Project Management

Complete Answer Sheet — Based on Course Materials

PART 1 — Multiple Choice Questions (Q1–Q21)

Q1. Work best when work packages have significant uncertainty... three estimates.
✔ C — Range Estimate
■ Works best when work packages have significant uncertainty; requires Low/Average/High estimates.
Q2. Uses a two-estimate system over the life of the project.
✔ D — Hybrid Estimating (Phase Estimating)
■ Phase estimating = detailed estimate for immediate phase + macro estimate for remaining phases.
Q3. Major deliverables such as design, data collection… cost not to exceed $300,000.
✔ B — Statement of Work
■ SOW defines project-specific activities, deliverables, and timelines.
Q4. Average time of 30 minutes, assuming a 50/50 chance of getting there in 30 minutes.
✔ C — Padding
■ Padding: adding time buffer to ensure not being late — classic padding example from Chapter 3.
Q5. In which stage is a low level of effort of the physical and mental project work performed?
✔ B — Planning
■ Executing stage has the MAJOR portion; Defining/Planning stages have lower physical effort.
Q6. Which is NOT a characteristic of a project?
✔ D — Only for internal use
■ Projects can be internal or external; this is not a defining characteristic.
Q7. José forecasts time/cost for a building by multiplying total square footage by a dollar amount.
✔ A — Ratio
■ Ratio method: cost per square foot × total area = estimate.
Q8. Typical kinds of costs found in a project include:
✔ D — A, B, and C are all included
■ Direct costs + Project overhead costs + G&A; overhead = all types of project costs.
Q9. Ability of 911 emergency systems to identify caller's phone number and location.
✔ A — Technical Requirement
■ Technical requirements ensure proper performance of the product/service.
Q10. Two dimensions within the project management process are:
✔ A — Technical and Sociocultural
■ The two dimensions of actual project execution per Chapter 1.
Q11. The discipline of planning, organizing, and managing resources to bring about successful
completion.
✔ C — Project Management
■ Verbatim definition from Chapter 1.
Q12. Measures the time the project will take to recover the project investment.
 ✔ B — Payback Model
■ Payback period = Estimated Project Cost / Annual Savings.
Q13. Hierarchical decision-making, meetings start/end on time, subordinates choose words carefully.
✔ A — Behavior
■ These are behavioral norms / organizational culture behaviors.
Q14. A hierarchical outline (map) that identifies the products and work elements involved in a project.
✔ B — WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
■ Exact definition from Chapter 2.
Q15. Which is NOT a driving force behind the increasing demand for project management?
✔ D — Project Horizon
■ Driving forces: product life cycle compression, knowledge explosion, triple bottom line, corporate downsizing.
Project Horizon is NOT one of them.
Q16. About to create a new project by multiplying different cells with each other.
✔ A — Multi-Weighted Scoring Model
■ Multi-weighted model assigns weights to criteria and multiplies scores × weights.
Q17. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all EXCEPT:
✔ D — Routine Work
■ Projects are non-routine by definition; routine work is the opposite of projects.
Q18. Which constraint is NOT typically found in managing projects?
✔ B — People
■ The classic triple constraints are Time, Cost, and Performance/Scope. People is not a standard constraint.
Q19. Which is NOT one of the stages of a project life cycle?
✔ A — Conceptualizing
■ Stages are: Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing. 'Conceptualizing' is not a standard stage name.

Q20. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward: ✔

B — Outsourcing significant segments of project work
■ Chapter 1 directly links downsizing to outsourcing trend.
Q21. The final step in the creation of a Work Breakdown Structure is to:
✔ A — Code the WBS for tracking
■ Step 5 in Chapter 2: Coding the WBS for the Information System is the final step.

