20-07-2025

2721CMD303031250023 MD

PHYSICS

1) If y = , then value of is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3log (3x + 4)

2)

(1) 4x3 –2cosx + 3sinx

(2) 3x2 + 2cosx + 3sinx
(3) 4x3 +2cosx – 3sinx
(4) 4x3 –2cosx – 3sinx

3) Which of the following match is correct :-

(i) (a) y = x2

(ii) (b) y = –x2

(iii) (c) x = y2

(iv) (d) x = –y2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Value of is:-

(1) 0
(2) -1
(3) 1/2
(4) 3/2

5) A particle is moving with speed 6 m/s along the direction of , then its velocity is :

(1) units
(2) units
(3) units
(4) units

6) Let = + then :-

(1) | | is always greater then | |

(2) It is possible to have | | < | | and | | < | |
(3) C is always equal to A + B
(4) C is never equal to A + B

7) and Value of would be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
8) If = PQ, then angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

9) The condition is satisfied when :-

(1) is parallel to
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Vectors and are shown in figure. The angle between :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) 105°, 150°, 150°

(2) 105°, 150°, 105°
(3) 150°, 150°, 150°
(4) 105°, 105°, 105°

11) If vectors have magnitudes. 6, 8 and 10 units and , the angle between
and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The angles which vector makes with X, Y and Z axes respectively are :-
(1) 60°, 60°, 60°
(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45°, 60°

13) What is the value of |( + )×( – )| ?

(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2
(3) A2 + B2 + 2AB
(4) None of these

14) If and . The magnitude of F1 and F2 are and respectively.

Find the value of .

(1) Zero
(2) N
(3) 10 N
(4)

15) Which of the following set of forces can produce zero resultant :-

(1) 20 N, 30 N, & 60 N
(2) 20 N, 40 N, & 60 N
(3) 10 N, 20 N & 40 N
(4) 10 N, 10 N & 30 N

16) Statement-I : If and are two vectors then is perpendicular to .

Statement-II : If and are two vectors then is parallel to either or .

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

17) is :

(1) A2 – B2
(2) A2 + B2 – 2AB
(3) 0
(4) A2B – B2A

18)
What happens when we multiply a vector by (–3) ?

(1) Direction reverses and unit changes

(2) Direction reverses and magnitude tripled
(3) Direction and magnitude remains unchanged
(4) Direction remains unchanged but magnitude tripled

19) A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. Consider three points B at the surface, A at
centre and C at a distance R/2 from the centre. The electric potential at these points are such that

(1) VA = VB = VC
(2) VA = VB ≠ VC
(3) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(4) VA ≠ VB = VC

20) Find the electric potential at center of a square from given below :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The electric potential at a distance from the centre of a conducting sphere of charge Q &
radius R will be :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) Variation of potential with distance from centre of uniformly charged non conducting sphere:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following statement is true about the relation between electric field and potential?

(1) Electric field is in the direction in which the potential decreases steepest.
Magnitude of electric field is given by the change in the magnitude of potential per unit
(2)
displacement normal to the equipotential surface at that point.
(3) In the region of strong electric field, equipotential surfaces are far apart.
(4) Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct.

24) Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the electric field strength will be

(1) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis

(2) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis
(3) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(4) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis

25) If there were only one type of charge in the universe, then :-

(1)
on only surface

(2)
if the charge is outside the surface

(3)
could not be defined
(4) None of these

26) Two positively charged particles each having charge Q are d distance apart. A third charge is
introduced in midway on the line joining the two. Find nature and magnitude of third charge, so that

the system is in equilibrium:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Four charges +Q, –Q, +Q and –Q are situated at the corners of a square; in a sequence then at
the centre of the square :-

(1) E=0, V=0

(2) E=0, V 0
(3) E 0, V=0
(4) E 0, V 0

28) Two pith balls each with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are
given equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown. We now increase the charge on
the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentiallty unchanged. Which of the following
diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In the following graph, the magnitude of maximum electric field is :-

(1) 5 V/m
(2) 2.5 V/m
(3) 1.25 V/m
(4) 10 V/m

30) A linear charge having linear charge density λ, penetrates a cube diagonally so as to have
maximum flux and then it penetrates a sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux

coming out of cube and sphere :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) A charge Q is divided into two parts Q1 and Q2 and these charges are placed of a distance R.
There will be a maximum repulsion between them when :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) As shown in fig. the electric field in a region is given by volt/m then the total electric
flux through the cube of side 'a' will be :-

(1) Zero
2
(2) 3 E0a
2
(3) E0a
(4) 3E0

33) Two large metal plates are placed parallel to each other. The inner surfaces of plates are
charged by +σ and –σ (Coulomb/m2). The outer surfaces are neutral. The electric field is ..... in the

region between the plates and ..... outside the plates :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Dipole moment of a short dipole is p. A point charge q is placed at point A. What will be force on

q at point A.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field . The line AB is
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then, which of the following holds good?

(1) VA = VB = VC
(2) VA = VB > VC
(3) VA = VB < VC
(4) VA > VB = VC

36) The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges (A and B) is shown in figure.

Which one of the following statements is correct :-

(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B|

(2) A is –ve and B is +ve and |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B
(4) Both are –ve but A > B

37) 3 charges are placed on the vertex of a regular hexagon of side a. Find the electric field intensity
at point A ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A rod of length L has a total charge Q distributed uniformly along its length. It is bent in the
shape of a semi-circle. Find the magnitude of the electric field at the centre of curvature of the semi-
circle.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

39) Two point charges each of q, are kept at the centre of cube O and vertex A. Find the flux from
shaded face :

(1) 5q / 8ε0
(2) 7q / 24ε0
(3) 2q / ε0
(4) 5q / 24ε0

40) Shown in the figure is a spherical shell with inner radius 'a' and outer radius 'b' which is made of
conducting material. A point charge +Q is placed at the centre of the shell and a total charge –q is

placed on the shell. Charge is distributed on the surfaces as :-

(1) –Q on the inner surface, –q on the outer surface

(2) –Q on the inner surface, –q+Q on the outer surface
(3) +Q on the inner surface, –q–Q on the outer surface
(4) The charge –q is spread uniformly between the inner and outer surfaces.

41) If two bodies attract each other by electric force then :-

(1) Both may be oppositely charged

(2) One may neutral
(3) Both may be like charged
(4) All statements are true

42) Let ‘e’ be charge of an electron. Let point charges be present at vertices of a cube of side ‘a’ &
let ‘F’ be magnitude of force between two electrons separated by distance ‘a’. Which of the following
cannot be the force exerted by any of the charge on any other charge present on vertices of the
cube.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

43) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

44) In fig. value of q (in terms of Q), such that force on charge Q placed at B is zero, is :-

(1) –3.6Q
(2) –2.8Q
(3) –4.2Q
(4) +3.6Q

45)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) What is the hybridization shown by C1 and C2 carbons, respectively in the given compound?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The total number of -bond electrons in the following structure is

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 8

3) IUPAC name of

(1) 2-Cyano-4-methylpentane
(2) 2-Methyl-4-cyanopentane
(3) 2, 4-Dimethyl pentane nitrile
(4) 2-Dimethyl-4-cyanopentane
4) The correct IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxaldehyde
(2) 2~carboxy-5-fonnylecyclohexane
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal

5) The IUPAC name of is:

(1) 3-methylcyclohexene
(2) 1-methylcyclohex-2-ene
(3) 6-methylcyclohexene
(4) 1-methylcyclohex-5-ene

6) The IUPAC name for the formula is:

(1) 2-methylbut-2-enoic acid

(2) 3-methylbut-3-enoic acid
(3) 3-methylbut-2-enoic acid
(4) 2-methylbut-3-enoic acid

7) 3-Butenoic acid (or But-3-enoic acid) is represented as:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8) Total number of olefinic bond and acetylinic bond. In compound respectively.

