16-05-2026

9610WMD801490250051 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two point sources separated by 2.0 m are radiating in phase with λ = 0.50 m. A detector moves in
a circular path around the two sources in a plane containing them. How many maxima are detected ?

(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 32

2) The wavefront of a distant source of unknown shape is approximately :-

(1) Spherical
(2) Cylindrical
(3) Elliptical
(4) Plane

3) If a plane mirror is rotated by an angle of α from its actual position, then the incident ray will be
rotated by an angle of :-

(1) 2α
(2) 0°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

4) An object is placed at 8 cm from the upper face of a glass slab of thickness 6 cm. The lower face
of the slab is silvered as shown in the figure. If the refractive index of the material of slab is 1.5 find

the position of the image :-

(1) 6 cm behind the silvered face

(2) 8 cm behind the silvered face
(3) 10 cm behind the silvered face
(4) 4 cm behind the silvered face
5) In half wave rectifier, the rms value of AC component of the wave is :

(1) Equal to DC value

(2) More than DC value
(3) Less than DC value
(4) Zero

6) In the given circuit, the current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 4mA
(2) 6.67 mA
(3) 2 mA
(4) 0 mA

7) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of electron of kinetic energy 200 eV (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg,
charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C, planks constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) :-

(1) 9.60 × 10–11 m

(2) 8.68 × 10–11 m
(3) 6.25 × 10–11 m
(4) 5.00 × 10–11 m

8) The stable nucleus which has a radius half of Zn64 is -

(1) Ca40
(2) S16
(3) Na21
(4) Be8

9) An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field
E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t; (ignoring relativistic effect)
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that :-

(1) Neutrons are heavier than protons

(2) Electrostatic force between protons are repulsive
(3) Neutrons decay into protons through beta decay
(4) Nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons

11) From last few decades Scientist Search alternative option to move in space. One idea is to build
a boat (mass = m) with large canvas (area A) and accelerate boat by radiation force exerted by solar
radiation. Find acceleration of boat when it is at distance r from sun (power of sun = P ; assume rays
are normally incident on canvas and canvas is 100% reflector of light)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) You are supplied with an ammeter of resistance 3Ω and two resistors of resistance 1Ω and 2Ω
respectively. In which of the following combinations the potential difference across the meter will be
0.75 V when a current of 1A flows through the combination ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistance P, Q and R are connected in the three arms and the
fourth arm is formed by two resistance S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge
to be balanced will be-
 =
(1)

(2)
=

(3)
=

=
(4)

14) A cell of emf ε and internal resistance r is connected to a variable external resistor R. The power
delivered to R is maximum when:

(1) R = r/2
(2) R = r
(3) R = 2r
(4) R = 0

15) For given function V = A cos ωt + B sin ωt which one represent maximum voltage:-

(1)
(2) A2+B2

(3)

(4) A + B

16)

Match the following :

Current r.m.s. values

(a) x0 sin ω t (i) xo

(b) x0 sin ω t cos ωt (ii)

(c) x0 sin ωt + x0 cos ωt (iii)

(1) a.(i), b.(ii), c.(iii)

(2) a.(ii), b.(iii), c.(i)
(3) a.(i), b.(iii), c.(ii)
(4) None of these
17) Due to a small magnet intensity at a distance x in the end on position is 9 Gauss. What will be

the intensity at a distance on broad side on position

(1) 9 Gauss
(2) 4 Gauss
(3) 36 Gauss
(4) 4.5 Gauss

18) In the fig. mass M = 10 g. is placed on an inclined plane. In order to keep it at rest, the value of

mass m will be :

(1) 5 g
(2) 10 g
(3) 0.10 g
(4) g

19) A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure.

The spring balance measure :-

(1) 50 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 500 N
(4) 10 N

20) A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 100 m. It slides down a
smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally slides down to a
horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the ground. The velocity attained by the ball is :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

21) Velocity of a particle of mass 2kg moving rectilinearly is given by v = 25 – 2t + t2. Find the
average power of the force acting on the particle between time interval t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 49 W
(2) 24.5 W
(3) –49 W
(4) –24.5 W

22) The area under the acceleration and time graph shows :-

(1) Displacement
(2) Velocity
(3) Change of velocity
(4) Distance covered

23) A body measures 5 N in air and 2 N when put in water. The buoyant force is:

(1) 7 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 3 N
(4) None of these

24) An electric dipole of moment p is place in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a
position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of the field. Assuming
that, the potential energy of the dipole to be zero, when θ = 90°, the torque and potential energy of
the dipole will respectively be :-

(1) pE sinθ, 2pE cosθ

(2) pE cosθ, –pE sinθ
(3) pE sinθ, –pE cosθ
(4) pE sinθ, –2pE cosθ

25) Three plates A,B,C each of area 50 cm2 have separation 3 mm between A and B and 3 mm
between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are fully charged is-

(1) 1.6 × 10–9 J

(2) 2.1 × 10–9 J
(3) 5 × 10–9 J
(4) 7 × 10–9 J

26) The current voltage graph for a given metallic conductor at two different temperature T1 and T2

are as shown in the figure then :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T1 < T2
(4) None of these

27) A wire carries a current I & Its radius is R then find out magnetic field at a point which is located
R/3 distance from the surface of the wire and inside the wire :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field

directed into the paper. AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then :-

(1)

(2)
2
(3) VA – VC = 4Bωℓ

(4)

29) A body of mass 6 kg under a force which causes displacement in it given ‘S = ’ metres where
‘t’ is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is :-

(1) 12J
(2) 9J
(3) 6J
(4) 3J

30) A particle has an initial velocity of and an acceleration of . Its speed after 10 s is
:-

(1) 7 units
(2) 8.5 units
(3) 10 units
(4) units
31) A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of
radius R and volume V. If T is surface tension of liquid, then amount of heat released in this process
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked at 15° and 25° and steam points marked as
75° and 125° respectively. When thermometer X measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it,
what would thermometer Y read when it is used to measure the temperature of the same bath ?

(1) 60°
(2) 75°
(3) 100°
(4) 90°

33) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel :-

(1) 75°C
(2) 67°C
(3) 33°C
(4) 25°C

34) One mole of an ideal gas is taken through a cyclic process shown in the V-T diagram. Which of

the following statements are correct ?

(1) The magnitude of the work done on the gas is RT0 loge 2
(2) Work done on gas is V0T0
(3) Net work done on the gas is zero
(4) Work done on the gas is 2RT0 loge 2
35) Coulomb's law is analogous to :-

(1) Charge conservation law

(2) Newton's second law of motion
(3) Law of conservation of energy
(4) Newton's law of gravitation

36) Find the correct option (Regarding electric field lines)

(1) EA > EB > EC

(2) EB < EC > EA
(3) EA < EB < EC
(4) EB < EA > EC

37) A simple pendulum has a period T. It is taken inside a lift moving up with uniform acceleration of
g/3. Now, its time period will be : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The figure shows at time t = 0 second, a rectangular and triangular pulse on a uniform wire are
approaching each other. The pulse speed is 0.5 cm/s. The resultant pulse at t = 2 second is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Two waves produced by tuning fork in air is given by y1 = 4 sin 400πt and y2 = 8 sin 404πt, then
beats and ratio of their intensity will be : -

(1) 4, 1 : 4
(2) 2, 1 : 4
(3) 2, 4 : 2
(4) 4, 4 : 1

40) If K represents kinetic energy, V represents velocity and T represents time, and these are chosen
as the fundamental units then, the dimensional formula of surface tension is (Given : surface tension
is force per unit length) :-

(1) [KV–2T–2]
(2) [KV–1T–2]
(3) [K2V–1T–3]
(4) [KV–2T–1]

41) A student measures the resistance R1 = 10 ± 1Ω and R2 = 20 ± 0.5 Ω. What is the range of value
of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 30 ± 1.5 Ω
30 ±
(4)
 0

42) Work done in displacement x will be (graph is semi ellipse)-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The driver of a bus travelling with a speed 'v' suddenly observes a wall in front of his bus at a
distance 'a'. Father of this driver, who was also a driver, had advised him to take a circular turn to
avoid hitting in such a situation. However, the driver in question decides otherwise by using his own
wisdom. He applies brakes as hard as possible without taking a circular turn, then :-

(1) he is more likely to hit the wall

(2) he is less likely to hit the wall
(3) he is as likely to hit the wall
(4) none of the above

44) A rod of length 3 m and its mass per unit length is directly proportional to the distance x from its
one end. The center of gravity of the rod from that end will be at :-

(1) 1.5 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 3.0 m

45) Three equal masses M are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. Find
the force exerted by this system on another mass M placed at mid point of any side.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 CHEMISTRY

1) The mass of Mg3N2 produced if 48 gm of Mg metal is reacted with 34 gm NH3 gas is 3Mg + 2NH3
→ Mg3N2 + 3H2

(1)
gm

(2)
gm

(3)
gm

(4)
gm

2) An oxide, X2O3 is oxidised to by in acidic medium. The number of moles of X2O3

oxidised per mole of will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/2
(4) 4/3

3) Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearance of CO2 is 0.40 mol/L- sec., the rate of disappearance of O2 is–

(1) 10 mol/L- sec.

