29-04-2026

6001CMD30302126001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The colour are characterised by which of following character of light :-

(1) Intensity
(2) Frequency
(3) Velocity
(4) Amplitude

2) When light enters from air to water, then its

(1) frequency increases and speed decreases

(2) frequency is same, but the wavelength is smaller in water than in air
(3) frequency is same but the wavelength in water is greater than in air.
(4) frequency decreases and wavelength is smaller in water than in air.

3) A boy of height 1.5 m with his eye level at 1.4 m stands before a plane mirror of length 0.75 m
fixed on the wall. The height of the lower edge of the mirror above the floor is 0.8 m. Then :-

(1) the boy will see his full image

(2) the boy cannot see his hair
(3) the boy cannot see his feet
(4) the boy can see neither his hair nor his feet

4) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle 60°. If a ray of light incident on the first
mirror is parallel to the second mirror, it is reflected from the second mirror:

(1) Perpendicular to the first mirror

(2) Parallel to the first mirror
(3) Parallel to the second mirror
(4) Perpendicular to the second mirror

5) The sun (diameter = D) subtends an angle of θ radians at the pole of a concave mirror of focal
length f. The diameter of the image of the sun formed by the mirror is -

(1) f θ
(2) 2 f θ
(3) f 2 θ/ D
(4) D θ

6)

An object and its real image are located at distances 25 cm and 40 cm respectively from the two
principal focii of a convex lens. The linear magnification of the image is near to

(1) + 1.3
(2) -1.3
(3) + 1.8
(4) - 1.8

7) Convergence of concave mirror can be decreased by dipping in

(1) Water
(2) Oil
(3) Both
(4) None of these

8) A concave mirror has a power of +10D. Now it is submerged in a liquid of refractive index 2. The
focal length of the mirror after submerging it in the liquid is :-

(1) –5 cm
(2) +20 cm
(3) –20 cm
(4) –10 cm

9) The critical angle of light going from a medium to air is 30o. The speed of light in the medium is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) The angle of minimum deviation in an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.414 is

(1) 60o
(2) 30o
(3) 90o
(4) 45o

11) A horizontal light ray passes through a prism (µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a
plane mirror M, that has been placed vertically. By what angle the mirror is rotated so that the ray

after reflection becomes horizontal?

(1) 1°
(2) 2°
(3) 4°
(4) 8°

12) Dispersive power for crown glass, if its refractive index for violet is 1.52 and for red colour 1.51,
is

(1) 0.18
(2) 0.010
(3) 0.019
(4) 0.008

13) A divergent lens will produce for real object

(1) Always a virtual image

(2) Always real image
(3) Sometimes real and sometimes virtual
(4) None of above

14) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure:-

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

15) The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is

(1) 1.5 f
(2) 2 f
(3) 2.5 f
(4) 4 f

16) Inside water, an air bubble behave-

(1) Always like a converging lens

(2) Always like a diverging lens
(3) Always like a slab of equal thickness
(4) Sometimes concave and sometimes like a convex lens

17) An object is placed infront of a sphere of radius R and refractive index n at a distance x from the
first surface. The value of x for which the light after refraction from the first surface become parallel
to the axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The minimum distance between the object and its real image for concave mirror is

(1) f
(2) 2f
(3) 4f
(4) Zero

19) The focal length of a spherical mirror is:

(1) Maximum for red light

(2) Maximum for blue light
(3) Maximum for white light
(4) Same for all lights

20) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains.

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

21) A ray of light travelling in air have wavelength , frequency n, velocity V and intensity I. If this
ray enters into water than these parameters are respectively. Which relation is correct
from following?

(1)
(2) n = n'
(3) v = v'
(4) I = I'
22) Light travels through a glass plate of thickness 't' and having refractive index n. If c is the
velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by the light to travel this thickness of glass is

(1)

(2) tnc

(3)

(4)

23) Relation between critical angles of water and glass is

(1) Cw > Cg
(2) Cw < Cg
(3) Cw = Cg
(4) Cw = Cg = 0

24) Which of the following is used in optical fibres?

(1) T.I.R
(2) Scattering
(3) Diffraction
(4) Refraction

25) An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should

(1) Behave as a perfect reflector

(2) Absorb all light falling on it
(3) Have refractive index one
(4) Have refractive index exactly matching with that of surrounding fluid

26) The angle of minimum deviation measured with a prism is 30° and the angle of prism is 60°. The
refractive index of prism material is

(1)
(2) 2
(3) 3/2
(4) 4/3

27) Two lenses of power + 2.50 D and –3.75 D are combined to form a compound lens. Its focal
length in cm will be

(1) 40
(2) –40
(3) –80
(4) 160
28) An equiconvex lens has a power of 5 dioptre. If it is made of glass of refractive index 1.5, then
radius of curvature of its each surface will be?

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4)

29) Two thin convex lenses of focal length 10 cm and 15 cm are separated by a distance of 10 cm.
The focal length of the combination is :

(1) 4.2 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 15 cm

30) A convex lens of power P is immersed in water. How will its power change?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Increases for red colour and decreases for blue colour

31) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object

placed on its axis, the number of images formed are

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

32) Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1) Red
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Violet

33) Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination
is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real image when incident rays are :-

(1) Parallel
(2) Converging
(3) Diverging
(4) Under no circumstance

35) A plane mirror produces a magnification of :-

(1) –1
(2) +1
(3) Zero
(4) Between 0 and +∞

36) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30

cm. The image would be formed at :-

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

37) A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum

deviation which of the following is true :-

(1) PQ is horizontal
(2) QR is horizontal
(3) RS is horizontal
(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

38) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of 5 for distant objects in normal
adjustment. Distance between objective and eye-piece is 36 cm. Focal lengths of objective and
eyepiece are

(1) 18, 18
(2) 20, 16
(3) 30, 6
(4) 12, 24

39) A thin convex lens of focal length 5 cm is used as a simple microscope by a person with image
at near point (25 cm). What is the magnifying power of the microscope?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 25
(4) 9

40) The unit vector along a vector is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The magnitude of vector is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) Which of following statements is/are correct :-

(1) angle between parallel vectors is zero

(2) angle between antiparallel vectors is 180°
(3) parallel vectors have same unit vector and antiparallel vectors have opposite unit vector
(4) All

43) The angle made by the vector with x-axis is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 30°

44) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 45° on an equilateral prism and emerge at an
angle 45° then the angle of deviation of the ray will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Ammonia acts as a ligand but ammonium ion does not form complexes because

+
(1) NH3 is a gas while NH4 is in liquid form
3 + 3
(2) NH3 undergoes sp hybridisation while NH4 undergoes sp d hybridisation
+
(3) NH4 ion does not have any lone pair
+
(4) NH4 ion has one unpaired electron while NH3 has two unpaired electrons.

