hand rule.
Correct Answer is. dissipate power in the form of heat.
Explanation. NIL.

07a. Resistance/Resistor.

Question Number. 1. The resistance of a material is.

Option A. independent of the material type.
Option B. the same as its conductance.
Option C. the reciprocal of its conductance.
Correct Answer is. the reciprocal of its conductance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. Resistance is measured using what unit of temperature?.

Option A. Absolute.
Option B. Centigrade.
Option C. Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. Absolute.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. A resistor has 4 bands on it coloured blue, yellow, yellow, gold. It’s value is.
Option A. 640 kΩ ± 5%.
Option B. 6.4 mΩ ± 10%.
Option C. 64 kΩ ± 5%.
Correct Answer is. 640 kΩ ± 5%.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. The electron flow through a conductor will be decreased the most if the cross sectional area.
Option A. is decreased and the length is increased.
Option B. and the length are both decreased.
Option C. and the length are both increased.
Correct Answer is. is decreased and the length is increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Small resistors too small or mis-shapen for the application of colour are marked instead using.
Option A. an abbreviated resistance value.
Option B. a letter code.
Option C. a dot code.
Correct Answer is. a letter code.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. Total resistance in a parallel resistor circuit, of R1 and R2 is.

Option A. RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Option B. 1/RT = (R1 * R2) ÷ (R1 + R2).
Option C. 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Correct Answer is. 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. If the resistance of a resistor which is in series with two other resistors is doubled.
Option A. the current in that resistance is doubled.
Option B. the volts drop across that resistor increases.
Option C. the current in that resistance is halved.
Correct Answer is. the volts drop across that resistor increases.
Explanation. The current will reduce, but not halved, since it depends on how big the other two resistors are in relation to it. It will
however take a greater share of the voltage drop in the circuit.

Question Number. 8. The total resistance of the circuit shown is.

Option A. 3 Ohms.
Option B. 1.33 Ohms.
Option C. 12 Ohms.
Correct Answer is. 3 Ohms.
Explanation. Series 3 + 3 = 6 ohms. Then, two 6 ohm resistors in parallel, total is half = 3 ohms.

.
Question Number. 9. Potentiometers are used as a.
Option A. variable voltage source.
Option B. variable resistor.
Option C. variable current source.
Correct Answer is. variable resistor.
Explanation. Potentiometers are not a 'source' of voltage.

Question Number. 10. In a Wheatstone Bridge, the ammeter reads zero, and the variable resistor is adjusted to 5 ohms. Resistor
P has a value of 10 ohms and Q has a value of 100 ohms. What is the value of the unknown resistor?.
Option A. 5 ohms.
Option B. 0.5 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 0.5 ohms.
Explanation. R = Rv * P/Q.

Question Number. 11. In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable.
Option A. increases its resistance.
Option B. enables it to carry more voltage.
Option C. enables it to carry more current.
Correct Answer is. enables it to carry more current.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a cable. If you increase the cross sectional area, its resistance will decrease and it can
carry more current. 'Carrying voltage' is not technically correct terminology, and besides, Any size cable can 'carry' any size voltage,
but it is the current which will destroy it.

Question Number. 12. Six resistors each of 6 ohms would be.

Option A. 1 ohm in series.
Option B. 1 ohm in parallel.
Option C. 36 ohms in parallel.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm in parallel.
Explanation. Get the formulas for resistors in parallel and resistors in series. Or, remember that resistors in series, total is greater
than the largest, and resistors in parallel, total is less than the smallest.

Question Number. 13. A potentiometer varies.

Option A. resistance.
Option B. current.
Option C. voltage.
Correct Answer is. voltage.
Explanation. A potentiometer is basically a variable voltage splitter.

Question Number. 14. The formula for resistance in series is.

Option A. RT = R1 + R2 + R3 .....Rn.
Option B. RT = R1 * R2 * R3 .....Rn.
Option C. 1/RT = 1/( R1 * R2 * R3 .....Rn).
Correct Answer is. RT = R1 + R2 + R3 .....Rn.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. What is the combined value of resistances of 4 ohm and 6 ohm connected in parallel?.
Option A. 0.24 ohm.
Option B. 2.4 ohm.
Option C. 24 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 2.4 ohm.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel, the total resistance will be less than the smallest (but only slightly less).

Question Number. 16. If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance is.
Option A. smaller than the lowest.
Option B. the same as the lowest.
Option C. greater than the lowest.
Correct Answer is. smaller than the lowest.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel. Total resistance is smaller than the lowest single resistor.

Question Number. 17. The resistance to electrical flow in a wire depends on.
Option A. the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature.
Option B. the material only - copper or aluminium.
Option C. the length and material of the wire only.
Correct Answer is. the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor, and don't forget that most materials have a positive temperature
coefficient.

Question Number. 18. When resistors are in parallel the total current is equal to.
Option A. the current through one resistor.
Option B. the sum of the currents.
Option C. the reciprocal of all the currents.
Correct Answer is. the sum of the currents.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?.
Option A. Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area.
Option B. Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area.
Option C. Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.
Explanation. Get the formula for resistance of a conductor.
Question Number. 20. If 2 resistors, one red, yellow, black, gold and the other violet, blue, black, silver were replaced by a
single resistor. Ignoring tolerance, what would the colour coding be?.
Option A. Brown, black, brown.
Option B. Black, brown, black.
Option C. Brown, black, black.
Correct Answer is. Brown, black, brown.
Explanation. The red/yellow/black resistor is 24 ohms (get a colour code chart). The violet/blue/black resistor is 76 ohms. Total is
100 ohms. A 100 ohm resistor is brown/black/brown.

Question Number. 21. A 47 kilohm resistor has the following colour code:.
Option A. Yellow, Violet, Orange.
Option B. Red, Orange, Yellow.
Option C. Orange, Violet, Red.
Correct Answer is. Yellow, Violet, Orange.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. The bridge circuit shown will be balanced when the value of the unknown resistor R is.

Option A. 2 ohms.
Option B. 18 ohms.
Option C. 14 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 2 ohms.
Explanation. 72 / 24 = 6 / R, R = 2 ohms.
Question Number. 23. A 300 ohm resistor would have a colour code of.
Option A. orange, brown, black.
Option B. orange, orange, brown.
Option C. orange, black brown.
Correct Answer is. orange, black brown.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. In this circuit, Rx is equal to.

Option A. R2 * R4 ÷ R3.
Option B. R3 * R4 ÷ R2.
Option C. R3 * R2 ÷ R4.
Correct Answer is. R3 * R2 ÷ R4.
Explanation. Assuming the diagram is incomplete (no cross branch with a zeroed ammeter as per a Wheatstone bridge) Take Rx/R3
= R2/R4 and transpose.
Question Number. 25. In a parallel circuit containing resistors.
Option A. the sum of the voltage drops equals applied voltage.
Option B. the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit.
Option C. resistance is determined by value of current flow.
Correct Answer is. the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit.
Explanation. In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is the same.

Question Number. 26. Five different value resistors all have the same voltage dropped across them. How are the resistors
connected?.
Option A. In Series/Parallel.
Option B. In Series.
Option C. In Parallel.
Correct Answer is. In Parallel.
Explanation. Resistors in parallel with each other all have the same voltage drop.

Question Number. 27. Conductance of a circuit is 2 milliMhos. What is its resistance?.

Option A. 5000 Ohms.
Option B. 500 Ohms.
Option C. 5 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. 500 Ohms.
Explanation. Conductance is the ease at which current flows. It is the inverse of resistance. (The unit 'Mho' is 'Ohm' backwards).
Conductance = 2/1000 Mhos. Therefore Resistance = 1000/2 Ohms.

Question Number. 28. When light hits a photodiode, its resistance.

Option A. stays the same.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. Resistance decreases with light intensity.

Question Number. 29. A 2 Megohm resistor can be written.

Option A. 2M0F.
Option B. 20MF.
Option C. M20F.
Correct Answer is. 2M0F.
Explanation. Sometimes the multiplier, like M (for meg), or K (for kilo) or R (for 1) is put in place of the decimal point. The last
letter is the tolerance. See Forum for more info.

Question Number. 30. In a Wheatstone bridge at balance the galvanometer reads zero.
Option A. amps.
Option B. ohms.
Option C. volts.
Correct Answer is. amps.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The unit for resistivity is the.

Option A. ohms/square meter.
Option B. ohms/meter.
Option C. [Link].
Correct Answer is. [Link].
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 32. A 47 Kilohm resistor with a 10% tolerance has the following colour code:.
Option A. Yellow, Violet, Orange, Silver.
Option B. Orange, Violet, Red, Gold.
Option C. Red, Orange, Yellow, Silver.
Correct Answer is. Yellow, Violet, Orange, Silver.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 100.

Question Number. 33. The total resistance in a circuit is greater than the least resistor. This is true for a.
Option A. series and parallel circuit.
Option B. series circuit only.
Option C. parallel circuit only.
Correct Answer is. series circuit only.
Explanation. NIL.

07b. Resistance/Resistor.

Question Number. 1. The unknown resistance R in the Wheatstone bridge shown is.
Option A. 4 ohms.
Option B. 16 ohms.
Option C. 1 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 4 ohms.
Explanation. R = 2 * 8/4. Read up on Wheatstone bridges.

Question Number. 2. This is a symbol for.

Option A. a visual display rectifier.
Option B. a variable differential resistor.
Option C. a voltage dependant resistor.
Correct Answer is. a voltage dependant resistor.
Explanation. VDR = Voltage Dependant Resistor.

Question Number. 3. A potentiometer has which of the following properties?.

Option A. Wire wound.
Option B. 3 terminals.
Option C. Preset values.
Correct Answer is. 3 terminals.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. An increase in operating temperature in most electrical devices carrying current results in.
Option A. a decrease in resistance and an increase in current.
Option B. no effect on the resistance and current.
Option C. an increase in resistance and a decrease in current.
Correct Answer is. an increase in resistance and a decrease in current.
Explanation. Most conductors have a 'positive temperature coefficient'. The exceptions are semiconductors.

Question Number. 5. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminium when comparing.

Option A. CSA with CSA.
Option B. weight for weight.
Option C. load for load.
Correct Answer is. weight for weight.
Explanation. Copper is a better inductor but aluminium is much lighter. CSA = cross sectional area (not Child Support Agency).

Question Number. 6. What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor when the temperature increases?.
Option A. It decreases.
Option B. It increases.
Option C. It remains the same.
Correct Answer is. It increases.
Explanation. All materials excepts semiconductors have a positive temperature coefficient.

Question Number. 7. Carbon has a.

Option A. temperature coefficient of zero.
Option B. positive temperature coefficient.
Option C. negative temperature coefficient.
Correct Answer is. negative temperature coefficient.
Explanation. Carbon is a semiconductor, so its resistance reduces with temperature.

Question Number. 8. The 5th coloured band on a resistor represents the.

Option A. reliability or temperature coefficient.
Option B. tolerance.
Option C. multiplier.
Correct Answer is. tolerance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If the temperature of a pure metal is reduced to absolute zero, its resistance will be.
Option A. unaffected.
Option B. practically zero.
Option C. infinity.
Correct Answer is. practically zero.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. What is represented by this diagram?.

Option A. Thermistor.
Option B. Rheostat.
Option C. Potentiometer.
Correct Answer is. Potentiometer.
Explanation. A potentiometer has 3 connections, a rheostat has only 2.
Question Number. 11. If a resistor is too small or misshapen to fit the colour code bands, how else is it's value indicated?.

Option A. Dots.
Option B. Number code.
Option C. Letter code.
Correct Answer is. Letter code.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. This is a diagram of a.

Option A. Light Dependant Resistor.

Option B. Laser Diode Rectifier.
Option C. Logarithmic Differential Resistor.
Correct Answer is. Light Dependant Resistor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. This is a diagram of a.

Option A. Variable Voltage source.
Option B. Variable Current source.
Option C. Variable Resistor.
Correct Answer is. Variable Resistor.
Explanation. A potentiometer is not a voltage or current 'source'.
Question Number. 14. Resistors required to carry a comparatively high current and dissipate high power are usually of.
Option A. Wire wound metal type.
Option B. Carbon compound type.
Option C. Wire wound ceramic type.
Correct Answer is. Wire wound ceramic type.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 6, pg 101.

Question Number. 15. A thyristor.

Option A. if energized on, will switch on a circuit.
Option B. has a positive temperature coefficient.
Option C. if energized on, will switch off a circuit.
Correct Answer is. if energized on, will switch on a circuit.
Explanation. An SCR is an example of a thyristor.

Question Number. 16. The temperature of a pure metal can greatly affect the resistance of it. What temperature scale is used?.

Option A. Absolute.
Option B. Centigrade.
Option C. Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. Centigrade.
Explanation. NIL.

08. Power.

Question Number. 1. A 10 V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the power supplied?.
Option A. 100 W.
Option B. 10 VA.
Option C. 10 W.
Correct Answer is. 10 W.
Explanation. Power = I2R (time is not required). Resistive load only, so answer is in Watts.

Question Number. 2. A resistor dissipates 80 Watts. If it runs for 4 hours 15 minutes, how much energy is dissipated in total?.

Option A. 20.4 kJ.

Option B. 1.224 MJ.
Option C. 191.25 J.
Correct Answer is. 1.224 MJ.
Explanation. Energy = Power * Time. Time must be in seconds. There are 3600 seconds in 1 hour - not 60.

Question Number. 3. The earth lead of a 24 V equipment is 0.5 ohm resistance and carries 80 A. How much power does it
dissipate?.
Option A. 1.92 kW.
Option B. 1.152 kW.
Option C. 3.2 kW.
Correct Answer is. 3.2 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2R. Since it is an earth lead it will not have the full 24V on it, so disregard voltage.

Question Number. 4. What is the power dissipated in a 500 ohm resistor with a 3A flow?.
Option A. 4.5 kW.
Option B. 1.5 kW.
Option C. 750 kW.
Correct Answer is. 4.5 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2R.
Question Number. 5. A DC circuit containing a total resistance of 100 ohms has a current flow of 250 mA. The power
dissipated in the circuit is.
Option A. 0.4 watts.
Option B. 5 watts.
Option C. 6.25 watts.
Correct Answer is. 6.25 watts.
Explanation. Power = I2R.

Question Number. 6. Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in.

Option A. joules/second.
Option B. joules * seconds.
Option C. watts/second.
Correct Answer is. joules/second.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The power in a circuit when voltage and resistance is given can be found by.
Option A. V*R.
Option B. V*V*R.
Option C. V*V / R.
Correct Answer is. V*V / R.
Explanation. Power = V2 /R.

Question Number. 8. A 500 ohm resistor carries a 3 amp current. What is the power dissipated?.
Option A. 500 W.
Option B. 5 kW.
Option C. 4.5 kW.
Correct Answer is. 4.5 kW.
Explanation. Power = I2 R.

Question Number. 9. A 3 ohm resistor dissipates 27 Watts. How much current flows through it?.
Option A. 9 A.
Option B. 0.15 A.
Option C. 3 A.
Correct Answer is. 3 A.
Explanation. power = I2 R. Transpose for I.";.

Question Number. 10. A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal
value. What is the value of each resistor?.
Option A. 4 ohm.
Option B. 36 ohm.
Option C. 12 ohm.
Correct Answer is. 36 ohm.
Explanation. Each resistor dissipates 192/3 = 64 Watts. Voltage is the same across all resistors in parallel = 48 Volts. Power = V-
squared/R. Work out R.

Question Number. 11. A piece of equipment is rated at 750 watts and the applied voltage is 30 volts. The value of the
protection fuse should be.
Option A. 20 amps.
Option B. 15 amps.
Option C. 30 amps.
Correct Answer is. 30 amps.
Explanation. Power = amps * volts. Find the amperage from that. Then choose the fuse of the nearest size up.
Question Number. 12. How much power must a 24-volt generator furnish to a system which contains the following series
loads? 5 ohm, 3 ohm and 12 ohm.
Option A. 402 watts.
Option B. 28.8 watts.
Option C. 450 watts.
Correct Answer is. 28.8 watts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a resistance of 1000 ohms. The
power dissipated by the circuit is.
Option A. 144 milliwatts.
Option B. 12 watts.
Option C. 12 milliwatts.
Correct Answer is. 144 milliwatts.
Explanation. Power = I2 R. Watch the prefix 'milli'. 'Milli' means divide by 1000. Square it and you must divide by 1,000,000.

Question Number. 14. In a power circuit, the purpose of an inductor is.

Option A. to dampen voltage surges.
Option B. to dampen current surges.
Option C. to dampen power surges.
Correct Answer is. to dampen power surges.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. In the circuit shown, the power developed across the 10 kilo ohm resistor is.
Option A. 250 mW.
Option B. 250 W.
Option C. 50 mW.
Correct Answer is. 250 mW.
Explanation. Power = I2 R = 0.005 * 0.005 * 10,000 = 0.000,025 * 10,000 = 0.25W = 250mW.

Question Number. 16. A single phase circuit has an input voltage of 100V. The current is 10A and the circuit has a power
factor of 0.5. The true power is.
Option A. 50W.
Option B. 1000W.
Option C. 500W.
Correct Answer is. 500W.
Explanation. Apparent Power = IV = 100 * 10 = 1000 VA. True Power = PF * Apparent Power = 0.5 * 1000 = 500W.

Question Number. 17. Power in a DC circuit is found by.

Option A. multiplying the voltage by itself and dividing by the current.
Option B. multiplying current by resistance.
Option C. multiplying the resistance by the current squared.
Correct Answer is. multiplying the resistance by the current squared.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. If the energy supplied to a circuit for 4hrs 15 minutes at 800 j/sec what would be the energy consumed?.

Option A. 3400 KW Hrs.

Option B. 3.4 KW Hrs.
Option C. 340 KW Hrs.
Correct Answer is. 3.4 KW Hrs.
Explanation. 4 hours 15 minutes = 4 1/4 hours. Energy = power * time = 800 * 4 1/4 = 3400 = 3.4 kW hrs.

