31-08-2025

2721CMD303031250026 MD

PHYSICS

1) A projectile thrown with a speed v at an angle θ has a range R on the surface of earth. For same v
and θ, its range on the surface of moon will be

(1) R/6
(2) 6R
(3) R/36
(4) 36 R

2) A particle is moving towards south with speed 10 m/s. After some time it takes right turn and
moves with same speed, find out change in velocity.

(1) m/s S-E

(2) m/s N-E
(3) m/s S-W
(4) m/s N-W

3) A particle is dropped from a hot air balloon. balloon is rising up with uniform speed 10 m/s. If
particle reaches to ground in 7s. Find out height from where particle is propped.

(1) 100 m
(2) 125 m
(3) 150 m
(4) 175 m

4) A particle is dropped from top of a tower. If it covers height in last sec. of motion than find out
height of the tower.

(1) 45 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 180 m

5) A person walks 80 m east, then turns right through angle 143o walks further 50 m and stops. His
position relative to the starting point is

(1) 50 m, 53o east of south

(2) 50 m, 53o south of east
(3) 30 m, 37o south of east
(4) 30 m, 53o south of east
6) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

7) A particle is moving in a straight line y = 3x. Its velocity time graph is shown in figure. Its speed

is minimum at t =.............

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3) 6s
(4) 8s

8) The v–t graph of the motion of a wooden block of mass 1 kg is shown in figure. It is given an initial
push at t = 0, along a horizontal table. The coefficient of friction between the block and table is (g=

10 ms–2)

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.4

9) A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1 from the deck of a ship travelling at a speed of
v2. A person on the shore observes the motion of the shell as parabola. Its horizontal range is given
by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The initial velocity of a projectile is

m/s
it is moving with uniform acceleration

m/s2
The magnitude of its velocity after 10s is

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

11) The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is . The angle of projection is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 15°

12) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A stone is projected from ground with certain speed at an angle θ with horizontal attains
maximum height h1. When it is projected with same speed at an angle θ with vertical attains
maximum height h2. The horizontal Range of projectile is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) h1 + h2

14) A 50 kg person stand on a 25 kg platform. He pulls on the rope which is attached to the platform
via the frictionless pulleys as shown in the figure. The platform moves upwards at a steady rate if the

force with which the person pulls the rope is

(1) 500 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 25 N
(4) None

15) A unidirectional force F varying with time t as shown in the fig, acts on a body initially at rest,

for a short duration 2T. Then the velocity acquired by the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

16) Interaction force between 3 kg & 4 kg is (in newton):-

(1) 36
(2) 25
(3) 12
(4) 24

17) In the given figure, find mass of the block A, if it remains at rest, when the system is released
from rest. Pulleys and strings are ideal.

(1) m
(2) 2m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 3m

18) Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 3 kg are connected by a rope of mass 1 kg. A vertical force of 120 N
is applied on 4 kg block as shown, then what will be the tension at the middle point of the rope :-

(1) 52.5 N
(2) 80.5 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 65.5 N

19) When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is removed then the acceleration of
the particle is :-

(1) F1/m
(2) F2F3/mF1
(3) (F2–F3)/m
(4) F2/m

20) If the system is in equilibrium then tension in the string AB is

(1) F sinθ
(2) F/sinθ
(3) F cos θ
(4)

21) In a given figure, system is in equilibrium. If W1 = 300 N. Then W2 is equal to :-

(1) 500 N
(2) 400 N
(3) 670 N
(4) 300 N

22) A bullet of mass 40 g moving with a speed of 90 ms–1 enters a heavy wooden block and is stopped
after a distance of 60 cm. The average resistive force exerted by the block on the bullet is

(1) 180 N
(2) 220 N
(3) 270 N
(4) 320 N

23) A balloon with mass 'm' is descending down with an acceleration 'a' (where a < g). How much
mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration 'a' ? (Assume that
it's volume does not change)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4μF capacitor is :-

(1) 30μC
(2) 40μC
(3) 24μC
(4) 54μC

25) In the circuit diagram shown all the capacitors are in μF. The equivalent capacitance between

points A & B is (in μF)

(1) 14/5
(2) 7.5
(3) 3/7
(4) None of these

26) A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1 μF and each one of which get punctured if a
potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied, are provide, then an arrangement suitable for
giving a capacitance of 2 μF across which 3000 volt may be applied requires at least:-

(1) 18 component capacitors

(2) 36 component capacitors
(3) 72 component capacitors
(4) 144 component capacitors

27) Six capacitors each of capacitance of 2µF are connected as shown in the figure. The effective

capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 12 µF

(2)
µF
(3) 3 µF
(4) 6 µF

28) A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C0 is connected to a cell of emf V and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1)
The potential difference between the plates becomes times

(2)
The energy stored in the capacitor becomes times
(3)
The change in energy is =

(4)
The change in energy is =

29) The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for two capacitors

C1 and C2. The two capacitors have same plate separation but the plate area
of C2 is double than that of C1. Which of the lines in the graph corresponds to C1 and C2 ?

(1) Line B, line A

(2) Line A, line B
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

30) If A is connected with C and B is connected with D. How much charge flows in the circuit:

(1) 10 µC
(2) 12 µC
(3) 14 µC
(4) 16 µC

31) In the given circuit find out the charge on 1µF capacitor. (Initially they are uncharged) :-

(1) 52 µC
(2) 58 µC
(3) 12 µC
(4) 6 µC
32) In the given circuit find out charge on 6µF capacitor :-

(1) 40 µC
(2) 20 µC
(3) 60 µC
(4) 10 µC

33) A parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric has a capacitance of 0.5 μF. Half of the space
between the plates is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 2 and remaining half is filled with a

medium of dielectric constant of 3 as shown in figure. Find its net capacity.

(1) 1.5 μF
(2) 2.5 μF
(3) 1.25 μF
(4) 2.25 μF

34) Two plates (area = s) charged to +q1 and + q2 (q2 < q1) are brought closer to form a capacitor of
capacitance C. The potential difference across the plates is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4µF capacitor is :-
(1) 30 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 24 μC
(4) 54 μC

36) The equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown between A and B point :-

(1) 5 µF
(2) 4.5 µF
(3) 3.5 µF
(4) 6.5 µF

37) Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The distance between each two plates is d, the net

capacitance is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Minimum number of 2µF and 250 V capacitors used to make a combination of 12µF and 500V
are :-

(1) 48
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 6

39) A 4 µF capacitor is given 20 µC charge and is connected with an uncharged capacitor of

capacitance 2 µF as shown in figure. When switch S is closed :-

(1)
charged flown through the battery is

(2)
charge flown through the battery is

(3)
work done by the battery is

(4)
work done by the battery is

40) A metallic sphere having no net charge is placed near a finite metal plate carrying a positive
charge. The particle will :-

(1) Be attracted towards plate

(2) Be repelled by the plate
(3) Experience zero force
(4) Experience force parallel to plate

41) A parallel plate condenser is charged and disconnected from the battery. If the plates of the
capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles :-

(1) The charge on the capacitor becomes zero

(2) The capacitance becomes infinite
(3) The charge in the capacitor increases
(4) The voltage across the plates increases

42) Three dielectric are filled in a parallel plate capacitor as shown. What should be the net
capacitance –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Equivalent capacitance between X and Y points in the given figure is :-

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 3 μF
(4) 1 μF

44)

In the given figure, three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are joined to a battery, with symbols having their
usual meanings, the correct conditions will be :-

(1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 + V
(2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
(3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2
(4) Q3 = Q2 and V2 = V3

45) In network as shown in the figure, point A is connected to earth, then potential at point B will be

equal to

(1) –50 V
(2) +50 V
(3) –30 V
(4) +30 V

CHEMISTRY

1) Following isomeric pair constitutes an example of :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Metamers

2)

(1) I and II are identical

(2) II and III are chain isomers
(3) I and III are positional isomers
(4) II and III are identical

3) Total number of isomer's having molecular formula C4H8 :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

4) Choose the correct statement ?

(1) Cyclobutane is a planar compound
(2) Geometrical isomers are interconvertable at room temperature
(3) Steric strain is same in both anti & Gauche form
(4) Structural isomers have different connectivity of groups

5) CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)
Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Homologous

6)

(1) Position isomer

(2) Not isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Functional group isomer

7) Which similarity is necessary for isomerism–

(1) Molecular formula

(2) Structure formula
(3) Physical formula
(4) Chemical formula

8) Which of the following is not an isomer of benzyl alcohol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Which of the following does not show metamerism :-

(1) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3

(3)

(4)

10) Structures CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 and are :–

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Both chain & position isomers
(4) Not isomers

11) How many minimum carbons required for Chain isomerism and Position isomerism in alkanes ?

