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The document contains a series of physics and chemistry questions, including topics such as electric fields, potential difference, and chemical equilibrium. Each question presents multiple-choice answers related to the concepts discussed. The content is structured into sections for physics and chemistry, with various problems to solve.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views37 pages

Solution

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry questions, including topics such as electric fields, potential difference, and chemical equilibrium. Each question presents multiple-choice answers related to the concepts discussed. The content is structured into sections for physics and chemistry, with various problems to solve.

Uploaded by

starmeop
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

05-06-2026

7501CJA101021260035 JA

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Two infinitely long wires running parallel to the x-axis carry uniform charge densities +λ & –λ as

shown. Choose the CORRECT statement(s) :-

(A)
Potential at any point (x, y, z) is

(B)
Potential at any point (x, y, z) is

0
(C) Equipotential surface will be spherical with radius [V is potential
of given equipotential surface]

0
(D) Equipotential surface will be cylindrical with radius as [V is potential
of given equipotential surface]

2)

A cavity is made in the sphere as shown. A Gaussian surface is choosen as shown.


Which of the following statement is true ?

(A) qenclosed = 0, hence electric field in cavity is zero

(B) qenclosed = 0, hence

(C) qenclosed = 0, hence


(D) None of the above

3) An electric dipole is placed in a non uniform electric field increasing along the +ve direction of
X–axis. The dipole will

(A) move along + ve direction of X – axis, rotate clockwise


(B) move along –ve direction of X – axis, rotate clockwise
(C) move along +ve direction of X – axis, rotate anticlockwise
(D) move along –ve direction of X – axis, rotate anticlockwise

4) An electric dipole is kept in the electric field produced by a point charge :-

(A) dipole will experience a force


(B) dipole will experience a torque only
(C) dipole is in equilibrium
(D) dipole can be in stable equilbrium

5) A large sheet carries uniform surface charge density σ. A rod of length 2l has a linear charge
density λ on one half and -λ on the second half. The rod is hinged at mid-point O and makes angle θ

with the normal to the sheet. The electric force experienced by the rod is

(A) 0

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

6) A and B are two concentric spheres. If A is given a charge Q while B is earthed, as shown in
figure. Then correct statement is

(A) The charge density of A and B is same


(B) The field inside and outside A is zero
(C) The field between A and B is not zero
(D) The field inside and outside B is zero

7) A very large sphere having charge Q uniformly distributed on the surface is compressed uniformly
till its radius reduces to R. The work done by the electric forces in this process is:

(A)

(B)

(C) ∞
(D) 0

8) An electric field is expressed as . Find the potential difference (VA – VB) between two
points A and B whose position vectors are given by and .

(A) –1V
(B) 1 V
(C) 2 V
(D) 3V

9) The electric potential V as a function of distance x (in metre) is given by


V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt.
The value of electric field at x = 1 m would be:

(A) – 20 volt/m
(B) 6 volt/m
(C) 11 volt/m
(D) –23 volt/m

10) Four point charges –q, +q, +q and –q are placed on y-axis at y = –2d, y = –d, y = +d and y =
+2d, respectively. The magnitude of the electric field E at a point on the x-axis at x = D, with D >>
d, will behave as:

(A)
E∝
(B)
E∝

(C)
E∝

(D)
E∝

11) Two large identical plates are placed in front of each other at x = d and x = 2d as shown in the
figure. If charges on plates are Q and –5Q, the potential versus distance graph for the region x = 0

and x = 3d is :- (d is very small and potential at x = 0 is V )

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12)

A particle of charge ‘–q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a circle of radius ‘r’ around an infinitely long line
charge of linear density ‘+λ’. Then time period will be given as: (Consider k as Coulomb’s constant)

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

13) A ring of radius r and weight W is lying on a liquid surface. If the surface tension of the liquid is
T, then the minimum force required to be applied in order to lift the ring up -

(A) W
(B) 2W
(C) W + 4πrT
(D) W + 2πrT

14) Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm and 5 cm are touching each other over a

common surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be :–

(A) 4 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 4.5 cm

15) The acceleration a of the vertical U-tube is :-

(A) g
(B) g/2
(C) 2g
(D) Zero

16) A rectangular container is accelerated horizontally. Water is filled upto a height of 2m in this
containers having dimensions 5m × 4m × 3m. Find maximum
acceleration that can be given without spilling the water.