Question Number. 19. A heater which consumes 800 Kilojoules/sec is on for 4hrs 15min. The energy consumed is.
Option A. 340 kWh.
Option B. 3.4 kWh.
Option C. 3400 kWh.
Correct Answer is. 3400 kWh.
Explanation. kJ/s = kW. 800 * 4.25 = 3400 kWh.

Question Number. 20. A voltage of 250V causes a current of 30mA. What is the wattage?.
Option A. 7.5W.
Option B. 7500W.
Option C. 0.225W.
Correct Answer is. 7.5W.
Explanation. Power = IV = 30/1000 * 250 = 7.5W.

Question Number. 21. Which requires the most electrical power during operation?.
Option A. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes.
Option B. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit.
Option C. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24volt parallel system.
Correct Answer is. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24volt parallel system.
Explanation. a is 12*8=96W, b is 30*4 = 120W, c is 3*24*2=144W.

Question Number. 22. The power dissipated in a circuit with a known potential difference and resistance is calculated by.
Option A. multiplying the square of the potential difference by the resistance.
Option B. dividing the square of the potential difference by the resistance.
Option C. finding the current and multiplying the answer by the resistance.
Correct Answer is. finding the current and multiplying the answer by the resistance. OR dividing the square of the potential
difference by the resistance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. The power expended in a given circuit is.

Option A. inversely proportional to cube-root of the current.
Option B. proportional to the square-root of the voltage.
Option C. proportional to the square of the voltage.
Correct Answer is. proportional to the square of the voltage.
Explanation. NIL.

09. Capacitance/capacitor.

Question Number. 1. A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20 Volts. The battery is replaced
with a short circuit. What will be the voltage across the capacitor after one time constant?.
Option A. 0 volts.
Option B. 7.36 volts.
Option C. 12.64 volts.
Correct Answer is. 7.36 volts.
Explanation. The capacitor is discharging - so it discharges 63.2% in one time constant - so what is left?.

Question Number. 2. The voltage rating of a capacitor is.

Option A. the max voltage that can be constantly applied.
Option B. the min voltage required to charge.
Option C. the normal operating voltage.
Correct Answer is. the max voltage that can be constantly applied.
Explanation. Exceed the voltage at which the capacitor is rated, and you destroy the capacitor.

Question Number. 3. The relative permittivity of a capacitor is.

Option A. the permittivity of the dielectric.
Option B. the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum.
Option C. the permittivity of dielectric in relation to dry air.
Correct Answer is. the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum.
Explanation. 'Relative' means relative to 'free space' (a 'vacuum' in other words).

Question Number. 4. When checking a capacitor with an ohmmeter, if the reading shows charging but the final reading is less
than normal then the possible fault is a.
Option A. leaking dielectric capacitor.
Option B. short circuit dielectric.
Option C. open circuit dielectric.
Correct Answer is. leaking dielectric capacitor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Three capacitors 10 microfarads, 10 nanofarads and 10 millifarads are connected in parallel. What is the
total capacitance?.
Option A. 10.01001 millifarads.
Option B. 111 millifarads.
Option C. 1.001001 millifarads.
Correct Answer is. 10.01001millifarads.
Explanation. The biggest capacitor of the three is the 10 milliFarad. The other two are fractions of one milliFarad. So the answer
must be 10.**** milliFarad (no sums required).
Question Number. 6. If a 1milliFarad capacitor has a potential difference across it of 5V, what is the energy stored?.
Option A. 12.5 Joules.
Option B. 12.5 milliJoules.
Option C. 25 mJoules.
Correct Answer is. 12.5 mJoules.
Explanation. Energy stored in a capacitor = 1/2 C V-squared (only the V is squared).

Question Number. 7. A capacitor with double the area and double the dielectric thickness will have.
Option A. double the capacitance.
Option B. the same capacitance.
Option C. half the capacitance.
Correct Answer is. the same capacitance.
Explanation. Get the formula for capacitance of a capacitor.

Question Number. 8. An electrolytic capacitor is used where.

Option A. minimum losses are essential.
Option B. there is a polarized input.
Option C. high frequency AC is used.
Correct Answer is. there is a polarized input.
Explanation. Wiring an electrolytic capacitor wrong polarity will destroy it. AC will therefore destroy it. Current must be DC (i.e.
polarised) and the right way.

Question Number. 9. What must you do to make a 3 F capacitor circuit into a 2 F circuit?.
Option A. Put a 2 F capacitor in parallel.
Option B. Put a 6 F capacitor in series.
Option C. Put a 1 F capacitor in series.
Correct Answer is. Put a 6 F capacitor in series.
Explanation. To reduce the capacitance of a circuit you must place a capacitor in series (formula is same as resistors in parallel). You
do the maths to see which one it is.

Question Number. 10. The time required to fully charge a 1 µ(micro)F capacitor in series with a 100k ohm resistor is.
Option A. 100 seconds.
Option B. 100 milliseconds.
Option C. 500 milliseconds.
Correct Answer is. 500 milliseconds.
Explanation. Time-constant (=RC) is 100 ms. Time-constant is time to reach 63.2% of full charge. Time to fully charge = 5 * TC =
500 ms.

Question Number. 11. A 50 μ(micro) Farad capacitor is fed with a current of 25 milliAmpere. How long will it take to charge it
to 100Volts?.
Option A. 1 second.
Option B. 0.2 seconds.
Option C. 12 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 1 second.
Explanation. Work out the resistance in the circuit first (R=V/I) (4000 ohms). Then work out the time constant (TC=RC). Time to
charge = 5RC.

Question Number. 12. In a circuit C = 25 microfarads and the current flow is 40 microamps for 4 seconds. What is the
voltage?.
Option A. 6.4Volts.
Option B. 3.2Volts.
Option C. 12.8Volts.
Correct Answer is. 6.4Volts.
Explanation. Since Q = VC and Q = It, then VC = It right? So V = It/C. Watch those unit prefixes.
Question Number. 13. Three 12 µ(micro)F capacitors are in series. The total capacitance is.
Option A. 12 µ(micro)F.
Option B. 4 µ(micro)F.
Option C. 36 µ(micro)F.
Correct Answer is. 4 µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Capacitors in series - total capacitance reduces. equal capacitors and total will be 1/3rd of one.

Question Number. 14. The time constant of a capacitor is the time.

Option A. the current to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Option B. for the emf to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Option C. to reach maximum current.
Correct Answer is. for the emf to reach 63.2% of maximum.
Explanation.

Question Number. 15. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the.
Option A. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
Option B. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area.
Option C. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates.
Correct Answer is. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates. OR plate area and inversely proportional to the
distance between the plates.
Explanation. Get the formula for the capacitance of a capacitor.

Question Number. 16. The capacitance of a capacitor is dependant upon.

Option A. the rate of change of current in the circuit.
Option B. the type of material separating the plates.
Option C. the charge on it.
Correct Answer is. the type of material separating the plates.
Explanation. The capacitance of a capacitor is only dependant upon its physical properties (size and material) and not what you
apply to it.

Question Number. 17. When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total capacitance is.
Option A. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor.
Option B. equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor.
Option C. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.
Correct Answer is. equal to the sum of all the capacitances.
Explanation. Get the formula for capacitors in parallel (it is like resistors in series).

Question Number. 18. One Picofarad is.

12
Option A. 1 * 10 farad.
Option B. 1 * 10-6 farad.
Option C. 1 * 10-12 farad.
Correct Answer is. 1 * 10-12 farad.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. The switch on a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is opened. The voltage across the
capacitor.
Option A. drops immediately to zero.
Option B. starts to fall exponentially to zero.
Option C. remains equal to the original charging voltage supply.
Correct Answer is. remains equal to the original charging voltage supply.
Explanation. If there is no external circuit, the charge can go nowhere.

Question Number. 20. The current in a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is.
Option A. zero.
Option B. is dependent upon the size of the capacitance of the capacitor.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. If the capacitor is fully charged, it is equal and opposite to the source voltage, so no current flows.

Question Number. 21. A capacitor is a barrier to.

Option A. both.
Option B. A.C.
Option C. D.C.
Correct Answer is. D.C.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. What is the total capacitance of a parallel circuit containing three capacitors with capacitance of
0.25microfarad, 0.03microfarad, and 0.12microfarad, respectively?.
Option A. 0.4 µ(micro)F.
Option B. 0.04 µ(micro)F.
Option C. 0.04 piko Farad.
Correct Answer is. 0.4 µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Capacitors in parallel, the same formula as resistors in series - i.e. just add them all up.

Question Number. 23. When two capacitors are connected in series.

Option A. the charge stored on each is inversely proportional to the voltage across it.
Option B. the charge stored on each is the same.
Option C. the charge stored on each is directly proportional to its capacitance.
Correct Answer is. the charge stored on each is the same.
Explanation. If they were not the same, there would be a current flow between them, until they equalised out.
Question Number. 24. The charge on a capacitor is expressed as.
Option A. the ratio Q/V.
Option B. the product Q * V.
Option C. the product C * V.
Correct Answer is. the product C * V.
Explanation. Remember Q = VC.

Question Number. 25. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it.
Option A. has a full charge before removing it from the circuit.
Option B. is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
Option C. has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit.
Correct Answer is. is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
Explanation. Charged capacitors can be lethal, even when charged to say, 1 volt.

Question Number. 26. The dielectric constant of a capacitor is a measurement of.

Option A. the electrical resistance of the capacitor dielectric.
Option B. the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric.
Option C. the electrical repulsion of electrons within the dielectric material.
Correct Answer is. the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. Three 12 microfarad capacitors in parallel. The overall circuit capacitance is.
Option A. 4 microfarads.
Option B. 1 microfarads.
Option C. 36 microfarads.
Correct Answer is. 36 microfarads.
Explanation. Capacitors in parallel - just add them up.
Question Number. 28. A circuit has 1 megohm and 8 microfarads. What is the time constant?.
Option A. 8 seconds.
Option B. 1 second.
Option C. 40 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 seconds.
Explanation. Time constant = RC. The mega and the micro cancel.

Question Number. 29. A capacitor rating is.

Option A. the voltage it will charge to.
Option B. the maximum continuous voltage it can take.
Option C. the voltage it will rupture at.
Correct Answer is. the maximum continuous voltage it can take.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. The multiplier colour coding on a capacitor is in.

Option A. picofarads.
Option B. farads.
Option C. microfarads.
Correct Answer is. picofarads.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The total capacitance of the circuit shown is.
Option A. 36µ(micro)F.
Option B. 4µ(micro)F.
Option C. 3µ(micro)F.
Correct Answer is. 4µ(micro)F.
Explanation. Total capacitance (of capacitors in series) = 12/3 = 4 microfarads.

Question Number. 32. When a capacitor is charged from a DC supply, the voltage/time curve is.
Option A. logarithmic.
Option B. linear.
Option C. exponential.
Correct Answer is. exponential.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. An electrolytic capacitor is used because it has a.

Option A. small physical size for low leakage current.
Option B. large physical size for a large capacity.
Option C. small physical size for a large capacity.
Correct Answer is. small physical size for a large capacity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. An electrolytic capacitor would be used in circuits supplying.
Option A. heavy loads.
Option B. light loads.
Option C. heavy / light loads.
Correct Answer is. heavy / light loads.
Explanation. Electrolytic capacitors are used in circuits of all sizes.

Question Number. 35. A 20 Picofarad capacitor with a 1 Megohm resistor takes how long to charge?.
Option A. 100 microseconds.
Option B. 20 milliseconds.
Option C. 0.1 second.
Correct Answer is. 100 microseconds.
Explanation. Time constant (TC) = RC = 20/1,000,000,000,000 * 1,000,000 = 20/1,000,000 = 20 microseconds. But fully charged is
5 * TC = 100 microseconds.

Question Number. 36. The discharge curve of a capacitor is.

Option A. Exponential.
Option B. Logarithmic.
Option C. Linear.
Correct Answer is. Exponential.
Explanation. The capacitor discharge curve is an exponential decay, however, the charge curve is logarithmic (the inverse of
exponential).

Question Number. 37. What is the value of a monolithic capacitor with 103 on it?.
Option A. 1000pf.
Option B. 10,000pf.
Option C. 100,000pf.
Correct Answer is. 10,000pf.
Explanation. 103 means 10 followed by 3 zeros. Capacitors are always measured in picofarads.

Question Number. 38. What is the formula for working out the capacitance of a capacitor if K = dielectric constant, A = area of
the plates, d = distance plates apart?.
Option A. c = K*A/d.
Option B. c = d/K*A.
Option C. c = K*d/A.
Correct Answer is. c = K*A/d.
Explanation. C = K*A/d.

Question Number. 39. Total capacitance of 3 capacitors each 12milliFarad in a parallel circuit.
Option A. 36milliFarad.
Option B. 12milliFarad.
Option C. 6mf.
Correct Answer is. 36milliFarad.
Explanation. Total C = = C1 + C2 + C3 (capacitors in parallel).

Question Number. 40. A combination of 1 megohm and 8 microfarad would give a time constant of.
Option A. 40 seconds.
Option B. 400 ms.
Option C. 8 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 8 seconds.
Explanation. 1,000,000 * 8/1,000,000 = 8 seconds. Note: Time Constant is asked for, not 'time to charge'.

Question Number. 41. Generally, what is the voltage across a fully charged capacitor?.
Option A. Less than circuit voltage.
Option B. Same as circuit voltage.
Option C. More than circuit voltage.
Correct Answer is. Same as circuit voltage.
Explanation. The answer to this question depends upon how accurate you want to go. Normal theory is that a fully charged capacitor
has an equal (and opposite) voltage to the supply. However, a capacitor is never fully charged (something in the order of 99.999999%
charged).

Question Number. 42. When would you use an electrolytic capacitor?.

Option A. On a balanced circuit.
Option B. Low output compared to size required.
Option C. Large output compared to size required.
Correct Answer is. Large output compared to size required.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 43. A capacitor has Brown, Black and Orange bands. It's value is.
Option A. 10 picofarads.
Option B. 10 nanofarads.
Option C. 100 picofarads.
Correct Answer is. 10 nanofarads.
Explanation. Brown = 1, Black = 0, Orange = x1000. Total is 10,000 picofarads (always picofarads with capacitors) = 10
nanofarads.

Question Number. 44. Voltage measured between the plates of a capacitor will be generally.
Option A. can dangerously higher than applied voltage.
Option B. the same as applied voltage.
Option C. less than applied voltage.
Correct Answer is. the same as applied voltage.
Explanation. Technically the voltage on a charged capacitor never reaches the applied voltage. It gets to 99.99999% (and more).

Question Number. 45. Dielectric constant of a capacitor is.

Option A. max V that can be applied to a capacitor.
Option B. electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric.
Option C. max I stored in the capacitor.
Correct Answer is. electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric.
Explanation. The dielectric stores electrical energy.

Question Number. 46. One microfarad is.

Option A. 1 * 10-12 farads.
Option B. 1 * 1012 farads.
Option C. 1 * 10-6 farads.
Correct Answer is. 1 * 10-6 farads.
Explanation. Jepperson, A+P Technician General Handbook, Chapter 1, page 22.

Question Number. 47. A circuit with a capacitor has 6 volts applied to it with a charge of 2400 pico-coulombs. What would the
charge be if the applied voltage was 1.5 volts ?.
Option A. 2400 * 10-12 coulombs.
Option B. 600 * 10-9 coulombs.
Option C. 600 * 10-12 coulombs.
Correct Answer is. 600 * 10-12 coulombs.
Explanation. Q = CV, so direct relationship of charge to voltage. 1.5V is 1/4 of 6V, so charge is 1/4 of 2400 picocoulombs. Note this
is more of a question on pico and nano and whether you know the difference.

Question Number. 48. In a capacitor, the dielectric strength is measured in.

Option A. Farads per meter.
Option B. Volts per metre.
Option C. Coulombs per m2.
Correct Answer is. Farads per meter.
Explanation.

Question Number. 49. Three capacitors connected in series, each having a value of 12 picofarads, calculate the total
capacitance.
Option A. 36 picofarads.
Option B. 4 picofarads.
Option C. 12 picofarads.
Correct Answer is. 4 picofarads.
Explanation. 12/3 = 4.

10a. Magnetism.

Question Number. 1. Magnetic inclination is the least at the.

Option A. poles.
Option B. equator.
Option C. isoclines.
Correct Answer is. equator.
Explanation. 'Inclination' is the same as 'dip'. Dip is greatest at the poles and least at the equator.

Question Number. 2. Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized.

Option A. below a certain temperature.
Option B. above a certain temperature.
Option C. within a band of temperatures.
Correct Answer is. below a certain temperature.
Explanation. Read up on the 'Curie Point'.
Question Number. 3. Glass is an example of a.
Option A. coercive material.
Option B. paramagnetic material.
Option C. diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. diamagnetic material.
Explanation. Glass is diamagnetic.

Question Number. 4. A solenoid of 10 turns per metre carries a current of 5A. If the current is reduced to 2.5A, how many
turns would be required to maintain the same magnetic field?.
Option A. 20.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 5.
Correct Answer is. 20.
Explanation. Flux = N*I, so halve the current you must double the windings.

Question Number. 5. Which of the following materials is easiest to magnetize?.

Option A. High grade steel.
Option B. Soft iron.
Option C. Cast iron.
Correct Answer is. Soft iron.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. To find which end of an electromagnet is the north pole, use the.
Option A. Fleming's Left Hand Rule.
Option B. Right Hand Clasp Rule.
Option C. Cork Screw Rule.
Correct Answer is. Right Hand Clasp Rule.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The earth's magnetic field is greatest at the.

Option A. magnetic equator.
Option B. geographic poles.
Option C. magnetic poles.
Correct Answer is. magnetic poles.
Explanation. Flux density is greatest at the magnetic poles, where all the flux lines converge.

Question Number. 8. The lines of magnetic flux from a magnet will.