(1) 4, 5
(2) 3, 5
(3) 4, 6
(4) 4, 4

12) CH3—S—CH2—CH3 and CH3—CH2—S—CH3 are –

(1) Ring-chain Isomers

(2) Chain Isomers
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Identical

13) Which amongst the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) Pent-1-ene
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
(3) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
(4) 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene

14) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) 2-Butene
(2) Propene
(3) Ethylene
(4) 2-Methyl-2-butene

15) Geometrical isomers possible with molecular formula C5H10 :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

16) How many chiral carbon atoms present in :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

17) Which of the following compound does not show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The most stable conformation of 2, 3-Dimethyl butane is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) How many chiral centres are present in

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4

20)

Which of the following statements is not correct:

(1) Enantiomers are essentially chiral and optically active

(2) Diastereomers are not necessarily chiral and optically active
(3) All geometrical isomers are diastereomers
(4) All diastereomers are chiral and optically active

21) Which of the following is E-isomer :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Which of the following will not show optical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) For which reaction will Kp = Kc?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)

(2) H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
(3) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

24)

Select the correct statement among the following :

(1) Equilibrium constant changes with addition of catalyst

(2) Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction.
(3) The ratio of mixture at equilibrium does not changed by catalyst
(4) Catalyst are active only in solution.

25) For the gas phase reaction;

ΔH = – 32.7 kcal carried out in a closed vessel, the number of equilibrium moles of C2H4 can be
increased by :

(1) Increasing temperature

(2) Decreasing pressure
(3) Removing some amount of H2
(4) All of these

26) In the system, AB(s) A(g) + B(g) doubling the quantity of AB(s) would :-

(1) increase the amount of A to double its value

(2) increase the amount of B to double its value
(3) increase the amounts of both A and B to double their values
(4) cause no change in the amounts of A and B

27) For the reaction : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is
favoured by :-
(a) Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
(b) Introducing inert gas at constant volume
(c) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
(d) Introducing Cl2 at constant volume

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, d

28) Ratio of active masses of 160 g SO3, 28g N2 and 88 g CO2 in gaseous mixture will be

(1) 2:1:3
(2) 2:1:2
(3) 4:3:2
(4) 8:2:4

29) What will be the concentration of acetate ion in a 1.0 M solution of acetic acid containing 0.1 M
HCl [Ka = 2 × 10–5]:-

(1) 2 × 10–3 M
(2) 2 × 10–4 M
(3) 2 × 10–2 M
(4) 2 × 10–6 M

30) Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 g/mL respectively. Increase of pressure on the
equilibrium C(diamond) ⇌ C(graphite)

(1) Favours backward reaction

(2) Favours forward reaction
(3) Has no effect
(4) Increase the reaction rate

31) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ),

ΔrH = –170.8 kJ mol–1
Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) At equilibrium the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(ℓ) are not equal
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp =
(2)

(3) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
(4) The reaction is exothermic
32)

Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

At a fixed temperature, the volume of a reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the
following statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation
(α)?
(1) Neither KP nor α changes
(2) Both KP and α change
(3) KP changes but α does not change
(4) KP does not change but α changes

33) Equilibrium constant unit of for this gaseous reaction 4A + 5B 4X + 6Y

(1) mol2 L2
(2) L mol–1
(3) L2 mol–2
(4) mol L–1

34)

At 527°C, the reaction given below has KC = 4

NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g)

What is the Kp for the reaction ?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(1) 16 × (800 R)2

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) For a reaction : AB2(g) + 1/2 B2(g) AB3(g) ; ΔH = –x kJ

More AB3 could be produced at equilibrium by :–

(1) Using a catalyst

(2) Removing some of B2
(3) Increasing the temperature
(4) Increasing the pressure

36) Which of the following graph is correct for reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at constant
temperature :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Mole fraction of urea in its 0.5 molal aqueous solution is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) For a gaseous reaction

H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
If 10 ml of I2 (g) reacts completely with H2 then find out the required volume of H2 :

(1) 10 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 100 ml

39) Calculate the frequency of radiation having wavelength 1 Å ?

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
(4) All of the above

40) The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 × 107C kg–1, then for an α-particle it will be -

(1) 2.4 × 107C kg–1

(2) 4.8 × 107C kg–1
(3) 19.2 × 107C kg–1
(4) 38.4 × 107C kg–1

41) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are
in the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

42)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·60
(4) 0·40

43) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and
6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same partial
pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

44) The vapour pressure of a aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole
fraction of solute is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) Vapour pressure of pure A- = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B- = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

BIOLOGY

1) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

2) Find the true/false statement from the following:

(a) Photosynthesis is important because it is the primary source of all food on earth
(b) Bell Jar experiment was performed by Cornelius Van Niel.
(c) Joseph Priestley proved that green part could release O2 by his experiment on an aquatic plant.
(d) Von Sachs studies shows that Glucose is usually stored as starch.

(1) FTTT
(2) TFFT
(3) FTFT
(4) FFFT

3) An experiment using two leaves, a variegated leaf or a leaf that was covered with black paper and
one that was exposed to light was conducted. On testing these leaves for starch shows that
photosynthesis occurs only in ________ part of leaf in the _________ of sunlight.

(1) Non-green, presence

(2) Green, presence
(3) Non-green, absence
(4) Green, absence

4) What is the absorption maxima of P-700?

(1) 700 Å
(2) 683 nm
(3) 700 cm
(4) 700 nm

5) Identify the pigments A, B and C in the given graph showing absorption spectrum of these

pigments.

A B C

(1) Chlorophyll-a Carotenoids Chlorophyll-b

(2) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a

(3) Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids

(4) Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following is the location of process showed in below diagram?

(1) Thylakoids which form stacks in the chloroplast

(2) The fluid part of the chloroplast
(3) Lamellae which connects the grana thylakoids
(4) Outer membrane of chloroplast

7) Which of the following statements regarding C3 plants is/are correct ? (A) They have better
efficiency than C4 plants
(B) They exhibit photorespiration
(C) They do not have PGA as primary CO2 fixation product
(D) Maize is an example of C3 plant

(1) A, C & D are correct

(2) B & D are correct
(3) A & C are correct
(4) Only B is correct

8) How many plants in the given list can produce 3C compound after carboxylation of RuBP ?
Pineapple, Maize, Rice, Mustard, Sorghum, Opuntia, Tomato, Wheat.

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is mesophyll cell

(2) The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity is a 5-carbon compound
Reduction step of Calvin cycle requires
(3)
ATP and NADPH+H+
(4) RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme

10) Read Assertion and Reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below.
Assertion (A): C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway.
Reason (R): Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

11) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in :-

(1) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast

(2) Mesophyll chloroplast
(3) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplast
(4) Does not occur as CO2 is fixed mainly by PEP and no CO2 is left for calvin cycle

12) Findout the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Z-scheme Plastoquinone H-carrier
Located on inner side of thylakoid
(ii) Photosystem-I Pheophytin
membrane
Photolysis of
(iii) OEC H+ released into thylakoid lumen
water
(iv) C4 plants Kranz anatomy Chloroplast dimorphism
(1) i only
(2) i, iii and iv
(3) i and ii
(4) ii and iv

13) The final output of the krebs cycle includes all of the following except :-

(1) NADPH2
(2) FADH2
(3) ATP
(4) CO2

14)

A + Co-A + NAD+ B + C + NADH + H+

Choose the correct option for A, B and C :-

(1) Given reaction takes place in chloroplast
(2) A-Precursor of chlorophyll
(3) B-common compound for glucose, fat and protein oxidation
(4) C-Utilised by glucose for oxidation in mitochondria

15) In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH + H+ by :-

(1) Reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol

(2) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl Co A
(3) Reduction of ethanol to pyruvate
(4) Oxidation of ethanol to acetyl Co A

16) Select the correct order in which different cytochromes work in electron transport chain of inner
membrane of mitochondria :-

(1) Cyt b → Cyt C → Cyt C1 → Cyt a → Cyt a3

(2) Cyt C1 → Cyt b → Cyt C → Cyt a → Cyt a3
(3) Cyt b → Cyt C → Cyt C1 → Cyt a3 → Cyt a
(4) Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Cyt C → Cyt a → Cyt a3
17)
Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D) for the process inside mitochondria. Arrange the (A), (B), (C) and (D) in
ascending order on the basis of number of carbons present in these intermediates :-

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) A < B < D < C
(3) C < D < B < A
(4) D > C > B > A

18) Which of the following intermediate compounds of citric acid cycle is the starting molecule for
synthesis of chlorophyll ?