(2) 0.90 mol/L- sec
(3) 0.60 mol/L- sec
(4) 0.3 mol/L- sec

4) The rate law for the reaction A+ B → C is : Rate = k[A] [B]1/3 . If the concentration of B is
increased by eight times while that of A is reduce to half then the rate of reaction becomes :

(1) Twice
(2) Thrice
(3) No change
(4) Half

5) An electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Ag2SO4 and has platinum electrodes. A current
is passed until 1.6 g of O2 has been liberated at anode. The amount of silver deposited at cathode will
be :-
[At mass of Ag = 108]

(1) 108 g
(2) 1.6 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 21.60 g

6)

The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if :

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

7) What will be the molality of 2M H2SO4 solution having density 1.8 g/ml :-

(1) 3 m
(2) 1.25 m
(3) 2.4 m
(4) 4.8 m

8) The mass of solute ‘A’ (mol mass = 40 g mol–1) that should be added to 180 g of pure water in
order to lower its vapour pressure to 4/5th of its original value :-

(1) 187.5 g
(2) 90 g
(3) 150 g
(4) 100 g

9) Which of the following has maximum number of molecules

(1) 12g of H2
(2) 32 g of O2
(3) 56 g of N2
(4) 71 g of Cl2

10) Calculate the wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of atomic
hydrogen.

(1) 1.52 × 106 m–1

(2) 1.15 × 104 m–1
(3) 1.15 × 107 m–1
(4) 2.25 × 108 m–1

11) Which of the following solution will have pH equal to 1.0 ?

(1)
100 ml, HCl + 100 ml, NaOH

(2)
55 ml, HCl + 45 ml, NaOH

(3)
10 ml, HCl + 90 ml, NaOH

(4)
75 ml, HCl + 25 ml, NaOH

12) One mole of A and 0.5 mole of B were enclosed in a 3 litre vessel. The following equilibrium was
established under suitable conditions. A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ C(g) At equilibrium, the amount of B was found to
be 0.3 mole. The equilibrium constant KC at the same temperature will be.

(1) 1.11
(2) 11.1
(3) 0.01
(4) 2.50

13) 200 ml of 1M H2SO4(aq.) is mixed with 150 ml of 2M KOH(aq.). Calculate amount of heat
released (in kJ) due to neutralisation.

(1) 17.1 kJ
(2) 4.11 kJ
(3) 34.2 kJ
(4) 8.22 kJ

14) Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into a vacuum until its
total volume is 10 litres. How much heat is absorbed and how much work is done in the expansion ?

(1) q = 0, w = 0
(2) q = 8 L-atm, w = –8 L-atm
(3) q = 16.1 L-atm, w = –16.1 L-atm
(4) q = 8 L-atm, w = 0

15) If water vapour is assumed to be a perfect gas, molar enthalpy change for vapourisation of 1 mol
of water at 1 bar and 100°C is 41 kJ mol–1. Calculate the internal energy change when 1 mole of
water is vaporised at 1 bar pressure and 100°C.

(1) 32.501 kJ mol–1

(2) 40.612 kJ mol–1
(3) 37.904 kJ mol–1
(4) 45.396 kJ mol–1

16) Match the list I & II and pick correct match :-

 List-I List-II
Complex Structure & magnetic moment

Square planar,
(A) [Ag(CN)2]– (i)
1.73 B.M.

(B) [Cu(CN)4]–3 (ii) Linear, Zero

(C) [Cu(CN)6]–4 (iii) Octahedral, Zero

+2
(D) [Cu(NH3)4] (iv) Tetrahedral, Zero

(E) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (v) Octahedral, 1.73 B.M.

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
(2) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-v, D-i, E-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-v, E-ii

17) Which gives a pair of enantiomorphs :-

(1) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl6]

(2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
+3
(3) [Cr(NH3)5]
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

18) Which of the lanthanoid ion has maximum spin magnetic moment –

(1) Pm+3
(2) Pr+3
(3) Nd+3
(4) Ce+3

19) Among following example correct decreasing EN order is :-

Cl, O, S, H, F

(1) F > Cl > O > S > H

(2) F > O > Cl > S > H
(3) F > O > Cl > H > S
(4) Cl > F > O > S > H

20) Correct increasing bond order arrangement is :-

+ –2 – +
(1) O2 < C2 < O2 < He2
+ – + –2
(2) He2 < O2 < O2 < C2
–2 + + –
(3) C2 < He2 < O2 < O2
– + –2 +
(4) O2 < O2 < C2 < He2

21) Shape of SF2Cl2 molecule is :-

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Octahedral
(3) Square pyramidal
(4) Distorted Tetrahedral

22) Which reagent used for Ni+2 ion test.

(1) Sodium hydrogen phosphate

(2) Dimethyl glyoxime
(3) Sodium nitropruside
(4) Ammonium molybdate

23) When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to :-

(1) Sn
(2) Sn3+
(3) Sn4+
(4) Sn+

24) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Reducing property of dioxide decreases as SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2.
Reason (R) : SO2 is oxidising while TeO2 is reducing agent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

26)

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1) Mg2X3
(2) MgX2
(3) Mg2X
(4) Mg3X2

27) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion : Test of NH4+ cannot be done within group analysis.
Reason : During group analysis several times NH4+ compound is added at the different steps.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Which of the following statements regarding properties of halogens are correct?
(a) Due to small size and strong inter electronic repulsion, electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less
than that of chlorine.
(b) Iodine has same physical state but different colour as compare to other members of the group.
(c) Fluorine do not show positive oxidation state.
(d) In X2(g) + H2O(ℓ) → HX(aq) + HOX(aq)
(where X = Cl or Br)

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d

29) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion : H2O & XeF4 both have plane of symmetry.
Reason : H2O is polar molecule whereas XeF4 is non-polar molecule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

30) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Actinoids metals are all silvery in appearance.

(2) Actinoids are elements whose atomic number is from 57 to 71
(3) The magnetic properties of the actinoids are more complex than those of the lanthanoids.
(4) All the actinides are radio active.
31) The method used for quantitative estimation of nitrogen is -

(1) Kjeldahl's method

(2) Duma's method
(3) Carius method
(4) Both 1 & 2

32) Match the Column.

Column-I Column-II
(Vitamins) (Chemical name)

(A) Vitamin B1 (I) Thiamine

(B) Vitamin B6 (II) Pyridoxine

(C) Vitamin C (III) Ascorbic acid

(D) Vitamin B2 (IV) Riboflavin

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

33) Anthracene is an aromatic compound which contains (4n + 2) π electrons,

value of n will be

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

34) Statement-I : Isobutene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with formula

Statement-II : Oxidation with H2O2 in presence of alkali gives isobutyl alcohol.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
35) The correct IUPAC name of is

(1) 2-methyl-4-methoxy aniline

(2) 4-methoxy-2-methyl aniline
(3) 4-amino-3-methyl anisol
(4) 2-amino-5-methoxy toluene

36)
B is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1 & 2 both

37) CH4 + O2 X + H2O

X is -

(1) CH3–OH
(2) H–CHO
(3) CO2
(4) CO

38)
X is -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

40)
Correct statement about the product -

(1) Compound has three double bond equivalent

(2) Compound can give Fridel-craft reaction
(3) It gives phenol while treating with warm H2O
(4) It gives carbyl amine reaction

41)

(1) Given unit is nucleoside

(2) Given unit is nucleotide
(3) given unit is dinucleotide
(4) Both 1 & 2 are correct

42) For Y -

Find incorrect statement -

(1) It reduces fahling solution

(2) It reduces tollen's reagent
(3) It can forms cyanohydrin
(4) It does not react with NaHSO3

43) Correct statement regarding to given compound

(1) Given compound belongs to phenol series.

(2) Given compound is 3° aliphatic alcohol.
(3) Given compound is aromatic alcohol.
(4) It is 2°-benzylic alcohol.

44)
A & B are -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) CH3–CH2–OH X Y Z
Z is -

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2OH
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(4) CH3–CH=CH–COOH

BIOLOGY

1) Among them how many statements are correct.

I. Seeds have better strategies for dispersal to new habitat.
II. Microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four haploid microspore.
III. After fertilization ovary changes into fruit.

(1) I and III

(2) II and III
(3) I, II and III
(4) I and II

2) Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?

(1) The female Antopheles bites and sucks blood from humans.
(2) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother.
(3) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair.
(4) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest.

3) If a cell has 2n = 24 chromosomes and DNA content is 2C at G1 stage then correct option for each
cell of dyad of cells during meiosis.

(1) 2n = 12, 4C
(2) 2n = 24, 4C
(3) n = 12, 2C
(4) n = 12, 4C

4) If the DNA content of a diploid cell is represented as '2C' then the DNA content of gametes
formed by this cell will be :-

(1) C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2
(4) 4C

5) What will be the correct order of the events of cell cycle in human body :-
(A) Maximum growth
(B) DNA replication
(C) Tubulin synthesis

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, A, C
(3) C, B, A
(4) C, A, B

6) The cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells are
formed ______ modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

(1) Nageli
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Purkinje

7) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following in an ascending order of their size.
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBC
(iv) Bacteria

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iii, ii, i, iv
8) (A) Enzyme releases the products of reaction.
(B) Substrate binds to active site of the enzyme.
(C) New enzyme – product complex is formed
(D) Binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape.
choose the correct sequence from option given below :-

(1) D → B → C → A
(2) B → D → C → A
(3) A → B → C → D
(4) B → C → D → A

9) Which of the following molecule can not be hydrolysed ?

(1) C12H22O11

(2)

(3)

(4) C6H12O6

10) Identify the correct set of statements out of followings :-

(a) Primary structure of protein is like a long straight chain
(b) Secondary structure of protein may look like zig-zag
(c) Tertiary globular structure of protein are insoluble in water
(d) Maximum proteins present in protoplasm show secondary structure
Choose the correct answer from the given options below :-

(1) a, b and d
(2) only a and b
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d all

11) Assertion: In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated in which algae is
predominant and fungi is a subordinate partner.
Reason: In this symbiotic association, the fungus provides food while the alga protects fungus from
unfavourable conditions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
12) Consider the following statements:-
(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

13)

Which is genetically not possible ?