Option A. attract each other.
Option B. repel each other.
Option C. have no effect upon each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. Of the following which pair of materials would most readily become magnetized?.
Option A. Iron and steel.
Option B. Copper and steel.
Option C. Nickel and bronze.
Correct Answer is. Iron and steel.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because.
Option A. its magnetism is not easily destroyed.
Option B. it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized.
Option C. it demagnetizes easily.
Correct Answer is. it demagnetizes easily.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. If the North pole of a magnet is brought nearer to the North pole of another magnet.
Option A. attraction between them will be increased.
Option B. repulsion between them will be reduced.
Option C. repulsion between them will be increased.
Correct Answer is. repulsion between them will be increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Where is the magnetic dip least?.

Option A. Poles.
Option B. Isoclinals.
Option C. Equator.
Correct Answer is. Equator.
Explanation. Magnetic dip is another name for inclination. It is least at the equator, and maximum (90 degrees)at the magnetic poles.

Question Number. 13. When a number of ferrite pieces are grouped together, they.
Option A. are semi-permanent magnets when DC is passed through them.
Option B. electromagnets.
Option C. can be used to store binary code.
Correct Answer is. can be used to store binary code.
Explanation. Magnetic tape uses tiny ferrite particles coated onto a plastic tape.

Question Number. 14. Ampere turns is calculated by the number of turns.

Option A. multiplied by current.
Option B. divided by current.
Option C. multiplied by magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. multiplied by current.
Explanation. Ampere turns means AMPS * TURNS.

Question Number. 15. The unit of flux is the.

Option A. Ampere turns / metre.
Option B. Weber.
Option C. Ampere turns.
Correct Answer is. Weber.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. Lines of magnetic flux pass from.

Option A. South to North.
Option B. East to West.
Option C. North to South.
Correct Answer is. North to South.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. Why is ferrite used in memory circuits?.

Option A. High reluctance.
Option B. Low permeability.
Option C. High remanence.
Correct Answer is. High remanence.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. Magnetic lines are flowing parallel. They will.
Option A. have no effect on each other.
Option B. attract each other.
Option C. repel each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. Assuming this means parallel AND in the same direction, they will repel each other. Like the magnetic fields around
two wires, carrying current in opposite directions.

Question Number. 19. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is most strongly felt at.
Option A. equator.
Option B. 45 degrees latitude.
Option C. poles.
Correct Answer is. equator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. Two parallel lines of magnetic flux in the same polarity.
Option A. repel each other.
Option B. have no effect on each other.
Option C. attract each other.
Correct Answer is. repel each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. Magnetic fields around two parallel conductors carrying current in the same directions will.
Option A. repel.
Option B. attract.
Option C. will attract or repel depending on the type of current.
Correct Answer is. attract.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]
Question Number. 22. Magnetic field on a solenoid is.
Option A. the same both inside and outside the coil.
Option B. weakest outside the coil.
Option C. strongest outside the coil.
Correct Answer is. weakest outside the coil.
Explanation. NIL.

10b. Magnetism.

Question Number. 1. Which of the following is absolute permeability?.

Option A. µ(micro)r.
Option B. µo(micro node).
Option C. µ(micro).
Correct Answer is. µ(micro). Explanation µ(micro) = µo(micro node)*µ(micro)r.

Question Number. 2. The symbol for flux density is.

Option A. H(capital).
Option B. ø(phy).
Option C. B(capital).
Correct Answer is. B(capital).
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability of.

Option A. zero.
Option B. less than unity.
Option C. greater than unity.
Correct Answer is. greater than unity.
Explanation. A paramagnetic material has a greater permeability than free space (vacuum). so its relative permeability is greater than
1.
Question Number. 4. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily?.
Option A. Copper.
Option B. Iron.
Option C. Aluminium.
Correct Answer is. Iron.
Explanation. Iron (especially soft iron) has the greatest permeability.

Question Number. 5. Permanent magnets have.

Option A. high reluctance, high coercive force.
Option B. low reluctance, high coercive force.
Option C. high reluctance, low coercive force.
Correct Answer is. high reluctance, high coercive force.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The term used to denote the strength of a magnetic field is.
Option A. retentivity.
Option B. hysteresis.
Option C. flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density. Explanation Flux density is the number of flux lines per unit cross sectional area.

Question Number. 7. A soft iron core is used in an ELECTRO magnet because.

Option A. it has LOW permeability and HIGH coercivity.
Option B. it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity.
Option C. it has HIGH permeability and HIGH coercivity.
Correct Answer is. it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A non-magnetic metal.
Option A. has high retentivity.
Option B. has no permeability.
Option C. is a poor conductor.
Correct Answer is. has no permeability.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. What is the effect of inserting an iron core into a current carrying coil?.
Option A. The flux density of the original magnetic field remains constant.
Option B. The core tends to move from a stronger to a weaker part of the field.
Option C. The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is increased.
Correct Answer is. The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is increased.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. Flux density will.

Option A. increase linearly with coercive force.
Option B. decrease linearly with magnetic flux.
Option C. increase linearly with magnetic flux.
Correct Answer is. increase linearly with magnetic flux.
Explanation Flux density = magnetic flux lines per unit cross sectional area.

Question Number. 11. Storage of magnets should be.

Option A. in a non magnetic pox.
Option B. in pairs with keeper plates.
Option C. in pairs end to end.
Correct Answer is. in pairs with keeper plates.
Explanation. Bar magnets are stored in pairs (end-to-end) and with keeper plates. (See forum for explanation).

Question Number. 12. The hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is on a graph with.
Option A. current against flux density.
Option B. flux density against magnetising force.
Option C. total flux against flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density against magnetising force.
Explanation. The hysteresis curve is MMF against B.

Question Number. 13. A material with a narrow hysteresis loop.

Option A. cannot be magnetised.
Option B. will have high retentivity.
Option C. will have low retentivity.
Correct Answer is. will have low retentivity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. If a bar magnet is cut in half.

Option A. the magnet is destroyed.
Option B. two bar magnets are formed.
Option C. one bar magnet and one non-magnet is formed.
Correct Answer is. two bar magnets are formed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. Copper is a.

Option A. ferromagnetic material.
Option B. paramagnetic materials.
Option C. diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. diamagnetic material.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. The MMF of a coil fed with 2 amps and having 10 turns is.
Option A. 5 ampere turns.
Option B. 20 amperes / turn.
Option C. 20 ampere turns.
Correct Answer is. 20 ampere turns.
Explanation. MMF (symbol H) is amps * turns. Unit is Ampere Turns.

Question Number. 17. An example of a paramagnetic material is.

Option A. silver.
Option B. iron.
Option C. glass.
Correct Answer is. iron.
Explanation. Iron is a paramagnetic (ferromagnetic actually), the other 2 are diamagnetics (LBP notes are wrong about glass).

Question Number. 18. Vibration in a magnet causes.

Option A. flux to stay the same.
Option B. flux to decrease.
Option C. flux to increase.
Correct Answer is. flux to decrease.
Explanation. A good way to destroy a magnet is to drop it or subject it to high frequency vibrations.

Question Number. 19. Permeability of a material can be found by.

Option A. flux density / MMF.
Option B. MMF * flux density.
Option C. MMF / flux density.
Correct Answer is. flux density / MMF.
Explanation. Permeability = B/H (Reluctance = H/B, similar to resistance R = V/I).

Question Number. 20. When magnetizing a piece of material, magnetic strength will rise.
Option A. non-linearly with magnetic force.
Option B. linearly with coercive force.
Option C. linearly with magnetic force.
Correct Answer is. non-linearly with magnetic force.
Explanation. Magnetic force is MMF (or H in Henries). It is not linear because of magnetic saturation.

Question Number. 21. A material exposed to heat will.

Option A. have no effect on magnetism.
Option B. be easier to magnetise.
Option C. be harder to magnetise.
Correct Answer is. be harder to magnetise.
Explanation. The 'curie' temperature is the temperature above which the material cannot be magnetised.

Question Number. 22. If cobalt has a permeability of 4800 it is a.

Option A. ferromagnetic.
Option B. paramagnetic.
Option C. diamagnetic.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic.
Explanation Cobalt is a hard ferromagnetic silver-white element. [Link]

Question Number. 23. Cobalt has a permeability.

Option A. greater than unity.
Option B. less than unity.
Option C. same as unity.
Correct Answer is. greater than unity.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 24. Magnetic flux.

Option A. exist in all space around the magnet.
Option B. is more concentrated at the centre of bar magnet.
Option C. occupies the space around the magnet with equal flux density.
Correct Answer is. exist in all space around the magnet.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. The ability of a circuit to produce a magnetic flux under the influence of a MMF.
Option A. permeance.
Option B. permeability.
Option C. permanence.
Correct Answer is. permeability.
Explanation Aircraft Electrical System. Pallett 3rd Edition appendix one page 196.

Question Number. 26. Magnetic flux saturation takes place when.

Option A. the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux.
Option B. the magnetic field drops to zero.
Option C. the magnetic field starts to reduce with increased magnetising force.
Correct Answer is. the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux.
Explanation See a B-H diagram.
Question Number. 27. Cables are shielded to prevent 'H' magnetic interference in wires with the following material.
Option A. Copper braiding.
Option B. Ferromagnetic material.
Option C. Diamagnetic material.
Correct Answer is. Copper braiding.
Explanation Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th edition Page 78.

Question Number. 28. Spontaneous magnetism is associated with.

Option A. diamagnetic materials.
Option B. ferromagnetic materials.
Option C. paramagnetic materials.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic materials.
Explanation NIL. [Link]

11. Inductance/inductor.

Question Number. 1. Two inductive coils are placed in close proximity with each other at 90 degrees. The number of flux
linkages is.
Option A. 0.
Option B. maximum negative.
Option C. maximum positive.
Correct Answer is. 0.
Explanation The coils must be parallel for maximum flux linkages (coupling factor). Coupling factor reduces as angular difference
increases to.

Question Number. 2. What is the mutual inductance if two coils of 10mH and 500mH have 90% of the flux transferred from
one to the other?.
Option A. 459mH.
Option B. 4.5mH.
Option C. 63mH.
Correct Answer is. 63mH.
Explanation Total inductance = 0.9 * root * 10 * 500 = 63.

Question Number. 3. An inductor has 1,000 turns of wire and a cross sectional area of 0.001m2. If the core has a permeability
of 0.000,001 and the coil is 0.1m. What is the value of the inductor?.
Option A. 100microH.
Option B. 100mH.
Option C. 10mH.
Correct Answer is. 10mH.
Explanation 0.000001*1000*0.001/0.1 = 0.01 = 10 mH.

Question Number. 4. Three inductors 10 mH, 5 mH and 20 mH are connected in parallel. What is the total inductance?.

Option A. Without knowing the coupling factor the total inductance cannot be found.
Option B. 2.86mH.
Option C. 35mH.
Correct Answer is. 2.86mH.
Explanation In parallel, the total inductance is lower than the lowest single inductance.

Question Number. 5. If the current reaches a maximum through an inductor of 2A in 15 seconds, what is the current after 3
seconds?.
Option A. 1.26A.
Option B. 0.63A.
Option C. 1A.
Correct Answer is. 1.26A.
Explanation 1 time constant = 15/5 = 3s. 100% charge = 2A, so 1 time constant (63.2%) = 1.26A.
Question Number. 6. The time constant of an inductor is.
Option A. L/R.
Option B. L2 /R.
Option C. LR.
Correct Answer is. L/R.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 7. If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will.
Option A. stay the same.
Option B. halve.
Option C. double.
Correct Answer is. stay the same.
Explanation Get the formula for mutual inductance. Rate of change of current (i.e. frequency) is not in it.

Question Number. 8. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?.
Option A. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
Option B. To reduce the core reluctance.
Option C. To increase the core permeability.
Correct Answer is. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 9. When more than two inductors of different inductance are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total
inductance is.
Option A. equal to the sum of the individual inductance.
Option B. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor.
Option C. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.
Correct Answer is. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.
Explanation Adding inductors in parallel is the same formula as resistors in parallel (i.e. adding an inductor actually decreases the
inductance).

Question Number. 10. The time constant in an inductive circuit is the time required for the current to reach.
Option A. 70.7% of maximum value.
Option B. 63.2% of maximum value.
Option C. 63.7% of maximum value.
Correct Answer is. 63.2% of maximum value.
Explanation NIL.

Question Number. 11. An AC inductive circuit has an inductance 0f 10 mH and a frequency input of 1000Hz. The opposition
to current flow is approximately.
Option A. 63 ohms.
Option B. 63,000 ohms.
Option C. 630 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 63 ohms.
Explanation Inductive reactance is 2pi * f * L = 6.28 * 1000 * 10/1000 = 62.8 ohms.

Question Number. 12. Rotating coil B through 90° will.

Option A. increase the EMF induced into B.

Option B. increase the EMF induced into A.
Option C. decrease the EMF induced into B.
Correct Answer is. decrease the EMF induced into B.
Explanation Coupling factor is maximum when the coils are parallel. It is zero if they are at 90° to each other.

Question Number. 13. An inductor of resistance 5 kΩ and inductance 2mH is connected to a DC circuit. The time constant is.

Option A. 400 ns.

Option B. 10 seconds.
Option C. 40 ms.
Correct Answer is. 400 ns.
Explanation Time constant = L/R = 2mH/5000 = 0.000,000,4 seconds = 400 ns.

Question Number. 14. When switching off the supply, the back EMF in a collapsing field in an inductor.
Option A. can be multiple times bigger than forward EMF.
Option B. never exceeds forward EMF.
Option C. is equal to forward EMF.
Correct Answer is. can be multiple times bigger than forward EMF.
Explanation The size of the back-emf depends upon how fast the magnetic field is collapsing. That is how your car ignition turns
12V into several thousand volts.

Question Number. 15. An induced current in a coil.

Option A. opposes the EMF producing it.
Option B. does not affect the EMF producing it.
Option C. aids the EMF producing it.
Correct Answer is. opposes the EMF producing it.
Explanation The induced current in a coil (inductor) opposes the current which produces it.

Question Number. 16. 1 Volt is produced when a current of 1 Amp per second is varied in a coil'. This is a definition of.

Option A. 1 Ampere per metre.

Option B. 1 Henry.
Option C. 1 Coulomb per second.
Correct Answer is. 1 Henry.
Explanation Lens' Law BEMF = -L dI/dt Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallet's 3rd Edition Appendix 1 page 195.

Question Number. 17. Two inductor coils in very close proximity; if one of the coils is rotated 90 degrees slowly away from
the other the mutual inductance.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation Coupling factor (mutual inductance) decreases to zero at 90 degrees.

Question Number. 18. An inductor is said to be saturated when.

Option A. the current is at a maximum.
Option B. the current through it is zero.
Option C. it will no longer accept lines of flux.
Correct Answer is. it will no longer accept lines of flux.
Explanation NIL.

12. DC Motor/Generator Theory .

Question Number. 1. In a DC motor, the stator's magnetic field, due to armature reaction, moves.
Option A. in the same direction of rotation of the armature.
Option B. in the opposite direction of rotation of the armature.
Option C. into alignment with the GNA.
Correct Answer is. in the opposite direction of rotation of the armature.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A small air gap between magnetic poles results.

Option A. in a weaker field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Option B. in a stronger field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Option C. in the same field as a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Correct Answer is. in the same field as a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
Explanation. Magnetic field (number of flux lines) is the same regardless of distance between poles. However, the field density (flux
density) will increase with a smaller air gap.

Question Number. 3. The electromagnetic brake coil in an actuator would be energised.

Option A. only at the instant of starting and stopping.
Option B. all the time in flight.
Option C. only when the actuator is running.
Correct Answer is. only when the actuator is running.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a shunt wound direct current motor with a constant voltage field supply, the torque developed by the
motor is.
Option A. independent of load.
Option B. directly proportional to armature current.
Option C. inversely proportional to the armature current.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to armature current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will.

Option A. decrease speed and increase torque.
Option B. increase speed and increase torque.
Option C. increase speed and decrease torque.
Correct Answer is. increase speed and increase torque.
Explanation. Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will reduce the back emf in the armature so the armature current will
increase giving a rise in torque and the RPM will increase as a consequence.

Question Number. 6. To calculate generator output you need to know the.

Option A. armature speed and number of series conductors.
Option B. armature speed and field strength.
Option C. armature speed and number of parallel conductors.
Correct Answer is. armature speed and field strength.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and the armature current, the motor will.
Option A. stop.
Option B. change direction.
Option C. continue to run in the same direction.
Correct Answer is. continue to run in the same direction.
Explanation. Prove it with Fleming's left hand rule.

Question Number. 8. A starter generator has a.

Option A. low resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.
Option B. low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field.
Option C. high resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.
Correct Answer is. low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. If the brake coil on an actuator motor goes open circuit, the actuator will.
Option A. run slower.
Option B. stop.
Option C. over-ride its mechanical stops.
Correct Answer is. stop.
Explanation. The brake coil is wired in series with the actuator motor coil. It withdraws a spring loaded lock to release the actuator
when current is applied.

Question Number. 10. The diagram shows a 200 V long shunt generator. What is the voltage dropped across the series
resistor?.
Option A. 0.12 V.
Option B. 0.2 V.
Option C. 200 V.
Correct Answer is. 0.12 V.
Explanation. Don't let the field configuration confuse you. The 0.04 and 100 ohm resistors are part of the generator and can be
ignored. Just consider the 0.06 ohm (the series resistor) and the load resistor. Calculate current (about 2A) then calculate voltage
across 0.06 ohm resistor.

Question Number. 11. If a generator speed is halved and the field strength is doubled, the voltage output will be.
Option A. unchanged.
Option B. doubled.
Option C. halved.
Correct Answer is. unchanged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?.
Option A. reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Option B. rotate the positive brush one commutator segment.
Option C. interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source.
Correct Answer is. reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under
varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the.
Option A. speed at which the armature rotates.
Option B. strength of the magnetic field.
Option C. number of conductors in the armature.
Correct Answer is. strength of the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and armature.
Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type?.
Option A. Compound.
Option B. Shunt (parallel).
Option C. Series.
Correct Answer is. Series.
Explanation. Series motors have the highest starting torque.

