17-08-2025

2721CMD303031250025 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find out collision time of projective A & B in given figure.

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s

2) A boat, which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water, crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/h is -

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4)

3) Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the

paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 4, 1
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

4)

A car starts from rest and accelerates at 10 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 7 s ? (Take g = 10
m/s2)

(1) 40 m/s, 5 m/s2

(2) 30 m/s, 0
(3) 40 m/s, 0
(4) 50 m/s, 10 m/s2

5) A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, its kinetic
energy at the highest point of its flight will be :-

(1) E

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) A projectile is projected with initial velocity m/s. If g = 10 ms–2, then horizontal range is :

(1) 4.8 metre

(2) 9.6 metre
(3) 19.2 metre
(4) 14.0 metre

7) A body is projected horizontally with velocity 30 m/s from height a 45 m from ground. The
horizontal range of the projectile is :

(1) 30 m
(2) 90 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 45 m

8) Rain is falling at an angle 37° with vertical and 20 m/s speed. Find speed of man so that he appear
that rain is falling vertically downward.

(1) 16 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 12 m/s

9) The equation of projectile is (origin is point of projection); (x → horizontal; y →

vertical)

Column-I Column-II

A. Initial velocity P. S.I. unit

B. Range of projectile Q. 10 S.I. unit

Maximum height
C. R. 3.75 S.I. unit
of projectile
 D. Angle of projection S.
S.I. unit
(1) A-Q; B-P; C-R; D-S
(2) A-R; B-S; C-P; D-Q
(3) A-P; B-R; C-S; D-Q
(4) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R

10) A ball is projected from a certain point on the surface of a planet at a certain angle with the
horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical displacement x and y vary with time t in second as:
and y = 10t – t2
The maximum height attained by the ball is

(1) 100 m
(2) 75 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 25 m

11) A drone flying horizontally at height 20 m with velocity 10 m s–1 has to hit stationary enemy
target. At what horizontal distance H before target should the drone drop the bomb so as to hit the

target? (g = 10 m s–2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 40 m

12) The equation of projectile is the horizontal range is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A particle moving in x–y plane such that its velocity is given by , find the equation of
path followed by particle (initially partial at origin ):

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

14) A projectile projected with same velocity can have the same range 'R' for two angles of
projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in the two cases, then the initial velocity of projectile is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) If R is the maximum horizontal range of a particle, then the greatest height attained by it is :

(1) R
(2) 2R

(3)

(4)

16) A projectile is given initial velocity of .

The equation of the path is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) y = 2x – 5x2
(2) y = 4x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(4) y = 4x – 25x2

17) A bomb is fired from a cannon with a velocity of 1000 m/s making an angle of 30° with the
horizontal. What is the time taken by the bomb to reach the highest point-

(1) 11 sec
(2) 23 sec
(3) 38 sec
(4) 50 sec

18) A large number of bullets are fired horizontally, with different velocities from the top of a tower.
They will reach the ground

(1) At same time with same velocity

(2) At different times with different velocities
(3) At same time with different velocities
(4) At different times with same velocity

19) When a projectile is fired at an angle w.r.t. horizontal with velocity u, then its vertical
component :-

(1) Remains same

(2) Goes on increasing with height
(3) Goes on decreasing with height
(4) First increase then decrease with height

20) The raindrops are falling vertically at speed of 3 m/s. At what angle a man should hold his
umbrella to protect himself, if he is running on horizontal road at a speed of 4 m/s :-

(1)
tan–1 with vertical

(2)
tan–1 with horizontal

(3)
tan–1 with vertical
(4) 30° with horizontal

21) The speed at the maximum high of a projectile is time of its initial speed 'u' of projection. Its
range on the horizontal plane.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In the circuit (shown in figure) The charge stored in the capacitor of capacity C is

(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)
23) In the given circuit, charge stored on capacitor will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Three capacitors of capacitance are connected once in

series and then in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance in two cases is :

(1) 9 : 1
(2) 6 : 1
(3) 15 : 1
(4) 9 : 4

25) A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the

capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.

(2)
The change in energy stored is .
(3) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(4) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.

26) Which of the following expressions represents a farad ?

(1) Joule/volt
(2) Volt / coulomb
(3) Coulomb/volt
(4) Coulomb/joule
27) The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius r is proportional to-

(1) r
(2) 1/r
(3) r2
(4) 1/r3

28) Find common potential if plates of same polarities are connected with each other

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) There are two metallic plates of a parallel plate capacitor. One plate is given a charge +q while
the other is earthed as shown. Points P, P1 and P2 are taken as shown in adjoining figure. Then the

electric intensity is not zero at :

(1) P only
(2) P1 only
(3) P2 only
(4) P, P1 and P2

30) Two large parallel sheets charged uniformly with surface charge density σ and – σ are located as
shown in the figure. Which one of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field along a
line perpendicular to the sheets as one moves from A to B?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The figure gives the electric potential V as a function of distance through five regions on x-axis.

Which of the following is true for the electric field E in these regions :-

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 > E5

(2) E1 = E3 = E5 and E2 < E4
(3) E2 = E4 = E5 and E1 < E3
(4) E1 < E2 < E3 < E4 < E5

32) A parallel plate capacitor is connected with a battery whose potential difference remains
constant. If the plates of the capacitor are shifted apart then the intensity of electric field :
(1) decreases and charge on plates also decreases.
(2) remains constant but charge on plates decreases.
(3) remains constant but charge on the plates increases.
(4) increases but charge on the plates decreases.