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) Succinyl CoA
(3) α-KGA
(4) Oxaloacetic acid

19) Which statement concerning ATP synthesis is true?

ATP can be synthesized through substrate level phosphorylation, photophosphorylation and

(1)
oxidative phosphorylation.
The proton-motive force is the establishment of proton gradients and electrochemical potentials
(2)
across the inner membrane
Proton-motive force is essential for back flow of H+ from outer chamber of matrix of
(3)
mitochondria through proton channel (F0) of F0 – F1 particle to produce ATP.
(4) All of the above

20) At the end of the Krebs cycle, but before the electron transport chain, the oxidation of glucose
has produced a net gain of

(1) 3CO2, 5 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP

(2) 6CO2, 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 4 ATP
(3) 6CO2, 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 38 ATP
(4) None of the above

21) Refer the figure showing major pathway of anaerobic respiration

Identify P, Q, R and S in the above.

(1) P→ NAD+, Q→ Ethanol, R→ Lactic acid, S→ PEP

(2) P→ Ethanol, Q→NAD+, R→ Lactic acid, S→ATP
(3) P→ Lactic acid, Q→ Ethanol, R→ Glucose, S→ADP
(4) P→NAD, Q→ Lactic acid, R→ Ethanol, S→DHAP

22) If O2 is not present, yeast cells break down glucose to

(1) CO2 + H2O

(2) CO2 + lactic acid
(3) CO2 + pyruvic acid
(4) C2H5 OH and CO2

23) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The complete oxidation of pyruvate during aerobic respiration results in the formation
of three molecules of CO2 and the removal of hydrogen atoms.
Statement II: The process of electron transfer to molecular O2 and simultaneous synthesis of ATP
during aerobic respiration takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.'
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

24) How many statements are wrong from a to e ?

a. Fermentation take place by many prokaryotes and all multicellular eukaryotes.
b. Pyruvic acid, change in Acetyl CoA before entering in TCA-Cycle.
c. Respiration is a amphibolic process.
d. ETS occurs in mitochondria.
e. One NADH2 equivalent to 3 ATP molecule
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

25) Select the option which correctly depicts the functions of parts X and Y:-

X (Grana) Y (Stroma)

(a) Dark reaction Light reaction

(b) Light reaction Carbohydrate synthesis

(c) Light reaction Dark reaction

(d) Carbohydrate synthesis Carbohydrate storage

(1) a, d
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

26) Succinyl Co–A is related to :-

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Glycolate–cycle
(3) HMP-Shunt
(4) Calvin cycle

27) All of the following are related to the pathway of respiration which is common to both aerobic
and anaerobic respiration except :-

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation

(2) Decarboxylation
(3) Dehydrogenation
(4) Reduction of NAD+

28) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

a. Cytokinin counter acts the effect of apical dominance
b. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of cytokinin
c. Pomalin = Auxin + cytokinin
d. 2, 4-D is synthetic auxin used to destroy dicot weeds

(1) a & d
(2) c & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & b
29) A–Used extensively in agricultural and horticultural practice
B–Rapid cell division
C–Initiate rooting in stem cutting
D–Speed up malting process
E–Promotes female flower in cucumbers
F–Dormancy in seeds / buds
How many functions from above are performed by the auxin in plants ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Four

30) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

(1) Human urine (a) Cytokinin

(2) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Auxin

(3) Herring sperm DNA (c) Ethylene

(4) Ripening fruits (d) Abscisic acid

(5) Aged leaves of plants (e) Gibberellins

(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
(3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
(4) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d

31) Choose the correct option for the plant given in the following figure, and habitats in which (A)

and (B) leaves are produced.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) The characteristic of plant growth includes which of the following ?

(1) It is localized and generally determinate

(2) It is localized and generally indeterminate
(3) It is non-measurable
(4) It is diffused, determinate and non measurable

33) Choose the correct statements about effects of different PGRs :-

(a) Cytokinin delay senescence of leaf.
(b) Auxin causes apical dominance
(c) Ethylene induces seed dormancy
(d) Gibberellins prevent the falling of immature leaves

(1) a and b
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) b and d

34) Cytokinin helps in delay of leaf senescene by :-

(1) Increasing more water absorption by root

(2) decreasing rate of translocation of organic solutes
(3) promoting nutrients mobilization
(4) formation of adventitious buds

35) How many statement about auxin are correct

(A) Auxin promote apical dominance
(B) Auxin like NAA (Napthalene Acetic Acid) and 2–4–D, (2–4 dichlorophenoxyacetic) have been
isolated from plant.
(C) Auxins promote flowering in pineapples
(D) Auxin induce parthenocarpy

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

36) Statement 1:Growth, differentiation and development are very closely related events in the life
of a plant.
Statement 2: Development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect

37) Fill in the blank :

_______ confirmed the release of volatile substance from ripened orange that hastened the ripening
of bananas :

(1) F.W. went

(2) Charles Darwin
(3) H.H. Cousins
(4) [Link] & Miller

38)

Which one(s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s) ?

(1) Cork
(2) Secondary cortex
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Phellogen

39) Match the following & find the correct one :-

(A) Auxins (i) Seed maturation

Horizontal growth
(B) Gibberellins (ii)
of seedlings

Promote nutrient
(C) Cytokinins (iii)
mobilisation

Increases yield in
(D) Ethylene (iv)
sugarcane

Initiates rooting in
(E) Abscisic acid (v)
stem cuttings
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C- (iii), D-(iv), E- (v)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C- (i), D-(v), E- (iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C- (iii), D-(iv), E- (ii)
(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C- (iii), D-(ii), E- (i)

40) Function of abscisic acid is :-

(1) Apical dominance

(2) Growth inhibition
(3) Cell division
(4) Seed germination

41) Photosynthesis is a/an :-

(a) Endergonic process
(b) Anabolic process
(c) Physico chemical process

(1) Only a, b
(2) Only c
(3) All a, b, c
(4) Only b

42) Statement I : CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis.

Statement II : C4 plants adapted to dry tropical regions

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

43) Which one of the following is chemically identical to ABA ?

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid

(2) Kinetin
(3) Dormin
(4) 2, 4-D

44) Which one is responsible for internodal elongation in rossett plants ?

(1) Cytokinins
(2) Auxins
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellins

45) Which of following hormone play an important role in seed maturation ?

(1) ABA
(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Auxin

46) Which type of white blood cell resist infection and are also associated with allergic rections ?

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Lymphocytes

47) Statement I: Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively
enough to meet the needs of body.
Statement II: Heart attack is the condition when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an
inadequate blood supply.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

48) Which enzyme causes conversion of prothrombin into thrombin?

(1) Thrombinase
(2) Prothrombinase
(3) Thrombokinase
(4) Rennin

49) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

Clot or coagulum is formed mainly by a network of fibrin in which the dead and damaged
(1)
formed element of blood are trapped.
(2) Inactive fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by the hormone thrombin.
(3) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin by the enzyme complex thrombokinase.
(4) Platelets and Injured tissue release certain factors which initiate coagulation.

50) Read the statement:

(a) Biscupid valve(mitral) in between the opening of Left atrium and left ventricle
(b) Cardiac muscle fibres differ from skeletal muscles in function
(c) Hepatic portal system starts from digestive tract to liver
(d) Ventricular contraction is under the command of S.A node
(e) Ventricle wall is more thicker than atrial wall
(f) Artery contain valve and have large lumen.
Which one is correct ?