PART 2 — Additional Multiple Choice Questions

QA22. Which is NOT a driving force behind increasing demand for project management?
✔ B — More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
■ Driving forces are: knowledge explosion, corporate downsizing, product life cycle compression. Customer-focus
shift is not listed.
QA23. Team will install new software, but data migration is client's responsibility. This is an example of:
✔ A — Limits and Exclusions
■ Exclusions define what is NOT included in the project scope (Chapter 2).
QA24. Omar calculates chair manufacturing cost by multiplying number of chairs × standard cost per
chair.
 ✔ C — Ratio Estimating
■ Ratio method uses a standard rate × quantity.
QA25. Companies outsource significant segments; project managers manage counterparts in different
organizations. This refers to Knowledge Explosion. ✔ A — False
■ This statement describes Corporate Downsizing / Outsourcing trend, NOT the Knowledge Explosion.
QA26. The project scope should always include:
✔ C — All of the above
■ Scope includes: objectives, deliverables, constraints and assumptions.
QA27. Project manager estimates each small task then sums them to get total estimate. This method is
called:
✔ D — Bottom-up Estimating
■ Bottom-up = estimate at work package level then roll up to total.
QA28. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all EXCEPT:
✔ D — Repeatability
■ Projects are non-repetitive; repeatability describes routine operations.
QA29. In which stage is a low level of physical and mental project work performed?
✔ B — Defining