33) A capacitor of is charged to 500 volts and connected in parallel with another capacitor of
and charged to 200 volts. The common potential is

(1) 200 volts

(2) 300 volts
(3) 400 volts
(4) 500 volts

34) Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them charged to potential V1 and
other to V2. If their like charged plates are then connected together, the decrease in energy of the
combined system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The resultant capacitance between A and B in the figure is:

(1) 1 μF
(2) 10 μF
(3) 50 μF
(4) 1.5 μF

36) Three dielectric are filled in a parallel plate capacitor as shown. What should be the net
capacitance ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is placed between the plates of a capacitor of
capacitance C as shown in the figure then capacitance of capacitor becomes

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) C/2
(4) zero

38) The mean electric energy density between the plates of a charged capacitor is (here q = charge
on the capacitor and A = area of the capacitor plate)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

39) A capacitor of is charged as shown in the diagram. When the
switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :

(1) 0%
(2) 20%
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

40) The ratio of capacitances of capacitor A & B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) ∞

41) A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d. It is charged to a potential
difference V. The charging battery is disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to double the
initial separation. The work required to separate the plates is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a dielectric (K = 2),
the percentage increase in the capacitance will be-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

43) In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and a potential of + 2000 V is given to

point A, then potential at B is :

(1) 1500 V
(2) 1000 V
(3) 500 V
(4) 400 V

44) Five identical metal plates 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 each of area A on one side are fixed parallel and
equidistant (d) to each other. The plates 1 and 4 are joined by a conductor and plates 3 and 5 are
also joined by a conductor as shown in figure. Then, the capacitance of this system between A and B

is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

45) If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other,
then
A. the charge stored in it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance increases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and E only

(2) A, C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

CHEMISTRY

1) The radius of nucleus will be :

(1) 1.2 × 10–15 m

(2) 27 × 10–15 m
(3) 10.8 × 10–15 m
(4) 3.6 × 10–15 m

2)

Select the correct Statements from the following :

(A) Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
(B) The mass of the electron is .
(C) All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
(D) Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) C, D and E only

(2) A and E only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) A, B and C only

3) Given the correct order of initials T (True) or F (False) for following statements.
(I) If electron has zero magnetic number, then it must be present in s-orbital.

(II) In orbital diagram, Pauli’s exclusion principle is violated.

(III) Bohr’s model can explain spectrum of the hydrogen atom.
(IV) A d-orbital can accommodate maximum 10 electrons only.

(1) TTFF
(2) FFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) FFTT
4) The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in
H-atom corresponding to which of the following ?

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 2 to n = 1
(3) n = 3 to n = 2
(4) n = 4 to n = 3

5) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct set from the following sets given below :

Match-I List-II
(A) The number of sub-energy levels in an energy level (1) n2
(B) The number of orbitals in a sub-energy level (2) 3d
(C) The number of orbitals in an energy level (3) 2l + 1
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0 (4) n
(1) A → 4; B → 3; C → 1; D → 2
(2) A → 3; B → 1; C → 2; D → 4
(3) A → 1; B → 2; C → 3; D → 4
(4) A → 3; B → 4; C → 1; D → 2

6) Select the wrong combination among following :

(1) (Isotopes)
(2) (Isotones)
(3) (Isobars)
(4) (Isobars)

7) Correct order of radius of the 1st orbit H, He+, Li2+, Be3+ is :

(1) H > He+ > Li2+ > Be3+

(2) Be3+ > Li2+ > He+ > H
(3) He+ > Be3+ > Li2+ > H
(4) He+ > H > Li2+ > Be3+

8) If radius of ground state cf H-atom (according to Bohr's model) is 'R' then radius of 3rd energy
state of Li+2 is :

(1) E
(2) 3E

(3)

(4) 9R

9) Angular momentum for P-shell electron is :

(1)

(2) zero

(3)

(4) None of these

10) What will be the momentum of a particle which has a de Broglie wavelength of 2.5 × 10–10 m?

(1) 3.64 × 10–24 kg ms–1

(2) 2.64 × 10–24 kg ms–1
(3) 4.36 × 10–24 kg ms–1
(4) 4.26 × 10–24 kg ms–1

11) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H-atom would be

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

12) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital ?

(1)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +

(2)
n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –

(3)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +

13) The transition of electrons in H atom that will emit maximum energy is

(1) n3 → n2
(2) n4 → n3
(3) n5 → n4
(4) n6 → n5

14) Which of the following orbitals does not have any nodal plane ?

(1) 1 s
(2) 2 p
(3) 3 p
(4) 3 d
15) The frequency of the radiation having wave number 10 m–1 is :

(1) 10 s–1
(2) 3 × 107 s–1
(3) 3 × 1011 s–1
(4) 3 × 109 s–1

16) The graph representing two nodes is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at
(RH = Rydberg constant)
Statement-II : When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity vs
wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
CAS230
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

18) The ratio of the energy of a photon of wavelength 3000 Å to that of a photon of wavelength 6000
Å is :

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)

19) If and n = 3 for any atom then maximum number of electron is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 10

20) The correct mathematical expression for Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a
proton each having same de Broglie wavelength then :

(1) E1 > E3 > E2

(2) E2 > E3 > E1
(3) E1 > E2 > E3
(4) E1 = E2 = E3

22) The wavelength of which series lie towards the ultraviolet region ?

(1) Lyman
(2) Balmer
(3) Paschen
(4) None of these
23) What is the frequency of light with a wavelength of 480 nm?

(1) 1.60 × 10–6 s–1

(2) 6.25 × 105 s–1
(3) 6.25 × 1614 s–1
(4) 1.44 × 1020 s–1

24) Which species are isoelectronic

(NO3–, CO3–2, ClO3–, SO3)

– –2
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO3
– –2
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–2
(4) CO3 , SO3

25) Ratio of specific charge of a proton and deutarium is -

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

26) The ratio of area covered by second orbit to the first orbit is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 16 : 1

27) Rutherford' scattering experiment is related to the size of the :

(1) Nucleus
(2) Atom
(3) Electron
(4) Neutron

28) The triad of nuclei that represents isotonoes is ?

12 14 19
(1) 6C , 7N , 9F
14 18 17
(2) 6C , 7N , 9F
14 14 17
(3) 6C , 7N , 9F
14 14 19
(4) 6C , 7N , 9F

29) Which orbital diagram does not obey Aufbau principle :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The potential energy of an electron in hydrogen atom is –3.02 eV, its kinetic energy will be

(1) 1.51 eV
(2) 15.10 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) 1.36 eV

31) The ionisation energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. What will be energy of n = 2 orbit :-

(1) –3.4 eV
(2) –6.8 eV
(3) –1.7 eV
(4) –2.7 eV

32) Assertion (A) : There are two spherical nodes in 3s-orbital.