(A) 4 m/s2
(B) 3 m/s2
(C) 5 m/s2
(D) 7 m/s2

17) The radii of the two columns is U-tube are r1, and r2 (> r1). When a liquid of density ρ (angle of
contact is 0o) is filled in it, the level difference of liquid in two arms is h. The surface tension of liquid
is
(g = acceleration due to gravity)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) A cubical block of side a and density ρ slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity υ.
There is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness t between the plane and the block. Then the

coefficient of viscosity of the film will be

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D) None of these

19) A horizontal tube of uniform cross-sectional area A is bent in the form of U as shown in figure. If
the liquid of density ρ enters and leaves the tube with velocity υ, then the external force F required

to hold the bend stationary is

(A) F = 0
(B) ρAυ2
(C) 2ρAυ2

(D)

20) Figure (a) and (b) show water drop and mercury drop in two identical conical glass pipes, then

(A) The water drop tends to move towards narrow end and mercury drop towards wide end.
(B) The water drop tends to move towards wide end and mercury drop towards narrow end.
(C) both tend to move towards wide end.
(D) both tend to move towards narrow end.

SECTION-II

1)

A body weighs 50 gm in air and 43gm in water. Find the volume of object (in cm3) .

2) A uniform solid sphere of specific gravity 8 has a concentric spherical cavity and just sinks in

water. If the ratio of radius of cavity to that of outer radius of the sphere is then what will be the
value of x.

3) A small ball is falling in a stationary liquid with a constant speed of 9 m/s. If we had a ball whose
radius is 2/3 times the radius of the original ball, what would be the terminal speed (in m/s) of the
ball?
4) A sphere of radius R has charge density given by , where ρ0 is a constant, r is
distance from centre of sphere. For a spherical gaussian surface of radius R centered at the centre
of sphere, the flux is zero. Find 'n'.

5) P is centroid of regular hexagon. Electric field has magnitude E and potential is V at P. Then is

equal to (in SI units) value of n is.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 36. What is the percentage dissociation of
N2O4 at this temperature ?

(A) 53.3%
(B) 106.6%
(C) 20.7%
(D) 27.78%

2) Consider the reaction whose KC = 36,

if 0.1 mole each of SO2 and NO2 are placed initially in 1 litre container then; What is the
concentration of SO2 at equilibrium ?

(A) 0.003 M
(B) 0.015 M
(C) 0.085 M
(D) 0.097 M

3) For the equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g), what is the temperature at which ?

(A) 0.027 K
(B) 0.36 K
(C) 36.54 K
(D) 273 K

4) For a reaction P(g) 3Q(g). At equilibrium concentration of P and Q are aM and bM if pressure of
container is halfed. When equilibrium restablized then new concentration of Q becomes :-

(A)
Equal to

(B)
Less than

(C)
Greater than
(D) None of these

5) Solubility of CaF2 in a solution of 0.1M Ca(NO3)2 is given by

(A) [Ca2+]
(B) [F–]
(C) 1/2 [F–]

(D) 2[NO3 ]

6) What is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS in a solution that is 0.01 M
ZnCl2 and saturated with 0.10 M H2S ? [Given Ksp = 10–21, Ka1 × Ka2 = 10–20]

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

7) What volume of 0.2 M NH4Cl solution should be added to 100 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH solution to
produce a buffer solution of pH = 8.7?
Given : pKb of NH4 OH = 4.7 ; log 2 = 0.3

(A) 50 ml
(B) 100 ml
(C) 200 ml
(D) None of these

8) Two moles of an ideal gas at 2 bar and 27°C expand isothermally and reversibly to a pressure of 1
bar. The work done by the gas is equal to

(A) 3.5 kJ
(B) 2.5 kJ
(C) 1.5 kJ
(D) 4.5 kJ

9) Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT ?