(1) Haemophilic father transfers the haemophilic gene to his son

(2) Haemophilic father transfers the haemophilic gene to his daughter
(3) Carrier mother transfers the haemophilic gene to her son
(4) Carrier mother transfers the haemophilic gene to her daughter

14) What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting?

(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva

15) If a hybrid DNA "N15 N14" is allowed to replicate in N14 medium, after three generations how
many DNA will be having N15 :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 1

16) The specific catalyst enzyme in Bacteria that forms peptide bond is?

(1) 23S rRNA ribozyme

(2) 32S rRNA ribozyme
(3) 28S rRNA ribozyme
(4) 5.8S rRNA ribozyme

17) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton, ladyfinger and china rose is correctly shown in :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Mustard and Argemone ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) (a) Formation of ATP and NADPH

(b) Use of ATP
(c) Reduction of PGA
(d) Water splitting
(e) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are included in the dark reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1) a, b and c
(2) c and e
(3) b and c
(4) b, c and e
20) Match the following :

(A) Auxin (i) Derivatives of carotenoids

(B) Gibberellin (ii) Gas

(C) Cytokinin (iii) Adenine derivatives

(D) Ethylene (iv) Terpenes

(E) Abscisic acid (v) Indole compounds

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv
(3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii, E - v

21) Assertion : Gibberellins promote bolting in beet, cabbages and many plants with rosette habit.
Reason : Gibberellins promotes internode elongation just prior to flowering.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) According to Alexander Von–Humboldt the species richness increases with increasing the area
upto a limit. It can be defined by equation on log scale :-

(1) S = CAZ
(2) log C = log S + Z log C
(3) C = SAZ
(4) log S = log C + Z log A

23) Given below are assertion and reason. Mark the correct choice from given options.
Assertion (A) : Competition occurs only when closely related species compete for same resources
that are limiting.
Reason (R) : In some shallow South American Lakes visiting flamingoes and resident fishes
compete for their common food the zooplankton in lake.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

24) Assertion (A) : Fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp species and no other
species.
Reason (R) : In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one to one relationship (mutualism) with
the pollinator species of wasp.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

25) In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth tropic level is 6 KJ, what will be

the energy at producer level ?

(1) 0.6 KJ
(2) 60KJ
(3) 600KJ
(4) 6000KJ

26) India has more than 50,000 strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango. It is related to :-

(1) Species diversity

(2) Genetic diversity
(3) Ecological diversity
(4) Temperate climate in India

27) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Cause elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promote flowering in pineapple
(c) Increase length of sugarcane
(d) Cause lateral growth
(e) Promote bolting in beet
Options :

(1) b, d, e - Auxins
(2) a, c, e - Cytokinins
(3) a, c, e - Gibberellins
(4) a, b, c - Abscisic acid

28) Read the following statements carefully :

(A) Sterile stamen is called staminode.
(B) When stamens are attached to the petal, they are epipetalous as in Brinjal.
(C) When stamens are attached to perianth called epiphyllous.
(D) Filaments of stamens may be united into one bunch or one bundle called polyadelphous.
How many above statement/s are correct :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) How many components in the list given below are the part of epidermal tissue system?
Epidermis, Xylem, Pith, Phloem, Root hairs, Pericycle, Stomata, Cortex

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

30) Given below are three sketches (of various types of vascular bundles) A, B and C? Identify them
:-

A B C

(1) Radial Conjoint closed Conjoint open

(2) Conjoint closed Conjoint open Radial

(3) Conjoint open Conjoint closed Radial

(4) Conjoint closed Radial Conjoint open

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Statement-I : The pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical light harvesting
complex (LHC) within the PS-I and PS-II. Statement-II : In PS-I the reaction centre chlorophyll a
has an absorption peak at 680 nm.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

32) Study the pathway given below :

In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated ?

A B C
(1) Fixation Transamination Regeneration
(2) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
(3) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
(4) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) How many substrate level phosphorylation occurs during Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) Cycle of
complete oxidation of one glucose?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

34) First CO2 release in aerobic respiration occurs during :-

(1) 3-PGAL formation

(2) Pyruvic acid formation
(3) Acetyl CoA formation
(4) α-Ketoglutaric acid formation
35) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant has 40 chromosome with 80 pg DNA in G1
phase then anaphasic cell will have :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Read the following statements (A-D). How many statements are correct. (A) All living organisms
are composed of cells and products of cells.
(B) All cells arise from pre existing cells.
(C) Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in higher plant cells. (D) Gas vacuoles are found
only in fungi.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

37) Among them how many statements are correct for flowering plants.
A. Flower is modified shoot developed from floral meristem.
B. Pollen grains are present in pollen sac.
C. Megaspore mother cell is of diploid nature.

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and B

38) Assertion : In chasmogamous flower geitonogamy or xenogamy can be performed.

Reason : Chasmogamous flowers generally have exposed anthers and stigma.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

39) Which option is not correct about members of kingdom protista ?

(1) They can have cilia or flagella

(2) They may secrete toxin in water
(3) They show nitrogen fixation
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles
40) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Neurospora is used extensively in genetic studies.

(2) Puccinia is a rust fungi.
(3) Ascospores are asexual spores which are produced exogenously.
(4) Alternaria reproduce by asexual spores conidia.

41) In given figure A B, C and D represent :-

(1) A-Sporangium, B-Capsule, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte

(2) A-Capsule, B-Seta, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte
(3) A-Sporangium, B-Seta, C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte
(4) A-Sporangium, B-Capsule, C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte

42) Assertion: Bryophytes are amphibian of plant kingdom.

Reason: Depend on air for fertilization.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) Match the column-I to column-II and select correct options ?

Column-I Column-II
(a) Ulothrix
(A) Isogamous
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Eudorina
(B) Anisogamous
(d) Volvox
(C) Oogamous (e) Fucus
(1) A = a, b ; B = c ; C = d, e
(2) A = a, d ; B = b, c ; C = e
(3) A = a, e ; B = c ; C = d, b
(4) A = d, e ; B = a, b, ; C = c
44) Assertion: According to Mendel, a dihybrid cross is the multiple of two monohybrid crosses.
Reason: When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True .

45) By which of the following bond phosphoric acid remain linked with 5' carbon of sugar in one
nucleotide

(1) Phospho-ester bond

(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) N-Glycosidic bond
(4) Hydrogen bond

46) Statement-I : Introns are removed from the primary transcript during RNA splicing.
Statement-II : Splicing occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

47) Find the correct statement:

(A) DNA replication is bidirectional in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(B) Eukaryotic DNA replication starts at origin of replication.
(C) DNA replication is semi conservative, because there is one parental and one new strand in each
daughter DNA.
(D) Primase is required to initiate DNA synthesis by providing a 3' hydroxyl group on RNA primer.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B only
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B and C

48) Select the incorrect statements for Enzymes :

In the formation of H2CO3 the carbonic anhydrase has accelerated the reaction rate by about
(1)
10 million times.
(2) In thermophilic organisms the enzymes retain their catalytic power even at high temperature.
(3) Enzymes increases the rate of reaction by increasing activation energy.
(4) None of these

49) Select the correct match -

A. - Monomer of starch

B. - Monomer of cellulose

C. - Primary metabolite

D. - Component of only DNA not RNA

(1) A, B, C
(2) Only A, B
(3) Only A, C
(4) B, C, D

50) Select the correct match :

Column-I Column-II

A Glutamic acid I Fatty acid

B Guanylic acid II Modified sugar

C Arachidonic acid III Amino acid

D Glucosamine IV Nucleotide
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

51) In a logistic growth curve of population, environmental resistance is maximum when :

(1) value of 'r' is high
(2) value of 'r' is low
(3) N approaches K
(4) K approaches N

52) Assertion (A) : Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
Reason (R) : Heterotrophs exhibit secondary productivity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

53)

Match the column 'A' and 'B' and identify correct option :-

A B

Organ
(I) (a) Statins
transplant

(II) Clot buster (b) Cyclosporin A

Blood cholestrol
(III) (c) Streptokinase
lowering agent
(1) I-a, II-b, III-c
(2) I-b, II-a, III-c
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a
(4) I-c, II-b, III-a

54) Which of the following group of animals have a constant body temperature ?

(1) Reptiles, aves & mammalia

(2) Aves & cyclostomata
(3) Pisces & amphibia
(4) Aves & mammalia

55) Identify the following four animals (A, B, C and D) given below. Which one of these is not
correctly identified in the option given along with its correct taxonomic group and their common
name ?
 Fig. Name of animal Taxonomic group Common Name

(1) B Adamsia Ctenophora Star coral

(2) D Spongilla Porifera Fresh water sponge

(3) C Aurelia Coelenterata Jelly fish

(4) A Euspongia Porifera Bath sponge

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air accomodated in the lungs at the end of a
forced inspiration. This includes :

(1) RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity); EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV

(2) RV; ERV; IC and EC
(3) RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
RV (Residual Volume); ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume);
(4)
TV (Tidal Volume); and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)

57)

Match the columns

Column I Column II

Superior
a p Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
Vena Cava

Inferior
b q Carries oxygenated blood from lungs
Vena Cava

Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts

c Pulmonary Artery r
of body to right atrium

Brings deoxygenated blood from upper parts

d Pulmonary Vein s
of body into right atrium
(1) a—q, b—s, c—r, d—p
(2) a—s, b—p, c—q, d—r
(3) a—s, b—r, c—p, d—q
(4) a—s, b—p, c—r, d—q

58) Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :
(1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.
(2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.
Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex
(3)
organs.
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

59) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify common duct
which forms from the fusion of duct of seminal vesicle and vasdeferens :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

60) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

61) In the given diagram, the technique depicted and ‘A’ are respectively :-

(1) vasectomy, vas deferens

(2) tubectomy, fallopian tube
(3) tubectomy, ovary
(4) vasectomy, epididymis

62) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the [Link] vector pBR322. Which one of
the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ?