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) c, d, f
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d, e

51) Given below are four statement (a – d) regarding human blood circulatory system :-
(A) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins.
(B) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced.
(C) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO
system.
(D) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting.
Which two of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (D)

52) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as assertion (A) & other is labelled as reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Atherosclerosis affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscles.
Reason (R) : Calcium, fats cholesterol & fibrous tissues deposited in the lumen of arteries, which
makes the lumen narrower.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

53) Read the following statement and choose the correct ones
(a) The atrium and the ventricle of the same side are separated by a thick fibrous tissue called the
atrio-ventricular septum
(b) The right and the left atria are separated by a thin muscular wall called inter atrial septum
(c) Heart is endodermally derived organ situated in the thoracic cavity in between the lungs
(d) Heart slightly fitted towards right
(e) Heart has sized of clenched fist, weight 300 gm
Choose the correct option

(1) a, b & c
(2) a, b, c & d
(3) c & d
(4) a, b, & e

54)
Recognise A,B, C,D

(1) A-Neutrophils, B-Lymphocytes, C-Basophils, D-Monocyte

(2) A-Neutrophils, B-Lymphocytes, C-Monocyte, D-Acidophils
(3) A-Lymphocytes, B-Neutrophils, Acidophils, D-Basophils
(4) A-Monocytes, B-Neutrophils, C-Lymphocytes, D-Eosinophils

55) A student of KGMN2M1 batch while crossing the road found blood lying on the road side.
He/She picked it up and brought it home. At home he/she observed it under a microscope and
noticed some features of a particular cell in a blood that are mentioned below (a) Involved in
inflammatory reactions
(b) Nucleus = Two to three lobed
(c) Presence of cytoplasmic granules visualised on staining with basic dye. Identify the cell :-

(1) Acidophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neutrophil
(4) Either basophil or neutrophil

56) Which will lead to excessive loss of blood from body?

(1) Reduction in number of platelets

(2) Absence of clotting factors
(3) Excess of heparin
(4) All of the above

57) Assertion :- LUBB (first sound) is of shorter duration and sharp sound.
Reason : - it is produced by the closure of semilunar valves.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

58) Chordae tendinae are the cord like structures that originate from papillary muscles of the
inner border of the ventricles and are attached to free edges of the cuspid valves. What would
happen if there is breakdown of chordae tendinae of bicuspid valves?

(1) There will be regurgitation of blood into right atrium during ventricular systole
(2) The bicuspid valves will not close
(3) The blood may flow back into the left atrium during ventricular systole
(4) There may be regurgitation of blood into both the atria during ventricular systole.

59) Consider the following statements A, B, C and D and state from the options given whether
they are True (T) or False (F).
(A) Haemolytic disease of the new born (HDN) can occur when an Rh– mother is pregnant with an
Rh+ foetus.
(B) Cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man.
(C) In an ECG, by counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can
determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
(D) Vagus nerve, a part of parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate when stimulated.

(1) A–F; B–F; C–T; D–T

(2) A–T; B–F; C–T; D–F
(3) A–T; B–T; C–F; D–T
(4) A–T; B–T; C–T; D–T

60) The given figure represent the section of a human heart - Identify the labelling in which heart
receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and pump oxygenated blood to tissues/organs respectively
:-

(1) C-Pulmonary vein, D-Aorta

(2) A-Vena cava, D-Aorta
(3) B-Pulmonary vein, C-Aorta
(4) B-Pulmonary artery, A-Vena cava

61)

(1) X = 6000-8000 mm-3 of blood, Y-Blood clotting.

(2) X = 61-81 mm-3 of blood, Y- Blood clotting.
(3) X = 12-16 mm-3 of blood, Y-Inflammation.
(4) X = 61-81 mm-3 of blood, Y - Allergic reaction.

62) Identify the following blood vessels.

 A B C

(1) Capillary Artery Vein

(2) Vein Capillary Artery

(3) Vein Artery Capillary

(4) Artery Vein Capillary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Identify the correct match:

Column A Column B

Cardiac
a Heart stops beating i
arrest

b Acute chest pain ii Heart failure

Heart muscle suddenly

c iii Heart attack
damages

Heart not pumping

d iv Angina
blood effectively
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

64) Which of the following match is correct -

Blood Ag. on Ab in Donor's

group RBCs Plasma group
 1. A A anti B A,AB

2. B B anti A B,O

3. AB Nil anti A, B A,B,AB,O

4. O A,B Nil O
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Please observe the diagram below

(1) A-Hepatic vein, B-portal vein, C-hepatic artery

(2) A-portal vein, B-hepatic artery, C- hepatic vein
(3) A-hepatic artery, B-hepatic vein, C- portal vein
(4) A- portal vein, B-hepatic vein, C-hepatic artery

66) Which of the following statement are correct-

I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the active
form always.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

67) Which of the following is the correct function of diagram given below :-

(1) Protect body against allergy

(2) Secrete heparin and histamin
(3) Destroy bacteria and virus
(4) Directly kill microbe
68) If the parasympathetic influence on heart is removed, heart will

(1) Beat slowly

(2) Beat faster
(3) Show no change
(4) Stop beating

69) Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :

(1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

70) Match the following descriptions (given in column-II) of each type of blood cell to their names
(given in column-I).
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

71) Kidneys are situated between the levels of __A____ and __B____vertebrae

(1) A ---first cervical , B ---last thoracic

(2) A---last thoracic , B---third lumbar
(3) B -Last cervical , B ---third Lumbar
(4) A---Last thoracic , B---First sacral

72) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by :

(1) efferent arteriole

(2) afferent arteriole
(3) Bowmans capsule
(4) PCT

73) Read the following statement –

(I) It is lined by simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium.
(II) 70 – 80% H2O and electrolytes are reabsorbed in this segment.
(III) It also helps the maintains the pH & ionic balance of body.
(IV) It is the proximal part of Nephron.
How many statements are correct about proximal convulated tubule of Nephron.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

74) Read the given Statement about Juxta medullary Nephron.

Statement-I : A minute capillary runs parallel to Henle's loop is vasa recta.
Statement-II : Vasa Recta is U-shaped and highly reduced in cortical nephron.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Only Statement-I is correct.
(3) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

75) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's loop in juxtamedullary nephrons
(b) Cortical nephron has no or highly reduced vasa recta
(c) Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries & glomerulus, all have blood
(d) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called efferent arterioles

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b) both
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) All are correct

76) Following is a tabular representation of differences between Juxtamedullary and Cortical

nephron. Find out the correct difference :-

Juxtamedullary Cortical
Feature
nephron nephron

(1) Size Smaller Larger

Loop of
(2) Longer Short
Henle

85% of total 15% of total

(3) Presence
nephrons nephrons

Control plasma
Control plasma
volume when
(4) Function volume when water
water supply is
supply is normal
short
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Choose the correct one for the nephron :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
78) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the nephron are shown in

the given figure. In this figure A, B, C and D are respectively:-

(1) , nutrients, urea, NaCl

(2) NaCl, urea, K+,
(3) NaCl, urea, , ammonia
H2O, urea, NaCl,
(4)

79) The given figure represents a single nephron from a mammalian kidney. Identify the labelled

parts, match them with the functions (i - iv) and select the correct option :- (i)
The site of ultrafiltration
(ii) Particulary sensitive to ADH
(iii) The main site for the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids
(iv) Largely resposible for the maintenance of blood pH

(1) (i)-A; (ii)-E; (iii) - C; (iv) - D

(2) (i)-A; (ii) - B; (iii) - C; (iv) - D
(3) (i)-A; (ii)-B; (iii) - C; (iv) - E
(4) (i)-A; (ii) - B; (iii) - D; (iv) - E

80) The presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are indicative of

(1) Diabetes mellitus

(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Renal calculi
(4) Glomerulonephritis

81) Assertion (A) : The final reabsorption of water from urine into blood occurs through the
collecting duct of a mammalian nephron, resulting in the production of hyperosmotic urine.
Reason (R) : The reabsorption of water in DCT & collecting duct is controlled by ADH that helps in
formation hyper osmolarity of urine.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

82) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?

(1) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
(4) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.

83)

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct ?

(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes

(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3.
(4) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules

84) Assertion (A): Blood is filtered so finely through membranes, that almost all the constituents of
the plasma except the proteins pass onto the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule.
Reason (R): The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate
manner so as to leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or slit pores, by which ultra filtration
occur.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect

85) With respect to below diagram select the correct statement.

(1) Counter current mechanism is due to Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus
300 mOsmolL–1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL–1 in the inner medulla is mainly caused by
(2)
MgCl2 and Haemoglobin
NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the
(3)
descending limb of vasa recta.
(4) NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the descending portion of vasa recta.

86) Which of the following is produced by kidney ?