(A) The net increase in entropy of a system is zero in any reversible Cyclic process.
(B) At constant temperature & pressure available energy present in system is called free energy.
The change in Gibb’s free energy with pressure for one mole ideal gas at constant temperature
(C)
is
(D) For a spontaneous change (ΔG)T,P > 0

10) 10g of argon gas is compressed isothermally and reversible at a temperature of 27oC from 10L to
5L. The ΔH value for this process is

(A) – 431 J
(B) + 431 J
(C) + 505 J
(D) 0

11) The simultaneous solubility of AgCN


(Ksp = 2.5 × 10–16) and AgCl
(Ksp = 1.6 × 10–10) in 1 M NH3 (aq) are respectively
Given Kf[Ag(NH3)2]+ = 107

(A) 1.58 × 10–3, 1.26 × 10–5


(B) 0.04, 6.25 × 10–8
(C) 5.78 × 10–8, 0.037
(D) 0.037, 5.78 × 10–8

12) Given are E° values for some half reactions


I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = 0.54 V
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–→ Mn2+ + 4H2O ; E° = 1.52 V Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ ; E° = 0.1 V
The strongest reductant and oxidant respectively are :

2+ –
(A) Sn , MnO4
– 4+
(B) MnO4 , Sn
3+
(C) I2, Fe
2+
(D) I2, Sn

13) If 0.50 L of a 0.60 M CuSO4 solution is electrolyzed for a period of 30.0 min using a current of
4.60 A. If inert electrodes are used, what is the final concentration of Cu2+ remaining in the solution?

(A) 0.342 M
(B) 0.544 M
(C) 0.389 M
(D) 0.514 M

14) For lead storage battery pick the correct statements.


A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode is converted into PbO2.
B. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on cathode is converted into PbO2.
C. Lead storage battery consists of grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode.
D. Lead storage battery 38% solution of sulphuric acid as an electrolyte.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) B, D only
(B) B, C only
(C) B, C, D only
(D) A, B, D only

15) An electrochemical cell is set up as follows',


Pt(H2 1atm)|HCl (0.1 M)||Acetic Acid (0.1 M) |(H2 1atm) Pt.
E.M.F. of the cell will not be zero because :

(A) The pH of 0.1 M HCl and 0.1 M acetic acid is not the same
(B) Acids used in the two compartments are different
(C) EMF of a cell depends on the molarities of acids used
(D) The temperature is constant

16) Calculate the cell potential of the following concentration cell :


Pt|Cl2(0.4 bar)| Cl– (0.1 M) | | Cl– (0.01 M)|
Cl2 (0.2 bar)|Pt

(A) 0.051 V
(B) – 0.051 V
(C) 0.102 V
(D) 0.0255 V

17) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HC1 and NH4OH)

and . Correct set is :

(A) I (NaCl), II (HC1), III, (NH4OH)


(B) I (HC1), II (NaCl), III, (NH4OH)
(C) I (NH4OH), II (NaCl), III, (HC1)
(D) I (NH4OH), H (HC1), III, (NaCl)

18)

The values of Kp1 and Kp2 for the reactions


X Y + Z ... (1)
and A 2B ... (2)
are in the ratio of 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at
equilibrium (1) and (2) are in the ratio :

(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 9
(C) 36 : 1
(D) 1 : 1

19) For the equilibrium, is –40 kJ/mol. If the ratio of activation energies of forward
(Ef) and reverse (Eb) reactions is 2/3, then :

(A) Ef = 60 kJ/mol ; Eb = 100 kJ/mol


(B) Ef = 30 kJ/mol ; Eb = 70 kJ/mol
(C) Ef = 80 kJ/mol ; Eb = 120 kJ/mol
(D) Ef = 70 kJ/mol ; Eb = 30 kJ/mol

20) 1 mole of CO2 gas at 300 K is expanded under reversible adiabatic condition such that its volume
becomes 27 times. Calculate final temperature and work done (in kJ). Given γ = 1.33 and CV = 25.08
Jmol–1K–1 for CO2.