QA30. The project life cycle ends when the project is delivered and evaluated.
✔ B — True
■ Closing stage includes delivery and post-project review (evaluation).
QA31. Khaled uses standard project templates from previous reports to estimate a new similar project.
✔ B — Template Method
■ Template method uses past project data as a starting point for new similar projects.
QA32. Layla has a list of all tasks and deliverables broken into smaller subtasks. Which tool did she
use?
✔ D — Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
■ WBS hierarchically breaks down deliverables into work packages.
QA33. Technical requirements may include product dimensions, materials, or system capabilities.
✔ A — True
■ Directly stated in Chapter 2 scope checklist section.
QA34. Laura estimates 10% less time/money for intranet #7 based on doing 6 previous similar ones.
✔ C — Learning Curve
■ Learning curve: time/cost reduces with repetition — each additional unit takes less time.
QA35. The scope checklist ignores project objectives.
✔ B — False
■ Project objective is item #1 in the scope checklist (Chapter 2).
QA36. Project management focuses only on technical tools and not on people management.
✔ A — False
■ Project management has two dimensions: Technical AND Sociocultural (people management).
QA37. Ahmed is prioritizing tasks based on importance and urgency. What method is he using?
 ✔ D — Priority Matrix
■ Priority matrix is used to establish which criteria are constrained, enhanced, or accepted.
QA38. Client asks for additional features midway; team continues without adjusting deadlines or
resources.
✔ A — Scope Creep
■ Scope creep = project scope expanding without adjusting time/cost/resources.
QA39. Project must not exceed budget of $500,000. This criterion is classified as:
✔ A — Constrained
■ Constrain = a parameter is a fixed requirement that cannot be exceeded.
QA40. The lowest level of the WBS is known as:
✔ B — Work Package
■ Verbatim from Chapter 2: 'The lowest level of the WBS is called a work package.'
QA41. Project manager adds 15% extra time to all tasks to ensure deadlines are met.
✔ D — Padding Estimate
■ Padding = adding buffer time beyond realistic estimate to ensure on-time delivery.
QA42. Merge activities have more than one activity immediately following it (more than one dependency
arrow flowing FROM it).
✔ B — False
■ A BURST activity has more than one arrow flowing FROM it. A MERGE activity has more than one arrow
flowing TO it.
QA43. According to the risk severity matrix, which risk should receive the highest priority?
✔ C — High Probability - High Impact
■ Red zone = top-right corner = high impact/high likelihood = highest priority.
QA44. Which is NOT typically included in the risk register?
✔ C — Employee Salary Structure
■ Risk register includes: probability, impact, responses, contingency plans, status. Not salaries.
QA45. Arrows on an AON project network represent:
✔ B — Dependency
■ In AON: nodes = activities, arrows = dependencies between activities.
QA46. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the:
✔ B — A, B, and C are all correct
■ Forward pass determines: project duration (ET), earliest start (ES), and earliest finish (EF).
QA47. It is acceptable for arrows to cross one another in a network diagram.
✔ B — True
■ Chapter 4 Rule 3: 'Arrows indicate precedence and flow and can cross over each other.'
QA48. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed as:
✔ C — Path
■ Chapter 4: 'Path: a sequence of connected, dependent activities.'
QA49. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?
✔ B — LF – DUR = LS
■ Backward pass formula: Late Finish minus Duration = Late Start.
PART 3 — Estimating Methods & Costs
QE1. A key risk of using the consensus method is:
✔ C — Bias from groupthink or experience-based guesswork
■ Consensus method relies on senior managers' experience, which introduces bias/groupthink risk.
QE2. Bottom-up estimates are created without referencing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
✔ False
■ Bottom-up estimates ARE based on WBS work packages — the WBS is essential to bottom-up estimating.
QE3. Parametric estimating uses a mathematical relationship between historical data and variables.
✔ True
■ Parametric = mathematical/statistical relationship (e.g., cost per sq. meter × area).
QE4. Construction firm: $2,000/sq.m × 1,200 sq.m. Which estimating method is MOST appropriate?
✔ D — Ratio Method
■ Ratio method: multiply known rate × quantity = total estimate.
QE5. If the firm breaks cost into subcomponents (design, electrical), what method are they applying?
✔ A — Bottom-up Estimating
■ Breaking down into subcomponents and summing = bottom-up approach.
QE6. If they adjust historical costs for inflation and regional pricing, what concept are they applying?
✔ D — Ratio Method
■ Adjusting ratio-based estimates for specific factors (inflation, region) is still ratio/parametric method.
QE7. Which of the following could introduce estimation errors?
✔ C — National holidays delaying labor
■ Chapter 3 explicitly lists national holidays/vacations as nonproject factors affecting estimates.
QE8. Which is a key weakness of top-down estimates?
✔ C — They are done by people unfamiliar with project processes
■ Top-down = made by top managers with little knowledge of the detailed processes used.
QE9. Most appropriate estimating method when project tasks are well defined and detailed?
✔ D — Bottom-up Estimate
■ Bottom-up requires well-defined WBS work packages — ideal when details are known.
QE10. Function Point analysis is best suited for estimating:
✔ B — Software development effort
■ Function points use inputs, outputs, files, interfaces — specific to software/IT projects.
QE11. Which of the following is NOT a type of cost?
✔ B — Marketing Overhead Cost
■ Project cost types: Direct costs, Direct project overhead, G&A; overhead. 'Marketing overhead' is not a listed
category.
QE12. The accuracy of estimates is likely to improve as:
✔ C — The project moves from conceptual to detailed planning
■ Chapter 3: accuracy improves as you move from conceptual phase to detailed work package definition.
QE13. Range estimating is MOST appropriate when:
 ✔ C — High uncertainty exists
■ Range estimate = used when work packages have SIGNIFICANT uncertainty (Low/Avg/High estimates).
QE14. Which factor affects estimates by increasing communication overhead when new team members
join?
✔ C — People
■ Chapter 3: adding new people to a project increases time spent communicating.
QE15. Which method would be BEST when a project is very similar to previous ones?
✔ D — Ratio Method
■ When similar historical data exists, ratio/parametric is fast and accurate.
QE16. The learning curve is useful for estimating:
✔ B — Time reduction due to repetition
■ Learning curve: time to perform a task improves (decreases) with repetition.

QE17. A key risk of using the consensus method is: (repeated) ✔ C

— Bias from groupthink or experience-based guesswork ■
Same as E1.
QE18. Using the Ratio method: $2,000/sq.m × 1,200 sq.m = ?
✔ A — $2.4 million
■ 2,000 × 1,200 = 2,400,000 = $2.4 million.