Reason (R) : There is no nodal plane in 3s-orbital.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

33) In an electronic transition if three lines are observed in visible region, then how many lines will
be in u.v. region :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

34) In the line spectrum of hydrogen, the third line from red end corresponds to which of the
following transitions :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) In which of the following, chiral carbon is present ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Relation between given compound :

and

(1) Diastereomers
(2) Homomers
(3) Enantiomers
(4) Structural isomers

37)
Number of chiral center present in above compounds are :-

(1) 0, 1
(2) 0, 2
(3) 0, 3
(4) 1, 2

38) Statement-I : Essential condition for a compound to be an optically active is presence of chiral
carbon.
Statement-II : If there is one chiral carbon then molecule have no symmetry.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

39) Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

40) How many chiral centers are present in tetracycline ?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 5

41)
A and B are :-

(1) Homomer
(2) Enantiomer
(3) Diastereomer
(4) Not isomer

42) Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

(1) CH3CH(CH3)COOH
(2) CH3CHOHCOOH
(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH
(4) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

43) Which of the following compound can exist in meso form–

(1) 1, 2–Dichlorobutane
(2) 2, 3–Dichloropentane
(3) 2, 3–Dichloro butane
(4) 1, 2–Dichloropentane

44) Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion : Pentane-2,3-diol can exist in meso form.

Reason : There may be plane of symmetry in one case.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Ist step of glycolysis is :-

(1) Oxidative step
(2) Reductive step
(3) Endergonic
(4) Exergonic

2) Number of NADH molecules produced in EMP pathway, is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which enzyme of glycolysis is called 'pacemaker' enzyme :

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Enolase
(3) Phosphofructokinase
(4) Pyruvate kinase

4) The ratio of direct gain of ATP (SLP) in anaerobic and aerobic respiration during oxidation of one
glucose molecule is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 18
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 3

5) Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway ?

(1) Glycolysis → NADH → Oxidative Phosphorylation → ATP → O2

(2) Krebs’ cycle → FADH2 → ETS → ATP
(3) ETS → Krebs’ cycle → ATP → O2
(4) Krebs’ cycle → NADH + H+ → Electron transport chain → O2

6) Identify the correct sequence of events in Kreb’s cycle.

(1) Acetyl CoA → Citrate → Pyruvate → α-ketoglutarate → Succinate → Malate → Fumarate → OAA
Acetyl CoA → Citric acid → α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid → Fumaric acid → Malic acid →
(2)
OAA
(3) Acetyl CoA → Citric acid → Malic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid → OAA
(4) None of the above

7) Refer the figure showing major pathway of anaerobic respiration

 Identify P, Q, R and S in the above.

(1) P→ NAD+, Q→ Ethanol, R→ Lactic acid, S→ PEP

(2) P→ Ethanol, Q→NAD+, R→ Lactic acid, S→ATP
(3) P→ Lactic acid, Q→ Ethanol, R→ Glucose, S→ADP
(4) P→NAD, Q→ Lactic acid, R→ Ethanol, S→DHAP

8) The oxidation of pyruvic acid to CO2 is called

(1) fermentation
(2) TCA / citric acid cycle
(3) glycolysis
(4) oxidative phosphorylation

9) During aerobic respiration which complex does not participate in oxidation of NADH2.

(1) Complex-I
(2) Complex-II
(3) Complex-III
(4) Complex-IV
10) Choose the correct option for A to D-

(1) A-Fat, B-key product of glycolysis, C-Lactic acid, D-Ethanol

(2) A-Carbohydrate, B-Pyruvic acid, C-Ethanol, D-Lactic acid
(3) A-Respiratory substrate, B-Key product of glycolysis, C-lactic acid, D-Ethanol
(4) A-Proteins, B-Pyruvic acid, C-Lactic acid, D-Ethanol

11) A - First stage in the breakdown of glucose

B - Present in all organisms
C - Only process in respiration in anaerobic organisms
D - Occurs in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells only
E - Glucose is completely oxidised to form pyruvic acid.
Which of the above statements are correct for glycolysis ?

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, D, E
(4) A, C, D

12) The net yield of ATP, except substrate level phosphorylation, from Krebs cycle per glucose
molecule is:-

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 22
(4) 36

13) Assertion :- Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
Reason :- Oxygen combines with electrons and protons to form water during the final step of the
ETC.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
14) Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins?

(1) Glucose 6 – phosphate

(2) Fructose 1, 6–bisphosphate
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Acetyl – CoA

15) Assertion : R.Q. of fats is less than unity.

Reason : Fats are poor in structural oxygen so, requires more oxygen for oxidation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

16) How many ATP molecules are directly synthesised in glycolysis?

(1) 6 ATP
(2) 4 ATP
(3) 36 ATP
(4) 8 ATP

17) Find out ATP (net) molecules directly synthesised by Glycolysis pathway from one glucose
molecule?

(1) 4 ATP
(2) 2 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) 10 ATP

18) Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one Acetyl-CoA :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10

19) Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is

(1) 0.9
(2) 0.7
(3) 0.07
(4) 0.09

20) The first reaction of kreb's cycle i.e., condensation of Acetyl group with OAA and water is
catalysed by :
(1) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(2) Citrate synthase
(3) Fumarase
(4) Dehydrogenase

21) Give the order in which electron movement occur in mitochondrial ETS ?

(1) Cyt a → Cyt a3 → Cyt b → Cyt c

(2) FMN → FeS → UQ → Cyt b
(3) FMN → Cyt a3 → Cyt a → FeS
(4) FMN → FeS → Cyt b → FAD

22) When a molecule of pyruvic acid is subjected to anaerobic oxidation and forms lactic acid, there
is a

(1) Loss of 3 ATP molecules

(2) Loss of 6 ATP molecules
(3) Gain of 2 ATP molecules
(4) Gain of 4 ATP molecules

23) How many NAD+ and FAD+ are reduced in per turn of TCA using one molecule of Acetyl CoA ?