(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers

(2) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(3) ori-original restriction enzyme
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

63) In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due
to:-

(1) Acidic pH of the insect gut

(2) Action of gut micro-organisms
(3) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
(4) Alkaline pH of the insect gut

64) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

Located between second and seventh

(a) Floating Ribs (i)
ribs

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus

(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle

(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :

(1) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.

(2) ovaries are removed surgically.
(3) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(4) uterus is removed surgically.

66)

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:

(a) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus

(b) Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin

(c) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria

(d) Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental
evidence for origin of first form of life from preexisting non-living organic molecules. The primitive
earth conditions created include :

(1) Low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen

(2) Low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(3) High temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
(4) High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.

68) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

69) Match the column I & II and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Myxine (a) Mammalia

(ii) Aptenodytes (b) Cyclostomata

(iii) Felis (c) Urochordata

(iv) Salpa (d) Aves

(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(4) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

70) Assertion (A) : Main functions of simple cuboidal epithelium are secretion and absorption.
Reason (R) : The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles in a specific direction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) incorrect
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

71) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) A fall in glomerular blood flow can activate the JG cells to release renin.
(B) Angiotensin II is powerful vasodialator.
(C) Angiotensin II also activates the adrenal medulla to release aldosterone.
(D) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule.
(E) Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C and D only

(2) A, B and E only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only

72) In voluntary muscle "Fascia" term is used for

(1) A collagenous connective tissue by which muscle bundles are held together
(2) A elastic protein which present between I-Bands
(3) A calcium rich structure in sarcoplasm
(4) Central gap between thick filaments.

73) Read the following statement :

(a) Axonal membrane is comparatively less permeable to K+ ions in resting stage.
(b) Axonal membrane is highly permeable for Na+ ions in resting stage.
(c) Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump.
(d) Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a polarised state.
Choose the correct option -

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and d

74) Assertion : F.S.H and L.H are released from anterior pituitary due to secretions from
hypothalamus.
Reason : GnRH is released from hypothalamus and works on anterior pituitary.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

75)

Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The Geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth.
(2) Population has built in variations in characteristics.
(3) The essence of Darwinism theory about evolution is natural selection.
(4) About 2000 MYA the first non cellular forms of life appeared on earth

76) Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of man ?

(1) Homo erectus probably did not eat meat.

The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 900 cc lived in near east and central Asia between
(2)
1,00000-40,000 years back.
(3) 15 mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands.
(4) Homo erectus had a brain size about 900 C.C.

77) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A: All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
Statement B: Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region.

(1) A is true and B is incorrect statement

(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(3) Only B statement is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

78) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?
(1) Menstruation cycle
(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

79) Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-cell to produce them
(2) Wuchereria is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of female Culex vector
(3) Haemozoin (toxic substance) is associated with Malaria
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where DNA
(4)
genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase

80) Which of the following statement is not correct about typhoid

(a) Sustained high fever (39° to 40° C)
(b) lips and nails turn gray to bluish
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Constipation
(e) Blood and mucus in stool.
(f) Intestinal perforation

(1) a, c, d, f
(2) d, e, f
(3) a and f only
(4) b and e

81) What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters :-

(1) Methane and CO2 only

(2) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
(3) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2
(4) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2 only

82) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Hind-II was the Ist discovered restriction endonuclease enzyme.

(2) In EcoRI enzyme, 'R' represent the Genus of organism.
(3) Each restriction endonuclease recognizes specific palindromic base sequence.
(4) Palindromic sequence of EcoRI is 5'GAATTC3', 3'CTTAAG5'

83) Choose the correct option based on given statements.

Assertion (A) : The plasmid DNA can act as a vector to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
Reason (R) : Plasmid is found in all organisms.

(1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A is true but R is false.

84) The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is ...........

(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments

(2) Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
(3) Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
(4) None of the above

85) Identify the correct statements from the following :

(A) Transgenic animal carry genes which make them less sensitive to toxic substances.
(B) Toxicity testing in transgenic animals allow us to obtain result in more time.
(C) Rosie produced human protein-enriched milk containing 2.4 mg protein/litre.
(D) Transgenic animals helps to study how genes affect complex factors involved in growth.
(E) Over 95% of all existing transgenic animal are mice.

(1) Only A and C

(2) A, B, C, D and E
(3) Only D and E
(4) Only B, C, D and E

86) Assertion :- Genetic modification of organisms can have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
Reason :- Genetic engineering is a way to minimise the use of fertilisers and chemicals so that their
harmful effects on the environment are reduced.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

87) Statement I - Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several monocot plants is able to

deliver a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
Statement II- Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous
cells.

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

88) Large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production of large amount of CO2 by ...............
bacterium:-

(1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides

(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Thermococcus proteus
(4) Staphylococcus thermophilus

89) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Protochordates are exclusively marine
(B) In cephalochordates, Notochord extends from head to tail region.
(C) In urochordates, Notochord is present only in larval tail.
(D) Cranium and vertebral column are bony in cyclostomates.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(1) A alone
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All

90) Read the following four statement about sense organs of Rana tigrina :–
(1) Frog has simple eyes possessing only one unit
(2) External ear is present in frog
(3) External ear is absent in frog and only tympanum can be seen externally
(4) Eyes and internal ear are well organised structures and the rest are cellular aggregation
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 1 2 4 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 4 1 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 1 1 2 4 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 1 3 4 1 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain Question:
We must count how many angular positions give constructive interference.

Concept:
Maximum occur when path difference for a point on a circle in the same plane is

Solution:

As shown in figure no. of maximum in one quadrant = 4

Total maximum in 4 quadrants
= 4 × 4 = 16

Final Answer: Option (1)

2) Explain Question:
Determine the shape of a wavefront originating from a very distant source of any shape.

Concept:
Wavefront propagation over large distances.

Solution:
A wavefront is a surface of constant phase.
As a wavefront travels away from its source, its curvature decreases.
For a source at a very large distance, the radius of curvature of the wavefront becomes
extremely large.
A small portion of a wavefront with a nearly infinite radius of curvature is considered flat.
Therefore, regardless of the initial shape of the source, the wavefront becomes a plane
wavefront at a great distance.

Final answer: (4)

3)

Question Explanation :- To find the angle of rotation of incident ray when mirror rotated.
Concept :- Rotation of mirror.
Visual aid :-

Formula :- When mirror incident by on angle α then reflected ray rotated by =2α.
Solution :- This is tricky question in which asked that, by what angle, Incident ray rotated due
to rotation of mirror.
incident ray do not rotate due to rotation of mirror.
level :- Easy.

4)

Explain the question : An object is 8 cm above the top surface of a glass slab of thickness 6
cm. The lower face is silvered. Refractive index of slab = 1.5. Find the final image position
behind the silvered face.
Concept : This question is based on refraction at plane surface + reflection from mirror.
Formula : Apparent depth = real depth / μ
Mirror reflection: distance of image = distance of object (behind mirror)
Solution :

=
Real distance of object from silvered face = 8 cm + 6 cm = 14 cm.
Apparent distance of slab =6 – 2 = 4 cm from upper surface.
Thus distance of apparent object from silvered face =8cm + 4 cm = 12 cm.
Silvered face acts as a plane mirror, so image forms same distance behind it.
Final image distance = 12 cm
Distance of image from actual silver surface = 12 – 2 = 10 cm
Final answer : 10 cm behind the silvered face

5) Explain Question:
Compare the RMS value of the AC (ripple) component with the DC value in a half-wave
rectifier.

Concept:
AC and DC components of rectified output.

Solution:
• In a half-wave rectifier, the output is pulsating DC.
• It consists of a DC component plus an AC (ripple) component.
• The ripple content is quite large in a half-wave rectifier.
• Hence, the RMS value of the AC component is greater than the DC value.

Final Answer: Option (2)

6) Explanation : To find the current through the zener diode

Concept : If V ≥ Vz
then zener diode will be in breakdown region.
Solution :
Potential difference across RL= 2kΩ is

By potential divider Rule

V = 10 volt
As V < Vz = 12 volt
so zener diode is not in breakdown region so current through zener is zero.

7)

Explain question:
Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 200 eV.

Concept:

de-Broglie wavelength formula:

Solution:

Value closest to the options is

Final answer: Option (2)

8) Question explanation:
The question asks which nucleus has a radius equal to half of the radius of Zn64.

Concept: Nuclear radius.

Formula: Nuclear radius is .

Solution:
Let the radius of Zn64 be R1 and required nuclear radius be R2.

The nucleus with mass number 8 is Be8.

Final answer: Option (4)

9) Explain Question :
The question asks how quickly the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron, initially at rest and
accelerated by a constant electric field, changes with time.

Concept:
de-Broglie Wavelength, Motion in Electric Field

Solution:
Acceleration produced due to electric field is

a= (F = ma = qE)

(u = 0) Now, v = u + at =
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is given by

λ=

Differentiate ∴

Final Answer: Option (1)

10) Explain Question:

Explain why heavy stable nuclei require a higher ratio of neutrons to protons.

Concept:
Balancing nuclear attraction against long-range electrostatic repulsion in large nuclei.