PART 4 — Scope, WBS & Priority Matrix

QS1. Which of the following is not part of the project scope checklist?
✔ B — Project Budget
■ Scope checklist items: objective, deliverables, milestones, technical requirements, limits/exclusions, customer
review. Budget is NOT listed.
QS2. A milestone in project management:
✔ A — Is a key event occurring at a specific point in time
■ Chapter 2: 'A milestone is a significant event in a project that occurs at a point in time.'
QS3. What is the best way to prevent scope creep?
✔ C — Write a clear and detailed scope statement
■ Chapter 2: 'Scope creep can be reduced by carefully writing your scope statement.'
QS4. In the Project Priority Matrix, which is true when time is accepted?
✔ A — The schedule is flexible
■ Accept = reducing or not meeting a criterion; if time is accepted, schedule can slip.
QS5. A verb-oriented WBS starts each element with:
✔ D — An action word like 'build', 'design', 'test'
■ Chapter 2: 'Verb-oriented WBS: the first word is a verb, such as design, develop, test.'
QS6. What is the lowest level in a WBS called?
✔ C — Work Package
■ Chapter 2: 'The lowest level of the WBS is called a work package.'
QS7. The main purpose of a Responsibility Matrix (RM) is to:
✔ C — Clarify who is responsible for what
■ RM maps work packages to organizational units/individuals responsible for them.
QS8. What does the Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) primarily show?
✔ D — Organizational units responsible for work packages
■ OBS assigns project responsibilities to organizational units and individuals.
QS9. Which most accurately describes a Work Package?
✔ C — A short-duration task with clear start/end, responsible person, and resources
■ Chapter 2: work packages have definite start/stop, consume resources, represent cost.
QS10. When a project charter is issued, it:
✔ B — Authorizes the project manager to lead the project
■ Chapter 2: 'A project charter authorizes the project manager to use organizational resources.'
QS11. Client asks to add social media sentiment analysis after scope is finalized. This is an example of:
✔ C — Scope Creep
■ Adding new work after scope is finalized = scope creep.
QS12. What could have best helped avoid scope creep in the marketing research project?
✔ D — A strong scope statement with review
■ Chapter 2: carefully writing the scope statement reduces scope creep.
QS13. WBS tasks: 'Design UI', 'Develop Backend', 'Test Features', 'Deploy on App Store'. What kind of
WBS?
✔ B — Verb-oriented
■ Each element starts with a verb (Design, Develop, Test, Deploy) = verb-oriented WBS.
QS14. Which best reflects a key distinction between a project and routine work?
✔ C — Projects are non-routine and temporary
■ Chapter 1: projects are complex, non-routine, one-time efforts.
QS15. In a priority matrix, a project attribute that must be met under any circumstances is considered:
✔ D — Constrain
■ Constrain = a fixed requirement the project MUST meet.
QS16. Which statement about WBS is true?
✔ A — It maps project work hierarchically to deliverables
■ WBS is a hierarchical outline identifying products and work elements.
QS17. In multi-weighted scoring model: high weight criterion but project scores low on it.
✔ C — The overall project score significantly decreases
■ Weight × low score = large negative contribution to total weighted score.

PART 5 — Case Studies

QC1. Mobile health app: client insists on 3-month launch, budget is flexible, all features required. → Q1:
Priority Matrix configuration?
✔ B — Constrain: Time; Accept: Cost; Enhance: Scope
■ Time is fixed (3 months = constrain). Budget is flexible (accept). All features must be included
(enhance/constrain scope). Best fit: Constrain Time, Accept Cost, Enhance Scope.
QC2. Mobile health app — Q2: New feature request delays testing by 10 days. What risk?
✔ C — Scope Creep
■ Adding a new feature after scope is set = scope creep, which delays the project.
QC3. Green building: sponsor provides checklist with objectives, technical requirements, exclusions,
milestones. → Q1: What tool is the sponsor using?
✔ A — Scope Checklist
■ The sponsor is using the project scope checklist (objective, technical reqs, limits/exclusions, milestones).
QC4. Green building — Q2: Why include exclusions in the scope document?
✔ D — To avoid false expectations and wasted resources
■ Chapter 2: 'Failure to define limits can lead to false expectations and expending resources on the wrong
problem.'