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 0
(3) 2, 1
(4) 1, 0

9) Find the total no. of Heteroatom in following compound?

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

10) The correct structure of 6-ethyl-2, 3, 5 trimethylnonane is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The correct IUPAC name of the compound

(1) 4-Ethylpent-1-ene
(2) 2-Ethylpent-4-ene
(3) 4-Methylhex-1-ene
(4) 3-Methylhex-1-ene
12) The correct IPUAC name of the compound

(1) 1-Ethenylcyclohexa-2, 4-diene

(2) 5-Ethenylcyclohexa-1, 3-diene
(3) 6-Ethenylcyclohexa-1, 3-diene
(4) Cyclohexa-2, 4-dienylethene

13) IUPAC name of the compound

(1) 1, 1-Dimethyl-2-ethylcyclohexane
(2) 2-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 2, 2-Dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(4) 1-Ethyl-2, 2-dimethylcyclohexane

14) Number of 2° hydrogen in isooctane is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

15) What is the IUPAC name for the following alkyne ?

(1) 5-chloro-2-heptyne
(2) 3-chloro-5-heptyne
(3) 2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexyne
(4) 5-chloro-5-methyl-2-hexyne

16) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 1-Methyl-5-ethylcyclohex-2-ene
(2) 5-Ethyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(3) 4-Ethyl-6-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(4) 1-Ethyl-5-methylcyclohex-3-ene

17) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 4–Bromo–3–cyanophenol
(2) 2–Bromo–5–hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2–Cyano–4–hydroxybromobenzene
(4) 6–Bromo–3–hydroxybenzonitrile

18) The IUPAC name for the compound is :-

(1) Cyclohexanoyl chloride

(2) Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride
(3) 1–Chloro cyclohexanal
(4) Chloro cyclohexyl methanal

19) Structure CH3—CH2—CH=CH2 and are:

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Both chain and position isomers
(4) Not isomers

20)

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Identical

21) Which of the following represent pair of position isomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3—CH2—NH—CH3 and CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2

(4)

22)

(1) Position isomers

(2) Identical
(3) Function group isomers
(4) Chain isomers

23) Double bond equivalent is 10 for which of the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The vapour pressure of pure A is 10 torr and at the same temperature when 1 g of non-volatile
solid B is dissolved in 20 gm of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0 torr. If the molecular mass of
A is 200 amu, then the molecular mass of B is

(1) 110 amu

(2) 90 amu
(3) 75 amu
(4) 120 amu

25) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound X was dissolved in 100 g of
water. Molecular weight of X is : (Kb for water = 0.52 K mol–1)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 100
(4) 342

26) An aqueous solution freezes at – 0.186 °C

(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1; Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1). What is the elevation in boiling point ?

(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512

(3)

(4) 0.0512

27) The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is :-

(1) 0.027
(2) 0.036
(3) 0.018
(4) 0.009

28) During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is :

(1) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(2) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
(3) from solution having lower concentration only
(4) from solution having higher concentration only

29) The vapour pressure of two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mol of Q would be :-

(1) 68 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 72 torr
(4) 20 torr

30) Which of the following plots does not represent the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution :-

(1) Plot of PA versus XA (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) is linear

(2) Plot of PB versus XB is linear
(3) Plot of ptotal versus XA (or XB) is linear
(4) Plot of ptotal versus XA is non linear

31) Assertion (A) :– The molality of the solution doesn't change with change in temperature.
Reason (R) :– The molality is expressed in units of moles per 1000 mL solution.

(1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true

32) A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 g of water freezes at – 0.2°C. Calculate the amount of ice
separate out when it is cooled upto –0.25°C :-

(1) 18 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 25 g
(4) 23 g

33) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing freezing point :-

(1) 0.05 M KNO3 > 0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.075 M CuSO4
0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M sucrose >
(2)
0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.05 M KNO3
0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.140 M sucrose >
(3)
0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.05 M KNO3
0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.05 M KNO3 >
(4)
0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl2

34) The Van't Hoff factor for BaCl2 at 0.01M concentration is 1.98. The percentage dissociation of
BaCl2 at this concentration is –

(1) 49
(2) 69
(3) 89
(4) 98

35) Among the following that forms an ideal solution?

(1) water and methanol

(2) acetone and ethanol
(3) benzene and toluene
(4) water and HCl

36) At 40°C, the vapour pressure (in torr) of methyl alcohol (A) and ethyl alcohol (B) solution is
represented by :P = 120 XA + 138; where XA is mole fraction of methyl alchol. The value of lim
 and are :

(1) 138, 258

(2) 258,138
(3) 120, 138
(4) 138, 125

37) Consider the following vapour pressure-composition graph, SP is equal to :-

(1) PQ + RS
(2) QR + RS
(3) SR + SQ
(4) PQ + QR

38) Match the laws/colligative property given in column-I with their expression in column II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Raoult's Law (a) ΔTf = Kfm

(ii) Henry's Law (b) π = C.R.T

Elevation in boiling
(iii) (c)
point

Depression in
(iv) (d) ΔTb = Kbm
freezing point

(v) Osmotic pressure (e) P = KHx

(1) (i)-c (ii)-e (iii)-d (iv)-a (v)-b
(2) (i)-b (ii)-d (iii)-e (iv)-c (v)-a
(3) (i)-d (ii)-b (iii)-e (iv)-a (v)-c
(4) (i)-e (ii)-c (iii)-b (iv)-a (v)-d

39) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and
6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same partial
pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

40) In a solution, if three molecules of solute undergoes association as : then to evaluate

degree of association 'α' the formula will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the gas will not follow Henry's law?

(1) He
(2) O2
(3) H2
(4) HCl

42) The reaction, 2C + O2 → 2CO is carried out by taking 24 g carbon and 96 g O2. Which one is
limiting reagent ?

(1) C
(2) O2
(3) Both C and O2
(4) None of these

43) 50g of CaCO3 on complete decomposition gives how much volume of gas at STP ? CaCO3(s) —→
CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 5.6 L
(4) 1 L

44) 10 L of Butane (C4H10) on complete combustion will produce ?