Solution:
Protons in a nucleus experience long-range electrostatic repulsion.
Nuclear force is short-range and only acts between neighboring nucleons.
As more protons are added, the total repulsion grows faster than the local nuclear attraction.
Extra neutrons provide additional attractive nuclear force without adding to the electrostatic
repulsion.
This is necessary to counter the repulsive forces between protons in heavy nuclei.

Final answer: Option (2)

11) Explanation : We need to find the boat's acceleration when it is at a distance r from the
sun (whose total power is P).
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Radiation pressure and momentum transfer
of electromagnetic waves. For a fully reflecting surface, the momentum change per photon is
twice that of an absorbing surface.
Solution:

Radiation force on boat =

Acceleration =
Final Answer : (3)

12) Question Explanation :

We have to identify the circuit in which potential drop across ammeter is 0.75V.

Concept :
This question is based on Circuit Analysis.

Solution :

i=

v = iR =

Hence,
Option (3) is correct.

13) Question Explanation :

We have to obtained the condition of balanced Wheatstone bridge.

Concept :
This question is based on Wheatstone Bridge.

Solution :
For balanced Wheatstone bridge.
Hence,
Option (2) is correct.

14) Concept:
Condition for Maximum Power Transfer from a single source.

Solution:
According to the Maximum Power Transfer Theorem, the power dissipated in the external
circuit is maximum when the external load resistance is equal to the internal resistance of the
source (R = r).

Final Answer: Option (2)

15) Question Explanation:

Determine the expression for maximum voltage for a given superposition of trigonometric
functions.

Concept:
Maximum value of α cosθ + b sinθ is

Solution:
Given voltage function V = A cos ωt + B sin ωt.
The maximum value (amplitude ) of a function in the form y = a sin x + b cos x is given by
.
Comparing the equations, a = B and b = A.

Final answer: Option (1)

16) EXPLAINING: We need to find the peak value of the combined displacement function for
three different waveforms.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Trigonometric identity reduction and phasor
addition of simple harmonic waves.
Solution:
(a) y = x0 sinωt

yrms =
(b) y = x0 sinωt cosωt

= .2sinωt cosωt

= sin2ωt

yrms =
(c) y = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
 peak =

yrms =
Final Answer : (2)

17) EXPLAINING: We need to find the intensity at the same distance x along its broadside-on
(equatorial) position.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Magnetic field due to a short bar dipole at
axial vs. equatorial locations.
Solution:
The magnetic field intensity B1 at a distance x from the center of a short magnet on its axis is
given by:

The magnetic field intensity B2 at a distance d from the center of a short magnet on its
equatorial line is given by:

Here, the new distance is .

Final Answer : (3)

18) EXPLAINING: We need to find value of mass in order to keep the system at rest.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of equilibrium between blocks.
Solution:

m=
m = 5g
Final Answer : (1)

19) EXPLAINING: We need to find the measure on spring balance placed on a inclined.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of gravitational force stretching the spring.
Solution:
Since downward force along the inclined plane = mg sin θ = 5 × 10 × sin30° = 25 N
Final Answer : (2)

20) EXPLAINING: We need to determine the final velocity achieved by the ball for the given
circumstance
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Law of Conservation of Mechanical Energy
Solution:
Final Answer : (3)

21) EXPLAINING: We need to compute the average power delivered by the force acting on it
during the given time interval
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Work-Energy Theorem. Average power is
the total work done divided by the total time taken.
Solution:

Average power, '

Here, v = 24 m/s, u = 25 m/s Δt = 1s

Therefore,
Final Answer : (3)

22) EXPLAINING: We need to determine the area under a-t graph.

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of conclusions from a graph i.e. its slope and
area.
Solution:

Final Answer : (3)

23) EXPLAINING: We must find the buoyant force acting on body when it registers a weight
of 5N in air and 2N when completely submerged in water.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Archimedes' Principle. The buoyant force
equals the apparent loss of weight in the fluid.
Solution:
F = Wair – Wwater or ΔW
Final Answer : (3)

24) EXPLAINING: We need to find expressions for the torque and potential energy.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Behaviour of electric dipoles in uniform
electrostatic fields.
Solution:
According to definition,
Torque on the dipole = τ = pE sinθ
and P.E. of the dipole = U = –pE cosθ
Final Answer : (3)

25) EXPLAINING: We need to find the energy stored when the plates are fully charged
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of charging of capacitor when plates are fully
charged
Solution:
There are two capacitors parallel to each other

∴ Total capacitance =
∴ Energy stored =

=
= 2.1 × 10–9 J
Final Answer : (2)

26) EXPLAINING: A current-voltage ( I-V ) graph for a metallic conductor is plotted at two
distinct temperatures T1 and T2 . We must determine the correct comparative relation
between T1 and T2 .
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Ohm's law and temperature dependence of
resistance.
Solution:
For metals, electrical resistance increases when temperature increases

R 1 < R2
T1 < T2
Final Answer : (3)

27) EXPLAINING: We need to determine the magnetic field inside the wire at a point located
at a distance of R/3 from its outer surface.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Ampere’s Circuital Law inside a solid current-
carrying cylindrical conductor.
Solution:

The magnetic field intensity at a distance of from the surface inside the wire is:

Final Answer : (3)

28) EXPLAINING: We need to evaluate the difference in potential at two points.

CONCEPT: Motional Electromotive Force (EMF) due to rotational motion
Solution:
The induced emf across a rotating rod segment of length L is:

Segment OA:

Segment OC:

29) EXPLAINING: We need to find the work done by force in 2 sec.

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of work done through product of force and
displacement.
Solution:
t = 0, u = 0
t = 2, v = 1

∴ WD = ΔKE = × 6 × 1 = 3J
Final Answer : (4)

30) EXPLAINING: We need to evaluate its net speed after 10 seconds.

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Vector form of equations of motion under
uniform constant acceleration.
Solution:

Final Answer : (4)

31) EXPLAINING: A large number of small liquid drops each of radius r coalesce together to
construct a single larger drop of total radius R and volume V. Given the surface tension T, find
the heat energy released.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Surface energy reduction. Since total surface
area decreases when drops merge, excess energy is liberated as heat.
Solution:
E = n.4πr2T – 4πR2T

Final Answer : (3)

32) EXPLAINING: To find temperature in Y scale

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Linear temperature scale conversion
properties.
Solution:

⇒ y = 100°
Final Answer : (3)

33) EXPLAINING: To find the junction temperature for given condition

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of Steady state heat conduction. The rate of
heat flow through both blocks in series must be identical
Solution:
Junction point Temp = T0

Final Answer : (1)

34) EXPLAINING: We need to find the total work done during a cyclic process shown on a P-
V indicator layout, where processes AB and CD are isochoric (constant volume).
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of First Law of Thermodynamics and processes
work analysis.
Solution:
In AB and CD process; work done zero
(in process)
WDA = µRTln(V2/V1)
= (1)RT0ln(2V0/V0) = RT0ln(2)
Final Answer : (1)

35) Explanation Question:

Find which physical law is analogous to Coulomb's law.

Concept:
Inverse - square law of forces.

Solution:
Coulomb's law is mathematically analogous to Newton's law of universal gravitation.
Both laws describe fundamental forces that are directly proportional to the product of two
properties (masses of charges) and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between them.
Calculation :

• Coulomb's Law Fe. .

• Newton's Gravitational Law : Fg. =

• Both follow the form :

Final answer : Option (4)

36) EXPLAINING: To find electric field intensity for different given points
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of electric field.
Solution:
Denser the electric field lines, more will be electric field intensity
Final Answer : (1)

37) Explaining: To find the new time period, one must calculate the effective acceleration due
to gravity in the upwardly accelerating frame of the lift.
Concept: This question is based on concept of Simple Pendulum. The period is inversely
proportional to the square root of the effective "g," which increases when the support is
accelerated upward, thereby shortening the oscillation time.

Solution:
Final Answer: (2)

38) Question Explanation: The problem asks to determine the shape of the resultant wave
pulse after 2 seconds, as two wave pulses (one rectangular, one triangular) move toward each
other at a speed of 0.5 cm/s .
Concept: Principle of Superposition, Wave Kinematics.
Solution :
At t = 2 s, each pulse travels a distance
The rectangular pulse (originally from x = –2 to x = 0 ) moves 1 cm to the right. Its new
position is from x=– 1 to x = 1. Its height is constant at 2 cm .
The triangular pulse (originally from x=1 to x = 3) moves 1 cm to the left. Its new position is
from x = 0 to x = 2.

Final Answer: Option (4)

39) Explaining : Find beat frequency & ratio of their intensity

Concept : This question is based on Beat phenomenon
Solution :
f1 = 200 Hz, f2 = 202 Hz
Δf = f2 – f1 = 2Hz
Final Answer : (2)

40)

Question Explanation: Derive the dimensional formula for Surface Tension (S) using Kinetic
Energy (K), Velocity (V), and Time (T) as fundamental units.

Concept: Deriving dimensional formulae using new base quantities.