(1) Renin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Calciferol
(4) Both 1 & 2

87) Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs due to :-

(1) Bowman's capsule has higher hydrostatic pressure than glomerulus

Colloidal osmotic pressure and capsule's hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
(2)
hydrostatic pressure
(3) Glomerulus hydrostatic pressure is less than capsular pressure
(4) Osmotic pressure is more than Hydrostatic pressure

88) In counter current system :-

(1) Descending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(2) Ascending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(3) "NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta"
(4) Both (2) & (3)

89) The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidney per minute is called GFR (Glomerular filtration
rate). The GFR of a healthy adult is :-

(1) 80 ml/min
(2) 125 ml/min
(3) 300 ml/min
(4) 20 ml/min

90) Match the excretory functions of section I with the part of the excretory system in section II.
Choose the correct combination from among the option given :-

Section-I Section - II
(Function) (Parts of excretory systems)

(A) Ultra filtration (1) Henle's loop

(B) Concentration of urine (2) Ureter

(C) Transport of urine (3) Urinary bladder

(D) Storage of urine (4) Malpighian corpuscle

(5) Proximal convoluted tubule

(1) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(2) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(3) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–3
(4) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–2
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 4 4 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 4 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

gmoon =

R∝ ⇒ R → 6R

2) Question Explanation:
A particle's initial velocity is towards the south, and after some time, it turns right (which
means it now moves west) with the same speed. find the change in its velocity.

Concept:
This question is based on Vector Subtraction of Velocities

Formula:
Change in velocity, Δv = vfinal – vinitial

Solution:
Magnitude of the change in velocity:

The vector –10i+10 j points in the direction of negative x-axis (West) and positive y-axis
(North). This corresponds to the North -West (N-W) direction.

Hence,
Correct option: (4)

3) S = 10(7) – (10) (7)2

S = 70 – 5(49)
S = –175
4) t - 0, u - 0, a = g (const)
1 : 3 : 5:......

t=3&h=
= 45 m

5) AC = 40 m
CB = 30 m
OC = OA – AC = 40 m

= 50 m

, 53° east of south

6)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

7) Speed is zero at t = 4 s.

8) Here = – 1 = – μg ⇒ m = 0.1

9) For vertical motion, time of flight t

for horizontal motion R = v2 × t

10)
Its magnitude is

m/s

11) tan θ = θ = 60°

12)

13)

⇒
R=

14)
T + N = mg ...(1)
& 2T = N + mg ...(2)
From (1) & (2)
T = 250 N

15) Δp = Area of force time-graph = 0

16)
Acceleration of system

a=

a=
a = 4m/s2
For 4 kg mass
N – 9 = 4a
N=9+4×4
N = 25 newton

17) T1 = mAg and T2 = but T1 = 2T2 so mA = 3m

18) a = = 5 m/s2
T – 3.5g = 3.5 × 5
T = 52.5 N

19)
Three forces are in equilibrium

F1 = m a ⇒ a = F1/m

20)

T sin θ = F ⇒ T =

21) Explain :- The problem shows a system in equilibrium with two weights, W1 and W2
suspended by strings at angles. We're given W1 = 300 N and need to find W2.

Concept :- Force balance for equilibrium.

Formula : (sum of horizontal forces is zero)

(sum of vertical forces is zero)

Tension components :-
Tx = T cos(θ)
Ty = T sin (θ)
Calculation : Horizontal equilibrium
T1cos(37°) = T2cos(37°)
T1 =T2
Vertical Equilibrium
T1sin(37°) = W1 = 300N
W2 = T2 sin(37°) = T1 sin(37°) = 300 N

Final Answer : (4)

22) Here, u = 90 ms–1, v = 0

m = 40 g = kg = 0.04 kg
s = 60 cm = 0.6 m
Using v2 – u2 = 2as
∴ (0)2 – (90)2 = 2a × 0.6

∴
–ve sign shows the retardation.
The average resistive force exerted by block on the bullet is
F = m × a = (0.04 kg) (6750 ms–2) = 270 N

23)
mg – ma – mg + m'g = ma – m'a

m' =

24)
10x = 10
x =1

25)
Ceq =

26)

Number of capacitors required in series = =6. The capacitance of series combination =

(1/6)μF.
To obtain a capacitor of 2 μF, we should use 12 such combinations.
∴ Total number of capacitors required = 12 ×6 = 72

27) ≡
CAB = 12μF

0
28) Initial energy, Ui = C V2

0
Final energy, Uf = (KC ) (V/K)2

or Uf =

0
Change in energy = Uf – Ui = C V2 (1/K–1)

29) Since, slope of the graph, i.e., q/V = C and the line A has a larger slope than the line B, it
represents the capacitor of larger capacitance. Further, as C ∝ A and the plate area of C2 is
double that of C1, C2 has the larger capacitance. Hence the line A (with larger slope)
represents capacitor C2 and the line B represents the capacitor C1.

30)
Let potential of B and D is zero and common potential on capacitors is V, then at A and C it
will be V.
By charge conservation, 3V + 2V = 40 + 30
5V = 70
V = 14 volt
Charge flow = 40 – 28 = 12 µC
Now final charges on each plate is shown in the figure.

31) Let potential at A is 0, so at D it is 30V, at F it is 10V and at point G potential is –25V and
let potential at E is x. Now apply kirchhoff's Ist law at point E. (Total charge of all the plates
connected to 'E' must be same as before i.e. 0)
∴ (x – 10) + (x – 30)2 + (x + 25)2 = 0
5x = 20
x = 4V

Final charges :
Q2µF = (30 – 4)2 = 52µC
Q1µF = (10 – 4) = 6µC
Q2µF = (4 – (–15))2 = 58µC

32) It can be simplified as

charge flow through the cell = 30 × 2µC

Q = 60 µC Now charge on 3µF = charge on 6µF = 60 µC

Potential difference across 3µF = 60/3 = 20V
∴ Charge on 1µF = 20µC

33) Given that original capacitance

C= = 0.5 μF
Capacitance of part with dielectric constant 2 is

C1 = = = 0.5 μF
Capacitance of part with dielectric constant 3 is

C2 = = = 0.75 μF
As both the capacitors are connected in parallel so
Ceq = C1 + C2 = 0.5 + 0.75 = 1.25 μF
34)

35)
Potential drop across 4μF = 6 Volt
q4μF = 4 × 6 = 24 μC

36)
= (2μ + 3μ)F = 5μF

37)
Balanced W.S.B

38)
N = 12 × 2 = 24

39)
qi = 20μC
 6x = 10

Δq = qi – qf

40)

Explaining the Question :- A metallic sphere having no net charge is placed near a finite
metal plate carrying a positive charge. The sphere will:-

Problem Explanation:-

Given ⇒ A metallic sphere is placed near a positively changed metal plate.

To determine ⇒ What nature of force will the sphere experience?

Concept:- Electrostatic Induction: A neutral conductor near a charged object gets opposite
charge induced on its nearer side, causing attraction.

Solution :-

A. The sphere's nearer side gets induced negatively charged its farther side gets induced
positively charged.
B. The positive plate attracts the nearer side and repels the farther side of the sphere.
C. Attraction is stronger due to less distance on the nearer side.
D. Net force: Attractive towards the plate.

Final Answer :- Option (1) Be attracted towards plate.

41)

Since battery is disconnected, charge remain constant on increasing seperations, C decrease.

Since Q = CV
Voltage increases

42)

C = C1 + C2
 43)

⇒
CT = 4μF

44) C2 and C3 are in parallel and their parallel combination is in series with C1 so, charge of
C1 (Q1) is divide among C2 & C3 ⇒ Q1 = Q2 + Q3
and V2 = V3 (∵ parallel)
Applied V = V1 + V2

45)
VA – 30 + 80 = VB
VB = +50 V

CHEMISTRY

46)
Position of substituents are different so they are position isomers.

47)

CH3–CHD–CH2T, CH2D–CHT–CH3, CHDT–CH2–CH3

1 2 3
1 ∝ 2 → Positional isomers
2 & 3 → Positional isomers

48)

49)

Fact

50)

NCERT XI Pg. # 348

51)
M.F. ⇒ C6H12O M.F. ⇒ C6H12O
function Aldehyde functional group
group (–CHO) ⇒ (=+OH)
∴ these are functional group isomer.

52) Asking about : Similarity necessary for isomerism.