2) Aqueous solution of Ni2+ contain [Ni(H2O)6]2+ and its magnetic moment is 2.83 BM. When ammonia
is added on it, comment on the magnetic moment of solution

(1) It will remain same

(2) It increases from 2.83 BM
(3) It decreases from 2.83 BM
(4) None of the above

3) One mole of complex CoCl3.5NH3 gives 3 moles of ions then number of counter ions, total number
of ion, and 2°-valency is are respectively :-

(1) 2, 2, 6
(2) 2, 3, 21
(3) 2, 3, 6
(4) 3, 1, 15

4) Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is:-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

5) The oxidation state of iron in Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] is:-

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) zero

6) Following information is given for the coordination complex PtCl4.2KCl :

(i) Conductance measurements indicate the presence of three ions in one formula unit.
(ii) The treatment with AgNO3 produces no precipitate of AgCl.
What is the coordination no. of 'Pt' in this complex?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 3

7) N(CH2CH2NH2)3 ligand is :-

(1) Bidentate
(2) Tridentate
(3) Tetradentate
(4) Pentadentate

8) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

9) CN– is ambidentate ligand because

(1) it has multiple bonds

(2) carbon as a negative charge
(3) it form chelate
(4) both C & N can donate lone pair

10) Which of the following ligand is called π -acceptors ?

(a) CO (b) CN– (c) NO+

(1) b & c only

(2) c only
(3) a & b only
(4) a, b, c

11) Select INCORRECT statement about EDTA:-

(1) EDTA acts as hexadentate ligand and form five rings with central metal atom or ion.
(2) It helps in the removal of metal poisoning and hardness of water
(3) High complexing ability
(4) It does not acts as a flexidentate ligand

12) Assertion (A) : The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses both and character
Reason (R) : The ligand to metal bond is a bond and metal to ligand bond is a bond.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

13) Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same ?

3– 3+
(1) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(NH3)6]
3+ 3–
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
3– 3–
(3) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
2–
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]

14) Which shows least conductivity in solution :-

(1) K2[PtCl6]
(2) [Co(NH3)6](NO2)3
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(4) [Co(NH3)4]SO4

15) EAN of complex is :-

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 29

16) Which of the following is not an organometallic compound :

(1) Ferrocene
(2) Ziese's salt
(3) Grignard reagent
(4) Cis platin

17) The IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]NO3 is :-

(1) Tetraamminedichloridochromium(III) nitrate

(2) Tetraaminedichloridochromium nitrate
(3) Dichloridotetraamminechromium(III) nitrate
(4) Tetraaminodichloridochromium(II) nitrate

18) The correct IUPAC name for the compound [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] is

(1) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(2) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(3) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(I)
(4) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I)

19) Which of the following pair of IUPAC name is not matched with its formula ?

(1) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4: Pentaaquanitrosoniumiron (I) sulphate

(2) Li[AlH4] : Lithiumtetrahydridoaluminate (III)
(3) Na[Ag(CN)2] : Sodiumdicyanidoargentate (I)
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]: sodiumpentacyanidonitrosylferrate(II)

20) Which is inner orbital and low spin complex ?

–2
(1) [NiCl4]
–3
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
–3
(3) [CoF6]
–3
(4) [FeF6]

21) CFT configuration of potassium ferricyanide is :-

3 2
(1) t2g eg
5 0
(2) t2g eg
3 2
(3) eg t2g
4 1
(4) eg t2g
22) d-orbital used in hybridisation of complex ion [Ni(CN)4]–2 is :-

(1)
(2) dxy
(3)
(4) dyz

23) Which of the following complex is not correctly matched with its geometry ?

(1) [NiCl2(Ph3P)2] – tetrahedral.

2+
(2) [Co(Py)4] - square planar.
5–
(3) [Cu(CN)4] - tetrahedral.
2–
(4) [Fe(CO)4] - square planar.

24) Match List I with List II :

List I List II
(Complexes) (Hybridisation)

(A) [Ni(CO)4] I sp3

(B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ II dsp2

(C) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ III sp3d2

(D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ IV d2sp3

(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(4) A – I, B– II, C – IV, D – III

25) Which of the following complexes formed by Cu2+ ions is most stable?

2+ 2+
(1) Cu + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4] , logK = 11.6
2+ – 2–
(2) Cu + 4CN [Cu(CN)4] , logK = 27.3
2+ 2+
(3) Cu + 2en [Cu(en)2] , logK = 15.4
2+ 2+
(4) Cu + 4H2O [Cu(H2O)4] , logK = 8.9

26) Which of the following is correctly matched?

2+
(1) [Cu(NH3)4] Diamagnetic
2–
(2) [Ni(CN)4] Paramagnetic
2–
(3) [MnCl4] Diamagnetic
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6] Diamagnetic

27)
Which of the following complex compound having configuration ?

(At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

2+
(1) [Zn (NH3)6]
3+
(2) [Ti(NH3)6]
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

28) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 and [Fe(CN)6]–4 differ in :-

(1) Geometry, Magnetic moment

(2) Geometry, Hybridisation
(3) Magnetic moment, Colour
(4) Hybridisation, number of d-electrons

29) Which of the following d-orbitals of metal is not the part of t2g set in octahedral field ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Match the complexes in column-I with number of unpaired electrons in column-II.
 Column-II
Column-I
Number of
Complexes
unpaired electron

A [CrF6]4– P 5

B [MnF6]4– Q 2

C [Cr(CN)6]4– R 1

D [Mn(CN)6]4– S 4
(1) A – P, B – R, C – S, D – Q
(2) A – S, B – P, C – Q, D – R
(3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – S, C – R, D – P

31) Which of the following relation is correct.