(1) 4L of CO2
(2) 20L of CO2
(3) 10L of CO2
(4) 40L of CO2

45) For the reaction; 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce :

(1) 5 mole of C
(2) 4 mole of C
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) 13 mole of C

BIOLOGY

1)

Radial spokes in centrioles, connect the peripheral microtubules :-

(1) With each other

(2) With central tubules
(3) With central hub
(4) With endoplasmic reticulum

2)

Cisternae are found in :

(1) Only mitochondria

(2) Only endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgibodies
(4) Only in golgi bodies

3)

Digestion of old or dead cell organelles termed as -

(1) Heterophagy
(2) Autophagy
(3) Extra celluar digestion
(4) Primary lysosome

4)

Plant Cell and animal cells different in how many given options :-
(A) Cell Wall
(B) Plastids
(C) Large Central Vacuole
(D) Centrosome

(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2
(3) Only 3
(4) All of these

5) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of cell cycle
The metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms of the
(2)
chromosome.
(3) The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm
(4) The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are smaller than the mitochondrial ribosomes.

6) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Meiosis helps in the process of evolution by ensuring the production of haploid phase in the life
cycle of sexually reproducing organisms.
(b) Ribosome, which are found in the power houses of the cell, have their small subunit with the
value of 30 svedberg unit.
(c) In centriole, with the help of radial spokes, the central hub remains connected with one of the
microtubules of each peripheral doublet.
(d) In mitotic anaphase, in a complete cell the number of chromosomes become double but amount
of DNA remains same as G2 phase.
(e) Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce non identical
sister chromatids at the S-phase due to crossing over.
Options :-

(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) b, d

7) The cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells are
formed? ______ modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

(1) Nageli
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Purkinje

8) A mature plant cell has :

(1) Cell wall and protoplasm

(2) Protoplasm and vacuole
(3) Vacuole and cell wall
(4) Protoplasm, cell wall and vacuole

9) From the following, select the statement that is true :-

(1) All cells have a cell wall

(2) Animal cells contain microtubules but plant cells do not have microtubules.
(3) Golgi apparatus is found only in animal cells.
(4) Chloroplasts are found in plant cells but not in prokaryotic or animal cells.

10) Which of the following is wrong about cell membrane.

(1) The membrane of erythrocyte has approximately 52% protein & 40% lipids.
(2) Cholesterol provides stability to the eukaryotic cell membrane
(3) The diameter of cell membrane is about 75 nm
(4) Singer and Nicolson (1972) proposed fluid mosaic model for it.

11) Choose the correct statement :-

(A) Based on the type of pigments leucoplasts can be classified into amyloplasts, elaioplasts and
aleuroplasts
(B) Lysosomes contain almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes
(C) All enzymes of mitochondria are formed inside the cytoplasm
(D) New cell are not produced from pre existing cell

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) B only
(4) A & D

12) Read the following statements :-

(i) Cilia and flagella work like oars
(ii) Cilia are relatively longer than flagella
(iii) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are structurally similar
(iv) Cilia and flagella are covered with plasma membrane in eukaryotes
(v) The core of cilia/flagella is called axoneme which has nine pair of doublets of radially arranged
peripheral microtubules and a pair of centrally located microtubules
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

13) Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?

(1) Cilia contain an outer part of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules.
(2) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane.
(3) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin.

14)

Mitochondria and chloroplast are :-

(a) Semi-autonomous organelles
(b) Formed by division of pre-existing organelles, contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false

15) Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in

(1) G1 phase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) metaphase

16) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle

(2) Cell division is a progressive process
(3) Prophase follows the cytokinesis
(4) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

17) Which of the following does not correctly match with phase of the cell cycle and its function?

(1) Second gap phase- period of cytoplasmic growth.

(2) First gap phase - most of the organelle duplication.
(3) Interphase - phase of preparation for cell division.
(4) DNA synthesis phase - Doubling of number of chromosome in cell.

18)

Which of the following statements about meiosis is false ?

(1) Haploid cells can not divide meiotically

(2) DNA replication does not occur during interkinesis
Assortment of homologous chromosomes on the equatorial plate during metaphase-I is
(3)
independent
Of the four cells produced by meiosis, none are genetically identical to the parent cells but two
(4)
are identical to each other.

19) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of both DNA replication and nuclear division
(2) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
(3) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
(4)
organisms

20) Pick out the correct statement :-

(A) Mitosis takes place in the somatic cells and meiosis takes place in the germ cells
(B) During mitosis, the DNA replicates once for one cell division and in meiosis the DNA replicates
twice for two cell divisions
(C) Mitosis and meiosis occur both in sexually and asexually reproducing organisms

(1) (A) only

(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (B) and (C) only

21) Read the following statement and find out the incorrect statement :-

In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma

(1)
membrane.
Furrow formation starts in the centre of cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral
(2)
walls.
(3) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent plant cells.
During cytokinesis, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the two
(4)
daughter cells.

22) Select the incorrect statement regarding S-phase of interphase :-

(1) Occurs between G1 and G2

(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles

23) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding colchicine ?

(1) It prevent assembly of microtubules

(2) It inhibits chromosome replication
(3) Cell cycle arrest in metaphase
(4) Its called as mitotic poision

24) Assertion A: Meiosis results in the production of four haploid cells from a single diploid cell.
Reason R: During meiosis, there is only one round of DNA replication and two rounds of nuclear
division.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

25) Assertion A: During metaphase, chromosomes are most clearly visible and are at their highest
level of condensation.
Reason R: The nuclear envelope disintegrates completely at the onset of metaphase, allowing
chromosomes to spread throughout the cytoplasm.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

26) Statement-I : Meiosis causes variations in population from one generation to the next.
Statement-II : Variations are very important for the process of evolution.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

27) Select correct statement for meiotic cell cycle :-

(a) Duplication of gene occurs once
(b) Cytokinesis occurs once only
(c) Centriole duplicate twice
(d) Occur in all diploid and haploid cell

(1) b & c
(2) a & c
(3) a & d
(4) c & d

28) Which of the following is wrong about G1 phase ?

(1) G1 phase will be followed by M - Phase

(2) Cell is metabolically active
(3) Cell grows continuously
(4) Cell does not replicate its DNA

29) In a container 2.5 × 1025 bacteria are reproducing by binary fission with rate of 25 minutes. How
many bacteria will be produced after 1 hour 40 minutes.

(1) 40 × 1025
(2) 24 × 1025
(3) 16 × 1025
(4) 4.4 × 1026

30) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication

(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin proteins are synthesised

(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication

 (IV) G2 phase (iv) Centromere split
(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

31) Homologous chromosomes get separated but sister chromatids remain attached during:-

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Anaphase I

32) Proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continuous –

(1) G1-phase
(2) G2-phase
(3) S-phase
(4) Interphase

33) In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be
the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 5 pg
(4) 40 pg

34) If the cell had 2n number of chromosomes at G1, after S phase the number of chromosome
will be-

(1) 2n
(2) 4n
(3) n
(4) 8n

35) Shortest phase of mitosis is :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

36) If the DNA content of a diploid cell is represented as '2C' then the DNA content of gametes
formed by this cell will be :-
(1) C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2
(4) 4C

37) Which one of the following stage is correctly described with its event.