NAD+ FAD

(1) 2 2

(2) 3 1

(3) 2 3

(4) 1 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Last e– acceptor during ETS is ?

(1) CO2
(2) cyt a
(3) cyt a2
(4) cyt a3

25) Choose the correct combination of labelling the number of carbon compounds in the substrate
molecules involved in citric acid cycle :-

(1) A-4C, B-6C, C-5C, D-4C, E-4C

(2) A-6C, B-5C, C-4C, D-3C, E-2C
(3) A-2C, B-3C, C-4C, D-5C, E-6C
(4) A-4C, B-5C, C-6C, D-4C, E-4C

26) In aerobic respiration how many molecule of CO2 are released during aerobic respiration from
pyruvate :-

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

27) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to cellular respiration ?
(A) Breakdown of complex molecule to yield energy in chloroplast.
(B) Breakdown of C–C bonds of complex compound through oxidation that occur within the cells.
(C) Organic acids cannot be used as respiratory substrate in plants
(D) Energy is released in a series of slow stepwise enzymatic reactions

(1) Only D
(2) B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

28) ATP is -

(1) An energy currency

(2) A nucleotide
(3) Formed in both respiration and photosynthesis
(4) All of the above

29) When one molecule of pyruvate is completely oxidized in CO2 & H2O, which of the following form
?

+
(1) 3 NADH + H , 1 FADH2, 2 GTP/ATP, 4 CO2
+
(2) 4 NADH + H , 1 FADH2, 1 GTP/ATP, 3 CO2
+
(3) 8 NADH + H , 1 FADH2, 1 GTP/ATP, 6 CO2
 +
(4) 4 NADH + H , 1 FADH2, 1 GTP/ATP, 2 CO2

30) If 4 molecules of glucose are completely oxidized during aerobic respiration then how many ATP
gain by substrate level phosphorylations ?

(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 8

31)

Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Complex-I (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex

B. Complex-II (ii) Succinate dehydrogenase

C. Complex-III (iii) Cytochrome-c oxidase

D. Complex-IV (iv) NADH-dehydrogenase

(1) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (i)
(2) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(3) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i)

32) FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of which of the following?

(1) α-Ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA

(2) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(3) Succinyl CoA → succinic acid
(4) Fumaric acid → malic acid

33) How much amount of energy present in glucose, get released during lactic acid and alcohol
fermentation?

(1) 7 percent
(2) less than seven percent
(3) more than seven percent
(4) always 2 percent

34) Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH2

In this given reaction which of the following coenzyme is not used?

(1) Mg2+
(2) NAD+
(3) Co-A
(4) TPP

35) If Acetyl CoA used as a respiratory substance then how many H2O molecule produced in electron
transport system

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 4
(4) 5

36) Which of the following are involved in the first step of the Krebs' cycle ?

(1) OAA, pyruvic acid, water

(2) Acetyl CoA, water, isocitric acid
(3) Malic acid, OAA, citric acid
(4) Acetyl CoA, OAA, water

37) How many decarboxylations are required to form succinic acid from citric acid in TCA cycle ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Zero

38) Substrate level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the direct
formed by the reactions of glycolysis ?

(1) 100%
(2) 2%
(3) 10%
(4) 38%

39)

During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location ?

(1) Cytosol
(2) Mitochondrial matrix
(3) Outer chamber or intermembrane space of mitochondria
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria

40) How many molecules of metabolic water (i.e., produced by electron transport system) are
produced in glycolysis in the absence of oxygen :

(1) Zero
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1

41) When the evolution of CO2 is more than the intake of O2, the respired substrate should be:-

(1) Fatty acid

(2) organic acid
(3) Glucose
(4) Polysaccharides

42) How many ATP molecules are net gained from the aerobic respiration of one molecule of
glucose?

(1) 36 ATP molecules

(2) 38 ATP molecules
(3) 40 ATP molecules
(4) 34 ATP molecules

43) The respiratory pathway is considered amphibolic because it is involved in:

(1) Only catabolism

(2) Only anabolism
(3) Both breakdown and synthesis of fatty acids and proteins
(4) Neither breakdown nor synthesis of biomolecules

44) Given below the diagrammatic representation of ATP synthesis in mitochondria. Identify A, B
and C and choose the correct option :-

A B C

(1) 4H+ F0 F1

(2) 3H+ F0 F1

(3) 4H+ F1 F0

(4) 5H+ F1 F0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Ethanol is industrially prepared from :

(1) Acetobacter
(2) Penicillium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Streptomyces

46)

Find out correct statements -

(A) Mammals, amphibia, freshwater fishes are ureotelic.
(B) Waste product of bird and insect is same.
(C) Fish eliminate ammonia through gill surfaces as NH4+.
(D) Uric acid is most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination.
(E) Excretory structures of most insects are malpighian tubules.

(1) A, B, E
(2) A, B, C, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) All statement are correct

47) Which of the following organisms secrete the least toxic nitrogenous waste that can be
eliminated by minimum loss of water?

(1) Marine fishes

(2) Many bony fishes
(3) Humans
(4) Reptiles

48) Select the true statement -

(1) In fishes kidney play a major role in ammonia excretion.

(2) Ammonia is 100,000 times less toxic than urea.
Sharks retain a large amount of urea in the blood as a major osmolyte to balance the osmolarity
(3)
of the body fluids.
(4) Most terrestrial reptile excrete ammonia

49) Which of the following group of animals are ammonotelic in nature ?

(1) Many bony fishes, amphibians, Insects.

(2) Marine fishes, amphibians, aquatic insects
(3) Mammals, birds, reptiles
(4) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic insects.
50)

Which of the following statements is false?

I. Outer cortex and inner medulla are the two zones in kidney.
II. Medulla is divided into renal pyramids.
III. Pyramid projects into calyx.
IV. Inward extension of cortex between the pyramids is called renal column of Bertini.