(1) If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

(2) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & Low spin complex

(3) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

(4) If Δ0 = P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

32) In Which of the following increasing order of splitting energy correct ?

–4 +2 +2 –4
(1) [CrCl6] < [Cr(H2O)6] < [Cr(NH3)6] < [Cr(CN)6]
–4 +2 +2 –4
(2) [CrCl6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(CN)6]
+2 –4 +2 –4
(3) [Cr(H2O)6] < [CrCl6] < [Cr(NH3)6] < [Cr(CN)6]
(4) None of these

33) Value of CFSE for d4 electronic configuration for octahedral complex forming low spin complex
will be (CFSE = crystal field stabilisation energy):-

(1) –2.4 Δo + 2P
(2) –2 Δo + P
(3) –1.6 Δo + P
(4) –2.4 Δo + 6P

34) Match the coordination compounds given in Column-I with the central metal atoms given in
Column-II and assign the correct code.

Column-I Column-II
(Coordination compound) (Central metal atom)

(a) Chlorophyll (p) Rhodium

 (b) Blood pigment (q) Cobalt

(c) Wilkinson catalyst (r) Calcium

(d) Vitamin B12 (s) Iron

(t) Magnesium
(1) a (t) b (s) c (p) d (q)
(2) a (r) b (s) c (t) d (p)
(3) a (s) b (r) c (q) d (p)
(4) a (r) b (s) c (p) d (q)

35) Match the column :

Column (A) Column (B)

(A) Sodium nitroprusside (i) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(B) Blood red complex (ii) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4

(C) Brown ring complex (iii) [Fe(SCN)3]

(D) Deep blue complex (iv) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]

(1) [(A)-(ii)]; [(B)-(iii)]; [(C)-(iv)]; [(D)-(i)]
(2) [(A)-(iv)]; [(B)-(iii)]; [(C)-(i)]; [(D)-(ii)]
(3) [(A)-(ii)]; [(B)-(i)]; [(C)-(iii)]; [(D)-(i)]
(4) [(A)-(iv)]; [(B)-(iii)]; [(C)-(ii)]; [(D)-(i)]

36) Which are organometallic compound

(A) Zeise's salt
(B) Ferrocene
(C) Grignard reagent
(D) Cis-platin

(1) If (A), (B) and (C) options are correct.

(2) If (A) and (B) both options are correct.
(3) If (B) and (D) both options are correct.
(4) If (A) and (C) both options are correct.

37) Isomerism shown by complex [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]SO4 :-

(1) Ionisation isomerism
(2) Linkage isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(4) Optical isomerism

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 3, 4
(4) 1,4
38) Which of following is not a coordination isomer of [Cr(NH3)6] [CoCl6]

(1) [Cr(NH3)5Cl] [CoCl5(NH3)]

(2) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] [CoCl3(NH3)3]
(3) [Cr(NH3)Cl5] [CoCl(NH3)5]
(4) [Cr(NH3)2Cl4] [CoCl2(NH3)4]

39)

Isomers are classified as :

(1) (i) fac-Isomer, (ii) mer-Isomer

(2) (i) optical-Isomer, (ii) trans-Isomer
(3) (i) mer-Isomer, (ii) fac-Isomer
(4) (i) trans-Isomer, (ii) cis-Isomer

40) Which of following complex does not show geometrical isomerism :

(1) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
+3
(2) [Co(en)3]
+
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]
(4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)Cl2]

41) Which of the following complex is optically active ?

(1) Cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
3+
(2) [Cr(H2O)6]
3-
(3) Cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]
3-
(4) Trans-[CrCl2(ox)2]

42) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) en, dien

43) Select the correct statement from the following .

3+ 3+
(1) [Sc(H2O)6] and [Ti(H2O)6] both are colourless.
(2) [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl show ionization isomers and geometrical isomers.
(3) [Pd(NO2)2(NH3)2] is square planar and shows geometrical as well as linkage isomers.
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct.

44) Which of the following is correct order of cyrstal field splitting.

(1) C–donor > N–donor > O–donor

(2) N–donor > O–donor > C–donor
(3) C–donor > O–donor > N–donor
(4) O–donor > N–donor > C–donor

45) A complex [MF6]–x has magnetic moment of 4.91 B.M. whereas [M(CN)6]–x has zero magnetic
moment. Metal ion can be :-

(1) Co+2
(2) Mn+2
(3) Fe+2
(4) Fe+3

BOTANY

1)

Assertion (A): Nearly 25% of all insects are phytophagous

Reason(R): Calotropis produce thorns as a defence against its predator

(1) Both A&R are true R is a correct explaination of A

(2) Both A&R are correct R is not a correct explaination of A
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(4) Both A&R are incorrect

2)

Natural selection operates at ______ level to evolve desired traits

(1) Organism
(2) Population
(3) Community
(4) All of these

3) Predators do not:

(1) act as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across trophic levels

(2) keep prey populations under control
(3) over-exploit their prey
(4) help in maintaining species diversity in a community
4) In a field experiment, when all Pisaster starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area,
the result was:

(1) Increase in diversity of invertebrates

(2) Extinction of many invertebrate species
(3) Inability of the Pisaster to enter the area again
(4) Replacement of Pisaster by other starfish

5) The values of r for the Norway rat and flour beetle are respectively?

(1) 0.015, 0.0205

(2) 0.12, 2.71828
(3) 0.015, 0.12
(4) 0.0205, 0.015

6) Which is the correct order of ecological hierarchy?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) If in a pond there were 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 10 new plants are
added, taking the current population to 50, then calculate the birth rate?

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.8
(4) 1.25

8) Cuscuta and Rafflessia is an example of :-

(1) Predation
(2) Holoparasite
(3) Ectoparasite
(4) Both 2 & 3

9) Match the items in Column I with those in Column II:

Column - I Column - II

A Herbivores-plants I Commensalism

B Mycorrhiza-plants II Mutualism

C Sheep-cattle III Predation

D Orchid-tree IV Competition
Select the correct option from following:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Inspite of interspecific competition of nature, which mechanism the competing species might
have evolved for their survival?

(1) Resource partitioning

(2) Competitive release
(3) Mutualism
(4) Predation

11)

Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:

(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value of 'r' approaches zero

12) How many statements are correct ?