(1) Anaphase I The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate

(2) Diakinesis Beginning of dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

(3) Metaphase Spindle fibres attaches to kinetochore of chromosomes

(4) Zygotene Appearance of recombination nodule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) The given figure shows a diagrammatic view of a stage of mitosis. Find the correct statement

for this stage :-

(1) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identify is lost as discrete elements
The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
(2)
centromeres
(3) Centromere split and chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
(4) Nucleolus, golgicomplex and ER reform.

39) Who among the following is the author of book ‘‘Micrographia’’ ?

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Robert Hooke
(3) Schleiden
(4) Schwann

40) The main difference between animal and plant cell is :-

(1) Plant cell possess ribosome

(2) Animal cell possess vacuole
(3) Animal cell lack rigid cell wall
(4) Plant cell lack rigid cell wall

41) Which of the following is correct regarding arrangement of microtubules in centrioles ?

(1) 9 (doublet) + 2
(2) 9 (Triplet) + 2
(3) 9 (Triplet) + 0
(4) 9 (doublet) + 0

42) If the concentration of magnesium ions in the cell is less than 0.001 M, then it will affect the
synthesis of :-

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Lipids
(4) Vitamines

43) Chloroplasts are called semiautonomous organelles of the cell because they have :-

(1) DNA and RNA

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Enzymes for protein synthesis
(4) All of the above

44) The chloroplasts contain :-

(1) Fat soluble pigments anthocyanin and chlorophylls.

(2) Water soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophylls.
(3) Water soluble pigments chlorophylls and anthocyanin.
(4) Fat soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophylls.

45) In which of the following options, function is correctly matched with their particular cellular
structure ?

Functions Cellular structure

(1) Protein sysnthesis SER

(2) Formation of glycoprotein Golgi body

(3) Autolysis RER

(4) Photosynthesis Vacuole

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
46)

When oxygen supply to tissues is inadequate, the condition is :-

(1) Dyspnoea
(2) Hypercapnoea
(3) Hypoxia
(4) Apnoea

47) Decreased surface area for gaseous exchange occurs in which condition ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational respiratory disorders
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pneumonia

48) Match item in column A with those given in column B.

Column A Column B

(A) Hypocapnoea (i) Destroy the alveolar wall

(B) Anoxia (ii) Difficulty in breathing

Decrease CO2
(C) Tachypnoea (iii)
concentraion in blood.

(D) Asthma (iv) To stop O2 supply in tissue

(E) Emphysema (v) To increase breathing rate

(F) Dyspnoea (vi) Spasm in respiratory tubules.

(1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(vi), F-(iv)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(vi), E-(i), F-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(vi), F-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(iii), F-(i)

49)
Given above are the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curves. Curve 'A' is plotted at a normal body
temperature equivalent to 37°C. Which one of the following is the best possible cause for curve 'B'?

(1) 39°C & [H+]

(2) 39°C & [H+] ↓
(3) 35°C & [H+]
(4) 35°C & [H+] ↓

50)

Read the following statements (A–D).

(A) P50 is inversely proportional to arterial CO2 concentration.
(B) P50 of foetal hemoglobin is more than that of adult hemoglobin.
(C) Increased arterial blood acidity leads to decreased affinity of hemoglobin towards oxygen
binding.
(D) Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is hyperbolic.

How many of the above statements are not incorrect?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

51)

Haemoglobin shows maximum affinity with :-

(1) Ammonia
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Oxygen
(4) Carbon monoxide

52) Which point is incorrect about transport of gases?

(1) Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBC.

(2) About 7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.
(3) About 97 percent of CO2 is transported by plasma of blood.
(4) About 3 percent of O2 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma.

53) Emphysema is a :-

(1) Acute disorder due to cigarette smoking

(2) Chronic disorder due to cigarette smoking
(3) Chronic disorder due to alcohol consumption
(4) Acute disorder due to alcohol consumption

54) What would happen when blood is acidic ?

(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin increases

(2) Red blood corpuscles are formed in higher number
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin decreases
(4) There is no change in oxygen binding nor number of RBC

55) In normal expiration, which muscle contracts :-

(A) Diaphargm
(B) EICM
(C) IICM
(D) Abdominal muscles

(1) A, B and D
(2) C and D
(3) A and C
(4) No muscle contract during expiration

56) Which of the following statement is true ?

The nasal chamber opens into oropharynx which is portion of pharynx and the common passage
(1)
for food and air.
The nasal chamber opens into the pharynx the portion which is common passage for food and
(2)
air.
(3) Pharynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production & is called sound box.
(4) Intrapleural pressure is always more than intrapulmonary pressure

57) When man inhales air with normal concentration of O2 along with carbon monoxide, he suffers
from suffocation because

(1) CO reacts with O2 reducing percentage of O2 in the air

(2) Haemoglobin combines with CO instead of with O2 and product can not dissociate
(3) CO direct affects the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(4) CO affects the nerves innervating the lungs

58) Which one of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. Trachea divides at the level of
5th thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary bronchi.
B. Initial bronchioles are supported by complete cartilaginous rings.
C. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularised
bag-like structure called bronchi.
D. Larynx is a cartilaginous box which help in sound production and hence called the sound box.

(1) A only
(2) B and C only
(3) A, D and C
(4) B, C and D

59)

What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air -

(1) lesser, higher

(2) higher, lesser
(3) higher, higher
(4) lesser, lesser

60) Asthma is caused by :-

(1) Infections of lungs

(2) Infections of trachea
(3) Spasm in bronchial muscles
(4) Infection in nose

61) Read the following statements.

(A) Major cause of it is Cigarette smoking
(B) It is an allergy
(C) Alveolar wall damaged
(D) Respiratory surface is decreased
(E) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
How many above statements are correct about emphysema disorder ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

62) Which of the following statements are true/false?

(a) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily because of its higher solubility.
(b) Approximately 8.9% of CO2 is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(c) The carbondioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes
into red blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3.
(d) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is basic.
(e) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.

(1) a, c and e are true and 'b' and 'd' are false
(2) a, c and e are false and 'b' and 'd' are true
(3) a, b and d are true and 'c' and 'e' are false
(4) a, b and d are false and 'c' and 'e' are true

63) What happens when diaphragm contracts?

(1) Increase in the volume of thoracic cavity at anteroposterior axis.

(2) Increase in the volume of thoracic cavity at dorsoventral axis.
(3) Decrease in the volume of thoracic cavity at antero-posterior axis.
(4) Decrease in the volume of thoracic cavity at dorso-ventral axis.

64) Given below is a list of different steps (i-vi) involved in respiration.

(i) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions.
(ii) Transport of gases by the blood
(iii) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 is released out.
(iv) Releases of resultant CO2
(v) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
(vi) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar tissues.
Select an option which has correct sequence of all the steps.

(1) (iii), (vi), (ii), (v), (i), (iv)

(2) (iii), (vi), (i), (v), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iv), (ii), (v), (iii), (i), (vi)
(4) (iv), (vi), (ii), (v), (i), (iii)

65) Read the following statements and select the correct one.