(1) I and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) IV
(4) None

51) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
Statement-A : The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through three
cellular layers.
Statement-B : Podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute slit pores

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

52)

Read the following statements :-

(a) Human excretory system consist of a pair of kidneys, one pair of ureter only
(b) Kidney are pea shaped
(c) Kidneys situated between the level of T12 and L5
Choose the correct order of True (T) and False (F) from below :

(1) TFT
(2) TFF
(3) TTF
(4) FFF

53) End portion of uriniferous tubule :-

(1) Collecting tubules

(2) Duct of bellini
(3) Ureter
(4) DCT

54) The main function of Henle's is loop is :-

(1) Conservation of water

(2) Filtration of blood
(3) Passage of urine
(4) Formation of urine

55) The vessel taking blood (containing nitrogenous wastes) into the Bowman's capsule is known as
:-

(1) Afferent arteriole

(2) Efferent arteriole
(3) Renal artery
(4) Renal vein

56) Podocytes are the cells, present in :-

(1) Cortex of nephron

(2) Inner wall of Bowman's capsule
(3) Outer wall of Bowman's capsule
(4) Wall of glomerular capillaries

57) The cavity of Bowman's capsule contains :-

(1) Urea, glycogen and water

(2) Urea, water and WBC
(3) Blood plasma minus blood protein
(4) Concentrated blood

58) Ureter develops from funnel like structure called:-

(1) Hilum
(2) Renal pelvis
(3) Major calyx
(4) Minor calyx

59) Vasopressin is mainly responsible for :-

(1) Obligatory reabsorption of water through Bowman's capsule

(2) Facultative reabsorption of water from DCT
(3) Facultative reabsorption of water from Henle's loop
(4) Obligatory reabsorption of water from DCT

60) Formation of hypertonic urine is mediated through :-

(1) Having small loop of Henle

(2) Eating salt free diet
(3) Counter current mechanism
(4) Increased water intake

61) Substances like amino acids and glucose in the filterate are reabsorbed __a__ in the tubular
epithelial cells whereas the nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by __b__ transport:-

(1) a-actively, b-passive

(2) a-passively, b-active
(3) a-actively, b-active
(4) a-passively,b-passive

62) The urine is :-

(1) Hypotonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid

(2) Hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
(3) Isotonic to blood and hypotonic to medullary fluid
(4) Isotonic to blood and hypertonic to medullary fluid.

63) Chemical composition of renal calculi, besides uric acid is :-

(1) Bile salts

(2) Barium chloride
(3) Zinc sulphate
(4) Calcium oxalate

64) Sebaceous gland secretion mainly contains:-

(1) Amino acid and glucose

(2) Sterols and lactic acid
(3) NaCl and wax
(4) Sterols and hydrocarbons

65) Each human kidney has nearly :-

(1) 10,000 nephrons

(2) 50,000 nephrons
(3) 1,00,000 nephrons
(4) 10,00,000 nephrons

66) The medulla of the kidney is divided into few conical masses known as a projected into b :-

(1) a – Calyces, b – Medullary pyramid

(2) a – Medullary pyramid, b – Calyces
(3) a – Loop of Henle, b – Calyces
(4) a – Renal pelvis, b – Ureter

67) Micturition is the term applied to the movement of urine out of the

(1) Bowmans capsule

(2) Renal pelvis
(3) Ureters
(4) Urinary bladder

68) Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by

(1) changes in blood volume

(2) changes in body fluid volume
(3) changes in ionic concentration
(4) all of the above

69) Which of the following does not takes place when there is a fall in glomerular filteration rate ?

(1) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

(2) juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
(3) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(4) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

70) Select the correct option with the reference of hemodialysis

when nitrogenous waste concentration is high in blood then nitrogenous waste are removed by
(1)
hemodialysis
(2) anticoagulant like heparin is used during hemodialysis
(3) it can also be used for removal of ketone bodies from blood.
(4) all of the above

71) If loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephron, then urine will be -

(1) Concentrated
(2) Diluted
(3) No change
(4) No urine

72) Reabsorption of Chloride ions from glomerular filterate in kidney tubule occur by

(1) active transport

(2) simple diffusion
(3) osmosis
(4) Brownian movement

73) If the diameter of afferent arteriole is less than the diameter of efferent arteriole, ultrafiltration
will

(1) be faster
(2) be slower
(3) not take place
(4) no effect on ultrafiltration
74) The given figure of nephron showing blood vessels and duct. Select the right answer

Which part are lined by simple squamous epithelium?

(1) B and E
(2) B and G
(3) B and C
(4) B and H

75)

Match the terms given in Column I with their physiological processes given in Column II and choose
the correct answer :-

Column I Column II

Proximal convoluted
a. i Permeable for water
tubule

Distal convoluted
b. ii Filtration of blood
tubule

Descending limb of Reabsorption of

c. iii
Henle's loop 70-80% of electrolytes

Counter- current Conditional

d. iv
mechanism reabsorption

Maintenance
of concentration
e. Renal corpuscle v
gradient in the
medullary interstitium
(1) a–iii, b–v, c–iv, d–ii, e–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–v, e–ii
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–v, e–iv
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–v, e–ii
76) Match the column.

Set-I Set-II

(a) Brush bordered

(i) DCT
cuboidal Epithelium

(ii) visceral layer of (b) Simple

Bowman’s capsule cuboidal Epithelium

(c) Simple
(iii) PCT
squamous Epithelium

(iv) Thin segment of

(d) Podocytes cells
Loop of Henle
(1) (i) d (ii) b (iii) a (iv) c
(2) (i) b (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a
(3) (i) a (ii) d (iii) c (iv) b
(4) (i) b (ii) d (iii) a (iv) c

77) Match list-1 with list-2 and choose correct option.