Concept : Definition of isomers.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
• Two compounds are isomers of each other if they have same molecular formula but different
chemical or physical properties.
• So, molecular formula should be same for two compounds to be isomers of each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

53)
shows functional isomerism with (1), (2), (4)

54) In ketone minimum 5 carbon required to show metamerism.

Metamer
CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
⇒ CH3–NH–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
⇒ CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3
55) Asking about : Relation between given structures.

Concept : Chain isomerism.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
⇒ compounds having same molecular formula but have difference in length of parent carbon
chain or length of branch are called as chain isomers.

⇒ In CH3–CH2–CH = CH2 and

both have same molecular formula C4H8 but have difference in length of parent carbon chain.
Hence both are chain isomers.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

56) Asking about : Minimum carbon atoms required to show chain and position isomerism in
alkanes.

Concept :
(1) Chain Isomerism :- compounds having same molecular formula but have difference in
length of parent carbon chain or length of Branch are called as chain isomerism.
(2) Position isomerism :- compounds having same molecular formula but have difference in
position of branch or multiple bond or functional group are called as position isomer.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
→ first three members of alkane do not show any isomerism.

→ C4H10 :- (i) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (ii)

both (i) & (ii) are chain isomers.
∴ Minimum carbon to show chain isomerism in alkane is 4.

→ C5H12 :- (i) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3 (ii) (iii) all are chain
isomers of each other.

→ C6 H12 :- (i) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 (ii)

(iii) (iv) (v)

→ structure (ii) & (iii) are position isomers.
→ Hence minimum 6 carbon are required to show position isomerism by alkane.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

57) Explaining the question - Find the relation between given compound.
 Concept - Structural isomerism.

Solution -
CH3—S—CH2—CH3 CH3—CH2—S—CH3

mol formula : C3H8S

A. Both compound have same mol. formula.

B. Same connectivity of atoms.
C. Same IUPAC name.
D. so these are Identical

Final Answer - option 4

58)

A) Question Explanation: The question asks to identify which of the four given alkene
compounds can exhibit geometrical isomerism (also known as cis-trans isomerism).

B) Concept Used: The key concept is Geometrical Isomerism. alkene to exhibit geometrical
isomerism.

C) Answer Explanation :

A. Pent-1-ene:

B. 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene:

C. 2-Methylprop-1-ene:
D. 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene:

C) Final Answer: The compound that will show geometrical isomerism is 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-
ene

(Option 4).
59) Both sp2 hybridized carbon of 2-butene have different atom or group.

60) C5H10 structures

C – C– C – C = C

Geometrical isomerism

2 + 4 = 4 in total.

61) 4 chiral C

62) because minimum 8 carbon is required to show geometrical isomerism.

63) Distance between 2-methyl group is maximum so minimum repulsion or

maximum stable.

64)
65)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the incorrect statement.
Concept:-
Properties of stereoisomers.
Solution :-
• Statement (4) is incorect.
All the diastereomers are not chiral and not optically active for example, cis and trans but-2-
ene are geometrical diastereomers, but both are optically inactive due to presence of plane of
symmetry.
Final Answer :- (4)

66)
E-isomer

67)

Chiral carbon absent in .

68)

Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
If Δng = 0 Kp = Kc

69)

Question Explanation : Which of the following is correct.

Concept : at equilibrium catalyst does not affect equilibrium, it incease speed of both forward
reaction and backward reaction with game speed.
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how to decrease the number of moles of ethylene
(Câ‚‚Hâ‚„) at equilibrium in a gas phase reaction where ethylene reacts with hydrogen (Hâ‚‚) to
form ethane (C₂H₆). The reaction is reversible and exothermic with a given enthalpy
change ΔH = -32.7 kcal.

Underlying Concept: The problem revolves around Le Châtelier's principle, which states
that if an external change is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system adjusts to partially
oppose that change. Since the reaction is exothermic (releases heat), changing the
 temperature will shift the equilibrium. Also, pressure and concentration changes affect
equilibrium in reactions involving gases.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that exothermic reactions shift right when temperature
decreases and left when temperature increases. Also, equilibrium shifts toward the side with
fewer gas moles if pressure increases.

Common Mistakes: Assuming increasing temperature always favors product formation, or

confusing the effect of pressure changes without counting the moles of gaseous reactants and
products.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Increasing temperature adds heat to the system, which
favors the endothermic (reverse) reaction, increasing Câ‚‚Hâ‚„ instead of decreasing it.
Decreasing pressure would shift equilibrium toward the side with more moles of gas, which is
the reactants side (2 moles) versus 1 mole product, increasing Câ‚‚Hâ‚„. Removing Hâ‚‚
reduces one reactant, shifting equilibrium left to produce more Câ‚‚Hâ‚„. Hence, only
decreasing temperature decreases Câ‚‚Hâ‚„.

71) Question is Asking About:

The equilibrium reaction given is:

We need to determine the effect of doubling the quantity of AB(s) on the amounts of A(g) and
B(g).

Given Data:

A. Reaction:
B. Change: Doubling the amount of AB(s)

Concept:

A. Solids do not affect the equilibrium because their concentration remains constant in
equilibrium expressions.
B. Only the partial pressures or concentrations of gases and aqueous species influence
equilibrium.
C. Since AB is a solid, increasing its quantity will not shift the equilibrium position or change the
amount of A(g) or B(g).

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The equilibrium constant expression for this reaction is:

Since AB(s) is not included in the equilibrium expression, changing its quantity has no effect on the
equilibrium concentrations of A(g) and B(g).

Final Answer:
Cause no change in the amounts of A and B.
​Hence, option (4) is correct.
 72) A. Question Explanation:

A. The question asks which conditions will shift the equilibrium of the given reaction (PCIS(g) ⇌
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)) towards the right (forward reaction).
B. We need to consider how different changes to the system's conditions will affect the
equilibrium position according to Le Chatelier's Principle.

B. Given Data:

A. Chemical Reaction: PCIS(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

C. Concept:

A. Le Chatelier's Principle: When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a stress, the system

will shift its equilibrium position to counteract the stress .

D. Analysis of Options:
1. Introducing inert gas at constant pressure:

A. Adding an inert gas at constant pressure will increase the total volume of the system.
B. This will decrease the partial pressures of all the reactants and products.
C. Since there are more moles of gas on the product side (2 moles) compared to the reactant side
(1 mole), decreasing the pressure will favor the side with more moles of gas to re-establish
equilibrium.
D. Therefore, introducing an inert gas at constant pressure will favor the forward reaction.

2. Introducing inert gas at constant volume:

A. Adding an inert gas at constant volume will increase the total pressure of the system.
B. However, the partial pressures of the reactants and products will remain unchanged.
C. This is because the inert gas does not participate in the reaction and does not affect the
equilibrium position.
D. Therefore, introducing an inert gas at constant volume will not favor the forward reaction.

3. Introducing PCIS at constant volume:

A. Adding more PCl5 (reactant) will increase its concentration.

B. To counteract this increase, the system will shift the equilibrium to consume the added PCl5.
C. Therefore, introducing PCl5 at constant volume will favor the forward reaction.

4. Introducing Cl2 at constant volume:

A. Adding more Cl2 (product) will increase its concentration.

B. To counteract this increase, the system will shift the equilibrium to consume the added Cl2.
C. Therefore, introducing Cl2 at constant volume will not favor the forward reaction.

E. Final Answer:

A. The conditions that favor the forward reaction are:

A. Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
B. Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
B. Therefore, the correct answer is: 2 (a, c)

73) SO3 : N2 : CO2

 Moles: : :
2:1:2

74)

Explanation :-

A. Calculation the concentration of acetate ion in a solution of acetic acid.

Given Data :-

A. Concentration of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) = 1.0 M

B. Concentration of hydrochloric acid (HCl) = 0.1 M
C. Ka of acetic acid = 2 × 10⁻⁵

Concept :-

A. Acetic acid is a weak acid, and its ionization is suppressed by the presence of a strong acid
(HCl) due to the common ion effect (H⁺ ions).

Calculation :-

A. The ionization of acetic acid is: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻

Ka = [H⁺][CH₃COO⁻] / [CH₃COOH]

A. HCl is a strong acid and completely ionizes: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻ So,

[H⁺] from HCl = 0.1 M.