(1) Healthy man can inspire approximately 500 ml of air per minute
The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane is much lesser compare to
(2)
that of O2
(3) The red blood corpuscles transport oxygen only
(4) Neural signals from pons can reduce the duration of inspiration and alter the respiratory rate

66) Statement-I : O2 dissociation curve is highly useful in studying the effect of H+ concentration &
temperature on binding of O2 with haemoglobin.
Statement-II : Curve shift to left means increase in affinity between O2 & Hb.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct.

(2) Both statement I & II are incorrect.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

67)

In given figure, A and B depicts -

(1) A-Oxygenated blood, B-Deoxygenated blood

(2) A-Deoxygenated blood, B-Tissue
(3) A-Pulmonary artery, B-Systemic vein
(4) A-Pulmonary vein, B-Systemic artery

68) Assertion : Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of oxygen.
Reason : O2 can bind with Hb in a irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.

(1) Both A & R correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R incorrect.
(4) Both A & R incorrect.

69) Assertion : Amount of CO2 diffuse through diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial
pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.
Reason : The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2.

(1) A and R both correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R incorrect.
(4) Both A and R incorrect.

70) Assertion :- During inspiration, there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to the
atmospheric pressure.
Reason :- Inspiration can occur if pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

71) Strongest cartilage of body is :-

(1) Hyaline
(2) Elastic
(3) White fibrous
(4) Calcified

72) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
73) On tip of nose which cartilage is present :

(1) Elastic
(2) White Fibrous
(3) Hyaline
(4) Calcified

74) Transitional epithelium present in :

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Ureter
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) All the above

75)

Which of the following are correct w.r.t. epithelial tissue?

(A) It has free surface which may face towards the body fluid.
(B) It provides covering for some part of body
(C) Intercellular matrix is abundant

(D) It lies on basement membrane.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A), (C), (D)
(4) (A), (B), (D)

76) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement?

(1) The structures of the cells vary according to their function.

(2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(3) Main function of compound epithelium is secretion and absorption.
The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancereatic ducts of covered by compound
(4)
epithelium.

77)

Identify figure A and B, structures 1 and 2 respectively ? Figures are related with specialised
connective tissue :-
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

78)

Epithelial cells have a variety of junctions between them. Why ?

(1) because they have rich supply of blood vessels.

(2) because cells are loosely packed with each other
(3) because they provide structural & functional link
(4) because cells are flat or cuboidal or columnar in shape

79)

How many of the following statements are correct regarding epithelium

a. They are supportive in nature
b. Forms a definite layer
c. Free surface is always modified into microvilli
d. Germinal epithelium is simple cuboidal epithelium

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

80) Match the following in column A and column B–

Column A Column B

(a) Collagen fibres (i) Vasoconstrictor

(b) Elastic fibres (ii) Kupffer cell

(c) Serotonin (iii) White fibres

(d) Liver (iv) Yellow fibres

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

81) Choose the statements which are related with simple and stratified epithelium?
(a) Composed of single layer of cells
(b) Consists of two or more layers of cells
(c) Functions as lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(d) It has protective function as it does in our skin

a b c d
(1) Simple Simple Stratified Stratified
(2) Simple Stratified Simple Stratified
(3) Simple Stratified Stratified Simple
(4) Stratified Simple Simple Stratified
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Recognise the figure and find out the correct lebelling :-

‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-multicellular

(1)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland
‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-multicellular glandular epithelium like
(2)
goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-unicellular glandular epithelium like
(3)
goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-unicellular
(4)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland

83) Find out the incorrect matched pair :

Type of tissues Examples

(1) The squamous epithelium Forms diffusion boundaries

Ducts of glands and tubular part

(2) The cuboidal epithelium
of nephrons in kidney

(3) The columnar epithelium Lining of stomach and intestine

Fallopian tubes, stomach and Air

(4) The cuboidal epithelium
sacs of lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Statement-1 : Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of
complex animals.
Statement-2 : The matrix of connective tissue is made by modified polysaccharide.

(1) Only statement-1 is correct

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Statement-1 & 2 both are correct
(4) Statement-1 & 2 both are incorrect

85) What will happen if ligaments are torn?

(1) Bones will move freely at joint and no pain

(2) Bone less movable at joint & pain
(3) Bone will become unfixed
(4) Bone will become fixed

86)

How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

87) Assertion : Simple columnar epithelium is also called as Germinal epithelium.

Reason : Columnar cells of gonads forms gametes.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reasons not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

88) Statement-I :- Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue. Statement-II :- The cells of
tissue are specilased to store fats.

(1) Both statements I & II are incorrect.

(2) Both statements I & II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement is correct.

89) Select incorrect match with respect to simple epithelium shown and its location in the body?

(1)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

(2)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons

(3)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons

(4)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

90) Which of the following is/are part of areolar tissue?

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Mast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) All of these
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

Conceptual

4)

5)

6)

Conceptual

7)

Theoretical

8)

9) θ
for cosθ = 1,
i.e. θ = 0°
is parallel to

10)
(i) = 105°
(ii) = 150°
(iii) = 105°

11)

⇒ Q = sin–1

12) cosα = =

cosβ =

cosγ =

13)

=
= 2AB sin θ

14)
As,
∴ P2 = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2cosθ
∴
∴ Q2 = F12 + F22 – 2F1F2cosθ
∴ P2 + Q2 = 2(F12 + F22)

= 2(18 + 32) = 100

15) Resultant of three forces can be zero if magnitude of third force must present between
maximum & minimum value of resultant of two forces.

16)

First is correct
Statement-II - is scalar quantity so. It can not be II to or

17)

18)

Explanation :
Effect of multiplying a vector by a negative scalar.

Concept :
When a vector A is multiplied by a scalar k, its magnitude changes by [k] times and its
direction remains the same if k is positive but reverses if k is negative.

Formula :
A' = kA
• If k = –3, then A' = 3A (Magnitude becomes 3A, direction reverses)

Calculation :
• Since k = –3, the magnitude of A becomes 3 times its original value.
• The negative sign reverses the direction of the vector

19)

Potential inside a conductor is always constant and equal to the potential at the surface.

20)

21) V(inside spher) = Vsurface

22)

23) In the region of strong electric fields equipotential surfaces are close together and in the
region of weak electric fields, equipotential surfaces are far apart.

24) Using dV =

⇒ ΔV = – E.Δr cosθ

⇒ ⇒

25) Coloumb law & Gauss theorem doesn't depends on nature of charge

26)
For system to remain in equilibrium

⇒q=
∵ Fq is attractive.
27)
E=0 ; V=0

28) tanθ =
Fe = Electrostatic force.

29) The negative of slope of V–r graph electric field.

E = –dV/dr
r = 0 to r = 2 m, E = –5 V/m
r = 2 m to r = 4 m, E = 0
r = 4 m to r = 8 m, E = 2.5 V/m

30)

31)

dF/dx = 0 (max/min)

Q – 2x = 0 ⇒
Q1 = Q2 = Q/2

32)
= – E0a2

33)
 Between plate ,

outside plate σ = 0 E' = 0.

34)

35) Along the field direction potential decreases but perpendicular to Field lines potential
remains constant.

36) The lines proceed from the positive charge and will reach B, if B is negative.
The number of lines/unit area. i.e., the density of lines is greater for the greater charge.
A is +ve, b is –ve and |A| > |B|.