(A) Ecology at organismic level is essentially physiological ecology
(B) Habitat is only composed of biotic component
(C) Copepods are predator of marine fishes
(D) Life cycle of endoparasite is complex

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

13) Choose the incorrect match regarding population interactions -

Species A Species B

(1) Amensalism – –

(2) Parasitism + –

(3) Commensalism + 0

(4) Mutualism + +
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Co-evolution is seen in -

(A) Fig tree and fig wasp
(B) Orchid plant and Bumble bee
(C) Plasmodium and human

(1) A and B
(2) C only
(3) A only
(4) A, B and C

15) Choose incorrect match from the following :-

Column-A Column-B

(1) Ophrys & Bumble Bee Pseudocopulation

Use of Male flower as

(2) Ficus & Female wasp
oviposition site

(3) Orchid – Mango Commensalism

(4) Brood parasitism Koel and Crow

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16)

Who is the father of ecology in India

(1) Warming
(2) Haeckel
(3) Ramdeo Mishra
(4) J.C. Bose

17) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual
per capita death rate of 0.02. Using these birth and death rates, calculate an estimate of the
total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year.

(1) 120 individuals added

(2) 40 individuals added
(3) 20 individuals added
(4) 400 individuals added

18) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic
population growth?
(1) favorable climatic conditions
(2) removal of predators
(3) decreased death rate
(4) Resource become limiting

19) Use the graph to answer the following question

In the figure, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity ?

(1) arrow A
(2) arrow B
(3) arrow C
Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent
(4)
control never reach carrying capacity.

20)

Assertion (A): Predators can be used in biological control of agricultural pests

Reason (R) : Predators in nature are prudent

(1) Both A & R are correct & R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A & R are correct R is not a correct explaination of A
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(4) Both A & R are incorrect

21) In a month of January siberian cranes migrate from Russia to India for breeding, a survey was
done
Till December total population of Siberian Cranes = 1200
Birth rate = 400
Mortality rate = 200
Number of cranes immigrated = 600
Number of cranes emigrated = 300
Calculate the total population

(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 2000
(4) 1700

22) Match the following

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

23) Select the correct match for below diagrams :

(1) A – Representing mutualism

(2) B – Showing Gause competitive exclusion principle
(3) C – showing resources partitioning
(4) D – showing parasitism

24) Why some plants produce Nicotine, Caffeine, Quinine and strychnine ?
(a) Because these substances are extracted by humans for commercial benefit
(b) For defence against grazers and browsers
(c) These play a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.
(d) To attract pollinators

(1) a, b, c
(2) Only b, d
(3) b, c
(4) Only b

25) Statement-I :- An individual may have birth and death but a population has birth rates and death
rate.
Statement-II :- The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

26) What is/are correct about parasite.

(a) Parasite can be host specific
(b) Biotic potential of parasite is high
(c) Parasite does not directly kill their host
(d) Parasite and host tend to co-evolve

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) None

27) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Code :

(1) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

(2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(4) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

28) Predators also help in A species diversity in a community, by B the intensity of competition
among competing prey species.
Here A and B can be :-

(1) A-Exceeding, B-Increasing

(2) A-Maintaining, B-Reducing
(3) A-Reducing, B-Maintaining
(4) A-Maintaining, B-Increasing

29) Under normal condition, __A__ and __B__ are the most important factors influencing population
density, __C__ and __D__ assuming importance only under special condition.
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.

A – mortality, B – natality, C – emigration,

(1)
D – immigration
A – immigration, B – natality, C – emigration,
(2)
D – mortality
A – emigration, B – natality, C – mortality,
(3)
D – immigration
A – emigration, B – immigration, C – mortality,
(4)
D – natality

30) If b = 65 and d = 45, N = 100, then find out

(1) 2000
(2) 1000
(3) 200
(4) 100

31) In a growing population of a country,

(1) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number

(2) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

32) Identify the correct match

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii

33) Stratificationn is more common in :

(1) Deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Temperate forest
(4) Tropical savana

34) Find out the correct match from the following table :-
(1) a, b, c are correct
(2) a, b, c, d, e all correct
(3) b, d, e are correct
(4) a, c are correct

35) What does the shape of the given age pyramids (A to C) reflect about the growth status of

populations ?

A B C

(1) Declining Stable Expanding

(2) Stable Expanding Declining

 (3) Expanding Stable Declining

(4) Declining Expanding Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36)
Which type of interaction is shown by above graph between species A and B ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Amensalism

37) A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the presence
of a competitively superior species, is found to expand its distributional range dramatically when the
competing species is experimentally removed. This phenomenon is called as:

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Interference competition
(4) Resource partitioning

38) The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field.
A possible reason for their changes is that:-

(1) Population 'A' produced more off springs than population 'B'
(2) Population 'A' consumed the members of population 'B'
(3) Population 'B' competed more successfully for food than population 'A
(4) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased

39)
The mechanism that promotes coexistence rather than competitive exclusion can be explained in

(1) Balanus and Chthamalus

(2) Goat and Abingdon tortoise
(3) Five closely related species of warblers
(4) Visiting flamingos and Resident fishes

40) Connell's elegant field experiment was performed on sea coast of which country ?

(1) Australia
(2) Scotland
(3) Galapogos
(4) America

41)

Read the following statements and select the correct option-

Assertion: The logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.
Reason: Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting sooner or
later.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

42) Choosing different time for feeding and different foraging pattern can avoid competition in the :-
(a) Closely related species found in different habitats
(b) Two species compete for same resources
(c) Species having similar niche and sharing same habitat
(d) Two species having different niche

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) d, a

43) Read the following statements

(i) High reproductive capacity
(ii) Tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of wasp and fig tree
(iii) Intimate relationship between algae and fungi in Lichens
(iv) Close association in grazing cattle and cattle egret birds
Find correct option w.r.t. inter species interactions
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Identify the correct combination.

Species A Species B Interaction

(1) Clown fish Sea anemone Protocooperation

(2) Sea anemone Hermit crab Competition

(3) Balanus Chathamalus Predation

(4) Copepods Marine fish Parasitism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In mutualism, both species involved in the interaction benefit from each other.
Statement II: In parasitism and predation, both species benefit from the interaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

ZOOLOGY
1) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle. Options
:-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Which disease is caused by Yersinia pestis?