A. Due to the common ion effect, the contribution of H⁺ from acetic acid ionization is negligible
compared to that from HCl. Therefore, the total [H⁺] ≈ 0.1 M.
B. Now, we can calculate the concentration of acetate ion [CH₃COO⁻]:

Ka = [H⁺][CH₃COO⁻] / [CH₃COOH]

2 × 10⁻⁵ = (0.1) [CH₃COO⁻] / (1.0) [CH₃COO⁻]

(2 × 10⁻⁵ × 1.0) / 0.1 [CH₃COO⁻] = 2 × 10⁻⁴ M

Answer option 2, (2 × 10⁻⁴ M).

75) Explanation:
Determine direction of reaction on increasing pressure in following reaction.

Given Data:

Concept:
 In physical equilibrium, on increasing pressure goes less volume (more density)
goes is backward direction.

Final Answer: Option (1)

76)

77)

Question Explanation
The question asks how the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation (α) change for
the reaction when the container volume is halved at a fixed temperature.
Concept
This question is based on Le Chatelier's Principle and Properties of Equilibrium Constant (Kp)
Reasoning
- The equilibrium constant (Kp) for a given reaction depends only on temperature. Since the
temperature is fixed, Kp does not change.
- When the volume is halved, the pressure increases. According to Le Chatelier's Principle, the
equilibrium will shift in the direction that reduces the pressure, which is the direction with
fewer moles of gas.
- The equilibrium will shift to the left (towards N2O4) to decrease the number of gas moles.
- A shift to the left means that less N2O4 dissociates, so the degree of dissociation (α)
decreases.
Final Answer
Kp does not change, but α changes (decreases).
Correct option: 4

78)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks us to determine the units of the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the given
gaseous reaction: 4A + 5B ⇌ 4X + 6Y.

C: Concept

The equilibrium constant (Kc) is expressed in terms of concentrations (mol/L or M). The units
of Kc depend on the change in the number of moles (Δng) of gaseous species in the reaction.

Kc = [Products]coefficients / [Reactants]coefficients

Δng = (moles of gaseous products) - (moles of gaseous reactants)

D: Mathematical Calculation

A. Write the expression for Kc:

 Kc = [X]4 [Y]6 / [A]4 [B]5

B. Determine the units of Kc:

Units of

Units of Kc = mol/L

E: Final Answer

The units of the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction are mol/L.

Therefore, the correct option is (4).

79) Explanation:

Reaction: NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g) KC = 4

Reverse reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) KC'
Concept: Relation between Kp and Kp
Solution:
The relation between Kp and Kc is given by:

KC' =
∴

KP =
Answer is option (3).

80) NCERT Page no. 293 (effect of pressure)

81) NCERT Pg # 191, Fig-7.4

82)

83)

10 mL I2 requires 10 mL of H2(g) according to reaction.

84)

85)

86) Explanation:-
Stronger intermolecular forces mean molecules are held together more tightly.
This makes it harder for them to escape into the gas phase (evaporate).
Weaker intermolecular forces mean easier evaporation.
Concept :-
Given A < B < C (intermolecular forces), A has the weakest forces, and C has the strongest.
Therefore, A will evaporate most readily, and C will evaporate least readily.
Answer option 3, (A evaporates more readily than C).

87) Explanation:
Mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is to be found.
Given data:
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°benzene) = 200Torr
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°toluene) = 150Torr
• Moles of benzene = 5
• Moles of toluene = 5
concept
Raoult'sLaw Law: The partial pressure of a component in the vapor phase is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
Dalton's Law: The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressure of the individual gases.
Calculation
Xbenzene = moles of benzene / (moles of benzene + moles of toluene) = 5/(5+5) = 0.5
Pbenzene =Xbenzene (P°benzene) =0.5 ×200Torr = 100 Torr
Ptoluene = Xtoluene (P°toluene)
Xtoluene = 1 - Xbenzene = 0.5
Ptoluene = 0.5×150 Torr = 75 Torr
Ptotal = Pbenzene + Ptoluene
Ptotal = 100 Torr + 75 Torr = 175 Torr
Mole fraction of benzene in vapor phase (Ybenzene)
Ybenzene = Pbenzene/ Ptotal = 100Torr/ 175 Torr = 0.571
Final answer =The mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is approximately 0.57
correct option - 1

88) Since solubility of gas decrease with increasing KH.

89) SO XB
 90)
40 + 90 = 130

BIOLOGY

91) Question Explanation : The question asks you to count how many of the listed factors
are external factors that affect photosynthesis in plants.
Concept:
This question is based on FACTORS AFFECTING PHOTOSYNTHESIS.

Solution:
The correct answer is 3.4

Explanation :
External factors = 4
Light, CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water

Final answer: 3. 4

92)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 134

93) Ncert Page 206.

94)
Th
XI NCERT Pg No : 110

95)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 137

96) NCERT Pg. # 212

97)

NCERT XI Page # 221

98)

NCERT XI Pg # 143
[Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic plants]
[केिवन पथ सभी काश सं ले षी पादप म होता है ।]
99) NCERT Page no 216-220

100)

Ncert Page 220.

101)

NCERT XI Pg # 219

102)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 139

103)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 159

104)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 158

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

106)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 160

107)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 159

108)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 162

109)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 162

110)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 159

111)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 157

112)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 157

113) Statement I: Correct. During aerobic respiration, pyruvate is completely oxidized, which
involves the stepwise removal of all hydrogen atoms, resulting in the formation of three
molecules of CO2. Statement II: Incorrect. The electron transfer to molecular O2 and the
synthesis of ATP occur on the inner membrane of the mitochondria, known as the electron
transport chain, not in the matrix.

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 230, 232, 235

115)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 160

116)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 159

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 229, fig. 14.1

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 175, 176

119) NCERT XIth Pg.#248-251

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 174-175

121) Explaining Question:

Identify the correct plant Larkspur or Butter (up) and their respective habitats (A and B) based
on provided image.
Concept: This question is based on Development: Heterophylly.
Solution: Option (3) is correct because plant (A) is a Buttercup and it is known to grow in
both terrestrial and aquatic Habitats where such leaves are produced.
 122) SOLUTION
The correct answer is: It is localized and generally indeterminate.
Explanation:
• Localized and generally indeterminate: Plant growth is generally localized at specific regions
like the apical meristems (tips of roots and shoots) and lateral meristems (for secondary
growth). Indeterminate growth means that plants continue to grow throughout their life,
unlike animals that typically have a fixed growth pattern.
• It is localized and generally determinate: This is incorrect because most plants exhibit
indeterminate growth, meaning they can grow continuously under favorable conditions.
• It is non-measurable: This is incorrect. Plant growth is measurable, usually by looking at
changes in size, mass, or volume over time.
• It is diffused, determinate, and non-measurable: This is incorrect as growth in plants is
localized and generally indeterminate, and it is certainly measurable.
Correct answer: It is localized and generally indeterminate.

123)

XI NCERT Pg # 248-250

124) NCERT Pg.# 250

125) NCERT-XI, Pg # 248

126) Ncert Pg No: 244

127) NCERT-XI, Pg # 247, 15.4.2

128)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 249

129)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 176

130)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 177

131)

The correct answer is 3: All a, b, c

Photosynthesis is:

A. Endergonic because it requires an input of energy (from sunlight) to convert carbon dioxide
and water into glucose and oxygen.
 B. Anabolic because it builds larger molecules (glucose) from smaller ones (CO2 and H2O).
C. Physico-chemical because it involves both physical and chemical processes (light energy
conversion, electron transport, etc.).

132)

A. Statement I: "CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis" - This is correct. During
photosynthesis, CO2 is essential for the production of glucose. In many conditions, the
concentration of CO2 can limit the rate of photosynthesis.
B. Statement II: "C4 plants adapted to dry tropical regions" This is also correct. C4 plants, like
maize and sugarcane, are adapted to hot and dry climates. They have a specialized pathway
for photosynthesis that helps them efficiently use CO2 and minimize water loss, making them
well-suited for such environments.

Thus, the correct answer is:

4. Both statements I and II are correct.

133)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 177

134) Explaining Question:

which plant Hormone is responsible far Intermodal elongation in rosette plants.
Concept: This question is based on Plant growth regulators.
Solution: Gibberellins are responsible for intermodal elongation, especially in rosette planes
by promoting stem growth.

135)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 177

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 279, para-3

137) NCERT XI Page # 203

138)

NCERT Page # 196

139)

NCERT Page # 196

140) Explain Question: Identify which of the given statements about heart, circulation and
vessels are correct.