Question Number. 15. If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor.
Option A. the speed will increase and the armature current will increase.
Option B. the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease.
Option C. the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease.
Correct Answer is. the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease.
Explanation. Speed increases and increases the back emf which decreases the armature current.

Question Number. 16. If the correct supply were connected to a DC shunt motor which had lost its residual magnetism it
would.
Option A. run in the reverse direction.
Option B. fail to run.
Option C. run normally.
Correct Answer is. run normally.
Explanation. Its a motor, not a generator!.

Question Number. 17. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:.
Option A. a shorted armature.
Option B. a broken field lead.
Option C. an out-of-round commutator.
Correct Answer is. a shorted armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. The purpose of an end-travel microswitch in a linear actuator is to.
Option A. remain open and closes at end travel only.
Option B. remain open during normal operation and only close if the actuator overruns its stops.
Option C. remain closed and opens at end travel only.
Correct Answer is. remain closed and opens at end travel only.
Explanation. See Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems, pg 140.
Question Number. 19. Linear actuators used in aircraft are of.
Option A. split field series wound type.
Option B. compound wound type.
Option C. split field shunt wound type.
Correct Answer is. split field series wound type.
Explanation. See Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems, pg 141.

Question Number. 20. If a generator sparks, a possible reason is.

Option A. the brush springs are loose.
Option B. magnetic flux deflecting the EMF.
Option C. the brushes have been placed around the magnetic coil.
Correct Answer is. the brush springs are loose.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. If the field strength of a generator is doubled, and the speed is doubled, the output EMF will.
Option A. stay the same.
Option B. double.
Option C. quadruple.
Correct Answer is. quadruple.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. In a DC motor the pole pairs are.

Option A. connected to the brush gear.
Option B. part of the armature.
Option C. embedded within the field coils.
Correct Answer is. embedded within the field coils.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. A series wound DC motor, the field has.
Option A. few turns of thin wire.
Option B. many turns of thin wire.
Option C. few turns of thick wire.
Correct Answer is. few turns of thick wire.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. Doubling the running time of an electrical machine would.
Option A. double the current used.
Option B. double the joules used.
Option C. double the watts used.
Correct Answer is. double the joules used.
Explanation. Power (watts) is the rate of using energy (Joules). So doubling running time will not change the power. Current is the
rate of charge flow - so more charge (coulombs) will be used but not at a faster or slower 'rate'.

Question Number. 25. On a linear actuator, the field cutoff coil will be energized when.
Option A. only as the actuator commences movement.
Option B. the actuator is not running.
Option C. the actuator is running.
Correct Answer is. the actuator is running.
Explanation. Field cutoff coil is believed to be the brake coil.

Question Number. 26. An electric motor produces a force of 5 N at a distance of 0.2m from the centre of rotation and rotates at
a speed of 100 revs/sec. The motors output is.
Option A. 100 horsepower.
Option B. 628.4 watts.
Option C. 314.2 watts.
Correct Answer is. 628.4 watts.
Explanation. Power in a motor = torque * 2pi * revs/sec. Torque = force * radius.

Question Number. 27. Starter motors are usually.

Option A. series wound.
Option B. compound wound.
Option C. shunt wound.
Correct Answer is. series wound.
Explanation. Series wound motors have the greatest starting torque.

Question Number. 28. Generator brushes are normally made of.

Option A. steel.
Option B. carbon.
Option C. brass.
Correct Answer is. carbon.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will.
Option A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
Option B. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
Option C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Correct Answer is. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
Explanation. The voltage regulator keeps the generator voltage output the same. Current will increase as the load resistance drops.

Question Number. 30. The voltage output of a generator is controlled by.

Option A. varying the current of the output.
Option B. varying the resistance of the output.
Option C. varying the current of the field.
Correct Answer is. varying the current of the field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The current flowing in the armature of a DC motor is equal to.
Option A. (applied volts-generated volts) / armature resistance.
Option B. (applied volts-generated volts) * armature resistance.
Option C. applied volts + generated volts / armature resistance.
Correct Answer is. (applied volts-generated volts) / armature resistance.
Explanation. Ohms law I = V/R. Voltage in the armature is the applied voltage - back emf (generated voltage).

Question Number. 32. What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating
armature of a DC generator into direct current as it leaves the generator?.
Option A. An inverter.
Option B. A commutator.
Option C. A rectifier.
Correct Answer is. A commutator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?.
Option A. Overcome armature reaction.
Option B. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
Option C. Reduce field strength.
Correct Answer is. Reduce field strength.
Explanation. NOT' one of the purposes. The purpose of interpoles is to overcome (in fact 'prevent') armature reaction. Armature
reaction is partially responsible for arcing at the brushes.
Question Number. 34. To reverse the direction of a series motor.
Option A. the direction of the current through the field and the armature is reversed.
Option B. the direction of the current through the field is reversed.
Option C. a second series field is fitted.
Correct Answer is. a second series field is fitted.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will.

Option A. remain relatively constant over the starting speed range.
Option B. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Option C. increase as the engine speed increases.
Correct Answer is. decrease as the engine speed increases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. How are generators rated?.

Option A. Impedance at rated voltage.
Option B. Amperes at rated voltage.
Option C. Watts at rated voltage.
Correct Answer is. Watts at rated voltage.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 37. Due to armature reaction in a DC motor.

Option A. the leading pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Option B. the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Option C. the magnetic flux is restored by moving the MNA towards the GNA.
Correct Answer is. the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite directions so that the.
Option A. speed of the motor can be more closely controlled.
Option B. motor can be operated in either direction.
Option C. power output of the motor can be more closely controlled.
Correct Answer is. motor can be operated in either direction.
Explanation. Specifically series motors.

Question Number. 39. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?.

Option A. Either, provided they lay on the MNA.
Option B. The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.
Option C. The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. The interpole must pull back the magnetic field. In a motor, the magnetic field deflects in the opposite direction to the
armature.

Question Number. 40. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound DC motor?.
Option A. Suitable for constant speed use.
Option B. High starting torque.
Option C. Low starting torque.
Correct Answer is. High starting torque.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 41. Interpole windings fitted to DC series wound generators are.
Option A. in series with the armature.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in parallel with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the armature.
Explanation. Interpole windings are always in series with the armature, so they carry the same current as the armature.

Question Number. 42. What polarity do interpoles take in a DC generator?.

Option A. the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Option B. either, providing they lay on M.N.A.
Option C. the same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. the same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. On a generator, the field is deflected in the same direction as the armature rotates. The interpoles must drag back the
field.

Question Number. 43. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of.
Option A. shaded poles.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field.
Correct Answer is. interpoles.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 44. The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through both the field and armature
windings produces a.
Option A. speed slightly higher when unloaded.
Option B. high starting torque.
Option C. low starting torque.
Correct Answer is. high starting torque.
Explanation. At low speed (i.e starting) there is a very high current in the armature (due to no back-emf). Since the field is in series
with the armature, the same high current flows in it, resulting in a very high torque.
Question Number. 45. To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed.
Option A. in parallel with the field.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the field.
Explanation. An apparent anomaly. Increasing the field resistance decreases the field strength which reduces the back-emf in the
armature. Armature current therefore increases and its speed increases.

Question Number. 46. A 200 volt motor is taking 10 amperes armature current, the armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. The Back-
EMF under these conditions will be.
Option A. 201 volts.
Option B. 199 volts.
Option C. 1 volt.
Correct Answer is. 199 volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 47. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?.
Option A. Energize the armature.
Option B. Flash the fields.
Option C. Reseat the brushes.
Correct Answer is. Flash the fields.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 48. A high surge of current is required when a DC electric motor is first started. As the speed of the motor
increase.
Option A. the counter emf decreases proportionally.
Option B. the applied emf increases proportionally.
Option C. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the armature.
Correct Answer is. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 49. Aircraft generators are cooled by.

Option A. fuel cooling radiators.
Option B. oil cooling radiators around the main body.
Option C. ram air.
Correct Answer is. ram air.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 50. On a combined DC starter - generator system.

Option A. the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start cycle is completed.
Option B. the voltage regulator controls the start sequence during engine starting.
Option C. the series coil is open circuit during the engine start sequence.
Correct Answer is. the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start cycle is completed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 51. If the field current to a shunt wound DC motor is decreased when operating at a constant load, the motor
speed will.
Option A. reduce.
Option B. not change.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. This may seem strange, but decreasing the field strength of a shunt motor will decrease the back emf of the armature
and hence increase the current through the armature. This in turn increases the armature speed.

Question Number. 52. If a motor is spinning at 50 cycles per second, how long is 1 cycle of the output?.
Option A. 50 seconds.
Option B. 0.83 seconds.
Option C. 0.02 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 0.02 seconds.
Explanation. Time period = 1/frequency.

Question Number. 53. In a an DC motor, the rotation of the MNA.

Option A. is opposite to the rotation of the armature.
Option B. is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature.
Option C. is the same as the rotation of the armature.
Correct Answer is. is opposite to the rotation of the armature.
Explanation. The field in a motor reacts to the armature current by 'distorting' in the opposite direction to the armature - called
armature reaction.

Question Number. 54. In a wave wound generator with 4 poles, what would be the minimum number of brushes?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 2.
Option C. 8.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 55. A wire is rotated through a magnetic field. To give DC it must be connected to.
Option A. a commutator.
Option B. slip rings.
Option C. a rectifier.
Correct Answer is. a commutator.
Explanation. A commutator turns AC to DC in a generator.
Question Number. 56. If the supply to a DC shunt motor was reversed.
Option A. it would rotate in the same direction.
Option B. it would fail to run.
Option C. it would rotate in the opposite direction.
Correct Answer is. it would rotate in the same direction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 57. A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current reduces. This is due to.
Option A. the resistance of the field and the armature in series.
Option B. the resistance of the field and armature in parallel.
Option C. the back EMF.
Correct Answer is. the back EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. Interpoles in a DC generator are connected.

Option A. in series with the armature.
Option B. in series with the field.
Option C. in parallel with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 59. In a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction may be reduced by moving the brush gear.
Option A. in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Option B. from MNA to GNA.
Option C. against the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Correct Answer is. in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
Explanation. The MNA leads the GNS in a generator. The brushes should be put on the MNA.
Question Number. 60. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a DC generator are.
Option A. commutating coils.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. compensating windings.
Correct Answer is. compensating windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 61. A 6 pole wave-wound generator has.

Option A. 3 brushes.
Option B. 2 brushes.
Option C. 6 brushes.
Correct Answer is. 2 brushes.
Explanation. A wave-wound generator needs only 2 brushes regardless of the number of poles, but some may have more for
increased efficiency.

Question Number. 62. Armature reaction in a DC generator causes.

Option A. MNA to move in the opposite direction of rotation.
Option B. MNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Option C. GNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Correct Answer is. MNA to move in the direction of rotation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 63. In a DC motor, back-EMF rises if the motor.

Option A. speed falls.
Option B. speed faload rises.
Option C. speed rises.
Correct Answer is. speed rises.
Explanation. B-EMF is due to generator action in the motor.

Question Number. 64. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required are.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 6.
Correct Answer is. 6.
Explanation. 6 poles is 3 pairs. Lap wound generators require 1 pair of brushes for each pair of poles.

Question Number. 65. Reactive sparking is reduced by.

Option A. interpoles.
Option B. compensating windings.
Option C. auxiliary windings.
Correct Answer is. interpoles.
Explanation. Interpoles 'reduce' armature reaction (which causes reactive sparking). Compensating windings 'prevent' armature
reaction.

Question Number. 66. The back-EMF in a DC motor is.

Option A. equal to the applied EMF.
Option B. less than the applied EMF.
Option C. greater than the applied EMF.
Correct Answer is. less than the applied EMF.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 67. The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m and the
current flowing through the conductor is 5 amps. The force on the conductor is.
Option A. 0.6 Newtons.
Option B. 15 Newtons.
Option C. 3.75 Newtons.
Correct Answer is. 15 Newtons.
Explanation. F = BIl = 1.5 * 5 * 2 = 15N.

Question Number. 68. A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the armature of 2 ohms resistance is 1
amp. The Back-EMF is.
Option A. 26 V.
Option B. 30 V.
Option C. 27 V.
Correct Answer is. 26 V.
Explanation. Total V = I * R = 1 * 2 = 2V. So 26V B-EMF must be generated by the generator action.

Question Number. 69. In a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move.
Option A. against the direction of rotation.
Option B. in the direction of rotation.
Option C. to the GNA.
Correct Answer is. against the direction of rotation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 70. The diagram shown is a.

Option A. shunt wound machine.
Option B. short shunt compound wound machine.
Option C. long shunt compound wound machine.
Correct Answer is. long shunt compound wound machine.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 71. In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used.

Option A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations.
Option B. to control output current.
Option C. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Correct Answer is. to prevent voltage overshoot.
Explanation. See CAIP EEL/1-2. The stabilizing winding picks up a 'rate of change' from the output of an AC brushless generator
and damps out voltage overshoot and prevents system oscillation. The pickup is an induction coil wound around the output so is NOT
wired in series.

Question Number. 72. What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?.
Option A. brushes.
Option B. rotor.
Option C. stator.
Correct Answer is. stator.
Explanation. The poles are a part of the field - which is the stator on a DC motor.

Question Number. 73. The main advantage of a starter-generator over conventional units is.
Option A. it can produce a greater power output.
Option B. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter drive remains engaged.
Option C. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged.
Correct Answer is. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the starter drive remains engaged. OR for the same
power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 74. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would be.
Option A. in series with the field.
Option B. in series with the supply.
Option C. in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. in series with the supply.
Explanation. Must be referring to a universal motor (AC shunt wound?) The volts dropping resistor is placed in series with the
supply.

Question Number. 75. Commutator ripple can be reduced by.

Option A. increasing generator frequency.
Option B. the use of a ripple filter.
Option C. a resistor in series with the armature.
Correct Answer is. the use of a ripple filter.
Explanation. A ripple filter is made of a capacitor in parallel with the generator output and an inductor in series with the generator
output.

Question Number. 76. In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the.

Option A. rotor assembly.
Option B. stator assembly.
Option C. field.
Correct Answer is. field.
Explanation. Interpoles are a part of the Field. Rotor and Stator are terms for AC motors.

Question Number. 77. Armature reaction is.

Option A. the MMF opposing rotation.
Option B. due to dirty or worn commutator.
Option C. reactive sparking.
Correct Answer is. the MMF opposing rotation.
Explanation. The MMF is the ampere-turns of the armature, producing a magnetic field in the armature, which opposes the main
field and causes it to distort (in direction of motion of the armature).

Question Number. 78. A shunt motor.

Option A. is constant speed.
Option B. has high starting torque.
Option C. gives constant torque with variations in speed.
Correct Answer is. is constant speed.
Explanation. DC Shunt motors are 'constant speed' motors, but starting torque is small.

Question Number. 79. In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens to the back EMF?.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. The back EMF decreases with an increase in the field resistance. The armature current would increase and the motor
speed would increase.

Question Number. 80. To increase the voltage output of a generator you can.
Option A. decrease speed.
Option B. It is not speed dependant.
Option C. increase speed.
Correct Answer is. increase speed.
Explanation. Increasing the speed makes the armature cut the magnetic field faster, inducing a greater voltage.

Question Number. 81. Generator voltage is.

Option A. dependant on speed of rotation.
Option B. independent of speed of rotation.
Option C. not dependant on speed of rotation.
Correct Answer is. dependant on speed of rotation.
Explanation. The faster the generator turns, the more voltage it produces. Besides, 'Independent' and 'not dependant' mean the same
thing.

Question Number. 82. The output from a generator to a commutator is.

Option A. pulsed DC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. Output of all generators (before the commutator) is AC.
Question Number. 83. What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?.
Option A. Heavier than like for like.
Option B. Will not supply output at low rpm.
Option C. Can only be used on piston engines.
Correct Answer is. Will not supply output at low rpm.
Explanation. At low RPM, starter-generator is still in motor configuration.

Question Number. 84. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is.

Option A. at operating speed.
Option B. under heavy load.
Option C. just starting to rotate.
Correct Answer is. at operating speed.
Explanation. Back EMF is greatest when motor is at high speed.

Question Number. 85. When a conductor carrying a current and placed in a magnetic field it experiences.
Option A. an electrostatic force.
Option B. an electromagnetic force.
Option C. a magnetic force.
Correct Answer is. an electromagnetic force.
Explanation. The force is generated by interaction of two magnetic fields.

Question Number. 86. The type of motor used in a linear actuator is.
Option A. parallel (shunt wound).
Option B. compound.
Option C. series.
Correct Answer is. series.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 140.

Question Number. 87. If the speed of a coil in a magnetic field is doubled and the field strength is doubled the output will.

Option A. quadruple.
Option B. stay the same.
Option C. halve.
Correct Answer is. quadruple.
Explanation. Voltage = Blv. Double B (field strength) and double v (velocity) and Voltage will quadruple.

Question Number. 88. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. Any wave wound DC generator usually has only 1 pair of brushes.

Question Number. 89. In the shunt generator the field is supplied by.
Option A. the load.
Option B. the armature.
Option C. a separate supply.
Correct Answer is. the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 90. Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automatic.
Option A. field circuit resistance decrease.
Option B. armature circuit resistance increase.
Option C. field circuit resistance increase.
Correct Answer is. field circuit resistance increase.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 91. Which generators are usually used on aircraft?.

Option A. Shunt.
Option B. Compound.
Option C. Series.
Correct Answer is. Shunt.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 92. In a cumulative compound wound generator the.

Option A. the series and shunt fields assist each other.
Option B. the series and shunt fields oppose each other.
Option C. the voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load.
Correct Answer is. the series and shunt fields assist each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 93. The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in.
Option A. parallel with the field.
Option B. series with the armature.
Option C. series with the field.
Correct Answer is. series with the field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 94. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below saturation.
Option A. increase with an increase in load.
Option B. decrease with an increase in load.
Option C. decrease with a decrease in rotational speed.
Correct Answer is. decrease with an increase in load.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 95. The shunt wound generator is normally started.