List-1 List-2

Insoluble masses of
(A) Glycosuria (i) calcium salts formed in
kidney

Presence of glucose in
(B) Ketonuria (ii)
urine

Renal
(C) (iii) Excess of urea in blood
calculi

Presence of ketone
(D) Uremia (iv)
bodies in urine
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

78) Match the following

(I) Hair pin shaped (A) Renal corpuscle
structure of renal tubule
(II) U-shaped structure (B) Henle's loop
of peritubular capillaries
(III) DCT open into a (C) Vasa recta
straight tube
(IV) Double walled (D) Collecting duct
cup like structure
alongwith glomerulus
(1) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
(2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

79) Match the following :

Column - I Column-II

(I) Glycosuria (A) 25 - 30 g/day

(II) Urea (B) Haemodialysis

(III) Cellophane (C) Oxalates

Renal
(IV) (D) Diabetes melitus
calculi
(1) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(2) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV - C
(3) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV - A
(4) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV - C

80) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

Selective secretion of H⊕ and

A PCT (i)
K⊕ ions.

70-80 percent of electrolytes

B DCT (ii)
and water reabsorbed

Allow passage of small

C Descending limb (iii)
amount of urea

D Ascending limb (iv) Permeable to water

E Collecting duct (v) Permeable to salts

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(iii)

81) Which of the following sequences is correct regarding regulation of kidney function?

An excess loss of water from body → Hypothalamus → Osmoreceptors → Neurohypophysis →

(1)
ADH → Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis → ADH
(2)
→ Increase water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis →
(3)
Aldosterone → Water permeability of DCT and CT increase → Preventation of diuresis
 An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptor → Hypothalamus → Adenohypophysis → ADH
(4)
→ Increase water permeability of DCT and CT → Preventation of diuresis

82) Tubular fluid at the base of Henle's loop is

(1) Isotonic to blood

(2) Hypotonic to blood
(3) Hypertonic to blood
(4) Insoluble in blood

83) Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid ?

+
(1) NH4
(2) DCT
(3) PCT
(4) NaCl and Urea

84) Motor signal of central nervous system during micturition causes :-

(1) Contraction of smooth muscles of urinary bladder and contraction of urethral sphincter
(2) Contraction of smooth muscles of urinary bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
(3) Relaxation of smooth muscles of urinary bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
(4) Relaxation of smooth muscles of urinary bladder and contraction of urethal sphincter

85) Counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient. This gradient help in

(1) easy passage of water from medulla to collecting tubule and thereby concentrating urine
(2) easy passage of water from collecting tubule to interstitial fluid and thereby concentrating urine
easy passage of water from medullary interstitial fluid to collecting tubule and thereby diluting
(3)
urine
inhibition of passage of water between the collecting tubule and medulla and so isotonic urine is
(4)
formed.

86) Assertion :- Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many metabolic disorders.
Reason :- Glycosuria is an indicative of diabetes insipidus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) Assertion : The Henle's loop and vasa recta play a significant role in producing a concentrated
urine.
Reason : The counter current arrangement of Henle's loop and vasa recta helps in urine
concentration.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

88) Assertion : Presence of interstitial gradients helps in an easy passage of water from the
collecting tubule. Thereby concentrating the filtrate.
Reason : Henle's loop and vasa recta forms a special arrangement called counter-current
mechanism helps in concentrating of filtrate.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

89) Assertion : Mammals have the ability to produce a concentrated urine.

Reason : The Henle's loop and vasa recta shows counter current mechanism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Find out which is correctly match with the given

diagram ?

A → NaCl, B → Urea, C → H2O,

(1)
F → K+, J → NH3, M→ Nutrients
A → H2O, B → Urea, C → NaCl,
(2)
F→ K+, J → NH3, M→ Nutrients
K → K+, L→ NH3, J → Nutrients,
(3)
B → Urea, D → NaCl
 G → H+, A → H2O, H → NaCl,
(4)
K→ H2O, E → HCO3–
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 3 4 1 4 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 2 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 1 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 1 1 2 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Ans.(2)
for collision
(uy)A = (uy)B
u = 50 sin 37°
u = 30
along the joining line
vAB = 50 cos 37°
= 40

t=
t = 3s

2) 1. Question Explanation:
A boat with a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river with a width of 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 minutes. We need to find the velocity of the river water.

2. Concept Based:
The boat is moving across the river, but the river has a current that will affect its actual
velocity. To travel the shortest path (directly across), the boat must steer in a direction to
cancel out the effect of the river's current. The speed of the boat relative to the river's current
can be found using the Pythagorean theorem.

3. Formula Used:
To move along the shortest path, the boat's velocity relative to the river is the resultant of the
boat's velocity in still water and the velocity of the river's current. The formula is:

Vresultant =
where:
vboat = 5 km/h (speed of the boat in still water),
Uriver is the speed of the river (which we need to find).

Also, the time taken to cross the river is given as 15 minutes (which is = 0.25 hours).
Using the relation for distance, time, and speed:
Distance = vresultant × Time
Since the width of the river is 1 km, we have:
1 = Vresultant × 0.25

Thus:

vresultant = = 4km / h

4. Calculation:
Now, using the Pythagorean theorem:
 vresultant =
Substitute the known values:

4=

4=
Square both sides:
16 = 25 –
= 25 – 16 = 9
vriver = 3km / h

Answer: 3 km/h
The velocity of the river's current is 3 km/h.

3) Explanation : The question shows four paths of a kicked football, ignoring air resistance.
We need to rank these paths according to their initial horizontal velocity component, from
highest to lowest.

Concept : Time of Fligh T:

Range R : The horizontal distance covered by the projectile.

Maximum Height H : Maximum height of projectile during the complete motion which
depends on the initial vertical velocity component (uy).