(1) Plague
(2) Black fever
(3) Xenopsylla cheopis
(4) All of these

3) How many of following disease/diseases is/are spread due to mosquito bite ?

Chikungunya, Malaria, Pneumonia, Dengue, Plague

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) HIV virus enters into macrophages where RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA
with the help of :

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) Transcriptase
(3) Protease
(4) Reverse Transcriptase

5) Common cold differs from pneumonia in that:

(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while common cold is caused by the bacteria.
(2) Pneumonia is infectious disease while common cold is a non-infectious disease
Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated vaccine whereas the common cold has no
(3)
effective vaccine
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory
(4)
passage but not the lungs.

6) Bleeding from nose, mouth and gums, severe joint pain are the observed symptoms of the
following disease _______

(1) Hepatitis-B
(2) Tetanus
(3) Break-bone fever
(4) Diphtheria

7) Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?

(1) Macrophage
(2) Helper T-cell
(3) Killer T-cell
(4) Lymphocyte

8) There is always a time lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms called as:

(1) Incubation period (5-10 days)

(2) Window period (5-10 months)
(3) Incubation period (5-10 yrs)
(4) Incubation period (2-12 weeks)

9) Choose non-infectious disease from following :

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Typhoid
(4) Cancer

10)
Given below are two statements:-
Statement-I:- When an infected female Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases gametocytes of
Plasmodium into the healthy person.
Statement-II:- The female Anopheles mosquito takes up sporozoites of Plasmodium with blood meal
from an infected person, suffering from malaria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

11) Choose the pathogen responsible for Tetanus

(1) Corynebacterium
(2) Bordetella
(3) Yersinia
(4) Clostridium

12) Which among the following is a disease that spreads due to conscious behaviour patterns?

(1) Cancer
(2) Common cold
(3) AIDS
(4) Pneumonia

13) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

14) Which set of diseases caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Pneumonia

(2) Cholera, AIDS, Tetanus, Typhoid
(3) Typhoid, Tetanus, Influenza, Rabies
(4) Rabies, AIDS, Mumps, Pneumonia

15) Fertilization and development of Plasmodium takes place in

(1) Gut of female mosquito
(2) Stomach of man
(3) Liver of man
(4) Blood corpuscles of human

16) In which of the following disease perforation of intestine may occur in severe cases?

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Typhoid
(3) Malaria
(4) Both (1) and (3)

17) Match the following columns and select he correct option:

Column-I Column-II

Haemophilus
(i) Typhoid (a)
influenzae

(ii) Malaria (b) Vibrio cholerae

(iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium vivax

(iv) Cholera (d) Salmonella typhi

(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(2) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)
(3) (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

18) Identify the incorrect pair of diseases and its mode of transmission.

(1) Typhoid Through food and water

(2) Pneumonia Droplets
(3) Malaria Bite of Aedes mosquito
(4) Dysentery Through faecal-oral route

19) NACO stands for:-

(1) National AIDS Control Organisation

(2) National AIDS Collaborative Organisation
(3) National Addicts Control Organisation
(4) National Awareness and Care Organisation

20) Statement-I : Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever.
Statement-II : Bacteria like Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease pneumonia.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

21) Which among the following is not a viral disease?

(1) Mumps
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Chicken pox
(4) Measles

22) Infective stage of Plasmodium for Anopheles mosquito is :

(1) Sporozoite
(2) Gametocyte
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Merozoite

23) 'Mary Mallon' was a carrier of a disease. This disease spreads through

(1) Bite of mosquito

(2) Air droplets
(3) Contaminated food and water
(4) Prolonged physical contact

24) Assertion:- Balanced diet, Personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain
good health.
Reason:- Yoga has been practised to achieve physical & mental health

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

25) The term health can be defined as

(1) Absence of disease

(2) Physical fitness
(3) State of complete physical, mental & social well being
(4) Reproductive fitness

26) How many of the following statements are correct regarding good health
(i) It makes people more efficient at work
(ii) It brings economic prosperity
(iii) It increases longevity of people
(iv) It increases infant & maternal mortality

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Assertion : A wide range of organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans,
helminths etc. are called pathogens.
Reason : Most parasites are therefore not pathogens as they cause no harm to the host by living in
(or on) them

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

28) In human Salmonella typhi infects

(1) Large intestine

(2) Small intestine
(3) Stomach
(4) Lungs

29) Virus of common cold infects

(1) Lungs
(2) Respiratory passage
(3) Nose
(4) Both (2) and (3)

30) Which one of the following is not the step of replication of retrovirus ?

(1) Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome

(2) Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(3) Viral DNA is introduced into cell
(4) New viruses are produced

31) The symptoms of typhoid include

(1) Constipation
(2) Loss of appetite
(3) High fever
(4) All of these

32) A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is

(1) ELISA
(2) PCR
(3) Widal test
(4) Western Blotting

33) Plasmodium enters the human body as :-

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Sporozoite
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Haemozoin

34) Virus that attacks helper T-cells leading to decrease in their number and makes patient immuno-
deficient is

(1) Rhino virus

(2) HIV
(3) Hepatitis C virus
(4) Rabies virus

35) Find the incorrect statement w.r.t to AIDS

(1) AIDS is not a congenital disease

(2) It was first reported in 1991
(3) It is caused by a member of a group of viruses called retrovirus
(4) It is not spread by mere touch or physical contact

36) "Fluid filled alveoli" are feature of

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Pueumonia
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Typhoid

37)

Toxin which is responsible for chill and high fever during malaria?

(1) Hypnotoxin
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Haemozoin
(4) Haem

38)

"Malignant Malaria" is caused by :

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium ovale
(3) Plasmodium malaria
(4) Plasmodium falciparum

39) Lock jaw, ophisthotonus and risus sardonicus are seen in which disease ?

(1) Tetanus
(2) Typhoid
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Myasthenia gravis

40) Which hosts show life cycle of plasmodium ?