Solution:

A. Find the dimensions of the new fundamental units (K,V,T) and the derived quantity (S)
in the standard [MLT] system:

A. Surface Tension (S): Force per unit length.

[S]=[F]​/[L]=[MLT−2]/[L]​=[MT−2]

B. Kinetic Energy (K): 1​/2mv2.

[K]=[ML2T−2]

C. Velocity (V):

[V]=[LT−1]

D. Time (T):

[T]=[T]

B. Express Mass (M) and Length (L) in terms of K,V,T:

A. From [V]: [L]=[VT]

B. Substitute [L] into [K]:

[K]=[M][L]2[T]−2=[M]([VT])2[T]−2=[M][V2T2T−2]=[MV2]

C. Therefore, Mass is:

[M]=[KV−2]

C. Substitute the expressions for [M] and [T] into [S]:

[S]=[MT−2]
 [S]=([KV−2])([T−2])=[KV−2T−2]

Final Answer: Option (1)

41)

Question Explanation: Find the range of the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected
in parallel.
Concept: Error propagation in parallel resistance

Solution: The equivalent resistance of two resistors in parallel is The error in

the equivalent resistance is given by differentiating the reciprocal formula:

Calculation :

R=

dR =
Final Answer: The range of value of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel is

42) EXPLAINING: We need to find work done from f-x graph

CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of work done as area under F-x graph
Solution:

W = Area = πr1r2 = θ
0
(F )=
Final Answer : (3)

43) EXPLAINING: To find the best alternative a man should choose based on knowledge of
circular motion.
CONCEPT: This question is based on concept of stopping distance and circular motion
Solution:
for driver retardation = a
initial velocity = v
vF2 = vi2 + 2aS1
2 2
0 = v + 2(–a)S1

⇒ S1 =
for father advise

centripetal acceleration a =
R=
for circular turn maximum distance towards wall, which the bus can move is equal to radius
(R) of the turn

S2 = R =
∵ S1 < S2
Hence he is less likely to hit the wall. .
Final Answer : (2)

44) Explain question : A rod of length 3 m has linear mass density proportional to distance x
from one end. Find its center of gravity from that end.
Concept : Center of gravity is the weighted average using mass distribution, λ ∝ x.
Solution :
Let linear mass density :

λ = kx
Mass element:
dm = λdx = kx dx
Center of gravity:

Cancel k :

Final answer : option 2

45) Explain Question:

Question ask to find force.

Concept:
Newton's Law of Gravitation.

Solution:

F= , r = a sin60°

r= ;F= =
 Final Answer: Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : The mass of Mg3N2 produced if 48 gm of Mg metal is reacted with 34 gm NH3
gas is
Concept : This question is based on Stoichiometric analysis.
Solution :
3 Mg + 2 NH3 → Mg3N2 + 3H2
48g 34g
= 2 mol = 2 mol
(L.R.)
∵ 72 g Mg produces = 100 g Mg3N2
∴ 48 g Mg will produce

=
Final Answer : (1)

47) Explaining : An oxide, X2O3 is oxidised to by in acidic medium. The number

of moles of X2O3 oxidised per mole of will be :-
Concept : This question is based on law of equivalence.
Solution :

eq. of oxidant = eq. of reductant

∴ 1 × (2 × 3) = n × (2 × 4)

∴n=
Final Answer : (2)

48) Explaining : Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearance of CO2 is 0.40 mol/L- sec., the rate of disappearance of O2 is–
Concept : This question is based on ROD and ROA
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

49) Explaining : The rate law for the reaction A+ B → C is : Rate = k[A] [B]1/3 . If the
concentration of B is increased by eight times while that of A is reduce to half then the rate of
reaction becomes :
Concept : This question is based on Rate law
Solution :
ri = k[A][B]1/3

rf = k × × (8[B])1/3
 = k[A][B]1/3
rf = ri
Final Answer : (3)

50) Explaining : An electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Ag2SO4 and has platinum
electrodes. A current is passed until 1.6 g of O2 has been liberated at anode. The amount of
silver deposited at cathode will be :-
[At mass of Ag = 108]
Concept : This question is based on Faraday's law of electrolysis.
Solution :

Number of equivalents of oxygen = = 0.2 (vf of O2 = 4)

∴ Number of equivalents of Ag deposited = 0.2
Mass of Ag deposited = 0.2 × 108 = 21.6 g
Final Answer : (4)

51) Explaining : Predict spontaneity of given cell reaction.

Concept : This question is based on spontaneity of cell reaction.
Solution :
H2 + 2H+ → 2H+ + H2
P1 1M 1M P2

Ecell = 0 –
when P1 > P2 then Ecell = +ve
and ΔG = –ve (spontaneous)
Final Answer : (1)

52) Explaining : What will be the molality of 2M H2SO4 solution having density 1.8 g/ml :-
Concept : This question is based on relation between molality and molarity
Solution :
2 M → 2 mol H₂SO₄ in 1 L solution.
Mass of solution = 1.8 g/mL × 1000 mL = 1800 g = 1.8 kg
Mass of H₂SO₄ (M = 98 g/mol) = 2 × 98 = 196 g = 0.196 kg
Mass of solvent (water) = 1.8 − 0.196 = 1.604 kg
Molality = 2 / 1.604 = 1.247 ≈ 1.25 m
Final Answer : (2)

53) Explaining : The mass of solute ‘A’ (mol mass = 40 g mol–1) that should be added to 180 g
of pure water in order to lower its vapour pressure to 4/5th of its original value :-
Concept : This question is based on RLVP
Solution :

nA + 10 = 5nA
4nA = 10
nA = = 2.5

= 2.5
wA = 40 × 2.5 = 100 g.
Final Answer : (4)

54) Explaining : Which of the following has maximum number of molecules

Concept : This question is based on No. of molecules
Solution :

No. of molecules = × NA = 6 NA
Final Answer : (1)

55) Explaining : Calculate the wave number for the longest wavelength transition in the
Balmer series of atomic hydrogen.
Concept : This question is based on Hydrogen spectrum
Solution :

for Balmer series ; n1 = 2

For longest wavelength, wave number should be minimum. This can be so when n2 is minimum
⇒ n2 = 3

hence = (1.097 × 107) = 1.523 × 106 m–1.

Final Answer : (1)

56) Explaining : Which of the following solution will have pH equal to 1.0 ?
Concept : This question is based on pH of mixture of SA and SB
Solution :

[H+] =
pH = –log 10–1 = 1
Final Answer : (4)

57) Explaining : Calculate KC

Concept : This question is based on DOD and KC
Solution :
A + 2B ⇌ C
t = 0 1.0 0.5 0
t = teq (1–x) (0.5 – 2x) x
according to question
0.5 – 2x = 0.3
2x = 0.2
x = 0.1
 ∴ KC = = = = 11.1
Final Answer : (2)

58) Explaining : 200 ml of 1M H2SO4(aq.) is mixed with 150 ml of 2M KOH(aq.). Calculate

amount of heat released (in kJ) due to neutralisation.
Concept : This question is based on Heat of neutralisation.
Solution :
= 1 × 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 eq.
EKOH = 0.15 × 2 = 0.3
ΔH = 57.1 × 0.3
Final Answer : (1)

59) Explaining : Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into a
vacuum until its total volume is 10 litres. How much heat is absorbed and how much work is
done in the expansion ?
Concept : This question is based on work done in vacuum
Solution :
W = 0 [Pext = 0] ; ΔE = q + w
[ΔT = 0 so ΔE = 0]
so q = 0
Final Answer : (1)

60) Explaining : If water vapour is assumed to be a perfect gas, molar enthalpy change for
vapourisation of 1 mol of water at 1 bar and 100°C is 41 kJ mol–1. Calculate the internal energy
change when 1 mole of water is vaporised at 1 bar pressure and 100°C.
Concept : This question is based on Relation between ΔH and ΔE
Solution :
H2O(ℓ) → H2O(g) ΔH = 41 kJ/mol.
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT

41 = ΔE + 1 × × 373

Final Answer : (3)

61) Explaining : Match the list I & II and pick correct match :-
Concept : This question is based on geometry and magnetic moment.
Solution :
Magnetic moment µ = B.M.
n is number of unpaired electrons.

–
(A) [Ag(CN)2] Linear, Zero
–3
(B) [Cu(CN)4] Tetrahedral, Zero
–4
(C) [Cu(CN)6] Octahedral, 1.73 B.M.
 +2 Square planar,
(D) [Cu(NH3)4]
1.73 B.M.
–4
(E) [Fe(CN)6] Octahedral, Zero
Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : Which gives a pair of enantiomorphs :-

Concept : This question is based on isomerism in coordination compounds.
Solution :

Cis of this complex shows optical isomerism.

Final Answer : (4)

63) Explaining : Which of the lanthanoid ion has maximum spin magnetic moment –
Concept : This question is based on electronic configuration and magnetic moment.
Solution :
Pm+3 has maximum 4 unpaired electron
5 2
61Pm – [Xe]4f 6s

Hence Pm - [Xe]4f4
+3

Final Answer : (1)

64) Explaining : Among following example correct decreasing EN order is :-

Concept : This question is based on electronegativity
Solution :
left to right across the period electronegativity increases while down the group
electronegativity decreases.
so the correct order F > O > Cl > S > H
Final Answer : (2)

65) Explaining : Correct increasing bond order arrangement is :-

Concept : This question is based on bond order using MOs diagram.
Solution :

B.O. : 0.5 1.5 2.5 3

Final Answer : (2)

66) Explaining : Shape of SF2Cl2 molecule is :-

Concept : This question is based on theory VSEPR.
Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

67) Explaining : Which reagent used for Ni+2 ion test.

