21-07-2024

1001CMD303052240011 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A block of mass 50 kg slides over a horizontal distance of 1m. If the coefficient of friction between
their surface is 0.2, then work done against friction is :-

(1) 98 J
(2) 72 J
(3) 56 J
(4) 34 J

2) A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure. The work done by the

force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 20 m is :-

(1) 500 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 1500 J
(4) 2000 J

3) A force F = (2 + x) acts on a particle in x-direction where F is in newton and x in metre. Find the
work done by this force during a displacement from x = 1.0 m to x = 2.0 m :-

(1) 7 J
(2) 3.5 J
(3) 14 J
(4) zero

4) If momentum is increased by 20%, then KE is increased by :–

(1) 44%
(2) 55%
(3) 66%
(4) 77%

5) Under the action of a force, a 3 kg body moves such that x = t2/2, where position x is in meter and
t is in second. The work done by the force in first 3 second is :-

(1) 13.5 J
(2) 27 J
(3) 72 J
(4) 109 J

6) An object of mass 5kg falls from a 20m high platform and strikes on the surface with a speed of 10
m/s. The work done by air resistance is-

(1) 1000 J
(2) –250 J
(3) –750 J
(4) 250 J

7) Find work done against gravity in displacing a body of mass 4 kg to 3 m in vertically upward
direction :-

(1) 40 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 60 J
(4) 120 J

8) A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate through a given horizontal pipe. To deliver n-
times the water through the same pipe in the same time the power of the motor must be increased
as follows :-

(1) n-times
(2) n2-times
(3) n3-times
(4) n4-times

9) A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched
position. Then the work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is :-

(1) 6.25 N-m

(2) 12.50 N-m
(3) 18.75 N-m
(4) 25.00 N-m

10) A 10 kg satellite completes one revolution around the earth at a height of 100 km in 108
minutes. The work done by the gravitational force of earth will be –

(1) 108 × 100 × 10 J

(2)
J
(3) 0 J

(4)
J

11)

A uniform chain of mass 'm' and length is lying on a table with of its length hanging freely from
the edge of the table. The amount of work done in dragging the chain on table completely is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

A 2 g ball of glass is released from the edge of a hemispherical cup whose radius is 20 cm. How
much work is done on the ball by the gravitational force during the ball's motion to the bottom of the
cup ?

(1) 1.96 mJ
(2) 3.92 mJ
(3) 4.90 mJ
(4) 5.88 mJ

13) A ball of mass m is dropped from a height h on a platform fixed at the top of a vertical spring.

The platform is displaced by a distance x. The spring constant is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) A force of 10N displaces an object by 10m. If work done is 50J then direction of force make an
angle with direction of displacement :-

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) None of these

15)

Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10.2 kW
(2) 8.1 kW
(3) 12.3 kW
(4) 7.0 kW

16) A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kg/s with a relative speed of 5
km/s. What is the acceleration of the rocket 50 seconds after the start, neglecting gravity ?

(1) 10 m s–2
(2) 25 m s–2
(3) 50 m s–2
(4) 100 m s–2

17) All the surfaces are smooth. Find m1:m2, if system is in equilibrium :-

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

18) Two weights of 15 kg each are attached by means of two strings to the two ends of a spring
balance, as shown in the diagram. The pulleys are frictionless. The reading of the balance would be-
(1) zero
(2) 15 kg
(3) 30 kg
(4) 75 kg

19) If the elevator in the shown figure is moving upwards with constant acceleration 1 m/s2, the
tension in the string connected to block A of mass 6 kg would be :- (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 60 N
(2) 66 N
(3) 54 N
(4) 42 N

20) If two blocks are connected by a rod of mass 6 kg then find the tension force at the middle of the

rod :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 180 N
(3) 70 N
(4) 130 N

21) A bob hangs with a massless string from the roof of a train moving on horizontal rails. If the
string is inclined towards the engine of the train, then train is :-

(1) moving with constant velocity

(2) increasing its speed
(3) decreasing its speed
(4) at rest

22) The friction acting on the upper block is :-

(1) 8 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 25 N
(4) zero

23) A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection, is :

(1) 45°
(2) 60°

(3)
tan–1

(4)
tan–1

24) A ball is thrown from a point on ground which clears a 3m high wall situated at a distance 4m
from it and falls 12m behind the wall. Find the angle of projection of the wall :-