37)

EA =

38)

0
E =

39)

ϕ due to q at centre O =

ϕ due to q at vertex A =

ϕtotal from shaded face =

40)
qin = – Q (Induced)
qin + q0 = – q (Given)
q0 = – q + Q

41)

42) For cube distance between two charges can be a, ,

so force can be
Here q1 = n1e, q2 = n2e & n1, n2 will be integer

and ,

F2 = (n1, n2)

so, denominator can't be 4

43)

44)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the value of charge q, expressed in terms of
Q, such that when a charge Q is placed at point B, the net electrostatic force acting on it due
to other charges in the setup becomes zero.
 Underlying Concept: The problem is based on Coulomb's law, which describes the
electrostatic force between two point charges. The key concept is that for the net force on a
charge to be zero, the forces from other charges acting on it must cancel out exactly in
magnitude and be opposite in direction.

Relevant Formulas: The Coulomb force between two charges q_1 and q_2 separated by a
distance d is given by:

where - is the magnitude of the force, - is Coulomb's constant, - are the

magnitudes of the charges, - is the distance between the charges.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Identify forces acting on charge Q at B due to other charges q

and Q. 2. Let distance from q to B be and distance from the other Q to B be . 3. Write the

magnitudes of forces: 4. For equilibrium, , so: 5.

Cancel common terms and solve for |q|: 6. Substitute numerical distances from
the figure to get approximately . 7. Since forces must be opposite in direction, q must be

negative relative to Q:

Tips and Tricks: Use symmetry and geometric relations to relate distances in the figure.
Remember that opposite charges attract and like charges repel, helping determine the sign of
q.

Common Mistakes: Ignoring the direction of forces leading to incorrect sign for q; mixing up
distances or incorrectly reading them from the figure; forgetting to square the ratio of
distances when applying Coulomb's law.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Positive values of q would produce forces in the same
direction as the force from the Q charge at other points; hence, they cannot cancel out the
force on Q at B. Other numerical values arise from incorrect distance measurements or
algebraic errors.

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) has higher priority than in IUPAC nomenclature

47) No. of double bonds = 4
No. of π bond electrons
= 2 x no. of double bond
=2x4=8

48)

49)

50)

51)

52)

53)

Solution/Explanation:

Olefinic bond :- C = C is called as olefinic bond.

Acetylinic bond :- C º C is called as Acetylinic bond.

54) Explain Question – Find out the Total no. of Heteroatom present in following compound.

Concept – This question based on Classification of organic compound (Heterocyclic

compound)

Solution –
When Ring is composed of more than one types of atom then atom other than carbon are
known as hetero atom.

Ring is composed by carbon and Nitrogen So Nitrogen is hetero atom and number of Hetero
atom is 3.

Final Answer – Option (2)

55) Question Explanation :

Question is asks to identify the correct structure of 6-ethyl-2,3,5-trimethylnonane.

Concept :
Question is based on IUPAC Nomenclature.

Solution :
IUPAC name given :- 6-ethyl-2,3,5-trimethylnonane
Let's analyse the name and check
Nonane represent 9 carbon in the PCC
So, option (1) structure match with the given name

Final Answer :
Option (1)

56)

Question is Asking About :-

The question asks correct IUPAC name of given compound.

Given Data :-
CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH – CH3
|
CH2 CH3

Concept :- IUPAC Nomenclature

Identify the PCC containing multiple bond.
Number the carbon chain that multiple bond gets lowest possible number.
Identify the substituents.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-

IUPAC Name is :- 4 – Methyl hex –1–ene

Hence, option (3) is correct.

57) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the correct IUPAC name of the given compound.

Concept :
This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature.

Solution :

The PCC is the close chain including multiple bonds. So we will write the parent name
'Cyclohexadiene'
Numbering will start from carbon where double bond is present and it gets lowest number.
Double bond gets 1 and 3
Ethenyl present as subs at position 5 combining all parts the IUPAC name is
5-Ethenylcyclohexa-1, 3-diene

Final Answer :
Option (2)

58) Explanation:
IUPAC naming of cycloalkene

Concept:
IUPAC name

Solution:

2- ethyl - 1, 1-dimethyl eyclohexane

Correct option: (2)

59)

60)

61)
5-Ethyl-3-methyl cyclohexene
or
5-Ethyl-3-methyl cyclohex-1-ene

62)
2–bromo–5–hydroxybenzonitrile

63) Special suffix used

64)
PCC is different so they are chain isomers.

65)
They are identical

66)

67)
Since functional group are different, so they are functional group isomer.

68)
Double bond equivalent = Total no. of π-bonds + Total no. of cycle
=7+3
 = 10

69)

MB = 90 amu

70) ΔTb = Kbm

0.52 = 0.52 ×
MX = 60

71)

ΔTf = 0.186

ΔTb = 0.0512

72)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Molality of solution = mole of solute per kg of solvent
So, 1 m = mole of solute per 1000 g of solvent, Hence moles of solute in 1 m aqueous solution
=1

moles of solvent 1 m aqueous solution = = 55.55

Mole fraction of solution in 1m solution

=
= 0.0176 ≈ 0.018

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

73) Question explanation

Osmosis is the process by which water moves through a semipermeable membrane. The
question asks about the direction of water flow during osmosis.

Given
The question provides a scenario where water flows through a semipermeable membrane. No
specific quantities or conditions are given, but it asks about the general behavior of water
during osmosis.

Concept
Osmosis involves the movement of water from a region of lower solute concentration (higher
water concentration) to a region of higher solute concentration (lower water concentration)
through a semipermeable membrane. The flow is unequal because water moves toward the
higher concentration to dilute it and attempt to equalize the concentrations on both sides.

Calculation (if any)

No calculation is required for this question, as it is conceptual.

Final answer
The correct answer is: Option 2: from both sides of the semipermeable membrane with
unequal flow rates.

74)

A. Question Explanation:

The question provides the vapor pressures of two pure liquids, P and Q, and the number of
moles of each in a mixture. We need to calculate the total vapor pressure of the solution.

B. Given Data:

A. P°P (Vapor pressure of pure liquid P) = 80 torr

B. P°Q (Vapor pressure of pure liquid Q) = 60 torr

C. nP (moles of P) = 3 mol

D. nQ (moles of Q) = 2 mol

C. Concepts:

A. Raoult's Law

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate the mole fractions:

A. Total moles (ntotal) = nP + nQ = 3 + 2 = 5 mol

B. xP = nP / ntotal = 3 / 5 = 0.6
 C. xQ = nQ / ntotal = 2 / 5 = 0.4

B. Calculate the partial pressures:

A. PP = xP × P°P = 0.6 × 80 torr = 48 torr

B. PQ = xQ × P°Q = 0.4 × 60 torr = 24 torr

C. Calculate the total pressure:

A. Ptotal = PP + PQ = 48 torr + 24 torr = 72 torr

E. Final Answer:

The total vapor pressure of the solution is 72 torr.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: 72 torr

75)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Plot of Ptotal Virsus XA is non-linear
Plot of Ptotal VS XA or XB is linear of ideal solution.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

76) A. Question Explanation:

The question presents an assertion and a reason regarding molality and its temperature
dependence. We need to determine if both are true and if the reason correctly explains the
assertion.