Option A. on load.
Option B. Either of the above.
Option C. off load.
Correct Answer is. off load.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 96. How do you reduce ripple on the output of a DC generator?.
Option A. Increase the speed of the armature and add more turns.
Option B. Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings.
Option C. Increase the commutator segments and connect each to a separate parallel winding.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the speed of the armature and add more series windings. OR Increase the commutator segments and
connect each to a separate parallel winding.
Explanation. This amounts to increasing the separate armature windings which will increase the ripple frequency but decrease their
amplitude.

Question Number. 97. Armature reaction in a DC motor causes the neutral axis to shift in.
Option A. the direction in the direction of armature rotation.
Option B. the direction opposite to the direction of armature rotation.
Option C. either direction depending on current flow.
Correct Answer is. the direction opposite to the direction of armature rotation.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin, Chapter 10, pg 194.
Question Number. 98. An indication of good commutation on a DC machine would be.
Option A. high armature currents.
Option B. little or no sparking at the commutator.
Option C. silent operation of the machine.
Correct Answer is. little or no sparking at the commutator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 99. If compound DC generators are operated in parallel they must.
Option A. all rotate at the same speed.
Option B. have an equalising or load sharing loop.
Option C. all use the same voltage.
Correct Answer is. have an equalising or load sharing loop.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 199.

Question Number. 100. The windings embedded in the pole faces of a generator are.
Option A. commutating coils.
Option B. interpoles.
Option C. compensating coils.
Correct Answer is. compensating coils.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 195.

Question Number. 101. Prolonged reactive sparking in a DC generator could damage the.
Option A. armature.
Option B. commutator.
Option C. pole pieces.
Correct Answer is. commutator.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 197.

Question Number. 102. The poles of a DC generator are laminated to.

Option A. reduce eddy current losses.
Option B. reduce flux losses.
Option C. reduce hysteresis losses.
Correct Answer is. reduce hysteresis losses.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 186.

Question Number. 103. One advantage of a DC motor over an AC motor is.

Option A. the direction of rotation of the rotor can be changed.
Option B. less voltage is required in DC than AC.
Option C. the DC motor will use less current.
Correct Answer is. the DC motor will use less current.
Explanation. Due to the generated back emf, a DC motor will use less current.

Question Number. 104. In a shunt wound direct current motor the torque is.
Option A. inversely proportional to the current in the armature.
Option B. independent of load.
Option C. proportional to the current in the armature.
Correct Answer is. proportional to the current in the armature.
Explanation. NIL.

13. AC Theory.

Question Number. 1. Convention requires that in a symmetrical 3 phase system, the.

Option A. red voltage is taken as the reference phase.
Option B. yellow voltage phase leads the red phase by 120 degrees.
Option C. red voltage phase leads the blue phase by 120 degrees.
Correct Answer is. red voltage is taken as the reference phase.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. What is the phase difference in a circuit with 100V, drawing 0.5 amps, consuming 50 Watts?.
Option A. 0°.
Option B. 45°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 0°.
Explanation. When power is in Watts, it is all true power - there is no apparent power.

Question Number. 3. The power factor of a circuit containing an imbalance of inductive and capacitive reactance is.
Option A. greater than unity.
Option B. unity.
Option C. less than unity.
Correct Answer is. less than unity.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. If you apply this waveform to this circuit, what is the output across the capacitor?.

Option A. Pulsed negative.

Option B. Pulsed positive.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Pulsed positive.
Explanation. With the output taken across the capacitor, this is a basic integrator - so the output is.

Question Number. 5. What value is the same as the equivalent D.C. heating effect?.
Option A. Peak.
Option B. Average.
Option C. Root Mean Square.
Correct Answer is. Root Mean Square.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. What shape is the waveform when the input pulse and the time base are unequal?.
Option A. Saw tooth.
Option B. Square.
Option C. Rectangular.
Correct Answer is. Rectangular.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. A sine wave has 5 amps RMS value. What is the peak value?.
Option A. 7.07 amps.
Option B. 6.37 amps.
Option C. 10 amps.
Correct Answer is. 7.07 amps.
Explanation. Peak = 1.414 * RMS (also remember that 5 is half of 10).

Question Number. 8. What is the wave shape of the x-axis input of a traversing oscilloscope image?.
Option A. Rectangular.
Option B. Triangular.
Option C. Square.
Correct Answer is. Triangular.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current vector is.

Option A. +90° out of phase with the voltage vector.
Option B. in phase with the voltage vector.
Option C. -90° out of phase with the voltage vector.
Correct Answer is. in phase with the voltage vector.
Explanation. Purely resistive - current and voltage must be in phase.

Question Number. 10. When comparing the average values of an AC generator output, to the peak values.
Option A. average voltage = 0.707 * peak voltage.
Option B. average voltage = 0.63 * peak voltage.
Option C. average voltage = same as the peak voltage.
Correct Answer is. average voltage = 0.63 * peak voltage.
Explanation. Don't get confused with RMS value.

Question Number. 11. A parallel circuit at resonance has.

Option A. maximum impedance.
Option B. zero impedance.
Option C. minimum impedance.
Correct Answer is. maximum impedance.
Explanation. A 'series' circuit at resonance has zero impedance. A 'parallel' circuit at resonance has maximum impedance.

Question Number. 12. A 10 ohm resistor has a 14.14 V peak drop across it. What power is dissipated?.
Option A. 10 W.
Option B. 19.99 W.
Option C. 1.414 W.
Correct Answer is. 10 W.
Explanation. Since it mentions peak, it is AC. Always use RMS voltage when calculating power. RMS voltage = peak voltage /
1.414 (more than coincidence that 14.14 / 1.414 = 10). Power = V2/ R.

Question Number. 13. If a 1 ohm circuit produces a 50 W output, the phase angle is.
Option A. 45°.
Option B. 0°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 0°.
Explanation. Going by the power being quoted in Watts (rather than VA) the circuit is purely resistive and therefore the phase angle
is 0 degrees.

Question Number. 14. What does a rectifier do?.

Option A. Changes alternating current into direct current.
Option B. Reduces voltage.
Option C. Changes direct current into alternating current.
Correct Answer is. Changes alternating current into direct current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the.
Option A. power rating.
Option B. power factor.
Option C. efficiency.
Correct Answer is. power factor.
Explanation. Power factor = true power / apparent power.
Question Number. 16. One advantage of using AC electrical power in aircraft is.
Option A. the greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.
Option B. AC electrical motors can be reversed while DC motors cannot.
Option C. the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is required.
Correct Answer is. AC electrical motors can be reversed while DC motors cannot. OR the greater ease in stepping the voltage up or
down.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an AC circuit are assumed to be.

Option A. effective values.

Option B. instantaneous values.
Option C. maximum values.
Correct Answer is. effective values.
Explanation. Effective values' is another term for RMS because it is the same heating 'effect' as DC.

Question Number. 18. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?.
Option A. Hydraulic pump.
Option B. Windscreen heating.
Option C. Standby compass.
Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating.
Explanation. Frequency wild can only be used on resistive circuits (such as heating and lighting).

Question Number. 19. In an AC circuit how is the value of true power calculated?.
Option A. By voltmeter readings multiplied by ammeter readings.
Option B. By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor.
Option C. By watt meter readings multiplied by power factor.
Correct Answer is. By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. One of the chief advantages of alternating current is that it can be transmitted at a high voltage with a
low power loss; the voltage can then be changed to any desired value of.
Option A. DC by means of transformers.
Option B. DC by means of inverters.
Option C. AC by means of transformers.
Correct Answer is. AC by means of transformers.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in
parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each?.
Option A. 1 ampere.
Option B. 25.23 amperes.
Option C. 1.11 amperes.
Correct Answer is. 25.23 amperes.
Explanation. resistance, then use ohms law (I=V/R) to find the total current. It is a tricky calculation to do without a calculator, so
round the total resistance up (to 1 ohms) then choose the nearest answer for I.

Question Number. 22. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per.

Option A. minute.
Option B. second.
Option C. revolution.
Correct Answer is. second.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. The frequency of a power wave in an AC resistance circuit is.
Option A. half the frequency for voltage and current.
Option B. the same as the frequency for voltage and current.
Option C. twice the frequency for voltage and current.
Correct Answer is. twice the frequency for voltage and current.
Explanation. Look at a diagram of a power wave.

Question Number. 24. In an AC circuit, the effective voltage is.

Option A. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Option B. equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Option C. greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Correct Answer is. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
Explanation. Effective voltage is another term for RMS voltage, due to it being equal to the DC heating effect.

Question Number. 25. Which wave form is stepped positive and negative with unequal length sides?.
Option A. Rectangular wave.
Option B. Trapezoidal wave.
Option C. Saw tooth wave.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoidal wave.
Explanation. A trapezoidal waveform ALWAYS has unequal (vertical) sides. However, a sawtooth wave could also be considered to
have unequal length sides (but does not necessarily have).

Question Number. 26. The value of an AC sine wave that will give an equivalent heating effect in a DC resistor is the.
Option A. peak value.
Option B. RMS value.
Option C. average value.
Correct Answer is. RMS value.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. The peak factor for a sine wave is.
Option A. 1.11.
Option B. 0.707.
Option C. 1.414.
Correct Answer is. 1.414.
Explanation. Peak factor (sometimes called 'crest factor') is calculated by peak value/RMS value. For a sine wave it is 1.414.

Question Number. 28. An integrated step input at unequal time base produces.
Option A. a sine wave.
Option B. a square wave.
Option C. a saw tooth wave.
Correct Answer is. a saw tooth wave.
Explanation. Integrating a step input produces a 'ramp' or sawtooth waveform.

Question Number. 29. The mark-to-space ratio of the waveform shown is.

Option A. A to D / D to E.
Option B. D to E / D to C.
Option C. A to B / B to C.
Correct Answer is. A to D / D to E.
Explanation. Mark-to-space is the ratio of the duration of the square wave's positive amplitude (represented by a mark) to its
negative amplitude (represented by a space).
Question Number. 30. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is.
Option A. 1.1.
Option B. 1.414.
Option C. 0.707.
Correct Answer is. 1.1.
Explanation. Form Factor = RMS / Average = 0.707 / 0.63 (for a sine wave).

Question Number. 31. A sine wave of RMS value 7.07 volts has a peak to peak value of.
Option A. 20.0 volts.
Option B. 10.0 volts.
Option C. 0.707 volts.
Correct Answer is. 20.0 volts.
Explanation. Peak = RMS * 1.414 7.07 * 1.414 = 10V Peak-to-peak = 2 * peak = 20V.

Question Number. 32. The true power in an AC circuit is given by.

Option A. volts * amps.
Option B. PF * volts * amps.
Option C. voltmeter reading * PF.
Correct Answer is. PF * volts * amps.
Explanation. True power = PF * Apparent power. Apparent power = volts * amps.

Question Number. 33. The average value of 100 volts peak AC is.
Option A. 70.7 volts.
Option B. 141.4 volts.
Option C. 63.7 volts.
Correct Answer is. 63.7 volts.
Explanation. Average value of a sine wave is 0.637 * peak.
Question Number. 34. The RMS value of 200 volts peak to peak is.
Option A. 127.4 volts.
Option B. 70.7 volts.
Option C. 141.4 volts.
Correct Answer is. 141.4 volts.
Explanation. RMS = 0.707 * peak. Peak is 1/2 of peak-to-peak.

Question Number. 35. The power factor of an AC circuit is the.

Option A. cosine of the phase angle.
Option B. tangent of the phase angle.
Option C. sine of the phase angle.
Correct Answer is. cosine of the phase angle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. The Form Factor of an AC waveform can be found by.
Option A. RMS value divided by the average value.
Option B. average value divided by the RMS value.
Option C. average value times the RMS value.
Correct Answer is. RMS value divided by the average value.
Explanation. Form Factor = RMS / Average.

Question Number. 37. A differentiator has a time constant which is.

Option A. long.
Option B. equal to the input pulse.
Option C. short.
Correct Answer is. short.
Explanation. A differentiator provides a voltage proportional to the rate of change of the input. So for a square wave input, it needs
to give a pulse on the step up, nothing on the straight bit of the square wave, then a negative pulse as the input drops back to zero.
Only a very short time constant can do this.

Question Number. 38. If the frequency is increased in an AC circuit of pure resistance, the effect is.
Option A. nothing.
Option B. decreased resistance.
Option C. increased resistance.
Correct Answer is. nothing.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 39. What sort of wave would be used in a CR oscilloscope to control sweep?.
Option A. Square.
Option B. Sine wave.
Option C. Sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth.
Explanation. A sawtooth wave is used in an oscilloscope to control sweep.

Question Number. 40. If an AC sine wave has an RMS value of 5V its peak value is.
Option A. 6.37 V.
Option B. 7.07 V.
Option C. 14.14 V.
Correct Answer is. 7.07 V.
Explanation. Peak value = 1.414 * RMS = 1.414 * 5 = 7.07 V.

Question Number. 41. Apparent power in an AC circuit is found by.

Option A. V * I * cosØ.
Option B. V * I * sinØ.
Option C. V * I.
Correct Answer is. V * I.
Explanation. Apparent power = amps * volts.

Question Number. 42. A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds, what is its frequency?.
Option A. 200 Hz.
Option B. 2Khz.
Option C. 20Khz.
Correct Answer is. 2Khz.
Explanation. Frequency is 1/time period. Watch that prefix 'milli'. f = 1/T = 1/0.0005 = 10,000/5 = 2000 Hz = 2 kHz.

Question Number. 43. Phase angle is.

Option A. the cosine of the peak value of an ac voltage.
Option B. the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a current.
Option C. the difference in degrees between the positive and negative parts of an AC sine wave.
Correct Answer is. the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a current.
Explanation. Phase angle is the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a current.

Question Number. 44. The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in.

Option A. ohms.
Option B. kilovolt-amperes.
Option C. amperes.
Correct Answer is. ohms.
Explanation. Impedance is 'resistance to electron flow' in an AC circuit and is measured in Ohms.
Question Number. 45. What happens to the current in a series resistive resonant circuit?.
Option A. It is maximum.
Option B. It is minimum.
Option C. It is zero.
Correct Answer is. It is maximum.
Explanation. At resonance the impedance is minimum (zero apart from the resistance in the circuit) and so current is highest.

Question Number. 46. A circuit has 115 V RMS, 2.5A at 60 degrees, what is the power dissipated?.
Option A. 79 W.
Option B. 300 VA.
Option C. 143 W.
Correct Answer is. 143 W.
Explanation. Apparent Power = 115 * 2.5 = 287.5. PF = cos 60 = 0.5. True Power = Apparent Power * PF.

Question Number. 47. In a resonant parallel circuit, current is.

Option A. zero.
Option B. minimum.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. minimum.
Explanation. At resonance in a PARALLEL circuit, current is minimum (would be zero if it were not for the resistance in the
circuit).

Question Number. 48. Power factor is.

Option A. sin theta.
Option B. tan theta.
Option C. cos theta.
Correct Answer is. cos theta.
Explanation. Power factor is cos of the phase angle (theta).
Question Number. 49. Peak factor in a standard AC circuit is.
Option A. 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage.
Option B. 1.11 times max. value of applied voltage.
Option C. 0.707 time max. value of applied voltage.
Correct Answer is. 1.414 times max. value of applied voltage.
Explanation. Peak Factor (or Crest Factor) = Peak/RMS = 1.414 for a sinusoidal wave.

Question Number. 50. The controlling wave in a CRT is.

Option A. square.
Option B. sawtooth.
Option C. sinusoidal.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth.
Explanation. A sawtooth wave is required to control the electron beam vertical and horizontal scan.

Question Number. 51. A wave form having equal amplitude and time base is a.
Option A. rectangular.
Option B. sawtooth.
Option C. square waveform.
Correct Answer is. square waveform.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 52. The Sine wave signals of a circular time base are.
Option A. in phase.
Option B. phase separated by 90°.
Option C. phase separated by 180°.
Correct Answer is. phase separated by 90°.
Explanation. The two sine wave time bases (X and Y) for a CRT are displaced by 90° to produce a circle on the screen.

Question Number. 53. A differentiator has a time constant that will give.
Option A. a long pulse.
Option B. a short pulse.
Option C. a continuous output.
Correct Answer is. a short pulse.
Explanation. A differentiator turns a ramp signal into a steady state (of level corresponding to the slope of the ramp).

Question Number. 54. What is the power factor in a purely resistive circuit?.
Option A. Equal to 1.
Option B. Less than 1 but greater than zero.
Option C. Greater than 1.
Correct Answer is. Equal to 1.
Explanation. NIL.

14. Resistive (R), Capacitive (C) and Inductive (L) Circuits.

Question Number. 1. In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?.

Option A. Inductive elements may be damaged.
Option B. Capacitive elements may be damaged.
Option C. There will be no effect.
Correct Answer is. Inductive elements may be damaged.
Explanation. Lower frequency will decrease the reactance of the inductor which will increase its current, possibly damaging it.

Question Number. 2. What is the relationship between the voltage and the current in an A.C circuit containing resistance and
inductance?.
Option A. Current lags voltage by 90°.
Option B. Current lags voltage by up to 90°.
Option C. Current leads voltage by up to 90°.
Correct Answer is. Current lags voltage by up to 90°.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'. But lag is not quite 90 degrees because of the resistance in the circuit.

Question Number. 3. In this circuit.

Option A. current = voltage.

Option B. current lags voltage.
Option C. current leads voltage.
Correct Answer is. current leads voltage.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'.

Question Number. 4. Power factor relates to.

Option A. horsepower and Watts.
Option B. KW and KVAR.
Option C. true power and apparent power.
Correct Answer is. true power and apparent power.
Explanation. Power factor = True Power / Apparent Power.
Question Number. 5. If current lags voltage by 90°, the circuit is.
Option A. resistive.
Option B. capacitive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. inductive.
Explanation. Remember 'CIVIL'.