(A) 100°C, 5.016


(B) 200°C, 5.016
(C) 100K, 2.008
(D) 200K, 5.016

SECTION-II

1) For the process H2O(l) H2O(g) ΔH = 45.0 kJ mol–1 and ΔS = 1.20 × 102 J K–1 mol–1. At what
temperature the above process is at equilibrium?

2) The photoelectric current from Na (work function, w0 = 2.3 eV) is stopped by the output voltage of
the cell
Pt(s)|H2(g, 1bar)|HCl(aq., pH = 1)|AgCl(s)|Ag(s). The pH of aq. HCl required to stop the
photoelectric current from K(w0 = 2.25eV), all other conditions remaining the same, is_____ × 10–2 (to
the nearest integer).

Given,

3) The pH of 0.5 M NaCN solution is (Ka of HCN = 5 × 10–10)

4) The pH of a solution of base is 8. [OH-] for the base is 10-x then x will be.

5) For the reactions


KC = 3
KC for the reaction is:-

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) If α and β are solutions of x2 – 10x + 10 = 0 such that , then roots of equation 2x2 + 10x
+ 3b = 0 are

(A) rational and distinct


(B) real and equal
(C) imaginary
(D) irrational and distinct

2) The quadratic equation with rational coefficients whose one root is tan15º, is-

(A) x2 – 2x + 2 = 0
(B) x2 – 4x + 2 = 0
(C) x2 – 4x + 1 = 0
(D) x2 – 3x + 2 = 0

3)

Graph of y = ax2 + bx + c is given in the adjacent figure, then which of the following is correct -

(where α,β are the zeros of ax2 + bx + c)


(A) α + β > 0, αβ < 0
(B) b < 0, D < 0
(C) b > 0, D > 0
(D) α + β < 0, αβ < 0

4) If α, β are roots of the equation x2 – 2x + 3 = 0, then value of (α3 – 3α2 + 5α) is equal to -

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 12
(D) 16

5) If the equation (p2 – 3p + 2)x2 + (p – 1)2x + (p2 – 4p + 3) = 0 is satisfied for more than two
different values of x, then p is equal to

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1,2,3
(D) 2,3

6) If the equations x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x2 – ax + b = 0 have one root common, then 2a + 3b is equal to


(where a,b ∈ R)

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

7) is -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8) If a and b are positive real numbers such that , then least value of a + b is equal to

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) If a1, a2, a3 .....an are in A.P and a4 + a8 + a12 = k, then sum of the first fifteen terms of A.P. is

(A) 5k

(B)

(C) 7k
(D)

10) The sum of the series upto infinite terms is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) The product (32).(32)1/6.(32)1/36...... ∞ is equal to -

(A) 16
(B) 32
(C) 8
(D) 64

12) The sum of all possible value(s) of 'r' for which the coefficient of (2r + 3)th term is equal to the
coefficient of (r + 5)th term in the expansion of (1 + x)15 is

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

13) sum of absolute values of coefficients in the expansion of (2 + 3x – y)20 is equal to -

(A) (2)20

(B)

(C) (6)20
(D) (4)20

14) The value of (where a and d are constants) is equal to -

(A) a.2n
(B) (a + (2n – 1)d)2n–1
(C) (2a + nd)2n–1
(D) (a + nd)2n

15) Coefficient of x2 in (1 + x)5(1 + 2x)4, is


(A) 74
(B) 88
(C) 96
(D) 108

16) If nC3 + nC4 > n+1C3, then -

(A) n > 6
(B) n > 7
(C) n < 6
(D) None of these

17) The term independent of x in the expansion of is

(A) T5 = 210
(B) T5 = –210
(C) T4 = 180
(D) T4 = –180

18) If +....+ . Then the value of


is

(A) -217
(B) -216
(C) -218
(D) -219

19) If = [N] + F and F = N – [N]; where [.] denotes greatest integer function, then
NF is equal to

(A)
(B)
(C) odd integer
(D)

20) The value is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION-II

1) Minimum value of is:

2) If roots of the equation x4 + 2x3 + 3x2 + 2x + 1 = 0 are α, β, γ, δ then (α + 2)(β + 2)(γ + 2)(δ + 2)
is equal to

3) Let α and β be the roots of equation x2 – 6x – 2 = 0. If an = αn – βn, for n ≥ 1, then the value of

is equal to :

4) We call 'p' a good number if the inequality is satisfied for any real x. Find the
smallest integral good number.