Formula :

R=U×T

Calculation :
H of all paths are same.
So their initial verticle component of velocity (Usinθ) also remains same, hence total time T
also remains same for all paths.
R ∝ Ux
R4 > R3 > R2 > R1

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

4) velocity of car at t = 4 sec is

v = u + at
v = 0 + 10(4) = 40 m/s
At t = 7 sec
acceleration is due to gravity
∴ a = g = 10 m/s
 vx = 40 m/s (due to car)
vy = u + a(t–4)
= 0 + g(3) (downward)
= 30 m/s (downward)

v= = = 50 m/s

5)

E= mv2

E' = m (ucos45°)2 = m

E' =

6) Horizontal range

R = 9.6 metre

7)

R=U = 30

= 90 m

8) ∵ sin 37º =

∴
∴ vm = 12 m/s

9) Given equation
Equation trajectory
By comparition

(1) ⇒
(2) R =

(3) ⇒

(4) Hmax = ⇒ ⇒ u = 10 m/s

10) ∵

∵ y = 10t – t2

comparing with y = x tan θ

11)

12)

∵ , ∴

by comparing it with y = x tan θ

∴R=

13)

vx = 2 ∴ ax = 0, vy = 4t ∴ ay = 4
∴ x = 2xt ⇒ t = x/2

∴ y = uy + ayt2 = 0 + ×4×

∴y=

14)
For same initial velocity, range is same for angle of projection θ and (90 – θ). So,

t1 = and t2 = =

∴ t12 + t22 = ,

∴u=

15)

∵ tan θ = ,
For maximum range : θ = 45º

∴ tan 45º = ∴H=

16)

u cos θ = 1 , tan θ =

∵ y = x tan θ =

∴y=x×4–

17)

18)

∵
So, all bullets reaches at ground in same time, but due to different horizontal velocities they
reaches at ground with different velocities.

19) The vertical component goes on decreasing and eventually becomes zero.
20)
if angle from horizontal is θ then

tan θ =

with horizontal

21)

∴R=

22)

Question Asking About:

Two capacitor are connected in series. find charge on the c capacitor.

Key Concept:
Charge on series connection of capacitor in same.

Formula
Q = CV

capacitor in series =

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Q = 4μf × 10V
Q = 40μC

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

Estimated Time : 1-2 minutes

Level : Easy
23)

Question Explanation
We need to find change on the capacitor in given circuit.

Concept
The concept based of capacitor

Explanation

∈ = 10 volt
q = CV
q = (4 μF) (10 volt)
q = 40 μC

Final Answer (2)

24)

Question Explanation

We need to find the ratio for given capacitors.

Concept
Series and parallel combination of capacitors.

Explanation
Cparallel = Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 = (3 + 9 +18)μF
Cp = 30μF
Cseries = (CS)

⇒ CS = 2μF

CP : CS = 15 : 1
Final Answer (3)
25) q = CV ⇒ V = q/C
Due to dielectric insertion, new capacitance C2 = KC

Initial energy stored in capacitor,

Final energy stored in capacitor,

Change in energy stored,
ΔU = U2 – U1

New potential difference between plates

The charge on the capacitor is conserved.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

26)

Concept:
• Capacitance C is defined as the charge stored per unit potential difference

• The SI unit of capacitance is farad (F)

Formula:

Calculation :
From the formula, the correct unit of farad is :

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: Coulomb/Volt

27)

Question Explanation

We need to give capacitance of conducting sphere (C ∝ rn; n = ?)

Concept

The concept based on capacitance of conducting sphere.

Explanation
conductor of radius r.
C = 4π∈0r
C∝r

Final Answer (1)

28) Concept:
• Charge is conserved when capacitors are connected.
• The total charge before connection equals the total charge after connection,
Formula:
Total initial charge:
Qinitial = C1V1 + C2V2
Final common potential:

Calculation:
By using the charge conservation equation:

Thus, the correct answer is Option 4

29)

Question Explanation
We are given a changed parallel plate capacitor point P is between the plates, where P1 and P2

are on the two external sides at which point (or points) ?

Concept
Electric field due to plates of parallel plate capacitor.

Explanation
EP1 = 0
EP2 = 0
Ep ≠ 0
Hence at P only the intensity of electric field is not Not Zero.

Final Answer (1)

30) Conceptual

31)

Electric field in the region 1, 3 and 5 is zero

i.e. E1 = E3 = E5
Slope of the line BC < Slope of the line DE
i.e. E2 < E4

32) Explanation : A parallel plate capacitor is connected with a battery whose

potential difference remains constant. If the plates are shifted apart then the intensity of
electric field and charge on plate is.

Concept : Electric field and charge relation will distance between plates.

Formula : Q = CV

Mathematical Calculation :
V is constant than

Q∝C∝ ∴8

Q∝C∝
if d increas Q and C decrases.

, E∝Q
if Q is decreas than E also E also decreas
• Electric field decreases and charge on plates also decreases.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Estimated Time : 1-2 minutes

Level : Medium

33)

34)

Question Explanation

We need to find the loss of energy when the given capacitors are connected.

Concept

Loss of energy when charged capacitors are connected.

Explanation

Loss of energy (ΔU) =

(ΔV)2 = (V1 – V2)2

⇒ (ΔV) = (V1 – V2)2

Final Answer (4)

35)

Question Explanation:
We are given a network of capacitors between points A nad B and need to determine the total
equivalent capacitance by reducing the circuit using series and parallel combinations.
Concept:
Capacitors in series and parallel combine differently. Series reduces total capacitance, parallel
increases it. Symmetry and network simplification can help in analyzing complex circuits
effiently.
Formula:

Series:
Parallel:
Calculation:
Each horizontal row (top, middle, bottom) contains three capacitors in series.

Top row:
But due to symmetry and cancellation, only the central path contributes effectively. So final
result is:
Answer:

36) C = C1 + C2

37)

same

38) Energy density

39) Initial energy stored in capacitor

Final voltage after switch 2 is ON

Final energy in both the capacitors

So energy dissipated

40)
41)

, Q = C1V

W1→2 = U2–U1=

42)

C1 and C2 are in parallel (check polarity)

Ceq = C1 + C2 = 3C/2
Initial capacitance = C

Final capacitance =

% charge:

43) Explanation :
For the given circuit we need to find potential of a point on the circuit.

Concept:

Here, we calculate the capacitances & between the points B and C. So, that we can apply
voltage division occur capacitance occur AB and [Link] we know for the two capacitances in
series, the voltage occur each is given as

Concept :
Q same → V ∝

Calculation :

VAB = × 2000 = 1500V

VA – VB = 1500
VB = VA – 1500 = 2000 – 1500 = 500 V Ans.