Concept : This question is based on Ni+ estimation
Solution :
Ni+2 DMG → [Ni(DMG)]
Rose-red ppt
Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to :-
Concept : This question is based on oxidising nature of K2Cr2O7
Solution : Acts as oxidising agent.
Final Answer : (3)

69) Explaining : Assertion and Reason

Concept : This question is based on inert pair effect.
Solution :
SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is oxidising agent because down the group stability of lower O.S.
increases due to inert pair effect.
Final Answer : (3)

70) Explaining : In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree
with the variation of property indicated against it ?
Concept : This question is based on ionize size, I.E., E.G.E.
Solution :
(2) B < C < N < O (given I.P. order)
B < C < O < N (correct)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (given ΔHeg order)
I < Br < F < Cl (Correct)
Final Answer : (2)

71)

Explaining : Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground
state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is
Concept : This question is based on electronic configuration.
Solution :
Magnesium ion = Mg+2
X = Nitrogen Nitrogen ion = N–3

Final Answer : (4)

72) Explaining : Assertion and Reason

Concept : This question is based on analysis both the statements.
Solution :
Since - compound is introduced several times at various levels of group analysis, testing
is not possible within is frame work. Hence, option (1) is correct.
Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : Which of the following statements regarding properties of halogens are
correct?
Concept : This question is based on properties of halogens.
Solution : I2 is violet coloured solid.
Final Answer : (2)

74) Explaining : Analyse both the statements.

Concept : This question is based on polarity.
Solution : -
Final Answer : (1)

75) Explaining : Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Actinoids : atomic number from 90 to 103.
Final Answer : (2)

76) Explaining : The method used for quantitative estimation of nitrogen is

Concept : This question is based on Kjeldahl's & Duma's nitrogen
Solution : Kjeldahl's & Duma's nitrogen
Final Answer : (4)

77) Explaining : Match the Column.

Concept : This question is based on vitamins.
Solution : A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Final Answer : (1)

78) Explaining : Anthracene is an aromatic compound which contains (4n

+ 2) π electrons, value of n will be
Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity.
Solution : n = 2, (4 × 2 + 2) π e– ⇒ 10 π e–
Final Answer : (2)

79) Explaining :
Statement-I : Isobutene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with formula
Statement-II : Oxidation with H2O2 in presence of alkali gives isobutyl
alcohol.
Concept : This question is based on oxidation with H2O2.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

80) Explaining : The correct IUPAC name

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

81) Explaining : B is -
Concept : This question is based on haloform reaction.
Solution :

CH2=CH2 CH3–CH2–OH H–COO⊖ + CHI3

(A)
Final Answer : (1)

82) Explaining : CH4 + O2 X + H2O

X is -
Concept : This question is based on alkane oxidation

Solution : CH4 + O2 HCHO + H2O

Final Answer : (2)
83) Explaining :
X is -
Concept : This question is based on Rosenmund reduction
Solution : Rosenmund catalyst, selectively reduces acid chloride to aldehyde.
Final Answer : (1)

84) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on acid catalysed dehydration of alcohol.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : Correct statement about the product -

Concept : This question is based on mixed concept
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

86) Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on nucleotide
Solution : Given structure belongs to nucleotide.
Final Answer : (2)

87) Explaining : For Y -

Find incorrect statement -

Concept : This question is based on HBO reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

88) Explaining : Correct statement regarding to given compound

Concept : This question is based on Benzylic 2° carbon
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

89) Explaining :
A & B are -
Concept : This question is based on ether cleavage
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

90) Explaining : CH3–CH2–OH X Y Z

 Z is -
Concept : This question is based on oxidising & red. agents
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution : All three statements are correct.

Final Answer : (3)

92) Solution : Head louse living on the human scalp

Final Answer : (3)

93)

The correct answer is indeed Option 3: n = 12, 2C.

Here's why:

A. Dyad of cells in this context refers to the two daughter cells produced at the end of Meiosis Ⅰ.
B. Meiosis Ⅰ is a reductional division, meaning the chromosome number is halved. Since the initial
cell has 2n = 24 chromosomes, each daughter cell at the end of Meiosis Ⅰ will have = 12
chromosomes.
C. While DNA replication has occurred before Meiosis Ⅰ, each chromosome in the daughter cells
at the end of Meiosis Ⅰ consists of two chromatids, resulting in a DNA content of 2C.

94)

The correct answer is: 1. C

Explanation:
In a diploid cell, the DNA content is represented as 2C, where C refers to the DNA content of a
haploid set of chromosomes.

A. During meiosis, the diploid cell undergoes two rounds of division, which reduces the
chromosome number by half, resulting in haploid gametes.
B. Each gamete (sperm or egg) will contain half of the DNA content of the diploid cell, so the
DNA content of each gamete will be C.

Thus, the DNA content of gametes formed by this diploid cell will be C, representing the haploid
DNA content.
95) Explaining the Question – The question asks about the correct sequence of events in the
human cell cycle.
Concept – This Question is based on phases of the Cell Cycle.
Solution –
Maximum Growth (A): Occurs during the G₁ phase, where the cell grows in size and
synthesizes proteins necessary for DNA replication.
DNA Replication (B): Takes place during the S phase, where the cell duplicates its DNA to
ensure each daughter cell receives an identical set
Tubulin Synthesis (C): Occurs during the G₂ phase, where the cell synthesizes tubulin proteins
required for forming the mitotic spindle during mitosis.
Final Answer - 1

96) Solution : Rudolf virchow modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.
Final Answer : (2)

97) Solution : i → iv → iii → ii (increasing size order)

Final Answer : (2)

98) Correct Sequence: B → D → C → A

Explanation:

A. (B) Substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.

The reaction starts when the substrate docks into the enzyme's active site.

B. (D) Binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape.

This is the induced fit mechanism, where the enzyme changes its conformation to better
accommodate the substrate.

C. (C) New enzyme–product complex is formed.

Once the substrate is properly positioned, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction, forming an
enzyme–product complex.

D. (A) Enzyme releases the products of reaction.

Finally, the products are released, and the enzyme is free to catalyze another reaction.

99) Solution : Glucose is already the simplest carbohydrate unit, it cannot be hydrolysed into
smaller carbohydrates.
Final Answer : (4)

100) Question: Identify the correct set of statements regarding protein structure.
Explanation:(a) Primary structure of protein is like a long straight chain
 A. The primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.

(b) The secondary structure of the protein looks like zig-zag .

A. β-pleated sheets in the secondary structure have a zig-zag appearance.

(c) Tertiary structure of protein is insoluble in water.

A. Globular proteins (e.g., enzymes, hemoglobin) are soluble in water,

(d) Maximum proteins present in protoplasm show secondary [Link] cellular proteins
exist in their tertiary or quaternary structure, rather than just the secondary structure.

Correct Answer: 2 (Only a and b are correct)

101) Solution :

A. Lichen symbiosis
B. The fungal partner (mycobiont) is dominant.
C. The algal partner (phycobiont) is subordinate.
D. Alga (phycobiont) → prepares food by photosynthesis
E. Fungus (mycobiont) → provides protection, water, and minerals

Final Answer : (4)

102) Solution : In BASIDIOMYCETES mycelium - Branched, Septate and uni or binucleate ,

They grow in soil, on logs (thick wooden pieces), and tree stumps (thin wooden branches) and
in living plant bodies as parasites. • Main mycelium of basidiomycetes is dikaryotic and
septate. In these fungi the monokaryotic mycelium is also found which is short living and soon
converts into long living dikaryotic mycelium. • The conversion of monokaryotic mycelium into
dikaryotic mycelium is Dikaryotisation. • Asexual spores are generally not found in
basidiomycetes but vegetative reproduction by fragmentation. • The sex organs are absent
because they perform sexual reproduction by two methods i.e. Somatogamy and
Spermatisation. Final Answer : (3)

103) Question Explanation: The question asks which is genetically not possible.
Concept: Genetic disorders
Solution: Haemophilic father can't transfer haemophilic gene to son because he transfer 'Y'
chromosome to his son, on which haemophilic gene is absent.
Final Answer : Option (1) is correct

104) Solution : Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
Final Answer : (2)

105) Solution : Only one strand is N15 initially

 Final Answer : (4)

106) Solution : 23S rRNA in bacteria forms peptide bond.

Final Answer : (1)

107) Solution : Twisted arrangement of petals (each petal overlapping the next in the same
direction.
Final Answer : (3)

108) Solution : In parietal placentation:

A. Ovary is unilocular (single chamber)

B. Ovules are attached to the inner wall
C. A false septum (replum) may be present.

Final Answer : (1)

109) The dark reaction (also called the Calvin cycle) of photosynthesis does not require light
and occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts. Let's examine the processes listed: (a)
Formation of ATP and NADPH

A. Incorrect: ATP and NADPH are formed during the light reactions, not the dark reactions.

(b) Use of ATP

A. Correct: ATP is used in the dark reactions to power the conversion of CO2 into glucose.

(c) Reduction of PGA

A. Correct: In the dark reaction, PGA (3-phosphoglycerate) is reduced to GL3P

(glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) using ATP and NADPH.

(d) Water splitting

A. Incorrect: Water splitting (photolysis) occurs during the light reactions to produce
electrons, protons, and oxygen.

(e) Oxygen release

A. Incorrect: Oxygen is released during the light reactions as a byproduct of water splitting.

Correct Answer Option 3: b and c.