(1) 37°
(2) 45°
(3) 53°
(4) 60°

25) The horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by a projectile. The angle of
projection is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

26) At the uppermost point of projectile its velocity & acceleration are at an angle of :

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

27) The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15° is 50 m. If it is fired with the same
speed at an angle of 45°, its range will be:

(1) 60 m
(2) 71 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 141 m
28) The equation of projectile is .The horizontal range is :

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 12.8 m

29) A stone of mass 2kg is projected with velocity 20m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal, its
momentum at the highest point is:

(1) 20 kg ms–1
(2) kg ms–1
(3) 40 kg ms–1
(4) none of these

30) An airplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 km/hr drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 500 m. The horizontal range is :-

(1) 180 m
(2) 980 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 670 m

31) A train of 150m length is going towards north direction at a speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a
speed of 5ms–1 towards south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken by the parrot to
cross the train is equal to :–

(1) 12 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 10 s

32) Six persons of same mass travel with same speed u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that

each one always faces the other. After how what will they meet each other ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90 sec. When standing on the moving escalator, he is
carried up in 60 seconds. How much time would it take him to walk up the moving escalator ?

(1) 36 sec
(2) 42 sec
(3) 18 sec
(4) 9 sec.

34) A man is walking on road with velocity 3 km/hr suddenly rain starts falling. Velocity of rain is 10
km/hr in vertically downward direction, the relative velocity of the rain with respect to man is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 13 km/hr

35) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between

them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

SECTION-B

1) A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a variable force as shown. What is the speed of the body
when it has covered 25 m, assuming that the body starts form rest ?

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

2) A particle is given power p which depends on position x as, p = kx2 where k is constant, if initially
particle was at rest, then the relation between velocity and position of particle will be :

(1) v ∝ x3
(2) v ∝ x
(3) v ∝ x2/3
(4) v ∝ x1/3

3) An object starts from rest and is acted upon by a variable force F as shown in figure. If F0 is the
initial value of the force, then the position of the object, where it again comes to rest will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two particles A and B are released from the top of incline. If mA > mB then :

(1) Both will reach simultaneously if A is released before B

(2) Both will reach simultaneously if A is released after B
(3) Both will reach simultaneously if both are released together.
(4) Both may reach simultaneously if both are released together and A is given some initial velocity.

5) Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6 kg and 8 kg are hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension
in the string connecting 8 kg and 4 kg block is.

(1) 4N
(2) 6N

(3)

(4)

6) For the arrangement shown in figure the tension in the string is :-

(1) mg/2
(2) 3mg/2
(3) mg
(4) 2 mg

7) The velocity of end ‘A’ of rigid rod placed between two smooth surfaces moves with velocity ‘u’
along vertical direction. Find out the velocity of end ‘B’ of that rod, rod always remains in contact

with the vertical walls.

(1) u tan θ
(2) u sin θ
(3) u cot θ
(4) u cos θ

8) In the fig., the ends P and Q of an unstrechable string move downward with uniform speed v.
Mass M moves upwards with speed.

(1) v cosθ
(2) v/cosθ
(3) 2v cosθ
(4) 2/v cosθ

9) The acceleration of masses with respect to lift if the whole system is moving vertically upwards

with uniform acceleration 4 m/s2 is :

(1) 1.42 m/s2

(2) 3.6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

10) In the arangement shown in figure, there is a friction force between the blocks of masses m and
2m. The mass of the suspended block is m. The block of mass m placed on block 2m is stationary
with respect to block of mass 2m. The minimum value of coefficient of friction between m and 2m is

:-

(1) 1/2
(2)
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/3

11) A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2 sec. The maximum height attained by the ball
above the point of projection will be about :-

(1) 2.5 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 7.5 m
(4) 10 m

12) A 2 km wide river is flowing at the rate of 2km/h. A boatman who can row a boat at a speed of 4
km/h in still water, goes a distance of 2 km upstream and then comes back. The time taken by him to
complete his journey is

(1) 60 min
(2) 70 min
(3) 80 min
(4) 90 min

13) A ball is projected upwards from tower of height 10m, with a speed of m/s at an angle of
45° with horizontal. Time after which particle will hit the ground is :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 1 sec
(4) 6 sec

14) A lift is moving with a uniform downward acceleration of 2ms–2. A ball is dropped from a height
2m from the floor of lift. Find the time taken after which ball will strike the floor (in s) :-

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 1/2

15) Two cars are moving in the same direction with the same speed of 30 km/h. They are separated
by 5 km. What is the speed of the car moving in the opposite direction if it meets the two cars at an
interval of 4 minutes ?