PART 6 — True / False Questions

QTF1. A milestone must represent a deliverable, not just a point in time.
✔ B — False
■ A milestone IS a significant event at a POINT IN TIME. It does not have to be a deliverable.
QTF2. Scope creep is always negative and should be entirely avoided.
✔ B — False
■ Chapter 2: 'Scope creep can have a positive or negative effect on the project.'
QTF3. The WBS helps in estimating cost, time, and assigning responsibility.
✔ A — True
■ WBS facilitates evaluation of cost, time, and technical performance across the organization.
QTF4. Work packages should ideally exceed 10 days to cover more deliverables.
✔ B — False
■ Chapter 2: 'A work package should NOT exceed 10 workdays or one reporting period.'
QTF5. The project life cycle stages include: initiating, planning, executing, and launching.
✔ B — False
■ Correct stages: Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing. 'Initiating' and 'Launching' are not standard stage
names.
QTF6. A project manager can ignore sociocultural factors if technical planning is thorough.
✔ B — False
■ Both Technical AND Sociocultural dimensions are equally important in project management.
QTF7. The Project Charter provides the project manager with formal authority to use organizational
resources.
✔ A — True
■ Chapter 2: 'A project charter provides the project manager with written authority to use organizational
resources.'
QTF8. Projects are characterized by routine, repetitive work done across multiple years.
✔ B — False
■ Chapter 1: Projects are NON-routine, non-repetitive, one-time efforts with a defined life span.
QTF9. Portfolio management focuses on selecting and executing projects in the most technically
efficient way.
✔ B — False
■ Portfolio management focuses on doing the RIGHT programs/projects (strategic alignment), not technical
efficiency.
QTF10. In the executing stage, the focus is on physical and mental work, as well as monitoring time,
cost, and specifications.
✔ A — True
■ Chapter 1: Executing = major physical/mental work + time/cost/specification control.
QTF11. Integration of projects through portfolio management provides senior management with a
strategic overview and resource alignment.
✔ C — True
■ Chapter 1: Portfolio management provides senior management with an overview of all project activities and
resource usage.
QTF12. Risk management is a reactive rather than a proactive approach.
✔ False
■ Chapter 5: Risk management is explicitly described as 'a proactive rather than reactive approach.'
QTF13. The cost to fix a risk event is less if the event occurs earlier in the project.
✔ True
■ Chapter 5: 'The cost impact of a risk event is less if the event occurs earlier rather than later.'
QTF14. A contingency plan is part of the initial implementation plan and is taken before a risk can
materialize. ✔ False
■ Chapter 5: A RESPONSE is part of the initial plan. A CONTINGENCY PLAN only goes into effect AFTER the
risk is recognized.

PART 7 — Programs, Portfolio, Life Cycle & Risk

QM1. Which best distinguishes a program from a portfolio?
✔ C — A program involves related projects with a common goal; a portfolio includes various
initiatives aimed at achieving strategic objectives.
■ Chapter 1: Program = series of related projects toward a common goal. Portfolio = collection of
projects/programs managed for strategic objectives.
QM2. In which project life cycle stage would customer training and post-project review most likely
occur?
✔ D — Closing
■ Chapter 1: Closing includes delivery (customer training) and post-project review.
QM3. The multi-weighted scoring model differs from the checklist model by:
✔ B — Assigning importance to each criterion with numerical weights
■ Multi-weighted = weights × scores. Checklist = simple yes/no acceptance/rejection.
QM4. A project fails due to inability to deliver within planned timeline and budget. This failure relates
primarily to:
✔ C — Poor time and cost management
■ Chapter 1 lists Failure in Time Management and Cost Management as key reasons for project failure.
QM5. What factor is NOT a reason for increased use of project management in modern organizations?
✔ D — Decentralized customer focus
■ The four driving forces are: product life cycle compression, knowledge explosion, triple bottom line, corporate
downsizing. Decentralized customer focus is not listed.
QM6. EcoBuild project: teams from finance, engineering, and marketing collaborate. Which key
characteristic?
 ✔ A — Across-the-organizational participation
■ Chapter 1: Major characteristic = 'Requires across-the-organizational participation.'
QM7. EcoBuild wants project to align with broader environmental and financial goals. Which
management approach?
✔ C — Portfolio Management
■ Portfolio management = selecting/managing projects to achieve strategic objectives.