5) The A.M. of two No.'s exceeds the G.M. by and the G.M exceeds the H.M by . Find smaller No.
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B C A A A C B A A D A B C B B A A A C A

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 7.00 7.00 4.00 4.00 1.00

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D B C C C B C A D D D A D A A A B C C C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 375.00 58 11.50 6 15.00

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C C D A A A C D A A D D C C A A A D A A

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 2.00 9.00 3.00 4.00 3.00
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Potential at any point (x, y, z) is

3) Electric field lines are dense

the dipole move in ve x direction distance from force component provide Torque in
clockwise direction.

5) Nearby the plate, field is uniform. Equal and opposite forces are experienced by upper half
and lower half portions of the rod.

6)
As the potential at B is zero

Hence q = –Q

7) (WAB)electric force = UA – UB = 0 – = [∴ UA = 0 as sphere is large]

8)
vA – vB =

10)

Explanation Question: We have to find the dependence of the magnitude of electric field
depends on distance D
Concept: This question is based on electric field
Solution:

Final Answer : The correct option is (4)

11) Potential decreases in the direction of E.


∴ From origin potential decrease from V0 to certain value

∴ Slope of graph V-x is equal to E


E is high in between the plate
∴ Slope between plate is maximum.

12)
13) When we lift the ring its own weight is pointing in the downward direction. Also the force
due to surface tension points in the direction opposite to motion, therefore in the downward
direction.
Hence the minimum force required to lift the ring.
F = W + T × circumference of ring
so F = W + T × 4 πr (because 2 surfaces are involved

14)

r = 20 cm

15)

Question Explanation : We need to find the acceleration a of the vertical U-tube from the
data given in the figure.
Concept : This question is based on Fluid in accelerated vessel.
Solution :

tan θ =
Final answer : Option (2)

16)

y=2
a = 4m/s2

17)

p1 = p2

18) Viscous force = mg sin θ

19)

20) Question Explanation:


Figure show water drop and mercury drop in two conical glass pipes. It is asked to choose the
correct statement.

Concept:
This question is based on fluid mechanics.

Solution:
As we know that when liquid drops are placed in glass pipes then water drop tends to move
towards narrow end and the mercury drop tends to move towards wide end.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (1)
21)

FB = mg
ρωVg = FB = 7g ⇒ V = 7cm3

22) (8 × ρW) =
8R3 – 8r3 = R3
7R3 = 8r3

23)

Terminal velocity
VT ∝ R2
9 m/s ∝ R2 ... (i)

... (ii)
(i)/(ii) ⇒ VT = 4 m/s

24) For flux to be zero, net charge should be zero.

25)

CHEMISTRY

26)

Explain the Question :- Given vapour density (VD) of N2O4 at a temperature, find %
dissociation for:
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
Concept :-This question is based on vapour density and degree of dissociation
For dissociation: d = D / (1 + α)
D= Observed VD, D = Normal VD, α = degree of dissociation.
Solution:
Normal molar mass of N2O4 = 92
⇒ Normal VD (D)= 92/2 = 46
36 = 46 / (1 + α)
1 + α = 46 / 36 = 1.2778
α = 0.2778
% dissociation = 27.78%
Final Answer: Option 4

27) t = 0 0.1 mole 0.1 mole 0 0


t = teq (0.1 – x) (0.1 –x) x x

∴ [SO2] = 0.1 – 0.085 = 0.015 M

28) KP = KC × (RT)Δng
Δng = 1
KP = KC × (RT)

3 = 0.082 × T

29) Pf = Vf = 2Vi Cf =
P 3Q

[Q]eq >

30)
0.1 2 × 0.1.
CaF2 → Ca+2 + 2FΘ
(S + 0.1) 2S
31)

32) Let V ml of NH4 Cl added into NH4 OH solution

[NH4 Cl] in resultant solution =

[NH4 OH] in resultant solution =

pOH = pKb + log

5.3 = 4.7 + log

∴4= ⇒ V = 200 ml

33)

Question Explanation : Calculate work done when an ideal gas expands reversibly and
isothermally between two pressures.