(1) 15 km/h
(2) 30 km/h
(3) 45 km/h
(4) 60 km/h

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following does not contain PX4+ type cation in crystalline phase ? (X = halogen)

(1) PF5
(2) PCl5
(3) PBr5
(4) None of these

2) Which of the following orbital of central atom does not involve in bonding in XeOF4 molecule :-

(1) dz2

(2) dyz
(3) dx –y2 2

(4) All of these

3) In which of the following molecule, the bond length around the central atom are not equal :-

(1) SF6
(2) BrF3
(3) PCl3
(4) BF3

4) Which of the following can not form H-Bond with water

(1) HCN
(2) NH4OH
(3) C2H2
(4) H2

5) Maximum bond angle is present in :

(1) BBr3
(2) BCl3
(3) BF3
(4) all have same

6) Due to inter molecular H–bond generally :-

(1) Decreases Volatility

(2) Increases boiling point
(3) Increases viscosity
(4) All of these

7) Which of the following has sp3d2 hybridisation :-

(1) XeOF4
(2)
(3) SF4
–
(4) XeF5
8) Statement-I : All 180° structure are sp hybridised
Statement-II : ICl is an example of sp hybridisation.

(1) Statement-I & II both are correct

(2) Statement-I correct but II wrong
(3) Statement-I & II both are wrong
(4) Statement-I wrong but II in correct

9) Which of the following molecule have pπ–pπ bond but not pπ – dπ bond?

(1) SO2
(2)
(3) SO2Cl2
(4) SO3

10) The hydrogen bond is strongest in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) Correct order of boiling point is :-

(1) I2 > Cl2 > Br2

(2) He > H2
(3) ICl > Br2
(4) H2 > D2 > T2

12) Which of the following does not contain co-ordinate bond ?

–
(1) BH4
–
(2) NH2
(3) SO3
+
(4) H3O

13) MnO4– + C2O4–2 + H+ → Mn+2 + CO2 + H2O

What are the quotients of reactants in the balanced form of the equation ?
MnO4– C2O4–2 H+
(1) 2 5 16
(2) 16 5 2
 (3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) In the reaction VO + Fe2O3 → FeO + V2O5, the eq. wt. of V2O5 is equal to its.

(1) Mol. Wt.

(2) [Link]/8
(3) [Link]./6
(4) None of these

15) Which sulphur containing species is unable to work as reductant :

(1) H2SO4
(2) SO2
–2
(3) SO3
(4) S2–

16) Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction :-

+ +2
(1) CaCO3 + 2H → Ca + H2O + CO2

(2) 2Cr + 2H+ → Cr2 + H2 O

(3) Cr2 + 2OH– → 2Cr + H 2O

+ 2+
(4) Cu2O + 2H → Cu + Cu + H2O

17) Vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.85 bar, 0.5 g of a non volatile,
non electrolyte solute is added to 39 g of benzene then vapour pressure of solution becomes 0.845
bar, what is the (approx) molar mass of solute-

(1) 85 g mol–1
(2) 170 g mol–1
(3) 850 g mol–1
(4) 17 g mol–1

18) For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that :

(1) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(2) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(3) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
(4) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent
19) Normality of '20V' H2O2 solution is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 3.58 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 100 N

20) Decomposition of reactant A into product has value of k = 4.5 × 103 s–1 at 27°C and energy of
activation is 60 cal mol–1. At temperature 'T' kelvin (T > 300 K) 'k' become 1.35 × 104 s–1 then value

of is

(1) 3.6 × 10–2

(2) 1.53 × 10–3
(3) 1.8 × 10–3
(4) 9.8 × 10–2

21) If the temperature of a reaction is increased from 25°C to 75°C then

(1) The reaction rate decreases but k remain same

(2) The reaction rate and k both decreases
(3) The reaction rate increases but k remains same
(4) The reaction rate and k both increases