B. Given Data:
The statements concern the definition and temperature dependence of molality.

C. Concept:
Molarity, Molality, Temperature dependence

D. Solution:
• Assertion (A): The molality of the solution does not change with a change in temperature.
This is true because molality is defined in terms of the mass of the solvent, which remains
constant with temperature changes.
• Reason (R): The molality is expressed in units of moles per 1000 ml of solution. This is false.
Molality is expressed as moles per 1000 grams (1 kg) of solvent, not solution. 1000 ml is a
measure of volume and is used in molarity calculations.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: If A is true but R is false.

77)

(ΔTf)I = Kf × m

0.2 = 1.86 ×

x= mol

(ΔTf)II = 1.86 ×

0.25 = 1.86 × ⇒W=

W = 80 g

Amount of ice separated out

= 100 – 80 = 20 g

78)

Higher is (i × c); higher will be ΔTf, So, lower will be Tf

i × c for KNO3 = 2 × 0.05 = 0.1
BaCl2 = 3 × 0.04 = 0.12
Sucrose = 1 × 0.140 = 0.14
CuSO4 = 2 × 0.075 = 0.15

79)

i = 1 + 2α
1.98 = 1 + 2α
2α = 0.98
a = 0.49
% α = 49 %

80)

81)
Question Explanation:

The question provides the vapor pressure equation for a mixture of methyl alcohol (A) and
ethyl alcohol (B) and asks us to determine the limiting values related to vapor pressure when
the mole fraction of each component approaches zero.

Given Data:

A. Vapor pressure equation: P = 120XA + 138

B. XA is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol (A)

C. XB is the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol (B)

Concept:

Vapor Pressure and Mole Fraction

Mathematical Calculation:

1. lim (XA→0):

A. When XA→0, XB→1 (since XA + XB = 1).

B. P = 120(0) + 138 = 138. This is the vapor pressure of pure ethyl alcohol, so P⁰ = 138.

C. lim (XA→0) (P⁰ - P) / XB = (138 - 138) / 1 = 0

2. lim (XB→0):

A. When XB→0, XA→1.

B. P = 120(1) + 138 = 258. This is the value we are looking for

C. To find P⁰, let's consider the equation when XA = 0.5:

A. P = 120(0.5) + 138 = 198

D. Now, let's consider the equation when XB = 0.5:

A. Since XA = 0.5, P = 198 (same as above).

 E. This means that when XA = 1, P⁰ = 258 and when XB = 1, P⁰ = 138.

F. lim (XB→0) (P⁰ - P) / XA = (258 - 258) / 1 = 0

If we assume the question is asking for the vapor pressures of the pure components, then:

A. When XA = 0 (XB = 1), P = 138 (vapor pressure of pure B)

B. When XB = 0 (XA = 1), P = 120 + 138 = 258 (vapor pressure of pure A)

Final Answer: Option 1: 138, 258 (representing the vapor pressures of pure B and
pure A, respectively).

82)

Question Explanation:

The question asks us to determine which expression is equal to the length of the line segment
SP in the given vapor pressure-composition graph.

Analysis:

We need to express SP in terms of the other line segments.

A. SP is the vertical distance between point S (on the pB line at x = 0.8) and point P (on the
total pressure line at x = 0.2).

B. PQ is the vertical distance between point P (on the total pressure line at x = 0.2) and
point Q (on the pA line at x = 0.8).

C. RS is the vertical distance between point R (on the pB line at x = 0.2) and point S (on the
pB line at x = 0.8).

D. QR is the vertical distance between point Q (on the pA line at x = 0.8) and point R (on
the pB line at x = 0.2).

From the graph, we can see that:

A. SP = Total pressure at x = 0.2 - pB at x = 0.8

B. RS = pB at x = 0.8 - pB at x = 0.2
We know that the total pressure at any point is the sum of the partial pressures at that point.

At x = 0.2:

A. Total pressure = pA at x = 0.2 + pB at x = 0.2

At x = 0.8:

A. Total pressure = pA at x = 0.8 + pB at x = 0.8

We can express SP as:

SP = (pA at x = 0.2 + pB at x = 0.2) - pB at x = 0.8

We also know that:

PQ = pA at x = 0.2 - pA at x = 0.8 RS = pB at x = 0.8 - pB at x = 0.2

However, none of the given options directly express SP in terms of the other line segments.
But we can analyze the options:

Option 3: SR + SQ = (pB at x = 0.2 - pB at x = 0.8) + (pA at x = 0.8 - pA at x = 0.2) = -(PQ +

RS). This also doesn't seem to lead to SP.

pon closer inspection, we can see that:

SP = SR + SQ

Final Answer:

The correct answer is option 3: SR + SQ

83)

Ncert, Class12th , Part-1, Article No:1.3.2 , 1.4.1 , 1.6.1 , 1.6.3 , 1.6.4. [Link]: 7,10,17 ,18 ,21.
Edition-2023-24.

84) Since solubility of gas decrease with increasing KH.

85) Explanation:
A solute B associates in a solution, forming a trimer B3. We need to find the degree of
association (α) in terms of the van't Hoff factor(i).
Given Data:
Reaction 38 B3
Concept:
The van't Hoff factor is defined as the ratio of the actual number of particles in solution after
association or dissociation to the number of particles dissolved. The degree of association pa
represents the fraction of solute molecules that have associated
 Calculation:
1. Initial moles: Let's assume we start with 1 mole of B
2. Moles at equilibrium At equilibrium, (1- α moles of 8 remain as monomers, and α/3 moles of
B3, are formed.
3. Total moles at equilibrium: The total number of moles of particles at equilibrium is (1 - α)
+ α/3.
4. Van't Hoff factor (i): i = (Total moles at equilibrium) / (initial moles) ⇒ (1 - α + α/3) / 1 = 1-
(2α /3)
5. Solving for α: Rearranging the equation for i, we get: 2α/3 = i ⇒ α (3(1 - i))/2
Answer:
The correct answer is option 1 : α = (3(1 - i))/2

86) A. Question: Which of the gas will not follow Henry's law?
B. Given Data: The question provides a list of gases: He, O2, H2, and HCI. We need to identify
which gas deviates from Henry's Law.
C. Concept: Henry's Law

Solution:
While no direct calculation is needed, the key is the chemical reactivity of the gas.

A. He, O2, and H2 are relatively inert and do not react significantly with water (a common
solvent).
B. HCI, on the other hand, is a highly soluble gas in water and reacts strongly to form
hydrochloric acid (HCI(aq)). This chemical reaction significantly increases the solubility of HCI
in water far beyond what would be predicted by Henry's Law.