Concept : Work done during isothermal reversible expansion.

Solution :

W = 2.303

W = 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 300 ×


W = 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × 300 × 0.3
W = 3450 J = 3.4 KJ ≈ 3.5 KJ

Final Answer: option (1)

34) (ΔG)T,P < 0 for a spontaneous process

35) Conceptual
36) AgCl(s) + 2NH3(aq) ⇌ Ag(NH3)2+ + Cl–(aq)
0–2x x x
K1 = 1.6 × 10–10 × 107 = 1.6 × 10–3

K1 =

= = 6.4 × 105

K1 = = 1.6 × 10–3

= 0.04
x = 0.037

[CN–] = = 5.78 × 10–8

37)

Question Explanation: Find the strongest reductant and the strongest oxidant from the given
standard reduction potentials.

Concept: This question is based on standard reduction potential (E°) and oxidizing-reducing
strength.

Solution:
Given half-reactions (all E° are reduction potentials):
I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = 0.54 V
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–→ Mn2+ + 4H2O ; E° = 1.52 V
Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ ; E° = 0.1 V

• Strongest oxidant → species with highest E° (most easily reduced) ⇒ MnO4– (E° = 1.52 V)
• Strongest reductant → species whose oxidation is easiest, i.e. whose corresponding reduction
E° is lowest ⇒ SN2+ (from SN4+/ SN2+, E° = 0.10 V )​​

Final Answer: Option (1)

38)

Equvalent of deposit

Cu+2 =

Moles of Cu+2 deposite =

Molarity of Cu+2 deposit =

Remain Molarity = 0.6 – 0.085 = 0.51


39)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct statements regarding the
operation and composition of a lead storage battery. To solve this, we must examine the
chemical processes that occur at the electrodes during charging and discharging, as well as
the standard materials used in the battery's construction.
Concept: A lead storage battery is a secondary cell, meaning it can be recharged by passing
an electric current through it in the opposite direction.

A. Construction: It consists of a lead anode and a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide ( ) as
the cathode.
B. Electrolyte: The electrodes are immersed in a 38% solution of sulphuric acid ( ).
C. Discharging: Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy. PbSO4 is formed at both
electrodes, and the concentration of H2SO4 decreases.
D. Charging: Electrical energy is used to reverse the chemical reactions. The PbSO4 is converted
back to Pb at the anode and PbO2 at the cathode.

Solution:

A. Statement A: During charging, PbSO4 at the anode is reduced to metallic Pb . Therefore,


Statement A is incorrect.
B. Statement B: During charging, PbSO4 at the cathode is oxidized to PbO2. Therefore, Statement
B is correct.
C. Statement C: The grid of lead packed with PbO2 serves as the cathode, while the anode is lead.
Therefore, Statement C is incorrect.
D. Statement D: The electrolyte used is indeed a 38% solution of sulphuric acid. Therefore,
Statement D is correct.

By evaluating these points, only statements B and D are accurate.


Final Answer: Option (1)

40) Ecell = 0.059 log (for concentration cell)


For CH3COOH, C2 = (0.1 α) M
For HCl ; C1 = 0.1 M

Ecell = 0.0591 log = 0.0591 log α


∵ α ≠ 1, ∴ Ecell ≠ 0

41) At Anode & cathod, Both reaction are same number of e– transfered same.

Ecell =

Ecell =
Ecell = –0.03 × (–1.698)
Ecell = 0.051 V

42)

Explain the question: Match salts to Λm vs curves.

Concept: Debye-Hückel-Onsager equation and ionic mobility.

Solution:
Strong electrolytes (HCl, NaCl) show a linear variation with a small slope, while weak
electrolytes (NH4OH) show a steep, non-linear curve upon dilution. Thus, Curve III must be
the weak base NH4OH. To distinguish between the two strong electrolytes, we compare ionic
mobilities.
Since the molar conductivity of H+ is exceptionally high compared to Na+, the Λm values for HCl
are consistently higher than those for NaCl at any given concentration.
Consequently, the top curve (I) corresponds to HCl and the middle curve (II) corresponds to
NaCl .