22) Find the mass of 95% pure CaCO3 required to neutralise 40mL of 0.5M HCl solution by following
reaction.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq.) → CaCl2(aq.) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ)

(1) 1.00g
(2) 1.05g
(3) 10.5g
(4) 0.01g

23) The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 × 1010 and 9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical
formula is –

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO2
(3) Cr2O4
(4) None

24) A container of volume V, contains 0.28 g of N2 gas. If same volume of an unknown gas under
similar condition of temperature and pressure weighs 0.44 g, the molecular mass of the gas is

(1) 22
(2) 44
(3) 66
(4) 88

25) 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) CO2

26) Which has the maximum number of molecules in the following

(1) 44g CO2

(2) 48g O3
(3) 8g H2
(4) 64g SO2

27) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of an element x (atomic mass = 10) and
50% of element y (atomic mass = 20) is

(1) xy
(2) x2y
(3) xy2
(4) x2y3

28) An organic compound contains 4% sulphur. Its minimum molecular weight is

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 800
(4) 1600

29) A mixture containing 64.0g H2 and 64.0g O2 is ignited so that water is formed 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O,
which of the following is/are correct
(a) H2 is limiting reagent
(b) O2 is limiting reagent
(c) Reaction mixture contain 72g H2O and 56g of unreacted H2
(d) Reaction mixture contain 56g H2O and 72g of unreacted H2

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) Only a

30) The amount of water (g) produced by the combustion of 16g methane.
(1) 9g
(2) 36g
(3) 18g
(4) 2g

31) Calculate the molality of KCl solution prepared by dissolving 7.45 g KCl in 500 mL solution
(density of solution = 1.2 g. mL–1)

(1) 6.01
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.168
(4) 0.003

32) 20 mg of K+ ions are present in 1L aqueous solution. Density of solution is 0.8 [Link]–1 then conc.
of K+ ions is

(1) 2 × 107 ppm

(2) 12.5 ppm
(3) 25 ppm
(4) 16.3 ppm

33) The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 70 torr at 27°C. It forms an ideal solution with another
liquid B. Mole fraction of B is 0.2 and total vapour pressure of solution is 84 torr at 27°C then vapour
pressure of pure liquid B at 27°C is

(1) 14 torr
(2) 56 torr
(3) 70 torr
(4) 140 torr

34) 1 mol heptane (VP = 82 mm of Hg) was mixed with 4 mol of octane (VP = 31mm of Hg) VP of
solution is

(1) 46.2 mm of Hg
(2) 40.0 mm of Hg
(3) 41.2 mm of Hg
(4) 38.4 mm of Hg

35) The mole fraction of the solvent in the solution of a non volatile solute is 0.98 then relative
lowering of vapour pressure is

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.980
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.49
 SECTION-B

1) Correct match is :-

Column I Column II
(Molecule/ion) (Hybridisation)

(A) H3O+ ion (P) sp

(B) NH2– ion (Q) sp2

(C) NO3– ion (R) sp3

(D) ClF3 (S) sp3d

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-R, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-Q, D-S
(4) A-R, B-R, C-Q, D-S

2) In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural ?

(1) SF4 and XeF4

(2) IF7 and SF6
(3) BF3 and NF3
SiF4 and
(4)

3) Consider x-axis as the internuclear axis. Which out of following is correct related to the strength
of covalent bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) The hybridisation of C-atoms in Tetracyanomethane [C(CN)4] is :-

(1) sp, sp2

(2) sp3, sp
(3) sp3, sp3
(4) sp3, sp2

5) Pick out the incorrect match of intermolecular attraction between molecule/ion in the following
pairs :-

(1) HBr and H2S — Dipole-dipole attraction

(2) Cl2 and CCl4 — Dipersion force (london force)
(3) NH3 and C6H6 — Hydrogen bond
+
(4) H2O and Na — Ion dipole attraction

6) Which ordering of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation state of
nitrogen -

(1) HNO3, NO, NH3, N2

(2) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(4) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, N2