(1) Human being and female Anopheles mosquitoes

(2) Human being and male Anopheles mosquitoes
(3) Human being and female Aedes mosquitoes
(4) Human being and female Culex mosquitoes

41) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold

(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold

(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs
Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness,
(3)
cough, headache, tiredness etc.
Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or
(4)
transmitted through contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person

42) Which test is performed to confirm typhoid fever?

(1) ELISA test

(2) Widal test
(3) Biopsy
(4) Schick test

43) Sexual stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium are developed in –

(1) Liver of human

(2) Red blood cells of human
(3) Gut of mosquito
(4) Salivary gland of mosquito

44) How many statements are correct for AIDS?

(a) Core of HIV has two identical molecules of ssRNA.
(b) GP-120 has complementary sequence to CD-8 receptors.
(c) ELISA is negative in window period.
(d) Virus doesn't replicate in T-helper cells.
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

45) AIDS is caused by HIV, among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of HIV?

(1) Transfusion of contaminated blood

(2) Sharing the infected needles
(3) Shaking hands with infected persons
(4) Sexual contact with infected persons
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 4 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 2 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

6)

-1.3

8)

Focal length of mirror doesnot change on medium.

9)

Explanation:
To find the speed of light in the medium.

Concept:
This question is based on critical angle.

Solution:

μ=2

= 1.5 × 108 m/ sec

Final Answer:
Option (4)

10)
30o

12)

13)

Always a virtual image

14) Since aperture of lens reduces so brightness will reduce but there will be no effect on size
of image.

15) 4 f

17) The given condition can be shown in the figure below,

from refraction formula for curved surface, we get

⇒ ⇒

18)

Theoretical

19)

Focal length of spherical mirror doesn't depend on freequency

20)

Higher the frequency lower the critical angle. Hence yellow orange and red will not undergo
TIR and will emerge in air

21)
Theoretical / conceptual

22)

23)

Theoretical / conceptual

24)

Theoretical / conceptual

25)

If refractive index is same in bending will occur

26)

27)

P = (2.5 – 3.75) D = – 1.25 D

28)
R = 20 cm

29)

f = 10

30)

Theoretical / conceptual

31)

Theoretical / conceptual
 32)

Theoretical / conceptual

33)

34) Explain the Question : To find the type of incident rays when real image is formed by
light reflected by plane mirror.
Concept : This question is based on image formation by plane mirror.
Solution : For incident converging rays the image formed by plane mirror is real.

Final Answer : 2

35) Question Explanation: We need to find the magnification produced by a plane mirror.

Concept: Plane mirror image properties; Lateral magnification.

Solution:
For a plane mirror:

A. Image size equals object size.

B. Image is virtual and erect.

Lateral magnification m is given by: Since height is same and image is erect: m
+1.
Negative sign indicates inverted image, which is not the case for a plane mirror.

Final Answer: Option (2)

36)

⇒ v = –30

37)

Question explanation
A ray enters an equilateral prism placed on a horizontal table. The inside segment of the ray is
QR. Under minimum deviation, we must decide which segment (PQ, QR, or RS) becomes
horizontal.

Concept
Minimum deviation in a prism (symmetric path condition).

Formula
For minimum deviation: angle of incidence = angle of emergence,
and the path inside the prism is symmetric.

Solution

At minimum deviation, the ray travels symmetrically inside the prism, so its internal segment
(QR) becomes parallel to the base of the prism.
Since the prism is equilateral and placed on a horizontal table, its base is horizontal.
Therefore the internal segment QR becomes horizontal.

Final answer : Option (2)

38)
36 = fo + fe

39)

40)

By theory

41)

Explain:
Find the magnitude of the vector 2i + 4j + 5k.

Concept: Pythagorean theorem.

Formula: Magnitude of vector ai + bj + ck =

Calculation: Magnitude =
Magnitude =
Magnitude =
Magnitude =
Hence, option (2) is correct.

42) Question Explanation : In this question, we have to identify correct statements about
parallel and antiparallel vectors.
Concept : This question is based on vectors and its types
Solution :
• Parallel vectors : same direction → angle = 0°
• Antiparallel vectors : opposite direction → angle = 180°
• Parallel vectors (same direction): same unit vectors, antiparallel (opposite direction):
opposite unit vector.
All three statements are correct.
Final answer : Option (4)

43) Explain the Question : In this question we are asked to find the angle made by the
vector with the x-axis.
Concept : This question is based on direction cosines.
Solution :
Given here

On comparing with
⇒ Ax = 1, Ay = 1

∴ angle made by by the given vector with the x-axis is.

∴ α = 45°
Final Answer : (2)

44)

45)

45° =
CHEMISTRY

46) Explain Question: The question is asking about why ammonia forms coordination
complexes but ammonium ion does not.
Concept: Ligands must have lone pairs available.
Solution: A ligand must donate a lone pair to metal ion. NH₃ has one lone pair on nitrogen,
whereas NH₄⁺ has no lone pair available for donation.
Final Answer: Option (3)

47)

48)

49) Explain Question:

The question is asking about the coordination number of in the complex [Ni(C2O4)3]4–.
Concept:
Coordination number equals ligating atom count.
Solution:
Each oxalate (C2O42–) is a bidentate ligand, meaning it through two donor atoms.
There are 3 oxalate ligands, each bonating 2 bonds → total coordination number = 3 × 2 = 6
Final Answer: Option (2)

50)

Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
+ 4 + x + 5 (–1) + (–1) = 0
x=+2

51)

52)

Question Explanation: Determine denticity of N(CH₂CH₂NH₂)₃ ligand from donor atoms.

Concept: Ligand denticity and donor atoms.
Solution: N(CH₂CH₂NH₂)₃ contains one central tertiary nitrogen and three terminal amino
nitrogens. All four nitrogens donate lone pairs to metal, forming four coordinate bonds with a
single metal ion.
 Final Answer: Option (3)

53)

Question Explanation:
Asking which given complex does not form a chelate ring.
Concept:
Chelation requires cyclic ligand coordination.
Solution:
Chelate complexes contain ligands that form rings by coordination through multiple donor
atom.
1. Bis (dimethylglyoximato) Ni (II) – chelate.
2. Ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate(iii) –chelate.
3. teramminediazidocobalt(II) – NH3 and N3- are monodentate, no rings formed.
4. Trans – diglycinatoplatinum(II) –chelate.
Hence, option 3 is not a chelat
Final Answer: Option(3)

55)

a, b, c

57)

Question explanation: This question is asking about σ–π nature in metal carbonyl bonding.
Concept: This question is based on Metal–CO bonding includes σ donation and π backbonding
from metal.
Solution: Assertion is correct because metal–CO bond truly has both σ (CO → metal) and π
(metal → CO) character.
Reason is incorrect because it reverses the directions: σ is ligand → metal, π is metal → ligand.
So A is true, R is false.