Final Answer: Option (2)

43)

Given reaction are


X Y + Z ..... (i)
and A 2B .... (ii)
Let the total pressure for reaction (i) and (ii) be P1 and P2 respectively, then

(given)
after dissociation,
X Y+Z
At equilibrium (1-α) α α
[Let 1 mole of X dissociate with α as degree of dissociation]
Total number of moles = 1 - α + α + α
= (1 + α)

Thus

Similarly for A 2B
At equilibrium (1-α) 2α
Now, we have

... (ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get

or
or or
or P1 : P2 = 36 : 1

44) ΔH = (Ea)f – (Ea)b

45) (a)
300 × V1/3 = T2 × (27 V)1/3 ⇒ T2 = 100 K
(b) ΔE = q + W
For reversible adiabatic process,
q=0
ΔU = W
⇒ W = n CV ΔT
⇒ W = 1 × 25.08 × (100 – 300) = – 5.016 kJ

46) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS ; At equilibrium ΔG = 0 ; ΔH = TΔS ;

= 375K

47)

E = 0.22 + .12 = .34 volt


⇒ total energy of photon will be (for Na)
= 2.3 + 0.34 = 2.64 eV
⇒ stopping potential required for K
= 2.64 – 2.25 = 0.39 volt
as [H+] = [C–] so

0.39 = 0.22 – .06 log


0.17 = + 0.12 pH
pH = 1.4166 ⇒ 1.42

48) pH = 7 + (pka + log C)

=7+

=7+ [10 – log5 + log5 – log 10]

= 7 + [9]
pH = 11.5

49)

pH = -log10 [H+]
[H+] [OH+] = 10-14 at 25oC

50) A KC = 1

KC = 3

KC = 5
KC = 1 × 3 × 5
= 15

MATHEMATICS

51) Question Explanation: We have to find nature of roots of given equation, when root of
equation x2 – 10x + 10 = 0 is α and β.

Concept: This question is based on sum of root and product of root.

Solution: Equation, x2 – 10x + 10 = 0 root α, β


α + β = 10
αβ = 10

Now,
Now, equation 2x2 + 10x + 3b = 0
2x2 + 10x + 24 = 0
D = 100 – 4 × 2 × 24 < 0
D<0
∴ Imaginary roots.

Final answer: The correct option is (3).

52) Question Explain: We have to from new quadratic equation when coefficients are ration,
and one of the root is tan15°.

Concept: This question is based on Nature of Roots

Solution: Let α, β is the roots of Q.E. one of the root is tan 15°.
Let a =
Since coefficients are rational,
So,

αβ = 4 – 3 = 1
Q.E be, x2 – (α + β)x + αβ = 0
x2 – 4x + 1 = 0

Final Answer: Option (C)

53) It is obvious from figure that roots are of opposite sign but –ve root has greater magnitude

54) Question Explanation: In this question we have to find value of (α3 – 3α2 + 5α), when α is
root of given equation.

Concept: This question is based on relation between roots.

Solution:
x2 – 2x + 3 = 0 roots, α, β
∴ α2 – 2α + 3 = 0
α2 – 2α = –3 ...(1)
Now,
α(α2 – 2α + 3) = 0 × α, since α 0
α3 – 2α2 + 3α = 0
⇒ α3 – 2α2 – α2 + 3α + 2α = –α2 + 2α
⇒ (α3 – 3α2 + 5α) = – (α2 – 2α)
α3 – 2α2 + 5α = – (–3) {from (1)}
α3 – 2α2 + 5α = 3
Final answer: The correct option is (1).