7) Which of the following chemical reaction depicts the oxidising behaviour of H2SO4?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) At 323 K, the vapour pressure in milimeters of mercury of a methanol ethanol solution is

represented by the equation P = 120 XA + 140, where XA is the mole fraction of methanol. Then the

value of is :-

(1) 250 mm of Hg
(2) 140 mm of Hg
(3) 260 mm of Hg
(4) 20 mm of Hg
9) In the presence of a catalyst, the activation energy of a reaction decrease by 2 kcal at 27°C, the
rate of reaction become

(1) 2 times
(2) 10 times
(3) 28 times
(4) 35 times

10) Number of electrons present in 6g of ion is

(1) 1.806 × 1024

(2) 1.9264 × 1024
(3) 3.7324 × 1024
(4) NA

11) What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :–

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(3) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(4) 16 NA g

12) In an experiment 6.67g of AlCl3 (Mw = 133.5) was produced and 0.54 g Al remained unreacted.
How many g-atom of. Al was taken originally in reaction.

(1) 2.7 mol

(2) 7.21 mol
(3) 0.05 mol
(4) 0.07 mol

13) A compound having 14.31% Na, 69.5 % Oxygen, 9.97% S and 6.22% H by mass then. find
molecular formula if all H are present in form of H2O. (empirical and molecular formula mass are
equal)

(1) NaSH2O
(2) Na2SO4⋅ 20HO2
(3) NaS3O5⋅ 10H2O
(4) Na2SO4⋅ 10H2O

14) 36.5% by mass HCl solution has density 1.2 g mL–1, molarity of solution is

(1) 3
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12
15) If components R and S form an ideal solution at 27°C then for point P (0.1,0) VP of this solution

is (in mm of Hg)

(1) 90
(2) 88
(3) 120
(4) 25

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following four statement (A-D). and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) Pineal gland is situated on the ventral side of forebrain.
(B) Corpus luteum is formed after ovulation.
(C) In female, oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterus at the time of child birth.
(D) Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called sella turcica
Options

(1) Statements (A), (B) and (D)

(2) Statements (B), (D)
(3) Statement (A), (C)
(4) Statement (B), (C) and (D)

2) Assertion : Immune response of old person becomes weak.

Reason : Thymosin production is increased in old age.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Which of the following hormone produces anti-inflammatory reactions and supresses the immune
response.

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Thymosin
(3) Cortisol
(4) Melatonin
4) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres that represents :-

(1) Neuronal cell bodies are concentrated here

(2) Association areas are concentrated here
(3) Myelinated axon are found here
(4) Complete neurons are concentrated here

5) When an impulse passes, the membrane is depolarized and the charge of the cells is

(1) Outside positive and inside negative

(2) Inside positive and outside negative
(3) Both sides have zero potential
(4) Both sides are electronegative

6) Identify the labelling of following diagram and choose correct option for position of cerebral

aqueduct ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

7) Statement A : Metastasis is the most feared property of benign tumor.

Statement B : Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition.

(1) Statement A is correct, Statement B is incorrect

(2) Statement A is incorrect, Statement B is correct
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect

8)

Select the example of allergy :

(1) Bronchial asthma

(2) Hepatitis
(3) AIDS
(4) SCID

9)

The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an example of :

(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(4) Specific natural immunity

10)

Which is not true for passive immunity :

(1) Foetus recieves antibodies from the mother through placenta

(2) Ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against snake venom
(3) Colostrum protect the infant
(4) Immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response

11) Which of the following pair is incorrect matched :

Structure of cannabinoid molecule -

(1)

(2) Atropa belladona - Hallucinogenic properties

(3) Heroine - Obtained from latex of poppy plant
(4) Cocaine - Produces sense of euphoria

12) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given

below?

(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place

(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells
(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.
13) Identify the diagram shown below :-

(1) Cannabis Sativa

(2) Datura
(3) Opium poppy
(4) None of these

14) Which is not related with the disease shown in diagram ?

(1) Microsporum
(2) Epidermophyton
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Trichophyton

15) Given below is a diagrammatic representation or structure of a neuron :-

Choose the correct option indicating the labelled structures in which Nissl’s granules are present

(1) Only B
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) A, B, C and D

16) Which part of brain has very convoluted surface in order to provide additional space for many
more neurons?

(1) Mid brain

(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons

17) Na+ – K+ pump transport :

(1) 2 Na+ out

(2) 3 K+ in
(3) 3 K+ out
(4) 3 Na+ out

18) In the above diagram which structure is representing pituitary which is

under direct neural regulation of hypothalamus.