Question Number. 6. What does the following circuit represent?.

Option A. Low pass filter.

Option B. Differentiator.
Option C. Integrator.
Correct Answer is. Differentiator.
Explanation. An RC circuit with the output taken across the resistor is a differentiator.

Question Number. 7. A low frequency supply.

Option A. will make the circuit operate faster due to the reduced impedance.
Option B. may damage inductive components.
Option C. will have no effect on inductive components.
Correct Answer is. may damage inductive components.
Explanation. Lowering the frequency of the current through an inductive component will reduce its reactance and increase the
current, possibly burning out the component.

Question Number. 8. In a parallel R, L, C circuit, the value of the capacitor is quadrupled, then the value of the impedance
would.
Option A. remain the same.
Option B. reduce.
Option C. increased.
Correct Answer is. reduce.
Explanation. Increasing the capacitor will decrease the capacitive reactance (and therefore the impedance) - just look at the formula
for capacitive reactance. This will decrease the total reactance in the parallel circuit.

Question Number. 9. In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency is increased.

Option A. reactance remains the same.
Option B. impedance increases.
Option C. the current increases.
Correct Answer is. the current increases.
Explanation. Get the formula for capacitive reactance. The current increases because the reactance decreases.

Question Number. 10. In the circuit shown, what happens to the total circuit impedance if L is tripled?.

Option A. Reduces.
Option B. Increases.
Option C. Remains the same.
Correct Answer is. Increases.
Explanation. If the inductance of the inductor is tripled, then its reactance will triple which will increase the impedance of the circuit.
(But not by three times - be careful).

Question Number. 11. In a tuned circuit at resonance, the circuit will be.
Option A. resistive.
Option B. capacitive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. resistive.
Explanation. In a tuned circuit, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactances cancel each other, leaving just pure resistance.

Question Number. 12. A circuit has a resistance of 50 ohms and an inductance of 0.2 Henry. If it is connected to a 200 volt 50
Hz supply the reactance will be.
Option A. 31.42 ohms.
Option B. 62.84 ohms.
Option C. 6.284 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 62.84 ohms.
Explanation. Inductive reactance = 2πfL. 2 * 3.14 * 50 * 0.2 = 62.84 ohms. Since it asks for reactance (not impedance) you can
neglect the resistance of 50 ohms.

Question Number. 13. In a vector diagram showing the magnitude and direction of the inductance, capacitance and resistance
in an AC circuit.
Option A. the inductive and capacitance reactance would be additive with the resistance subtractive.
Option B. it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors.
Option C. the inductive reactance would be in opposition to the capacitive reactance and resistance at 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. it is impossible to show values of this kind using vectors. OR the inductive reactance would be in opposition to
the capacitive reactance and resistance at 90 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and current of an AC supply feeding an
inductive and capacitive network is.
Option A. 90 degrees.
Option B. 0 degrees.
Option C. 180 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 0 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a
circuit?.
Option A. Inductance and frequency.
Option B. Resistance and capacitive reactance.
Option C. Resistance and voltage.
Correct Answer is. Inductance and frequency.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. When a circuit with a series inductance and capacitance is at resonant frequency.
Option A. the current in the circuit decreases.
Option B. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with the current.
Option C. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage leads the current by exactly 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with the current.
Explanation. At resonance, the capacitive reactance and the inductive reactance cancel each other, leaving a circuit with a phase
angle of zero degrees.
Question Number. 17. A pure capacitor, inductor and resistor are connected in series and the voltage drops across each are 10V
and the total current flowing in the circuit is 1A. How much true power is the circuit consuming?.
Option A. 30VA.
Option B. 30W.
Option C. 10W.
Correct Answer is. 10W.
Explanation. Get the formula for resonant frequency. Tricky calculation to do without a calculator though.

Question Number. 18. If a capacitor 1µF and an inductor 10mH are connected in parallel what is their approximate resonant
frequency?.
Option A. 1.6 kHz.
Option B. 62 Hz.
Option C. 3.2 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 1.6 kHz.
Explanation. Get the formula for resonant frequency. Tricky calculation to do without a calculator though.

Question Number. 19. Current in an inductive circuit will.

Option A. lag voltage.
Option B. lead voltage.
Option C. be at unity.
Correct Answer is. lag voltage.
Explanation. Remember CIVIL.

Question Number. 20. The impedance of a series tuned circuit at resonance is.
Option A. zero.
Option B. minimum.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. minimum.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. In an inductive resistive circuit, 1 amp flows from a supply of 100V dissipating 50 Watts of power. The
phase angle is.
Option A. 60°.
Option B. 90°.
Option C. 45°.
Correct Answer is. 60°.
Explanation. Apparent power = amps * volts = 1 * 100 = 100VA. But True power = 50W. Power Factor = TP/AP = 50/100 = 0.5.
Also, PF = COSINE of phase angle. 0.5 = COSINE of phase angle. Phase angle is therefore 60 degrees.

Question Number. 22. In the circuit shown, impedance will be.

Option A. 5 ohms.
Option B. 9 ohms.
Option C. 7 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 5 ohms.
Explanation. Draw the vector diagram and find the resultant by Pythagoras - it is a 3-4-5 triangle.
Question Number. 23. In the circuit shown, if the frequency is increased from zero to resonant frequency, the circuit current
would.

Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. stay the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance is a minimum (and equal only to the resistance of the resistor in the circuit).

Question Number. 24. The true power developed in this circuit is.

Option A. 20W.
Option B. 50W.
Option C. 12W.
Correct Answer is. 12W.
Explanation. True power is only in the resistor = I2 R = 2x2x3 = 12W.
Option A.
Option A.
Option A.
Question Number. 25. In a series LCR circuit at resonance, R = 100 ohms, L and C are each 10 ohms. The total impedance is.

Option A. zero ohms.

Option B. 100 ohms.
Option C. 30 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 100 ohms.
Explanation. Resultant reactance (XL-XC) is 10-10 = 0 ohms. So the total impedance of the circuit is the remaining 100 ohm
resistor.

Question Number. 26. In a high Q parallel resonant circuit, what happens to impedance if capacitance is increased by a factor
of 4?.
Option A. It increases by factor of 4.
Option B. It reduces by 75%.
Option C. It remains the same.
Correct Answer is. It reduces by 75%.
Explanation. Impedance cannot be any higher in a parallel circuit at resonance. If capacitance is changed, circuit will no longer be at
resonance and impedance will drop.

Question Number. 27. A parallel circuit at resonance has its impedance at a.

Option A. maximum.
Option B. zero.
Option C. minimum.
Correct Answer is. maximum.
Explanation. Parallel circuit - impedance is maximum at resonance.

Question Number. 28. The formula for impedance in a series circuit is the root of.
2 2
Option A. R + (XC-XL) .
Option B. R2 -(XL-XC)2 .
Option C. R2 + (XL-XC)2 .
Correct Answer is. R2 + (XL-XC)2 .
Explanation. XL is normally considered to be positive reactance and XC negative reactance. So formula is with XL-XC (not XC-
XL).

Question Number. 29. In this circuit applied voltage is.

Option A. V = IXL.
Option B. V = I/R.
Option C. V = IXC.
Correct Answer is. V = IXC.
Explanation. V = I * XC (from Ohm's Law).

Question Number. 30. In a parallel LCR circuit, if the capacitance is increased by 4 times, what happens to the impedance of
the capacitor?.
Option A. increases by 4 times.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. decreases by 75%.
Correct Answer is. decreases by 75%.
Explanation. Presumably this is referring to the impedance of the capacitor alone, which would reduce to 1/4 as X = 1/2πfC. The
impedance of the parallel circuit would reduce also, but how much depends upon the relative size of the other components.

Question Number. 31. If the frequency to a capacitor increases, the current through it.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is zero.
Correct Answer is. is zero.
Explanation. If it really does mean 'through' it, the answer is zero, as no current goes 'through' a capacitor regardless of its frequency.
However, if it means the current in the circuit, the capacitive reactance will go down, thus its current will go UP.

Question Number. 32. If in a electrical circuit there is a difference between the capacitive reactance and the inductive
reactance, what would the power factor of the circuit be?.
Option A. More than unity.
Option B. Less than unity.
Option C. Unity.
Correct Answer is. Less than unity.
Explanation. Power Factor is always less than one (unity).

Question Number. 33. In a Series LC circuit if the value of the capacitance is increased then the power factor will be.
Option A. greater than 1.
Option B. less than 1.
Option C. equal to 1.
Correct Answer is. less than 1.
Explanation. The power factor is always less than 1 unless the circuit is at resonance.
Question Number. 34. What is the current in the circuit with a resistance of 8 ohms, inductive reactance of 12 ohms, capacitive
reactance of 18 ohms with 20 volts applied across it?.
Option A. 10 amps.
Option B. 1 amp.
Option C. 2 amps.
Correct Answer is. 2 amps.
Explanation. Calculate the total impedance Z = √(36 + 64) = 10 and then use formula V = Z * I to find current.

Question Number. 35. A circuit containing a resistor, capacitor and inductor where resonant frequency is met, what will the
impedance of the circuit be?.
Option A. Maximum.
Option B. Resistance across the resistor.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Resistance across the resistor.
Explanation. The XL and XC cancel at resonance, leaving only the R.

15. Transformers.

Question Number. 1. How many turns does the secondary winding of a 2:1 step-up transformer have?.
Option A. Less than primary.
Option B. More than primary.
Option C. Less turns but with thicker wire.
Correct Answer is. More than primary.
Explanation. Clearly using British notation of Secondary:Primary.

Question Number. 2. To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would.

Option A. increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Option B. reduce the number of turns on the primary winding.
Option C. reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Correct Answer is. reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
Explanation. Read up on transformer losses.

Question Number. 3. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer is delta / star wound, what will
the line voltage output be?.
Option A. 115V.
Option B. 346V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. Star wound output - line voltage is 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 4. A Transformer with 115V primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load 24V 45
amps) is used, what is the current drawn?.
Option A. 205 amps.
Option B. 4.5 amps.
Option C. 9 amps.
Correct Answer is. 9 amps.
Explanation. When the voltage is stepped DOWN, the current has been stepped UP. So with a 45A output current on a 5:1
transformer.

Question Number. 5. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is.
Option A. 1:6.
Option B. 1/6.
Option C. 6:1.
Correct Answer is. 6:1.
Explanation. Turns ratio is Secondary:Primary (using British notation).
Question Number. 6. The point of coercivity occurs when the.
Option A. magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being applied.
Option B. magnetizing force reaches a peak positive or negative value.
Option C. magnetizing force applied causes the material to become magnetically saturated.
Correct Answer is. magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being applied.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer.

Option A. is delta wound.
Option B. could be either delta or star wound.
Option C. is star wound.
Correct Answer is. could be either delta or star wound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual inductance will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain the same.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. Transformer ratio (which is dependant upon the mutual inductance) is not a function of frequency.

Question Number. 9. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power will be.
Option A. 460 V at 0.25 A.
Option B. 28.5 V at 16 A.
Option C. 28.5 V at 4 A.
Correct Answer is. 28.5 V at 4 A.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 Ω resistance. The primary coil has 1kΩ
resistance. How many turns does the primary coil have?.
Option A. 15,000.
Option B. 1,500,000.
Option C. 150,000
Correct Answer is. 15,000.
Explanation. Turns ratio = square root of the impedance ratio.

Question Number. 11. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the secondary winding?.
Option A. star only.
Option B. either delta or star.
Option C. delta only.
Correct Answer is. either delta or star.
Explanation. The opposite type of winding is preferred because this reduces interference between the two. However, the connecting
circuits may dictate which is used - either way, any combination is possible.

Question Number. 12. A step up transformer has.

Option A. two windings.
Option B. one winding.
Option C. three windings.
Correct Answer is. two windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no load. What is the core loss at full
load?.
Option A. 200 W.
Option B. 0 W.
Option C. 220 W.
Correct Answer is. 200 W.
Explanation. Since the flux is (almost) the same when on load as it is off load, the core loss is the same. (However, copper loss will
be greater ON load because of the higher current).

Question Number. 14. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms and 1500 turns. For the primary
winding to have an impedance of 1 kilohm, how many turns must it have?.
Option A. 15,000.
Option B. 1,500,000.
Option C. 150,000
Correct Answer is. 15,000.
Explanation. Turns ratio = square root of impedance ratio.

Question Number. 15. Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by.
Option A. decreasing the thickness of the laminates.
Option B. making the core from a solid block.
Option C. increasing the thickness of the laminates.
Correct Answer is. decreasing the thickness of the laminates.
Explanation. To reduce eddy currents, the thinner the laminates, the better.

Question Number. 16. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the loss will be.
Option A. 440 Watts.
Option B. 110 Watts.
Option C. 55 Watts.
Correct Answer is. 55 Watts.
Explanation. Since copper loss is given by I2R, if the load doubles, the copper loss will quadruple. So it must have been 55 Watts on
half load to be 220Watts on full load. (Note: Core loss does not change with load).
Question Number. 17. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?.
Option A. measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.
Option B. the output voltage will be high.
Option C. the transformer will get hot in normal operation.
Correct Answer is. the transformer will get hot in normal operation.
Explanation. Copper loss (heat) is given by I2R. If some turns are shorted together, the resistance (R) goes down and the current (I)
goes up. But since the current is squared, the heat loss will increase on a square law.

Question Number. 18. Eddy currents in a transformer can be reduced by.

Option A. using a single solid piece of metal.
Option B. laminations.
Option C. using a special non metallic material.
Correct Answer is. laminations.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?.
Option A. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
Option B. primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary.
Option C. primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary.
Correct Answer is. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. A transformer should always have its.

Option A. primary shorted or off load.
Option B. secondary shorted or on load.
Option C. secondary open circuit or on load.
Correct Answer is. secondary open circuit or on load.
Explanation. If you short out the secondary winding, the primary will burn out.

Question Number. 21. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?.
Option A. secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
Option B. primary turns × secondary turns.
Option C. primary turns ÷ secondary turns.
Correct Answer is. secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
Explanation. If the American version of turns ratio is used it is Primary:Secondary. English notation is Secondary:Primary.

Question Number. 22. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as many loops as the primary coil will
be.
Option A. less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil.
Option B. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil.
Option C. greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil.
Correct Answer is. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil. OR greater and the amperage less than in the primary
coil.
Explanation. It is a step up transformer. The voltage is therefore stepped up and the current stepped down by the same ratio. It must
do this because the power (IV) is the same in the primary and secondary (neglecting efficiency).

Question Number. 23. The area of a hysteresis loop is proportional to the.

Option A. energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of magnetization and demagnetization.
Option B. relative permeability of the material being magnetized.
Option C. energy absorbed in completely demagnetizing the material.
Correct Answer is. energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of magnetization and demagnetization.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. In transformer operation, hysteresis losses are.
Option A. current overcoming coil resistance.
Option B. induced current in the iron core.
Option C. energy wasted in reversing core magnetization.
Correct Answer is. energy wasted in reversing core magnetization.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. What causes a transformer to be noisy?.

Option A. High core losses.
Option B. An air gap in the core.
Option C. High coil resistance.
Correct Answer is. An air gap in the core.
Explanation. An air gap in the magnetic core causes noise.

Question Number. 26. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 24V output. What is the input?.
Option A. 120 V DC.
Option B. 4.8 V AC.
Option C. 120 V AC.
Correct Answer is. 120 V AC.
Explanation. 5:1 is step down. So input must be 5 * 24 = 120 V. Transformers only work on AC.

Question Number. 27. Copper losses in a transformer are caused by.

Option A. the resistance in the windings.
Option B. wasting of the copper wires due to friction.
Option C. circulating currents through the transformer.
Correct Answer is. the resistance in the windings.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. The copper loss on a single phase transformer is 25 Watts on full load. What will it be on half load?.

Option A. 5 Watts.
Option B. 6.25 Watts.
Option C. 12.5 Watts.
Correct Answer is. 6.25 Watts.
Explanation. Copper loss = I2 R . So halve the current (load) and you reduce the copper loss to 1/4.

Question Number. 29. A transformer is designed to operate at 60 Hz. It is connected across a 50 Hz supply. The primary
windings would.
Option A. draw more current.
Option B. draw the same current.
Option C. draw less current.
Correct Answer is. draw more current.
Explanation. The inductive reactance decreases with a decreased frequency - so it will draw MORE current.

Question Number. 30. A current transformer, when disconnected from a circuit must be.
Option A. left open circuit.
Option B. short circuited.
Option C. have a resistor connected across the terminals.
Correct Answer is. short circuited.
Explanation. Current transformers must be short circuited when disconnected.
Question Number. 31. What is the reflected impedance in the primary of the transformer circuit shown?.

Option A. 20 ohms.
Option B. 500 ohms.
Option C. 50 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 500 ohms.
Explanation. Turns ratio = √(turns ratio). 10/1 = √Zin/5. 100 = Zin/5 Zin = 500.

Question Number. 32. A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz.

Option A. may be used at any other frequency.
Option B. may only be used at the rated frequency or above.
Option C. may only be used at the rated frequency or below.
Correct Answer is. may only be used at the rated frequency or above.
Explanation. Since the reactance of the primary coil decreases with decreasing frequency, using below the rated frequency may
damage it due to increased current flow.

Question Number. 33. The dots on the transformer symbol shown are called, and indicate.
Option A. phasing dots, point that have the opposite polarity at the same moment in time.
Option B. phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment in time.
Option C. quadrature dots, points are 90o out of phase.
Correct Answer is. phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment in time.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. A transformer is built with a material having a.

Option A. high coercive force.
Option B. wide hysteresis loop.
Option C. narrow hysteresis loop.
Correct Answer is. narrow hysteresis loop.
Explanation. The area of the hysteresis loop is the power lost in repeatedly reversing the magnetism.