QM8. What is a key benefit of a proactive approach to risk management? ✔

C — It reduces surprises and negative consequences.
■ Chapter 5: Risk management 'reduces surprises and negative consequences.'
QM9. According to the Risk Event Graph, when is the cost impact of a risk event the highest?
✔ C — During the Delivering phase
■ Chapter 5: As project passes the halfway implementation mark, cost of risk event increases rapidly — highest
near delivery.
QM10. Which step involves assessing risks based on severity, likelihood, and controllability?
✔ B — Step 2: Risk Assessment
■ Chapter 5: Risk Assessment = evaluating probability and impact of each identified risk.
QM11. What is the primary purpose of a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?
✔ B — To help management teams identify and evaluate risks
■ Chapter 5: 'Organization use RBS in conjunction with WBS to help management teams identify and evaluate
risks.'
QM12. Which is an example of an 'Avoiding Risk' strategy?
✔ D — Changing the project plan to eliminate the risk or condition
■ Chapter 5: 'Risk avoidance is changing the project plan to eliminate the risk or condition.'

QM13. What is the difference between a risk response and a contingency plan?

✔ C — A risk response is part of the initial plan (taken before risk materializes); a
contingencyplan is implemented after the risk is recognized.
■ Chapter 5 explicit distinction: Response = before. Contingency = after recognition.
QM14. In outsourcing, what is a key disadvantage of a 'cost-plus' contract?
✔ A — The client takes on the burden of risk.
■ Cost-plus = client pays all costs + fee; contractor has no incentive to control costs; client bears the risk.
QM15. Which is a function of a change management system?
✔ C — Reviewing, evaluating, and formally approving or disapproving changes
■ Chapter 5: Change management systems review, evaluate, and formally approve/disapprove changes.
QM16. What is the purpose of a Risk Register?
✔ B — To detail all identified risks, including descriptions, category, probability, impact,
responses, contingency plans, and current statuses.
■ Chapter 5 verbatim definition of the Risk Register.
QM17. The Risk Severity Matrix is used to:
✔ B — Provide a basis for prioritizing which risks to address
■ Chapter 5: 'Risk Severity matrix provides a basis for prioritizing which risks to address.'
QM18. What is a Risk Profile?
✔ A — A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project.
 ■ Chapter 5: 'A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project.'
QM19. When is the likelihood of a risk event occurring the greatest?
✔ C — In the concept, planning, and start-up phases
■ Chapter 5: 'Chances of a risk event occurring are greatest in the concept, planning, and start-up phases.'
QM20. What is a classic example of transferring risk from an owner to a contractor?
✔ B — A fixed-price contract
■ Chapter 5: 'Fixed-price contracts are a classic example of transferring risk from an owner to a contractor.'
QM21. What is the term for reducing risk by reducing the likelihood of an event or its impact?
✔ B — Mitigating Risk
■ Chapter 5: Mitigating = reducing the likelihood OR reducing the impact of the adverse event.

PART 8 — Risk Management Case Study & Final Questions

QR1. Software project: team decides to sign contract with vendor for backup testing — only if primary
hardware is delayed >2 weeks. Conscious decision to accept the delay. → What type of risk response?
✔ D — Retaining Risk
■ The team consciously decided to ACCEPT the risk of the delay. Retaining risk = conscious decision to accept
the risk and develop a contingency if it materializes.
QR2. The plan to use vendor's environment ONLY after a two-week delay is an example of:
✔ A — A Contingency Plan
■ Chapter 5: A contingency plan goes into effect AFTER the risk is recognized/materializes.
QR3. On a project network, activity times are derived from the:
✔ D — Work Packages
■ Chapter 4: activity times come from WBS work packages, which are translated into network activities.
QR4. Which statement best explains why early project stages are critical for risk management?
✔ A — Opportunities to reduce risk impact are greater
■ Chapter 5: Early stages represent the period when the opportunity for minimizing impact or working around a
potential risk EXISTS.
QR5. Which step is primarily concerned with monitoring emerging risks and updating the risk register?
✔ B — Risk Response Control
■ Step 4 (Risk Response Control) involves executing strategy, monitoring events, initiating contingency plans,
and watching for new risks.
QR6. When translated into a project network, a work package will become:
✔ A — One or more activities
■ Chapter 4: each work package from WBS becomes one or more activities in the project network.
QR7. Which type of contract is best suited for projects with well-defined requirements?
✔ B — Fixed Price Contract
■ Fixed-price contracts work best when requirements are well-defined; the contractor knows exactly what to
deliver.
QR8. Which is a common cause of Scope Creep?
✔ B — Poorly defined project requirements
■ Vague scope/requirements allow scope to expand unchecked = scope creep.