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

19) Bile juice is secreted by stimulation of :-

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) GIP
(4) CCK

20) Which one is result of hypersecretion ?

(1) Addison disease

(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Grave's disease

21) The hypothalamic hormone which inhibits the release of growth hormone from the pituitary is:-

(1) Somatostatin
(2) Somatomedin
(3) Pitressin
(4) Pitocin

22) Chemosynthetic autotrophs :

(1) Oxidize various inorganic substance and use the release energy for their ATP production.
(2) Play great role in nutrient cycling
(3) Belong to kingdom Monera only
(4) All of the above

23) Archaebacteria:

(1) Can not survive in most harsh conditions

(2) Can be symbiotic also
(3) have cell wall structurally similar to eubacteria
(4) 1 and 2 both

24) Boundaries of __________ Kingdom is not well defined :-

(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Monera

25) Which of the following is true for diatoms?

(1) Cell wall has stiff plates on the outer surface

(2) The walls are embedded with silica
(3) They are known as brown algae
(4) They float actively in water currents by cilia

26) Red tide in sea is caused by :

(1) Gonyaulax
(2) Nostoc
(3) Diatoms
(4) Paramoecium

27) True cell wall is not present during vegetative phase but observed in spores in :

(1) Euglenoids
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Diatoms
(4) Protozoa

28) Which of the following disease is not matched correctly with its causing agents?
(1) White Sport in mustard – Albugo
(2) Rust is wheat – Puccinia
(3) Smut – Ustilago
(4) Rust in mustard – Puccinia

29) Zoospores and aplanospores are common asexual spores __A__ formed in members of __B__ What
are A and B respectively?

(1) Exogenously and Phycomycetes

(2) Endogenously and Phycomycetes
(3) Exogenously and Ascomycetes
(4) Endogenously and Ascomycetes

30) Statement-I : Sexual spores are generally not found in members of Basidiomycetes but
vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common.
Statement-II : Members of deuteromycetes reproduce by asexual spore known as conidia.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Statements I & II both are incorrect
(4) Statements I & II both are correct

31) Assertion (A) : Deuteromycetes are commonly known as imperfect fungi.

Reason (R) : Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

32) Identify the figure a, b and c and find the correct option from options given below :

(1) A : Laminaria; B : Spirogyra; C : Sphagnum

(2) A : Fucus; B : Ulothrix ; C : Sphagnum
(3) A : Laminaria; B : Ulothrix; C : Sphagnum
(4) A : Fucus; B : Spirogyra; C : Sphagnum
33) Which of the following is true for the figure given below?

(1) It is male gametophyte of Marchantia

(2) It is female gametophyte of Marchantia
(3) Sexual reproduction occurs by multicellular gemma
(4) It is a monoecious plant

34) Which of the following is not correctly mathced?

(1) Chlorophyll a and b - Chlorophyceae

(2) Chlorophyll a and d - Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyl a and c - Phaeophyceae
(4) Chlorophyll a and c - Chlorophyceae

35) Complex post fertilization development is commonly observed in members of :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Phaeophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae and chlorophyceae

SECTION-B

1) Match the hormone in column-I with function in column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
(Hormone) (function)

Stimulate uterine
A Vasopressin a
contraction

Testosterone
B ACTH b
production

C Oxytocin c Anti diuresis

Stimulate milk
D Prolactin d
production

Adrenal cortex
E ICSH e
stimulation
(1) A = a, B = c, C = d, D = b, E = e
(2) A = c, B = e, C = a, D = d, E = b
(3) A = c, B = b, C = a, D = e, E = d
(4) A = d, B = e, C = b, D = a, E = c

2) Identify the gland (a) & (b) shown below and select right option giving their number & function.