Final answer: Option 3

60)
61)

Cis platin

62)

Page-242, NCERT-XII, Part-I

63)

Question explanation: Naming complex [Ag(NH₃)₂][Ag(CN)₂].

Concept: Identify oxidation states, ligands, metal, counter ion systematically.

Solution

A. [Ag(NH₃)₂] → silver coordinated to 2 ammine ligands → Ag⁺ → diamminesilver(I)

B. [Ag(CN)₂]⁻ → silver coordinated to 2 cyanides → Ag⁺ → dicyanidoargentate(I)

C. Combine cation and anion names → Diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

Final answer: Option 4

64) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]: sodiumpentacyanidonitrosylferrate(II)

65)

Explain Question: Asking about identifying inner orbital low-spin complex.

Concept: Inner orbital complexes use (n – 1)d orbitals and form low-spin configurations.

Solution:

[NiCl4]2- ; Ni2+ with weak-field Cl- → outer orbital, high-spin → not inner.
[Mn(CN)6]3-: Mn3+ with strong-field CN- → low-spin, uses 3d orbitals → inner orbital.
[CoF6]3-: Co3+ with weak-field F- → high-spin, outer orbital → not time.
[FeF6]3- :Fe3+ with weak -field F- → high-spin, outer orbital → not time.

Final answer: Option (2)

66) Explanation Question:

CFT Configuration of potassium ferricyanide K3[Fe(CN)6].

Concept:
 CFT.

Solution:
K3[Fe(CN)6]
0
O.S of Fe = +3 Fe+3 = 4s 3d5
CN– is strong field ligand hence CFSE would be high and pairing would take place.

Final answer : Option (2)

67)

68)

69)

For [Fe(NH3)6]+2 , Δ0 < P, hence the pairing of electrons does not occur in t2g. Therefore
complex is outer orbital and its hybridisation is sp3d2.

List I List II
(Complexes) (Hybridisation)

[Ni(CO)4] sp3

[Cu(NH3)4]2+ dsp2

[Fe(NH3)6]2+ sp3d2

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ sp3d2

70)

71) Question Explanation:

The question is asking about which complex is correctly matched its magnetic property.

Concept:
Magnetic depends on unpaired electron count.

Solution:
1. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ → Cu2+ (d9) has one unpaired electron → paramagnetic → given as
diamagnetic → incorrect.
2. [Ni(CN)4]2– → Ni2+ (d8) CN– strong field → square planar → all paired → diamagnetic → given
as paramagnetic → incorrect.
3. [MnCl4]2– → Mn2+ (d5) weak ligand → tetrahedral → five unpaired electrons → paramagnetic
→ given as diamagnetic → incorrect.
4. [Fe(CN)6]4– →Fe2+ (d6), CN– strong field → low spin →all paired → diamagnetic → Correct.

Final Answer: Option (4)

73)

H2O – WFL

[Fe(H2O)6]+2 i.e., Fe+2 – d6

4 unpaired e–s
CN– – SFL
[Fe(CN)6]–4 i.e., Fe+2 – d6
no unpaired e–s

75)

Explain Question: Asking about matching complexes with their number of unpaired
electrons.

Concept: Crystal Field Theory, high-spin vs low-spin

Solution:

• [CrF6]4–→ Cr2+, d4, weak-field (F) → high-spin → 4 unpaired → matches S

• [MnF6]4–→ Mn2+, d5, weak-field (F) → high-spin → 5 unpaired → matches P
• [Cr(CN)6]4–→ Cr2+, d4, strong-field (CN) → low-spin → 2 unpaired → matches Q
• [Mn(CN)6]4–→ Mn2+, d5, strong-field (CN) → low-spin → 1 unpaired → matches R

Final answer: Option (2)

76)

If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

78)

Question Explanation: Asking about CFSE of d6 octahedral low-spin complex.

Concept: For octahedral low-spin complex, CFSE = (–0.4 t2g electrons + 0.6 × eg electrons)
Δ0 + pairing energy correction.
Solution:
0
• d6 low-spin (strong-field ligand) → all 6 electrons occupy t2g6 , eg
• CFSE = (– 0.4 × 6 + 0.6 × 0) Δ0 + pairing correction P = – 2.4 Δ0 + 2P
Final Answer: Option(1)
 79)

a (t) b (s) c (p) d (q)

80)

[(A)-(iv)]; [(B)-(iii)]; [(C)-(ii)]; [(D)-(i)]

81)

Asking for:

Identify which of the following compounds are classified as organometallic: (A) Zeise's salt (B)
Ferrocene (C) Grignard reagent (D) Cis-platin Select the option that correctly identifies the
organometallic compounds.

Concept:

A. Organometallic compounds: These are chemical compounds containing at least one metal-
carbon chemical bond where the carbon is part of an organic molecule.

Formula:

A. Zeise's salt: K[PtCl3​(C2​H4​)]

B. Ferrocene: Fe(C5​H5​)2​
C. Grignard reagent: RMgX (where R is an organic group, and X is a halogen)
D. Cis-platin: [Pt(NH3​)2​Cl2​]

Solution/Explanation:

A. Zeise's salt (K[PtCl3​(C2​H4​)]): Contains a platinum-ethylene (Pt−C2​H4​) bond, a metal-carbon

bond. Hence, it's an organometallic compound.
B. Ferrocene (Fe(C5​H5​)2​): Contains iron-cyclopentadienyl (Fe−C5​H5​) bonds, which are metal-
carbon bonds. Therefore, it's an organometallic compound.
C. Grignard reagent (RMgX): Contains a carbon-magnesium (R−Mg) bond, where R is an alkyl
or aryl group. Thus, it's an organometallic compound.
D. Cis-platin ([Pt(NH3​)2​Cl2​]): Contains platinum-nitrogen (Pt−N) and platinum-chlorine (Pt−Cl)
bonds, but no platinum-carbon bonds. So, it's not an organometallic compound.