E. Final Answer: HCI will not follow Henry's Law.

87)

2C + O2 → 2CO

2 mole 3 mole
C → O2
2→1

mole of O2 required

88)

Question Explanation :
We need to find the volume of CO2 gas produced at STP when 50 g of CaCO3 decomposes
according to :
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

Concept :
Use mole calculation and molar volume of gas at STP (22.4 L/mol)
 Solution :
Molar mass of CaCO2 = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100 g/mol

Moles of CaCO2 =
From the equation 1 mol CaCO2 produces 1 mol CO2, produces 0.5 mol CO2.
Volume of CO2 at STP = 0.5 × 22.4 = 11.2 L

Final Answer :
Option (2)

89) Question Explanation

We are asked how much CO2 gas is produced from the complete combustion of 10 L of butane
(C4H10)
Given
Volume of butane = 10 L
Reaction is complete combustion
Concept
Volume of gas after combustion of organic compound.
Explanation
Balanced combustion reaction of butane
2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O
From the equation :
2 volumes of C4H10 give 8 volumes of CO2
i.e. 1 volume of C4H10 gives 4 volumes of CO2
Given: 10 L of C4H10
CO2 produced = 10 × 4 = 40 L
5. Final Answer
40 L of CO2 is produced
Correct Answer: Option 4

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 99

92)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 95

93)
11Th NCERT Pg No : 96

94)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 92

95) NCERT-XI, Page # 169, (Fig. 10.3), 166 (Fig. 10.2)

96) NCERT XI Eng. Pg. # 167, 170, 135, 136, 138

97) Rudolf virchow modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

98)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 92

99) NCERT Pg. # 132

100) Module No. 01, Pg. # 171,172

101)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 95, 96

102)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 99

103)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 99

104)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 98

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

106)

NCERT Pg. # 122

107)

SOLUTION —
The DNA synthesis phase (S phase) is where DNA replication occurs, not the doubling of
chromosomes. During this phase, the chromosomes are duplicated (each chromosome is
copied), but the number of chromosomes does not double; instead, each chromosome now
consists of two sister chromatids.

The doubling of the number of chromosomes happens during anaphase of mitosis, when sister
chromatids are separated into two daughter cells.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) DNA synthesis phase - Doubling of number of
chromosome in cell.

108)

NCERT Pg. # 167

109) NCERT, Page - 167 (Topic-Meiosis)

110) NCERT Pg. # 163, 164, 165

111)

SOLUTION —
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved through the formation of a cleavage furrow. it begins at
the periphery of the cell (near the plasma membrane) and pinches inward, progressing
towards the center of the cell until the two daughter cells are completely separated.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2) Furrow formation starts in the centre of cell and grows
outward to meet the existing lateral walls

112) NCERT Pg. # 163

113)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 121

114) The assertion is true as meiosis indeed results in four haploid cells from one diploid cell.
The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the assertion because during meiosis,
there is a single round of DNA replication prior to the first division (meiosis I) and then two
successive rounds of nuclear division (meiosis I and meiosis II) without an additional round of
DNA replication, leading to the production of four haploid cells.

115) The assertion is true as during metaphase, the chromosomes are highly condensed and
are most clearly visible under a microscope. However, the reason is not the correct
explanation for the assertion. The disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the beginning
of prometaphase, not metaphase. During metaphase, the chromosomes are aligned at the
metaphase plate. Therefore, while both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 128

117)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 125

118)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 122

119)

Explaining the Question – The problem asks how many bacteria will be present in a
container after 1 hour and 40 minutes
Concept – Bacteria – Binary fission
Solution – Calculate the number of doublings :

Apply the exponential growth formula :

N(t) = 2.5 × 1025 × 24 = 2.5 × 1025 × 16 = 4 × 1026
Final Answer – (1)

120) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 163,164

121) NCERT XI Pg.#163 Fig#10.1

122)

NCERT XI Pg.#163 (last line)

123)

124)
 11Th NCERT Pg No : 124

125)

NCERT Pg. # 165

126)

The correct answer is: 1. C

Explanation:
In a diploid cell, the DNA content is represented as 2C, where C refers to the DNA content of a
hapl6id set of chromosomes.

A. During meiosis, the diploid cell undergoes two rounds of division, which reduces the
chromosome number by half, resulting in haploid gametes.
B. Each gamete (sperm or egg) will contain half of the DNA content of the diploid cell, so the
DNA content of each gamete will be C.

Thus, the DNA content of gametes formed by this diploid cell will be C, representing the haploid
DNA content.

127)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 165, 168

128) Explanation

A. This describes anaphase, a stage of mitosis.

During anaphase, the centromere splits, and the sister chromatids are pulled toward opposite poles
of the cell. This is the defining feature of anaphase.

Correct Answer 3 ✔ Centromere split and chromatids separate and move to opposite poles

129)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 87

130)

Explanation

A. The primary structural difference between plant and animal cells is the presence of a
rigid cell wall in plant cells. This cell wall provides structural support, shape, and
protection to plant cells.

B. Animal cells do not have a rigid cell wall; instead, they are surrounded by a flexible
 plasma membrane that allows them to take on various shapes.

Answer: Option 3: Animal cell lacks rigid cell wall

131)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 99

132)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 98

133)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 99

134)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 98

135)

11Th NCERT Pg No : 95

136)

XIIITh Module

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 276; para-1

138)

XIIITh Module

139)

XIIITh NCERT Pg No 189

140)

XIIITh NCERT Pg No 189

141)
XIIITh Module

142)

XIIITh NCERT Pg No 189

143) NCERT pg # 275

144)

XITh NCERT Pg No 189

145)

XITh NCERT Pg No 86

146) New NCERT update

147)

XIIITh Module

148)

XITh NCERT Pg No 184

149)

XITh NCERT Pg No 187

150)

XITh NCERT Pg No 190

151)

NCERT Pg # 275

152)

XITh NCERT Pg No 189,190

153)
XITh NCERT Pg No 185

154)

XITh NCERT Pg No 185

155) NCERT (XI) Pg # 271, 272, 275

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 274

157) NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 274

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 274

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 273

160)

NCERT - Pg. # 185

161)

XIIITh Module

162)

Tendocalcaneous is the strongest tendon of body which connects gastrocmemius muscle of

shank with calcaneum bone of ankle.

163)

XIIITh Module

164)

XIIITh Module

165) NCERT-Page No.101

166)

XIIITh Module
167)

XITh Old_NCERT Pg No 104

168)

XITh Old_NCERT Pg No 102

169)

Correct option is 3

170)

XIIITh Module

171) Option correction.

Right option is -
a- simple, b-stratified, c- stratified, d- stratified.
(a) Composed of a single layer of cells: This is characteristic of simple epithelium.
(b) Consists of two or more layers of cells: This is characteristic of stratified epithelium.
(c) Functions as lining for body cavities, ducts, and tubes: This can be both simple and
stratified epithelium, depending on the specific location and function.
(d) It has a protective function as -it does in our skin: This is primarily a function of stratified
epithelium.

172) NCERT Pg. # 102

173) NCERT-XI, Pg # 101, Para.-7.1.1

174) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102, 103

175) Ligaments are structure which connect bone to bone. They are made of bundles of elastic
fibres and few collagen fibers

176)

Only (i) statement correct

177)

XIIITh Module

178) NCERT-XI, Pg#103, Para.-IInd

179)

XITh Old_NCERT Pg No 101

180)

XITh Old_NCERT Pg No 103