Answer : Option (3) is correct.

44)

Question Explanation:
Five parallel metal plates of area A are arranged equidistantly at d. Plates 1 and 4 are
connected, and plates 3 and 5 are connected. The capacitance between A and B is required.

Concept :
Capacitance (combination of plotes)

Formula Used:
• Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor:

C=
• For series capacitors:

• For parallel capacitors:

Ceq =

Visual Diagram:
 Calculation:

Ceq = C +

Ceq = C + C

Ceq = C ∵C=

Final Answer:

The correct option is (3).

45)

Battery connected so V = constant

Now d↓ ⇒ C
A : Q = CV ∝ C ⇒ Q

B: U= CV2 ∝ C ⇒ U

C: C= ⇒C

D: ⇒C
E : (Q) (V) ∝ C ⇒ QV
Therefore statements A, C and E are correct.

CHEMISTRY

46) r = r0(A)1/3m = 1.2 × 10–15 × (27)1/3 m = 3.6 × 10–15m

47)

It is statement based question.

Statements B, C & E are correct.
(B) Mass of the electron is .
(C) All the isotopes of given elements show same chemical properties.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.

48) ml = 0 is possible for s, p, d, f subshells.

The given orbital diagram violates Hund’s rule.
d orbital can accommodate 2 electrons only

49)

Here,
∴ n1 = 1, n2 = 2

50)

Number of orbitals in shell = n2

Number of subshell in a shell = n
Number of orbitals in a subshell = (2l + 1)
n = 3, l = 2, m = 0 represents 3d

51) Mass number of and are different hence they are not isobars.

52) ⇒ H > He+ > Li2+ > Be3+

53)

54) P-shell has n = 6 ⇒

55)

p = 2.64 × 10–24 kg m s–1

56)

57) For 4 f, n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3

s= or

58) n3 → n2

59) Number of nodal plan = 1

∴ 1s orbital (l = 0) will have no nodal plane.

60)

= 3 × 108 × 10 = 3 × 109 s–1

61) Node is the point on the axis at which the value of ψ changes from +ve to –ve and from –ve
to +ve.

62) Both statement I and statement II are true.

63)

64) 10

65) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle : .

66) E1 > E3 > E2

67) It is the Lyman series in which the spectral lines lie in ultraviolet region.

68)

69) CO3–2, SO3

70) 2 : 1

71) 16 : 1

72) Nucleus

73) 6C14, 7N18, 9F17

74)

75) P.E. = –3.02 eV

P.E. = 2E [K.E. = –E]
∴ P.E. = –2 K.E.

K.E. = 1.51

76) –3.4 eV

77) Spherical node = n – –1

=3–0–1
=2
nodal plane = = 0

78) 4

79)

80)

Chiral carbon :- Carbon having four different groups.

81)
So they are Enantiomers.

82)

83) For a compound to be optically active, asymmetry must be present. So statement-I is false.

84)
POS is present molecule is symmetrical
n = 2 (even)

O.A. = 22–1 = 21 = 2

85)

86)
(A) and (B) are not mirror images, So (A) and (B) are diastereomers.
 87)
Optically active

88)

2,3-dichlorobutane can exist as meso compound because it has two chiral centers and
symmetry is possible.

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

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92) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

93) NCERT Pg. # 229

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98)

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99) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 155

100) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230, Figure 14.2

101) NCERT XI Pg. # 155, 156

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105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 237

106)
NCERT Page No. 229

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109) NCERT Page no. 164

110)

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111)

In the mitochondrial electron transport chain (ETS), the order of electron movement is as
follows:
1. FMN (Flavin mononucleotide) receives electrons from NADH.
2. Electrons are then passed to FeS (iron-sulfur clusters).
3. The electrons move to UQ (ubiquinone).
4. From UQ, electrons are transferred to Cyt b (cytochrome b).

112)

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113)

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114)

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117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 154

118) ATP is a nucleotide found in the mitochondria of all plant and animal cells. It is the major
source of energy for cellular reactions and is commonly known as the energy currency of the
cell. This energy is released during its conversion to ADP.

119) Module No. 03, Pg. # 159

120)

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121)

NCERT Pg# 233

122)

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123)

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124)

NCERT [Link] 231

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130)

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131) The correct answer is Organic acid.

When the evolution of CO2, exceeds the intake of O2, it indicates that the substrate being
respired is undergoing anaerobic respiration or is not fully oxidized, resulting in more carbon
dioxide being released compared to oxygen consumed. Organic acids (such as lactic acid or
pyruvic acid) are often metabolized in this manner. In particular, some organic acids like
acetic acid or lactic acid are oxidized in a way that results in the production of more CO2 than
O2 is consumed.

132)

During aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose, there is a net gain of 38 ATP molecules.
This calculation assumes a sequential and orderly pathway with glycolysis, TCA cycle, and ETS
pathway occurring one after another, efficient transfer of NADH produced during glycolysis
into the mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation, no intermediates being used for
synthesizing other compounds, and glucose being the only substrate respired.

133)

The respiratory pathway is involved in both the breakdown (catabolism) and synthesis
(anabolism) of fatty acids and proteins. This dual role makes it an amphibolic pathway, which
participates in both anabolic and catabolic processes.

134)

NCERT XI Page # 161

135)

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136)

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162)

Module Pg No : 05

163)

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164)

Module Pg No : 05

165)

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166) Concept :- Execratory system

Solution :- Question belong zoology execratory system not my subject
Answer :- 4
(i) b (ii) d (iii) a (iv) c

167)

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168)

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176)

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177) Correct Answer: 1. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
Explanation:

A. Henle's loop & Vasa Recta create a counter-current mechanism, crucial for urine
concentration.
B. Descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water, while the ascending limb is
impermeable to water but allows NaCl transport.
C. Vasa Recta maintains the osmolarity gradient, helping in water reabsorption.

Since the counter-current mechanism directly aids urine concentration, the reason correctly explains
the assertion.

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 297

179) NCERT Pg. # 296 19.4

180)

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