Concept:
This question is based on Circulatory system.
Solution:
The correct answer is option 4.
(a) True - the bicuspid (mitral) valve lies between left atrium and left ventricle.

(b) True - cardiac muscle fibres differ from skeletal muscle (involuntary, branched,
intercalated discs).

(c) True - the hepatic portal system carries blood from the digestive tract to the liver.

(d) True - SA node is the pacemaker that initiates the impulse which ultimately causes
ventricular contraction (via AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers).

(e) True - ventricular walls (left) are thicker than atrial walls to generate higher pressure.

(f) False - valves are present in veins, not arteries; arteries have thicker walls and relatively
smaller lumen.

So statements a, b, c, d, e are correct.

Final answer: 4

141)

NCERT - Pg. No.# 388

142) NCERT Page No. 288

143) NCERT Pg.# 198

144)
Neutrophils > Lymphocytes > Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils
Percentage of : 60 - 65% > 20 - 25% > 6 - 8% > 2 - 3% > 0.5 - 1%

145) NCERT, Pg. # 279

146)

147)

NCERT Pg. # 285

 148) Allen module - Concept Based
Chordae tendinae provides support to AV valve.

149) New NCERT Page no. 200

150) NCERT XI Page # 199,200

151) NCERT XI Page # 194

152) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 202

153)

NCERT page: 203

154) NCERT Pg. # 195

155)

Allen module.

156) What the Question Is Asking:

The question asks you to evaluate four statements about blood clotting and identify which
combination of statements is accurate.

Solution:
Let's check each statement:

A. I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation: This is true. Calcium ions are essential for
several steps in the clotting process.
B. II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin: This
is also true. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent unwanted clots.
C. III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin: This is true.
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin, which forms the clot's mesh.
D. IV. Blood clotting involves a cascading process involving a number of factors present
in the active form always: This is false. Clotting factors are often inactive and activated in a
sequence.

So, statements I, II, and III are correct.

CORRECT ANSWER: 3. I, II, III

157) Problem Statement : Asking About :

Given Diagram

Concept :
WBC

Solution/Explanation :
It has S-Shape nucleus. Which is a characteristic of basophil. Which has granules & secrete
heparin and histamine.

158)

NCERT Pg.287

159)

The correct answer is Option 4: Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma.

Here's why:

A. Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens (A and B)
on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs) and corresponding antibodies (anti-A and anti-B)
in the plasma.

B. AB blood group: Individuals with AB blood have both A and B antigens on their RBCs
but no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma.

C. Universal recipient: Because they lack these antibodies, people with AB blood can
receive blood from any blood group (A, B, AB, or O) without their plasma antibodies
attacking the donor RBCs. This is why they are called universal recipients.

160)

161)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks between which vertebrae the kidneys are located in
the human body. It wants you to identify the correct upper and lower vertebral levels that
correspond to the position of the kidneys.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves human anatomy, specifically the anatomical
position of the kidneys relative to the vertebral column. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs
lying on either side of the spine between certain thoracic and lumbar vertebrae.
 Tips and Tricks: Remember the kidneys lie typically between the T12 (last thoracic vertebra)
and L3 (third lumbar vertebra). Visualizing the spine and its sections can help.

Common Mistakes: Confusing cervical vertebrae (neck region) or sacral vertebrae (lower
back) with the kidney position; assuming kidneys are lower or higher than actual.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving cervical vertebrae are incorrect
because kidneys are too low to be near the neck region. Choices including sacral vertebrae are
wrong because kidneys lie above the pelvis, which starts at the sacral vertebrae. Therefore,
only the last thoracic to third lumbar vertebrae correctly indicates the kidney position.

162)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which structure forms the glomerulus, a network of
tiny blood vessels. It provides multiple options and wants to identify the correct one
responsible for creating the glomerulus.

Underlying Concept: The glomerulus is a part of the nephron in kidneys, responsible for the
filtration of blood. It consists of a network (tuft) of capillaries. These capillaries arise primarily
from the afferent arteriole, which brings blood into the glomerulus, where filtration begins.

Tips and Tricks: Remember, 'aff' in afferent means 'to' as in bringing blood to the
glomerulus, while 'ef' in efferent means 'out of' or carrying blood away.

Common Mistakes: Confusing afferent and efferent arterioles, or thinking Bowman's capsule
or the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) form the glomerulus instead of blood vessels.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Efferent arteriole carries blood away from the
glomerulus, so it doesn't form the tuft. Bowman's capsule surrounds the glomerulus but is not
part of its capillaries. The PCT is a tubular structure after filtration and does not form
capillaries.

163) NCERT Pg. # 294 (19.2)

164) NCERT Pg. # 292 (19.1)

165)

Question Explanation:
To identify the correct statements regarding the vasa recta and other blood vessels associated
with the nephron.

Explanation:

A. (a) is correct: Vasa recta runs parallel to Henle's loop in juxtamedullary nephrons.
 B. (b) is correct: Cortical nephrons have either no or reduced vasa recta.
C. (c) is correct: Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, and glomerulus all have blood vessels.
D. (d) is incorrect: The afferent arteriole leads to the glomerulus, not the efferent arteriole.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

166)

Question Explanation:
To identify the correct difference between juxtamedullary and cortical nephrons from the
given table.

Solution/Explanation:
Loop of Henle: Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the
medulla, crucial for concentrating urine. Cortical nephrons have shorter loops of Henle that do
not penetrate as deeply.

Hence, option (2) is correct. Longer Short

167)

Explain Question : Choose the correct one for the nephron ?

Concept : This question is based on Structure of Nephron.

Solution : Option (1) is correct since diameter of Affiant arteriole is greater than effect
arteriole.

Final Answer : option (1)

168) Question Explanation:

Math answer with labelled parts in diagram

Solution Explanation:
A: NaCl(Significant reabsorption in the ascending limb and PCT)
B: urea (some reabsorption and secretion throughout, especially in the collecting duct and
PCT)
C: K+ (Secretion in the DCT)
D: Ammonia (secretion in the DCT and PCT)

Answer:
Option (2) is correct : NaCl, urea, K+, HCO3–

169)

(i)-A; (ii)-E; (iii) - C; (iv) - D

170) New NCERT Page no. 298

In diabetes, the excretion of glucose is due to imbalance in glucose metabolism due to absence
or deficiency of insulin.
Due to deficiency of glucose inside the cells, cells hydrolyse fats and proteins, leading to
formation of ketone bodies.

171) New NCERT Page no. 294

172) New NCERT Page no. 297

During summer when body loses a lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is
increased.
Exposure of cold temperature decreases the release of ADH.
Decrease in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin-II.

173)

New NCERT Page no. 294

Nearly 99% of glomerulus filtrate is reabsorbed by renal tubules as kidney filters 180 L/day of
blood while excretes only 1–1.5 L of urine daily.

174) XI NCERT Page # 208

175) XI NCERT Page # 208

176) Renin: The kidneys produce and secrete renin, an enzyme involved in blood pressure
regulation. Erythropoietin: The kidneys are the primary site for the production of
erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. Calciferol: The kidneys
play a crucial role in the final activation step of vitamin D into its active form, calcitriol. While
the kidney doesn't produce the precursor to vitamin D, it performs the final conversion to the
active hormone.

Final Answer : (4) Both 1 & 2

177)

Explain Question : Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs in ?

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution : option (2) is correct

Blood colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular Hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
Hydrostatic pressure
Net filtration = BGHP – (BCOP + CHP)
= 10-25 mg

Final Answer : option (2)

 178) The correct answer is: Option (4) Both (2) & (3)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Incorrect: The descending limb of the loop of Henle primarily loses water, not NaCl. Also, the
exchange isn't with the descending vasa recta.
B. Correct: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle loses NaCl, which is picked up by the
descending vasa recta. This is a key part of the countercurrent exchange.
C. Correct: As the vasa recta ascends back toward the cortex, it loses water (which went into the
descending limb of the loop of Henle) and returns the NaCl to the interstitium (the space
surrounding the loop of Henle), maintaining the high salt concentration in the medulla.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

179)

Question Explanation:

Asks for the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healty asult, expressed in milliliters
per munute (ml/min).

Solution Explanation:

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular
capillaries into Bowman's capsule per unit time. In a healty adult, the GFR is approximately
125 ml/min.

Final Answer:

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option 2. 125 ml/min

180)

NCERT - Pg. No.# 295