55) Question Explanation: Finding the value of p for a quadratic equation to have more than
two solutions.
Concept: Conditions for a polynomial to be an identity.
Solution: For a quadratic equation to be satisfied by more than two different values of x, it
must be an identity. This means that all the coefficients of the polynomial must be zero. We set
each coefficient of the given equation to zero and find the value of p that satisfies all three
conditions simultaneously.
Calculation:
(p2 – 3p + 2)x2 + (p – 1)2x + (p2 – 4p + 3) = 0
Since given quadratic equation has more than 2 distinct values of x then it will become an
identity.
⇒ Coefficient of x2 = 0 and coefficients of x = 0 and constant term = 0
⇒ p2 – 3p + 2 = 0 and (p – 1)2 = 0 and p2 – 4p + 3 = 0
⇒ (p – 1)(p – 2) = 0 ⇒p=1 ⇒ (p – 1)(p – 3) = 0
⇒ p = 1 or 2 ⇒ p = 1 or 3
∴ So
Final Answer: The value of p is 1.

56) Question Explanation: We have given two quadratic equations having one common root.

Concept: This question is based on common roots.

Solution: Let x2 – ax + b = 0 → α, β,
θ​​2 : x2 + x + 1 = 0 → β, γ
D = 1 – 4 × 1 ×​ 1​​ < 0
Imaginary roots of θ2
So, both roots are common

Therefore,
Now, 1 = – a = b
– a = 1 ⇒ a = 1, b = 1​​
Now, 2a + 3b = – 2 × 1 + 3 × 1 = 1

Final answer: The correct option is (1).

57) Question Explanation: To find value of .

Concept: This question is based on write each term as difference of two terms.

Solution:
Final answer: The correct option is (3).

58) Question Explanation: We have to find least value of (a + b) where a, b ∈ R+.


Concept: This question is based on inequalities based on A.M. ≥ G.M.

Solution: Given

Numbers

A.M. ≥ G.M.

least of

Final answer: The correct option is (4).

59) Question Explanation: a1, a2, a3 .....an are in A.P


a4 + a8 + a12 = k (given) to find s15.

Concept: This question is based on an = a + (n – 1)d

sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]

Solution: a4 + a8 + a12 = k (given)


⇒ (a1 + 3d) + (a1 + 7d) + (a1 + 11d) = k
⇒ 3a1 + 21d = k

⇒ a1 + 7d =
= (15)(a1 + 7d) = = 5k

Final answer: The correct option is (1).

60) ...(i)

...(ii)
Sub (i) & (ii)

61)

62) r = 2 or r = 3

63) Question Explain: We have to find sum of absolute value of coefficient in expansion of (2
+ 3x – y)20

Concept: This question is based on In expansion of Binomial or multinomial, whenever we


need of find absolute value of coefficient then
put x = 1 if coefficient of x is positive
or
Put x = –1 if coefficient of x is negative

Solution: Put x = 1 (as coefficient of x = 3 > 0)


and
Put y = –1 (coefficient + y = –1 < 0) in (2 + 3x – y)20
⇒ sum of absolute value of coefficients = (2 + 3 –(–1))20
= 620

Final Answer: Option (3)

64) Question Explain: We have to find


Concept:
Solution:

= a.2n + dn2n–1
= 2n–1(2a + nd)

Final Answer: Option (3)

65) 5C2 × 1 + 5C1 × 4C1 × 2 + 4C2 × 22


= 10 + 40 + 24 ⇒ 74

66)
n
C3 + nC4 > n+1C3

⇒ n+1C4 > n+1C3 ⇒

⇒ ⇒ n > 6.

67) We have

We have,
Tr+1 = 10Cr(x1/3)10–r(–x–1/2)r .....(1)

It will be independent of x, if

.
⇒ 20 – 2r – 3r = 0 ⇒ r = 4
Putting r = 4 in (1), we get
= 10C4 = 210

68)
Putting x = 1, we get

Putting x = -1, we get

Subtracting (1) from (2), we get


or

69) Since

Let us assume that where

Now,

even integer.
Now and
so and is an integer so it can only be zero

Thus

70)

71)
=2

72) x4 + 2x3 + 3x2 + 2x + 1 = (x – α)(x – β)(x – γ)(x – δ)


Put x = –2
then (2 + α)(2 + β)(2 + γ)(2 + δ) = 9

73) α2 – 6α – 2 = 0 & β2 – 6β – 2 = 0

74)

Let

=
Hence,

⇒ p is a good no.
Smallest integral p = 4

75)

G2 = AH

G2 =

A=

ab = 36
a + b = 15
3,12

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