Question Number. 35. In a circuit which possesses mutual inductance, current is increased to the primary.
Option A. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which opposes the increase in flux due to
the increase of current in the primary.
Option B. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which assists the increase in flux due to
the increase of current in the primary.
Option C. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit whose flux has no effect on the flux in
the primary.
Correct Answer is. the induced EMF in the secondary produces a current in the secondary circuit which opposes the increase in
flux due to the increase of current in the primary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. When connected to a 100 V
supply, the output is.
Option A. 500 V.
Option B. 25 V.
Option C. 20 V.
Correct Answer is. 20 V.
Explanation. 5:1 step down. 100/5 = 20V.

Question Number. 37. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. The secondary supplies 20V
and is connected to a 10 ohm load. The primary current is.
Option A. 0.4 amps.
Option B. 2 amps.
Option C. 10 amps.
Correct Answer is. 0.4 amps.
Explanation. Secondary current = V/R = 20/10 = 2A. Primary current = 2A/5 = 0.4A.

Question Number. 38. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What value of load resistance would be
required to give a reflected impedance of 1000 ohms?.
Option A. 4 kilohm.
Option B. 1 kilohm.
Option C. 16 kilohm.
Correct Answer is. 16 kilohm.
Explanation. Impedance matching formula, Turns Ratio = √(Impedance Ratio).

Question Number. 39. An autotransformer windings are.

Option A. wired in parallel.
Option B. on separate formers.
Option C. connected.
Correct Answer is. connected.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?.
Option A. Zero voltage.
Option B. Phase voltage.
Option C. Combined line voltages.
Correct Answer is. Zero voltage.
Explanation. The neutral line is grounded.

Question Number. 41. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turns ratio will have what primary supply?.
Option A. 120 V AC.
Option B. 48 V AC.
Option C. 120 V DC.
Correct Answer is. 120 V AC.
Explanation. 5:1 is step down, so the supply voltage must be 5 * 24 = 120 VAC (AC because transformers don't work with DC).

Question Number. 42. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the secondary. What would be the
line voltage if the transformer were Delta/Star connected?.
Option A. 200V.
Option B. 450V.
Option C. 346V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. It is a 10:1 step down transformer. Phase voltage in secondary = 200V. With star wound secondary, line voltage = 1.73
* 200 = 346V.

Question Number. 43. The line voltage in a Wye wound transformer is.
Option A. root 3 / phase voltage.
Option B. root 3 * phase voltage.
Option C. the same as phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. root 3 * phase voltage.
Explanation. Line voltage = root 3 * phase voltage in a Wye (star) wound transformer.

Question Number. 44. Eddy current losses in a transformer are.

Option A. magnetic flows induced into the core.
Option B. current used in magnetising the core.
Option C. hysteresis losses.
Correct Answer is. magnetic flows induced into the core.
Explanation.

Question Number. 45. A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives.

Option A. 30° phase shift.
Option B. 90° phase shift.
Option C. no phase shift.
Correct Answer is. 30° phase shift.
Explanation. A star-delta wound transformer gives a 30 degree phase shift.
Question Number. 46. In a 4:1 step up transformer, what would give a reflected impedance of 1Kilohm?.
Option A. 1 k ohm.
Option B. 16k ohm.
Option C. 4k ohm.
Correct Answer is. 16k ohm.
Explanation. Turns ratio = √(impedance ratio).

Question Number. 47. The input is 115V and is applied across the 300 turn portion of the autotransformer shown. What is the
output?.

Option A. 115V.
Option B. 28V.
Option C. 460V.
Correct Answer is. 460V.
Explanation. Autotransformer 300:1200 ratio 1:4. Output = 4 * 115V.
Question Number. 48. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to 120VAC, if the secondary is
connected to a load with 1600 ohms resistance, what is the current in the primary?.
Option A. 1 amp.
Option B. 0.3 amps.
Option C. 1.2 amps.
Correct Answer is. 1.2 amps.
Explanation. Secondary voltage = 480V, Secondary current = 480/1600 = 0.3A, Primary current = 4 * 0.3 = 1.2A.

Question Number. 49. Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by.

Option A. winding the primary on top of the secondary.
Option B. the use of primary shielding.
Option C. laminating the core.
Correct Answer is. winding the primary on top of the secondary.
Explanation. Flux losses are due to primary flux lines not going through the secondary.

Question Number. 50. To supply a 24volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio, the input required is.
Option A. 4.8V.
Option B. 24V.
Option C. 120V.
Correct Answer is. 120V.
Explanation. Assuming this is a step-down transformer (i.e 5:1 means Primary:Secondary).

Question Number. 51. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?.
Option A. Air core.
Option B. Laminated core.
Option C. Steel Core.
Correct Answer is. Air core.
Explanation. A current transformer uses the generator output cable as its primary, so it must have a hollow (air) core.

Question Number. 52. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?.
Option A. Air core.
Option B. Solid core.
Option C. Laminated core.
Correct Answer is. Laminated core.
Explanation. Laminated core transformers are most efficient.

Question Number. 53. In a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the load on the secondary is 1600
Ohms. What is the current in the primary?.
Option A. 0.075A.
Option B. 1.2A.
Option C. 3A.
Correct Answer is. 1.2A.
Explanation. Voltage in secondary = 4 * 120 = 480V. Current in Secondary = 480/1600 (Ohm's Law) = 3/10A. Current in Primary =
4 * 3/10A = 12/10A = 1.2A (Remember that current is stepped down Primary to Secondary in a step-up transformer).

Question Number. 54. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A flowing
through the secondary what is the efficiency?.
Option A. 90%.
Option B. 95%.
Option C. 85%.
Correct Answer is. 95%.
Explanation. Power in primary = 120 * 3 = 360W. Power in secondary = 1200 * 0.285 = 342W. 342/360 = 0.95.
Question Number. 55. Aircraft autotransformers are of what type?.
Option A. Open core.
Option B. Twin core.
Option C. Laminated core.
Correct Answer is. Laminated core.
Explanation. Pg 60 Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett.

Question Number. 56. An autotransformer is.

Option A. primary and secondary coils.
Option B. primary coil only.
Option C. primary and secondary coils on single bar.
Correct Answer is. primary and secondary coils on single bar.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 57. The windings on a autotransformer are.

Option A. wound on separate legs of core.
Option B. wound with no magnetic core.
Option C. wound with the primary over the secondary.
Correct Answer is. wound with no magnetic core. OR wound with the primary over the secondary.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. How do you reduce Hysteresis loss of a transformer?.

Option A. Wind the coils one over the other and by careful design of the transformer.
Option B. By laminating the core.
Option C. By using a core material which can be easily demagnetised.
Correct Answer is. By laminating the core. OR By usinga core material which can be easily demagnetised.
Explanation. NIL.
16. Filters.

Question Number. 1. Which is a high-pass filter?.

Option A. L type with series L and shunt C.
Option B. L type with series C and shunt L.
Option C. Π type with series C and L.
Correct Answer is. Π type with series C and L.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A high pass filter will.

Option A. allow frequencies above a certain value to pass.
Option B. allow frequencies within a range to pass.
Option C. allow frequencies below a certain value to pass.
Correct Answer is. allow frequencies above a certain value to pass.
Explanation. Read up on filters - especially high pass, low pass, band pass and band stop.

Question Number. 3. A band stop filter.

Option A. attenuates frequencies either side of a narrow range.
Option B. stops a narrow range of frequencies.
Option C. stops frequencies either side of a narrow range.
Correct Answer is. stops a narrow range of frequencies.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. This is a diagram of a.

Option A. high pass filter.
Option B. band pass filter.
Option C. low pass filter.
Correct Answer is. low pass filter.
Explanation. This is a very simple low pass filter, since the capacitor will absorb all high frequencies.

Question Number. 5. A capacitor in series and inductor in parallel make what kind of filter?.
Option A. Low pass.
Option B. Band pass.
Option C. High pass.
Correct Answer is. High pass.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. A high pass filter has.

Option A. high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency.
Option B. high impedance to both high and low frequency.
Option C. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency.
Correct Answer is. high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A circuit with good selectivity will have.
Option A. a large bandwidth.
Option B. a narrow bandwidth.
Option C. a low L/C ratio.
Correct Answer is. a narrow bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. A filter with a small bandwidth has.

Option A. a high value of Q.
Option B. a Q of zero.
Option C. a low value of Q.
Correct Answer is. a high value of Q.
Explanation. Q is the 'quality' of a filter.

Question Number. 9. Band stop filter.

Option A. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band.
Option B. stops frequencies in a narrow band.
Option C. pass all frequencies in that band.
Correct Answer is. attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band.
Explanation. Attenuates means 'to reduce'. No filter will totally stop the unwanted filter band.

Question Number. 10. Band pass filter in a circuit.

Option A. only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass.
Option B. allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass.
Option C. allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass.
Correct Answer is. only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. A high pass filter consists of a.
Option A. capacitor in series and inductor in series.
Option B. capacitor in series and inductor in parallel.
Option C. an inductor in series and a capacitor in parallel.
Correct Answer is. capacitor in series and inductor in parallel.
Explanation. NIL.

17. AC Generators.

Question Number. 1. In an alternating current Star wired system, the phase voltage is 115 volts and the line voltage will be
approximately.
Option A. 200 volts.
Option B. 115 volts.
Option C. 163 volts.
Correct Answer is. 200 volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. An alternating current generator is operating at 50 kVA in a circuit with a power factor of 0.8. The real
power is.
Option A. 40kW.
Option B. 72kW.
Option C. 50kW.
Correct Answer is. 40kW.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. The two factors which govern the output frequency of an AC generator are the.
Option A. the number of poles (in pairs) and the rotor RPM.
Option B. strength of the stator field flux and number of poles.
Option C. speed of rotation of the rotor and the stator field flux strength.
Correct Answer is. the number of poles (in pairs) and the rotor RPM.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a delta-connected generator.

Option A. line voltage = root 3 times phase voltage, line current = phase current.
Option B. line volts = phase volts, line current = phase current divided by root 3.
Option C. line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
Correct Answer is. line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. When measuring the phase and line voltages of a generator, it was found that line and phase voltages
were equal. The generator is?.
Option A. either delta or star wound.
Option B. delta wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. delta wound.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The permanent magnet in an A.C generator induces.

Option A. A.C. in the main generator.
Option B. A.C. in the exciter generator.
Option C. D.C. in the exciter generator.
Correct Answer is. A.C. in the exciter generator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. If the phase voltage in a star connected generator is 200V what will be the line voltage?.
Option A. 115V.
Option B. 346V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 346V.
Explanation. Star connected generator - line voltage is 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 8. A generator is labeled as having 115V/200V, 20A and PF 0.8. What is the apparent power in each line
that the generator can produce?.
Option A. 2.3kVA.
Option B. 2.3kW.
Option C. 4kVA.
Correct Answer is. 4kVA.
Explanation. Apparent power is measured in VA. Line voltage is 200V (always the higher of the two voltages - and the presence of 2
voltages confirms it as star wound). So 200 * 20 = 4 KVA (PF not required).

Question Number. 9. AC generators are rated in.

Option A. kVA.
Option B. kVARs.
Option C. kW.
Correct Answer is. kVA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The frequency of the output of a 4 pole generator is 400 Hz. The generator is turning at.
Option A. 6000 RPM.
Option B. 12000 RPM.
Option C. 3000 RPM.
Correct Answer is. 12000 RPM.
Explanation. Get the formula for frequency.

Question Number. 11. The voltage induced in the stator of an AC generator is produced by.
Option A. an alternating field.
Option B. a rotating magnetic field.
Option C. a fixed magnetic field.
Correct Answer is. a rotating magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. A 30 KVA rated generator has a power factor of 0.8. What is its maximum consistent power?.
Option A. 30 KW.
Option B. 37.5 KW.
Option C. 24 KW.
Correct Answer is. 24 KW.
Explanation. Power factor = true power / apparent power.

Question Number. 13. The three voltages of a three phase generator are connected.
Option A. in series with each other.
Option B. independently of each other.
Option C. in parallel with each other.
Correct Answer is. independently of each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. In a 2 phase generator, how far apart are the windings electrically?.
Option A. 45°.
Option B. 180°.
Option C. 90°.
Correct Answer is. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. Where are the output windings on an AC generator?.

Option A. Rotor with slip rings.
Option B. Rotor with commutator.
Option C. Stator.
Correct Answer is. Stator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be.
Option A. lower than the phase voltage.
Option B. higher than the phase voltage.
Option C. the same as the phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. the same as the phase voltage.
Explanation. Line and phase voltages are the same with a delta connections (it is the current that is different).

Question Number. 17. An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected generator is.
Option A. the line and phase voltages are equal.
Option B. two potentials are available.
Option C. a balance load is guaranteed.
Correct Answer is. two potentials are available.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. Permanent magnets in an AC generator are.

Option A. to provide initial excitation.
Option B. to control the frequency.
Option C. to rectify the current.
Correct Answer is. to provide initial excitation.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with electrical power from.
Option A. permanent magnets.
Option B. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings.
Option C. the busbar.
Correct Answer is. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings. OR permanent magnets.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 220.

Question Number. 20. An AC generator's frequency will.

Option A. always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed.
Option B. be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven.
Option C. vary with changes in field strength.
Correct Answer is. be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. A frequency wild AC generator is used for.

Option A. any AC load.
Option B. deicing loads.
Option C. instruments and navigation.
Correct Answer is. deicing loads.
Explanation. Frequency wild can only be used on resistive circuits (heating and lighting).
Question Number. 22. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type, with
each revolution of the rotor?.
Option A. Six.
Option B. Four.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. Each pair of poles produces 1 cycle.

Question Number. 23. The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for.
Option A. driving AC operated instruments.
Option B. supplying non-inductive loads.
Option C. the AC supply instead of using inverters.
Correct Answer is. supplying non-inductive loads.
Explanation. Variable frequency (frequency wild) can only be used for resistive loads (i.e. non inductive and non capacitive).

Question Number. 24. In a single phase AC generator, frequency is determined by.

Option A. the number of pairs of poles.
Option B. controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings.
Option C. the generator speed.
Correct Answer is. controlling the current flow through the voltage field windings. OR the generator speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. The amount of electrical power for a given generator weight is.
Option A. greater for AC generator.
Option B. determined by the size of the aircraft.
Option C. greater for DC generator.
Correct Answer is. greater for AC generator.
Explanation. This is one of the advantages of AC power.
Question Number. 26. On a typical AC generator the output is taken.
Option A. direct from the rotor via slip rings.
Option B. direct from the stator windings.
Option C. direct from the exciter.
Correct Answer is. direct from the stator windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. An AC generator is producing the required voltage but a higher frequency than that required. To remedy
this, the following action must be taken?.
Option A. Decrease the speed of the prime mover.
Option B. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then decrease the strength of the field.
Option C. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the strength of the field.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the strength of the field.
Explanation. Decreasing the speed of the prime mover decreases the frequency, but it also decreases the output voltage. So you must
then return the output voltage to the required level by increasing the generator field strength.

Question Number. 28. In a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the neutral point and earth is.
Option A. equal to line volts.
Option B. zero volts.
Option C. equal to phase volts.
Correct Answer is. zero volts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. The power output of an AC parallel generator system is measured in.
Option A. KW / KVARS.
Option B. amperes.
Option C. KVA.
Correct Answer is. KVA.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. The shape of the output waveform of an AC generator is known as a.
Option A. sine wave.
Option B. frequency wave.
Option C. cosine wave.
Correct Answer is. sine wave.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. The sum of the instantaneous E.M.F.'s in a three phase system is.
Option A. three times the phase voltage.
Option B. zero.
Option C. equal to the line voltage.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. Look at a diagram of 3 phases. Add up all three at any vertical line and it always comes to zero.

Question Number. 32. One revolution of a three phase generator will produce.
Option A. 1 cycle.
Option B. 3 cycles.
Option C. 2 cycles.
Correct Answer is. 1 cycle.
Explanation. Although there are three phases, they are considered separate - so one cycle is generated per revolution.

Question Number. 33. The 'A' phase of a three phase power system is colour coded.
Option A. red.
Option B. blue.
Option C. yellow.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. The tolerance of the AC generator frequency is.

Option A. 10 Hz.
Option B. 40 Hz.
Option C. 20 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 20 Hz.
Explanation. +/-10Hz (for paralleling of generators).

Question Number. 35. The voltage of an AC generator.

Option A. rises to max in one direction and remains.
Option B. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction.
Option C. rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction.
Correct Answer is. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction. OR rises to max in one direction then
falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. A generator supplies 25 A, 4 V and 50 W. What is the apparent power and the power factor?.
Option A. 400 VA and 0.5.
Option B. 100 VA and 2.
Option C. 100 VA and 0.5.
Correct Answer is. 100 VA and 0.5.
Explanation. PF = true power / apparent power. Apparent power = IV = 100 VA. PF = 50/100 = 0.5.
Question Number. 37. A conventional aircraft generator will be.
Option A. delta wound.
Option B. series wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. star wound.
Explanation. Star wound will give 2 choices of voltage. Aircraft never use series wound generators.

Question Number. 38. Power factor of a generator is.

Option A. tan ø.
Option B. cos ø.
Option C. sin ø.
Correct Answer is. cos ø.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 39. In a 3 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?.
Option A. 180°.
Option B. 120°.
Option C. 0°.
Correct Answer is. 120°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?.
Option A. 90°.
Option B. 0°.
Option C. 180°.
Correct Answer is. 90°.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Delta wound line current is.
Option A. equal to phase current.
Option B. root 3 * phase current.
Option C. less than the phase current.
Correct Answer is. root 3 * phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 42. An alternator delivers 500V RMS at 1 ampere. The power factor is 0.8. The true power is.
Option A. 500W.
Option B. 100VA.
Option C. 400W.
Correct Answer is. 400W.
Explanation. Apparent Power = amps * volts = 1 * 500 = 500VA. Power Factor = TP/AP. 0.8 = TP/500. TP = 500 * 0.8 = 400W.