QR9. What is the role of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in project management? ✔
B — To break down project deliverables into smaller, manageable components
 ■ WBS hierarchically decomposes deliverables into work packages for planning and control.
QR10. Which best describes the term 'Critical Path' in project management?
✔ B — The sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration
■ Chapter 4: Critical path = longest path through the network = minimum time to complete project.
QR11. What is the role of the 'executing' phase in the project life cycle?
✔ B — To implement the project plan and produce deliverables
■ Chapter 1: Executing = major physical/mental work, produces the deliverable.
QR12. Which method is best for projects where the final product is not known and uncertainty is very
large?
✔ C — Phase Estimating
■ Phase estimating = used when unusual uncertainty makes it impractical to estimate entire project at once.
QR13. What is risk mitigation?
✔ C — Reducing the probability and impact of a risk
■ Chapter 5: Mitigating = reducing likelihood OR impact of the adverse event.
QR14. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed:
✔ B — Total Slack
■ Chapter 4: 'Total slack tells us the amount of time an activity can be delayed and not delay the project.'
QR15. The ability of 911 emergency systems to identify caller's phone number and location.
✔ A — Technical Requirement
■ Technical requirements ensure proper performance of the product/service (Chapter 2).
QR16. Which is NOT typically included in a project scope checklist?
✔ D — Team Member Salaries
■ Scope checklist: objective, deliverables, milestones, technical requirements, limits/exclusions, customer review.
Salaries are NOT included.
QR17. Top-down estimates are most likely to occur during the _____ phase.
✔ A — Concept
■ Chapter 3: Top-down estimates are used in the concept/need phase when full details are not yet available.
QR18. Why is a range estimate used in project management?
✔ B — To account for uncertainties and risks in project planning
■ Range estimate used when significant uncertainty exists; provides Low/Average/High estimates.
QR19. How is risk severity typically calculated in the Risk Severity Matrix?
✔ A — By multiplying the probability and impact score
■ Chapter 5: FMEA formula: Impact × Probability × Detection = Risk Value; basic severity = probability × impact.
QR20. What are physical characteristics in project management?
✔ B — Tangible attributes of the project, such as floors and physical outputs
■ Physical characteristics are tangible/observable attributes of organizational culture and project outputs.
QR21. In reviewing the project plan, Susan sees that the first prototype is due by August 14. This is best
classified as:
✔ C — Milestone
■ A milestone is a significant event at a specific point in time (e.g., 'first prototype due by August 14').
QR22. Which is a cost-related advantage of outsourcing project work?
 ✔ B — Cost Reduction
■ Chapter 6: 'Cost reduction' is explicitly listed as advantage #1 of outsourcing.
QR23. Which is NOT a step in focusing on interests rather than positions?
✔ C — Ignoring emotional factors and focusing only on technical details
■ Chapter 6: Focusing on interests includes listening actively, identifying shared goals, exploring creative
solutions. Ignoring emotions is NOT part of it.

QR24. Purpose of combining a severity matrix with a probability scale in risk analysis? ✔ B
— To prioritize risks based on their potential impact and occurrence probability
■ Risk Severity Matrix = basis for prioritizing which risks to address first.
QR25. Ahmed forecasts software cost by looking at number of inputs, outputs, files, and interfaces.
✔ C — Function Point
■ Chapter 3: Function Point method uses weighted macro variables (inputs, outputs, files, interfaces) for software
estimation.
QR26. What is the purpose of a risk register in Project Risk Management?
✔ B — To document all identified risks and their characteristics
■ Chapter 5: Risk Register details all identified risks, descriptions, probability, impact, responses, contingency
plans, and status.

All answers derived exclusively from course materials: Chapters 1–6 | Project Management