Therefore, Zeise's salt, ferrocene, and Grignard reagents are organometallic compounds.

Answer : Option : 1

83)

84)

Explanation Question : Classify the given coordination complex isomers as fac or mer
Concept : This question is based on [Link] :
(i) is fac - isomer (Three identical ligands (Cl in this Case) Occupy positions at the corners of
one face of octahedron – all 90°)
(ii) is meridional (mer) isomer (two Cl are frans to each other, and the third is 90° to both
forming a meridional plane.
Final Answer : option (1) (i) fac-Isomer, (ii) mer-Isomer

85)

86) Explain Question :

Which complex is optically active.
Concept :
Optical isomerism.
Solution :
(1) Cis - [p t (NH3)2Cl2]

Ma2b2 and square planar complexes, not optically active.

(2) [Cr(H2O)6]+3 - M a6 type of complex sauce ligand no isomers.
(3) Cis-[Cr Cl2 (ox)2]–3 M a2 (BB)2 type complex

non-superposable so optically active

(4) Trans -[Cr Cl2 (OX)2]–3

superposable so not optical active

Final Answer :

87)

88)

(2) [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl it will be ionization isomer.

[Co(NH3)[Link]]Br & It show
 [Ma4b2] type isomers that is geometrical isomer.
(3) [Pd(NO2)2(NH3)2] is square planar & NO2 is ambidentate ligand that why show linkage
isomers.

89)

90)

BOTANY

91)

NCERT PAGE NO.

92) NCERT PAGE NO.

93) NCERT PAGE NO.

94) NCERT PAGE NO.

95) NCERT PAGE NO.

96) NCERT PAGE NO.

97) ncert page no.

98)

ncert page no.

101) NCERT/P–195 (NEET 2017)

102)

NCERT PAGE NO.

103) NCERT-XII, Pg#232

104) NCERT-XII, Pg#237,238

105) NCERT XII Pg # 238,237,236 िहदी # 259, 260, 261

106)

NCERT PAGE NO.

108)

NCERT PAGE NO.

110)

NCERT PAGE NO.

112)

ncert page no.

113)

ncert page no.

117)

ncert page no.

118) NCERT XII Pg # 233 3rd para

119) NCERT Page no. 193

120) NCERT Page no. 194

= (65 – 45)100
= 2000

121) NCERT Page no. 191

122)

NCERT PAGE NO.

123)

ncert page no.

124)

ncert page no.

125)

Question Explanation: Interpreting population age pyramids.

Concept: Population age pyramids

Solution: Age pyramids show the number of individuals in pre-reproductive, reproductive,

and post-reproductive age groups. Pyramid A has a large base of young individuals, indicating
an expanding population. Pyramid B has a more even distribution, showing a stable
population. Pyramid C has a narrow base, indicating a declining population.

Final Answer:(3) Expanding, Stable, Declining

126)

ncert page no.

129)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 235

130) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 335

131)

NCERT Pg no. 196

132)

NCERT PAGE NO.

134) NCERT - Pg. # 236

135) Concept:

A. Mutualism: Both species benefit (e.g., pollination by bees and flowers).

 B. Parasitism & Predation: One species benefits, while the other is harmed (e.g., a predator
kills prey, a parasite harms its host).

Explanation:

A. Statement I is true: Mutualism is a relationship where both species benefit.

B. Statement II is false: In parasitism and predation, only one species benefits while the
other is harmed.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

137)

Allen module 138

138) NCERT-XII Pg # 147,149; Para-8.1

139) NCERT-XII Pg # 155; Para-8.3

140)

ncert page no.147

141)

module 138

142)

NCERT PAGE NO.156

143)

Module 146
144)

ncert page no.146

145)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

146)

module 138

147)

NCERT PAGE NO.156

148)

ncert page no.147

149)

module 138

150)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

151)

NCERT PAGE NO.146

152)

MODULE 138,139

153)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

154)

NCERT PAGE NO.156

Question Explanation: What is the full form of NACO?

Concept: The question is based on HIV/AIDS.

 Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. NACO stands for National AIDS Control Organisation, which works to prevent and control
HIV/AIDS.

Final Answer: Option 1.

155)

NCERT PAGE NO.146,147

156)

NCERT PAGE NO.147

157)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

Question Explanation
The question is asking which stage of Plasmodium is infective to the Anopheles mosquito.

Concept
Malaria parasite life cycle

Solution
When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected human, it ingests male and female
gametocytes present in the blood. These gametocytes further develop inside the mosquito, so
they are the infective stage for the mosquito.

Final answer: Option 2

158)

NCERT PAGE NO.147

159)

NCERT PAGE NO.146

160) Page No. 146

161) Page No. 146

Statement iv is incorrect

162) Page No. 146

163) Page No. 146

164) NCERT PAGE NO.147

Question Explanation: This question asks where the common cold virus infects the human
body.
Concept: Viral disease
Solution: The correct answer is Option 4) Both (2) and (3).
The common cold is caused mainly by rhinoviruses, which infect the nose and the upper
respiratory passages.
It does not infect the lungs.
Final Answer: Both (2) and (3)

165)

NCERT PAGE NO.155

166) Page No. 146

167) Page No. 156

168) Page No. 147

169) NCERT PAGE NO.140

170) NCERT PAGE NO.154

171)

NCERT PAGE NO.147

172)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 147

173)

NCERT PAGE NO.147

174)

MODULE 138

175)
NCERT PAGE NO.148

176)

NCERT PAGE NO.147

Question Explanation
The question is asking which statement about common cold is incorrect based on its cause,
site of infection, symptoms, and mode of transmission.

Concept
Common cold.

Solution
Rhinovirus is the causative agent of common cold. It mainly infects the nose and upper
respiratory passages, not the lungs. The symptoms listed are typical of common cold.
Transmission occurs through droplets from cough or sneezes and through contaminated
objects.

Final answer: Option 2

177) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 147, para-1

178)

NCERT PAGE NO.148

179)

a&c are correct

MODULE 144

180)

NCERT PAGE NO.155