Question Number. 43. On a brushless AC generator, the main rotating field is fed with.
Option A. DC via diodes on the rotor.
Option B. AC.
Option C. AC from the rotating field exciter.
Correct Answer is. DC via diodes on the rotor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 44. Single phase components in a three phase system may be connected between.
Option A. phase A and B only.
Option B. any phase and neutral OR between any two phases.
Option C. phase and neutral only.
Correct Answer is. any phase and neutral OR between any two phases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. A generator rated at 30 KVA and power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of.
Option A. 30 kW.
Option B. 24 kW.
Option C. 48 kW.
Correct Answer is. 24 kW.
Explanation. True Power = PF * Apparent Power = 0.8 * 30 = 24kW.

Question Number. 46. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current would.

Option A. lag.
Option B. be in phase.
Option C. lead.
Correct Answer is. lead.
Explanation. Remember CIVIL.

Question Number. 47. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is.
Option A. DC.
Option B. pulsed.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. The output is AC before it is rectified by the diodes inside the shaft.

Question Number. 48. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from.
Option A. either the rotor or the stator.
Option B. the rotor.
Option C. the stator.
Correct Answer is. the rotor.
Explanation. View Comment/Reference (if available).

Question Number. 49. A frequency wild AC generator system has.

Option A. variable voltage only.
Option B. variable voltage and frequency.
Option C. variable frequency only.
Correct Answer is. variable frequency only.
Explanation. The voltage is held constant by a voltage regulator, which varies the resistance of the field current.

Question Number. 50. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400Hz it must achieve a speed of.
Option A. 6000 RPM.
Option B. 3000 RPM.
Option C. 12000 RPM.
Correct Answer is. 12000 RPM.
Explanation. If it had the minimum of 2 poles (1 pair) it would require 400 revs/sec = 400 * 60 = 24,000 revs/min. With 4 poles (2
pairs), that speed can be halved.

Question Number. 51. The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator.

Option A. is usually star wound.
Option B. is wound in series with the field.
Option C. is usually delta wound.
Correct Answer is. is usually star wound.
Explanation. Star wound is more common due to the provision of two voltages.

Question Number. 52. The power output of a similar sized 3 phase compared to a single phase generator is.
Option A. more.
Option B. same.
Option C. less.
Correct Answer is. more.
Explanation. 3 phase generators are lighter and more compact for their output power.

Question Number. 53. In a voltage equalising circuit the generators are regulated so.
Option A. the higher output is decreased to that of the lower.
Option B. the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are equal.
Option C. the lower output is increased to that of the higher.
Correct Answer is. the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are equal.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 54. In a 3-phase delta wound circuit, line current is.
Option A. same as the phase current.
Option B. the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents.
Option C. in phase with the phase current.
Correct Answer is. the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents.
Explanation. Line current is root 3 * phase current (rules out a). There is a 30 degree phase shift (rules out b). The root 3 is derived
from the vector sum of all three phases.

Question Number. 55. In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is.

Option A. in series with the field.
Option B. delta wound.
Option C. star wound.
Correct Answer is. star wound.
Explanation. The armature is normally Star Wound to give a choice of 2 voltages.
Question Number. 56. If the phase voltage of a star wound generator is 115V, what would be the line to line voltage?.
Option A. 220V.
Option B. 180V.
Option C. 200V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
Explanation. Line to line voltage means 'Line' voltage. For star wound, Line voltage = 1.73 * phase voltage.

Question Number. 57. What are the factors affecting the frequency of an AC generator?.
Option A. Number of pole pairs and rpm.
Option B. Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs.
Option C. Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm.
Correct Answer is. Number of pole pairs and rpm.
Explanation. See formula for frequency of generator output.

Question Number. 58. A generator with more than two phases is known as.
Option A. polyphase.
Option B. multiphase.
Option C. delta phase.
Correct Answer is. polyphase.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition Page 92.

Question Number. 59. A generator supplies 150VAC phase and load is 10 Ohms per phase. What is the phase current ?.
Option A. 25.5 A.
Option B. 1.5 A.
Option C. 15 A.
Correct Answer is. 15 A.
Explanation. I = V/R = 150/10 = 15A.
Question Number. 60. The phases on a three phase AC generator are spaced at.
Option A. 120 degrees.
Option B. 90 degrees.
Option C. 180 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 120 degrees.
Explanation. The phases are equally spaced.

Question Number. 61. Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will.
Option A. reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount.
Option B. reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount.
Option C. increase the terminal voltage by a small amount.
Correct Answer is. reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pg 193 and Electrical Systems for A&Ps Pg 106.

Question Number. 62. Two 3 phase generators operating in parallel with different phase and line voltages will be connected in.

Option A. Parallel configuration.

Option B. star configuration.
Option C. delta configuration.
Correct Answer is. star configuration.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 63. The Stability windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense.
Option A. field oscillations.
Option B. overvolt.
Option C. phase shift.
Correct Answer is. overvolt.
Explanation. Stability Winding CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.4.5 (d).

Question Number. 64. Delta wound alternator currents are.

Option A. the same as line current.
Option B. the same as phase current.
Option C. the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3.
Correct Answer is. the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3.
Explanation. Delta wound Line current = root 3 * phase current.

Question Number. 65. In smaller single or twin engine aircraft the primary DC power is supplied in the form of rectified output
from.
Option A. constant frequency ac generator.
Option B. inverter.
Option C. frequency wild ac generator.
Correct Answer is. frequency wild ac generator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 66. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between.
Option A. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Option B. any phase and earth.
Option C. phase A and B only.
Correct Answer is. any phase and earth or between any two phases.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 67. Under frequency in an AC supply would cause.

Option A. overheating of inductive devices.
Option B. overspeeding of AC motors.
Option C. overvoltage of capacitive devices.
Correct Answer is. overheating of inductive devices.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 68. The line voltage of a 3 phase star connected AC generator is.
Option A. equal to the phase voltage.
Option B. greater than the phase voltage.
Option C. less than the phase voltage.
Correct Answer is. greater than the phase voltage.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 69. In an AC generator of the brushless type the rotating field winding is fed with.
Option A. AC via rotating exciter windings.
Option B. DC via the slip rings from an external supply.
Option C. DC via diodes from the main exciter winding on the rotor.
Correct Answer is. DC via diodes from the main exciter winding on the rotor.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 220.

Question Number. 70. An AC generator is rated at 30 kVA at 0.8 Power Factor: this means that the maximum continuous
output should not exceed.
Option A. 24 KW.
Option B. 30 KW.
Option C. 37.5 KW.
Correct Answer is. 24 KW.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 90.
Question Number. 71. To adjust the voltage of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to.

Option A. alter the reactance of the starter winding circuit.

Option B. alter the field current.
Option C. alter the driving speed.
Correct Answer is. alter the field current.
Explanation. Eismin - Aircraft Electricity & Electronics - page 199.

Question Number. 72. In a Delta connected generator the line current is equal to.
Option A. 1.7 * phase voltage.
Option B. 1.7 * phase current.
Option C. phase current.
Correct Answer is. 1.7 * phase current.
Explanation. NIL.

18. AC Motors.

Question Number. 1. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as supply frequency is called.
Option A. a universal machine.
Option B. a synchronous motor.
Option C. an induction motor.
Correct Answer is. a synchronous motor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. A three phase AC motor is running at speed on constant load. If one phase goes open circuit, the motor
will run at.
Option A. same speed.
Option B. ⅓ speed.
Option C. ⅔ speed.
Correct Answer is. same speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. Shaded poles in an alternating current motor are intended to.
Option A. reduce eddy current losses.
Option B. prevent overshooting.
Option C. facilitate starting.
Correct Answer is. facilitate starting.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. In a 3 phase motor, if 1 phase is lost, the motor.

Option A. runs at 2 thirds speed.
Option B. runs at 1 third speed.
Option C. remains at the same speed.
Correct Answer is. remains at the same speed.
Explanation. The speed of a 3-phase motor is dependent only on the frequency of the power supply.

Question Number. 5. A three-phase motor has the windings.

Option A. 180°apart.
Option B. 120° apart.
Option C. 90° apart.
Correct Answer is. 120° apart.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. To change the direction of a 3-phase induction motor you would.
Option A. swap all of the input connections.
Option B. remove one of the input connections.
Option C. swap two of the stator connections.
Correct Answer is. swap two of the stator connections.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. A capacitor in a single phase AC motor is to.

Option A. provide a phase shift.
Option B. prevent spikes.
Option C. block DC.
Correct Answer is. provide a phase shift.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. The slip speed of an induction motor is.

Option A. stator speed-rotor speed.
Option B. stator speed / rotor speed.
Option C. stator speed + rotor speed.
Correct Answer is. stator speed-rotor speed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. An inductance/resistance motor is.

Option A. restricted to low loads only.
Option B. less efficient than a capacitance motor.
Option C. better than a capacitance motor.
Correct Answer is. less efficient than a capacitance motor.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Third Edition. Page 143.

Question Number. 10. If a connection to a 3-phase AC motor is disconnected, the motor will.
Option A. slow down and stop.
Option B. continue to run.
Option C. stop.
Correct Answer is. continue to run.
Explanation. 3 phase motor, disconnecting a phase will not slow down or stop the motor, since the speed is dependant upon the
frequency and the load (slip). It will however have less torque.

Question Number. 11. The phases in supply to a 2 phase motor are electrically.
Option A. 120 degrees apart from each other.
Option B. 180 degrees apart from each other.
Option C. 90 degrees apart from each other.
Correct Answer is. 180 degrees apart from each other. OR 90 degrees apart from each other.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine.
Option A. 12,000 rpm.
Option B. 6000 rpm.
Option C. 8000 rpm.
Correct Answer is. 12,000 rpm.
Explanation. See formula for speed of an AC motor.

Question Number. 13. A capacitor in a single phase motor is to.

Option A. prevent sparking at the switch.
Option B. provide smoothing.
Option C. provide a phase shift.
Correct Answer is. provide a phase shift.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Slip on a synchronous motor on start is.
Option A. 0 %.
Option B. 100 %.
Option C. 50 %.
Correct Answer is. 100 %.
Explanation. The rotating field commences instantly upon start, but the rotor takes time to 'lock-on'.

Question Number. 15. A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to.
Option A. create a rotating field.
Option B. reduce interference.
Option C. increase efficiency.
Correct Answer is. create a rotating field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. In a 2 phase induction motor the control winding is fed with.
Option A. variable phase AC supply.
Option B. constant phase AC supply.
Option C. DC supply.
Correct Answer is. constant phase AC supply. OR variable phase AC supply.
Explanation. A two phase induction motor used on a servo system uses one fixed reference phase and one control phase. The control
phase is the same frequency as the reference phase (and is constant) but varies in amplitude. When the amplitude goes negative it is
effectively 180 degrees out of phase with the reference phase and the motor turns backwards. More on this subject in module 4.

Question Number. 17. A 3 phase induction motor can be reversed by.

Option A. isolating one phase.
Option B. changing over any two phases.
Option C. reversing the rotor connections.
Correct Answer is. reversing the rotor connections. OR changing over any two phases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the.

Option A. field current.
Option B. armature current.
Option C. pairs of poles.
Correct Answer is. pairs of poles.
Explanation. The number of pairs of poles depends upon the frequency of the supply, which is the only thing which can vary the
speed.

Question Number. 19. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called.
Option A. a synchronous motor.
Option B. a universal motor.
Option C. an induction motor.
Correct Answer is. a synchronous motor.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. In a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is.
Option A. 0%.
Option B. 5%.
Option C. 100%.
Correct Answer is. 0%.
Explanation. Synchronous motors have no slip, at any time.

Question Number. 21. In a two-phase induction motor there are.

Option A. 3 poles.
Option B. 4 poles.
Option C. 2 poles.
Correct Answer is. 4 poles.
Explanation. A pair of poles per phase.

Question Number. 22. The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependant on.
Option A. the strength of the armature current.
Option B. the number of pairs of poles.
Option C. the strength of the field.
Correct Answer is. the number of pairs of poles.
Explanation. Any AC motor's speed is determined by the supply frequency and/or the number of poles. A stronger field or armature
current results in only more torque but not speed. [Link]

Question Number. 23. Motor slip is.

Option A. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.
Option B. a symptom of a weak field.
Option C. a shifting of the MNA of the motor.
Correct Answer is. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.
Explanation. Motor slip is the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.

Question Number. 24. The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is.

Option A. it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate.
Option B. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current.
Option C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.
Correct Answer is. it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.
Explanation. A synchronous motor rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.
Question Number. 25. A simple basic induction motor has.
Option A. good starting torque, poor running torque.
Option B. poor starting torque, good running torque.
Option C. poor starting torque, poor running torque.
Correct Answer is. poor starting torque, good running torque.
Explanation. Starting torque is usually about 60% of maximum. See forum topic 'Induction Motors' for more info.

Question Number. 26. Which of the following applications would require a 'continuously rated' motor?.
Option A. Fuel pump motor.
Option B. Flap drive actuator.
Option C. Cargo door actuator.
Correct Answer is. Fuel pump motor.
Explanation. Most pump motors are 'continuous rated' to provide a constant output.

Question Number. 27. A centrifugal speed switch is used.

Option A. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor.
Option B. to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor.
Option C. to cut out the slow start resistor on an AC motor.
Correct Answer is. to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 143.

Question Number. 28. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to.
Option A. run at the same speed.
Option B. run at 2/3 speed.
Option C. stop.
Correct Answer is. run at the same speed.
Explanation. It will run at the same speed.
Question Number. 29. The controlling phase on a two phase motor is of a.
Option A. variable amplitude.
Option B. fixed amplitude.
Option C. direct current.
Correct Answer is. variable amplitude.
Explanation. Pg 141 Aircraft instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett.

Question Number. 30. The difference in speed between a synchronous motor's rotor and stator is known as.
Option A. phase lag.
Option B. rotor lag.
Option C. slip speed.
Correct Answer is. slip speed.
Explanation. NIL. [Link]

Question Number. 31. What is the purpose of the capacitor used in a single phase AC motor?.
Option A. Smoothing.
Option B. Changing direction of motor.
Option C. Provides a high starting torque.
Correct Answer is. Provides a high starting torque.
Explanation. NIL.

19.

Question Number. 1. Three 5-microfarad capacitors are connected in parallel. What is there total capacitance?.
Option A. 15 microfarad.
Option B. 5 microfarad.
Option C. 1.66 microfarad.
Correct Answer is. 15 microfarad.
Explanation. Capacitance in parallel add up directly.

Question Number. 2. When capacitors are joined in parallel, the total capacitance is.
Option A. less than the smallest of the individual capacitors.
Option B. equal to the sum of the individual capacitors.
Option C. dependant upon the voltage applied.
Correct Answer is. equal to the sum of the individual capacitors.
Explanation. Capacitors in series/parallel theory, is the opposite to resistors in series/parallel theory.

Question Number. 3. If the distance between the two plates of a capacitor is reduced, what will be the effect?.
Option A. Capacitance increases.
Option B. Capacitance decreases.
Option C. Capacitance is unaffected.
Correct Answer is. Capacitance increases.
Explanation. Get a formula for the capacitance of a capacitor. See that 'd' is inversely proportional to the capacitance.

Question Number. 4. The circuit shown is at resonance. If the value of the inductance is trebled, the impedance will.

Option A. stay the same.

Option B. treble.
Option C. reduce by one-third.
Correct Answer is. reduce by one-third.
Explanation. At resonance, the impedance of the L-C pair is maximum. If you upset the L-C balance you destroy the resonance. The
impedance of the L-C pair will then reduce, reducing the impedance of the circuit as a whole (although 'by one-third' is debatable).

Question Number. 5. The strength of the EMF generated by a DC generator is given the formula : E = EMF, B = flux density,
l = length of conductors in the armature, V = velocity of conductors.
Option A. E = (B*l)/V.
Option B. E = B*l*V.
Option C. E = (l*V)/B.
Correct Answer is. E = B*l*V.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. The rotating part of a motor/generator is called.

Option A. commutator.
Option B. armature.
Option C. yoke.
Correct Answer is. armature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. No EMF is induced in the loop of a generator when.

Option A. it is moving at right angles to the field.
Option B. it is moving parallel to the field.
Option C. the field is at a minimum.
Correct Answer is. it is moving parallel to the field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. The instantaneous value of the EMF induced in a rotating wire loop is.
Option A. directly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Option B. indirectly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Option C. directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Correct Answer is. directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the loop and the field.
Explanation. When the loop is laying parallel with the field (0o) there is maximum EMF. Cos0o = 1.

Question Number. 9. One purpose of the commutator is to.

Option A. switch the direction of the current flow every half cycle.
Option B. switch the direction of current flow every cycle.
Option C. switch the direction of current flow every two cycles.
Correct Answer is. switch the direction of the current flow every half cycle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. The power output of a DC generator is governed primarily by.
Option A. its speed of rotation.
Option B. its ability to dissipate heat.
Option C. its method of construction.
Correct Answer is. its ability to dissipate heat.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. A DC machine has internal resistance due to.

Option A. armature windings, brushes and brushes to commutator contact.
Option B. armature windings, brushes and commutator inertia.
Option C. armature windings and brushes.
Correct Answer is. armature windings, brushes and brushes to commutator contact.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Compensation windings are fitted to a generator in.
Option A. series with the field windings.
Option B. parallel with armature windings.
Option C. series with armature windings.
Correct Answer is. series with armature windings.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. Armature reaction has the effect of.

Option A. reducing the output by displacing the geometrical neutral axis.
Option B. reducing the output by distorting the magnetic field.
Option C. reducing the output by increasing internal resistance.
Correct Answer is. reducing the output by distorting the magnetic field.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Reactive sparking maybe overcome by.

Option A. decreasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
Option B. increasing the time constant of the armature by decreasing its resistance.
Option C. increasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
Correct Answer is. decreasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
Explanation. The ratio of armature inductance to its resistance is the electrical time constant of a brush type motor.