110) Explanation:
(A) Auxin → Indole compounds (v)
(B) Gibberellin - Terpenes (iv)
(C) Cytokinin - Adenine derivatives (iii)
(D) Ethylene - Gas (ii)
(E) Abscisic acid → Derivatives of carotenoids (i)
Final Answer : (3)

111) Solution : Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

112) Solution : log S = log C + Z log A

Final Answer : (4)

113) Solution : Assertion is false but Reason is true

Final Answer : (4)

114) Solution : Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
Final Answer : (4)

115) Solution : Energy at producer level = 6000 Kj

Final Answer : (4)

116) Solution :This is not species diversity (different species) or ecological diversity (different
ecosystems), but genetic variation within species.
Final Answer : (2)

117) Solution : a, c, e – Gibberellins

Final Answer : (3)

118) Solution : Filaments are united into more than two (many) bundles or bunches in
polyadelphous condition
Final Answer : (3)

119) Solution : ETS → Epidermis, Root hairs, Stomata

VTS → Xylem, Phloem
GTS → Cortex, Pericycle, Pith
Final Answer : (1)

120) Explain Question: The question presents three sketches of vascular bundles (A, B, and
C) and asks to identify whether they are radial, conjoint closed, or conjoint open.
Concept: Vascular tissue system
Solution: Sketch B shows a radial arrangement where the vascular bundles are arranged in a
circle.
Sketch A shows a conjoint closed bundle, where xylem and phloem are close but there is no
cambium.
Sketch C shows a conjoint open bundle, where xylem and phloem are together with cambium
present.
Final answer: 4

121) Solution : Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

Final Answer : (3)

122) Solution : A - Carboxylation; B - Decarboxylation; C - Reduction

Final Answer : (2)

123) Solution : In each TCA (Kreb) cycle one substrate level phosphorylation occurs but from
one glucose molecule two kreb cycle take place. Hence substrate level phosphorylation occurs
two times.
Final Answer : (2)

124) Solution : First CO2 release in aerobic respiration occurs during Acetyl CoA formation
and IInd time release during α-Ketoglutaric acid formation.
Final Answer : (3)

125) Solution : In anaphase no. of chromosome doubles = 40 × 2 = 80

amount of DNA doubled in S-phase = 160 pg
Final Answer : (3)

126) The correct statement are A, B, C only -

(A) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.
(B) All cells arise from pre existing cells.
(C) Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in higher plant cells.
(D) Gas vacuoles are found in prokaryotes.

127) Solution : A - Shoot apical meristem changes into floral meristem and instead of leaves,
floral whorls are formed and internodes get condensed, hence flower is called modified shoot.
B - Mature anther has pollen sacs in which pollen grains are present.
Final Answer : (3)
 128) Solution : Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
Final Answer : (1)

129) Solution : Nitrogen fixation is mainly done by certain bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium,
cyanobacteria), not protists
Final Answer : (3)

130)

Explain Question: Question asks about which statement is incorrect among the four fungal
statements.

Concept: Fungal classes

Solution: Check each statement:

A. True → Neurospora is widely used in genetic studies.

B. True → Puccinia is a rust fungus.

C. Incorrect → Ascospores are sexual spores and produced endogenously, not exogenously.

D. True → Alternaria reproduces by conidia.

Final answer: 3

131) Solution : A-Capsule, B-Seta, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte

Final Answer : (2)

132) Solution : Bryophytes live on land but depend on water for reproduction, hence
called “amphibians of plant kingdom”.
Fertilization in bryophytes requires water, not air
Final Answer : (3)

133) Solution : A = a, b ; B = c ; C = d, e

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ulothrix
(A) Isogamous
(b) Spirogyra

(B) Anisogamous (c) Eudorina

 (d) Volvox
(C) Oogamous
(e) Fucus
Final Answer : (1)

134) Solution : A dihybrid cross involves two traits, and its phenotypic ratio (9:3:3:1) can be
understood as the combination of two independent monohybrid crosses.
This is the Law of Independent Assortment, which states that genes for different traits assort
independently during gamete formation.
Final Answer : (1)

135) Solution : In a nucleotide (monomer) → phosphate is linked to sugar via phospho-

ester bond
Final Answer : (1)

136) Solution : False - Splicing occurs in the nucleus, not cytoplasm.

Final Answer : (3)

137) Solution :All correct –

(A) DNA replication is bidirectional in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(B) Eukaryotic DNA replication starts at origin of replication.
(C) DNA replication is semi conservative, because there is one parental and one new strand in
each daughter DNA.
(D) Primase is required to initiate DNA synthesis by providing a 3' hydroxyl group on RNA
primer.
Final Answer : (1)

138) Solution : Enzymes ↑ the rate of reaction by decreasing activation energy.

Final Answer : (3)

139) Solution : Monomer of starch , Primary metabolite

Final Answer : (3)

140) Solution:
A. Glutamic acid → Amino acid
B. Guanylic acid → Nucleotide
C. Arachidonic acid → Fatty acid
D. Glucosamine → Modified sugar
Final Answer : (1)

141) Solution : N approaches K correct.

Final Answer : (3)

142) Solution : Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
 explanation of Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

143) Solution :

A B

Organ
(I) (b) Cyclosporin
transplant

(II) Clot buster (c) Streptokinase

Blood cholestrol
(III) (a) A Statins
lowering agent

Final Answer : (3)

144) Solution : Aves & mammalia group of animals have a constant body temperature
Final Answer : (4)

145) Solution : B - Adamsia - Ctenophora - Sea anemone

Final Answer : (1)

146) Solution :
RV (Residual Volume);
ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume);
TV (Tidal Volume); and
IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)
Final Answer : (4)

147) Solution :

Column I Column II

a Superior Vena Cava s Brings deoxygenated blood from upper parts of body into right atrium

b Inferior Vena Cava r Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of body to right atrium

c Pulmonary Artery p Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

d Pulmonary Vein q Carries oxygenated blood from lungs

Final Answer : (3)

148) Solution :Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.
Final Answer : (2)

149) Solution :A is ejaculatory duct formed by the fusion of seminal vesicle duct and vas
deferens
 Final Answer : (1)

150) Solution :- Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Final Answer : (1)

151) Solution :- tubectomy, fallopian tube

Final Answer : (2)

152) Solution :- ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes

Final Answer : (2)

153) Solution : In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into
active toxin due to the alkali pH in the insect gut and becomes active. The toxins then attack
the gut cells of the insect, punching holes in the lining leading to their death.
Final Answer ; (4)

154) Solution :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Floating Ribs (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

(b) Acromion (iii) Clavicle

(c) Scapula (i) Located between second and seventh ribs

(d) Glenoid cavity (ii) Head of the Humerus

Final Answer : (1)

155) Solution : Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in small part of the fallopian tube is
removed or tied up.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Solution :

(a) Tuberculosis (iv) Harmless bacteria

(b) Whooping cough (iii) Killed bacteria

(c) Diphtheria (ii) Inactivated toxin

(d) Polio (i) Harmless virus

Final Answer : (2)

157) Solution : High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3
[Link] temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
 Final Answer : (4)

158) Solution : Metagenesis means polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce
polyp sexually
Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution :

(i) Myxine (b) Cyclostomata

(ii) Aptenodyte (d) Aves

(iii) Felis (a) Mammalia

(iv) Salpa (c) Urochordata

Final Answer : (2)

160) Solution : Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Final Answer : (2)

161) Solution : Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor

Aldosterone released by adrenal cortex.
Final Answer : (3)

162) Solution : In voluntary muscle "Fascia" term is used for a collagenous connective tissue
by which muscle bundles are held together
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution :c and d correct. Axonal membrane is highly permeable for K+ ions and nearly
impermeable for Na+ ions in resting state.
Final Answer : (2)

164) Solution :Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

165) Solution :About 2000 MYA the first non cellular forms of life appeared on earth
Final Answer : (4)

166) Solution :Homo erectus had a brain size about 900 C.C.
Final Answer : (4)

167) Solution : Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously.
Final Answer : (2)
 168)

Question Explanation: Determining which event will not occur after a tubectomy.

Concept: Tubectomy (Female Sterilization).

Solution:

A. (1) Menstruation cycle: Menstruation will continue after tubectomy because the ovaries still
function and release eggs, but they cannot travel to the uterus.
B. (2) Ovulation: Ovulation still occurs after tubectomy, as the ovaries continue to release eggs.
C. (4) Formation of Graafian follicle: The formation of Graafian follicles still occurs in the ovaries
as part of the regular menstrual cycle.

However, (3) Fusion of sperm and ovum will not occur because the fallopian tubes are blocked
or cut during tubectomy, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg.

Final Answer: 3

169) Solution : After getting into the body of the person HIV releases its ssRNA into
macrophages.
Final Answer : (4)

170) Solution : lips and nails turn gray to bluish in pneumonia

Blood and mucus in stool in amoebiasis
Final Answer : (4)

171)

The correct answer is 2. Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide, and CO2.

Explanation:
In anaerobic sludge digesters, organic matter is broken down by microorganisms in the
absence of oxygen. The main gases produced during this process are:

A. Methane (CH4): Produced by methanogenic bacteria as a result of anaerobic digestion.

B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2): Another byproduct of the anaerobic breakdown of organic material.
C. Hydrogen Sulphide (H2S): Produced when sulfur-containing compounds are broken down by
certain bacteria.

172) Solution : In EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name of strain.
Final Answer : (2)

173) Solution : Plasmid is not found in all organisms they are primarily found in bacteria.
Final Answer : (4)

174) Solution : DNA Ligase plays a crucial role in recombinant DNA technology by acting as
molecular glue, joining DNA fragments together by formation of phosphodiester bond.
Final Answer : (1)
 175) Solution : Only D and E

A. Transgenic animal are highly sensitive to toxic substances.

B. Toxicity testing in transgenic animals allow less time to obtain result.
C. Rosie produced human protein-enriched milk containing 2.4 gram protein/litre.

Final Answer : (3)

176) Solution : Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Final Answer : (4)

177) Solution : Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to

deliver a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
Final Answer : (1)

178) Solution : The large holes in Swiss cheese are primarily due to the production of carbon
dioxide (CO2) by the bacterium Propionibacterium.
Final Answer : (2)

179) Solution : Only statement D is incorrect, In cyclostomes cranium and vertebral column
are cartilaginous.
Final Answer : (3)

180) Solution : 1,2,4 are correct, 2 incorrect.

External ear absent in frog
Final Answer : (4)