Gland Number Function

Promotes the bone

(1) (a) Thyroid 1 pair
deformation

Promotes the stunted

(b) growth of growing
(2) 2 pair
Thyroid baby during
pregnancy

(a) Increases the Ca+2

(3) 1 pair
Parathyroid level in bone

Increase the
(b)
(4) 2 pair Ca+2 level
Parathyroid
in blood
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Statement-I : The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Statement-II : The hormones of hypothalamus reach the pituitary gland through portal circulatory
system and regulate the functions of anterior pituitary.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

4) A pregnant lady delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of :-

(1) Atrophy of thyrofollicular cells

(2) Atrophy of thyroparafollicular cells
(3) Atrophy of adrenal medulla
(4) Atrophy of adrenal cortex

5) Which of the following group of hormones have same source organ :-

(1) FSH, LH and oestrogen

(2) ADH, Aldosterone and erythropoeitin
(3) GnRH, TRH and Somatostatin
(4) Prolactin, aldosterone and gonadotrophins

6)

Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) e
(2) f
(3) d
(4) i

7) In the given figure, site A and site B represents

(1) Site A–polarised state site B–depolarised state

(2) Site A–depolarised state site B–polarised state
(3) Site A–polarised state site B–repolarised state
(4) Site A–repolarised state site B–depolarised state

8) Assertion :- Withdrawal of drug is characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea, and sweating etc.
Reason :- The body functions became dependent with the regular use of drugs.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) & (R) is false

9) How many of the following hormones are secreted from the part labelled as
'X' ? Cortisol, Aldosterone, ACTH, Adrenaline

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

10) Which of the following set of diseases are caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera, Typhoid, Citrus canker

(2) Cholera, Typhoid, Small pox
(3) Tetanus, Herpes, Cholera
(4) Tetanus, Typhoid, Mad cow disease

11) Two unequal/dissimilar flagella are observed in :

(1) Diatoms
(2) Slime mould
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Amoeboid protozoan

12) Which of the following is correct for given diagram?

(1) Asexual spore are endogenously formed in it

(2) Sexual spores are exogenously formed in it
(3) It is a sac fungi
(4) Zygospores are formed in it

13) Which of the following is are edible mushromm?

(1) Toad stoll
(2) Truffles
(3) Agaricus
(4) All of the above

14) Read the following statement carefully and identify the correct statement and select the correct
option from options given below :
a. The asexual spores in ascomycetes are conidia which are exogenously produced on conidiophores.
b. Multicellular organism lacking a cell wall are included in kingdom Animalia by Whittaker.
c. Algin is obtained from red algae
d. The main plant body of liverwort have upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged true leaves.
e. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organism.

(1) A, B and E only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) A, B, D and E only
(4) A, B, C and D only

15) Assertion (A) : Viruses are not classified by Whittaker

Reason (R) : Viruses are not truely living organism

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason explanation of Assertion.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Sex organ bearing stage of mosses is :

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) leafy gametophyte
(4) Dorsiventral thallus

2) In Bryophyta male reproductive organ is __a__ and female reproductive organ is __b__ which are
__c__ What is a, b and c :

(1) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Multicellular

(2) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Unicellular
(3) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Multicellular
(4) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Unicellular
3) Which of the following is used as packing material in trans-shipment of living material?

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Funaria
(3) Marchantia
(4) Porphyra

4) Assertion (A) : In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes an intervening dikaryophase is observed.

Reason (R) : In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes karyogamy is delayed and does not occur just
after plamogamy.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not explain Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason explain Assertion.

5) Match the column I with column II and find out the correct option from options given below :

Column-I Column-II
(Organism) (Kingdom)

A Nostoc P Plantae

B Chlorella Q Protista

C Aspergillus R Fungi

D Funaria S Monera
(1) A : S; B : P; C : Q; D : R
(2) A : S; B : P; C : R; D : Q
(3) A : S; B : Q; C : R; D : P
(4) A : S; B : Q; C : P; D : R

6) Which of the following bacteria is present in the gut of cattle?

(1) Methanogens
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidohile
(4) Blue green algae

7) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A. Cycas P. Coralloid root

B. Marchantia Q. Antheridiophore

C. Salvinia R. Heterosporous Fern

D. Gelidium S. Agar agar

(1) A : P; B : Q; C : R; D : S
(2) A : S; B : P; C : R; D : Q
(3) A : Q; B : S; C : R; D : P
(4) A : R; B : Q; C : P; D : S

8) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from option given below :

Column-I Column-II
(Name of Fungi) (Class of Fungi)

A Rhizopus P Phycomycetes

B Neurospora Q Ascomycetes

C Agaricus R Deuteromycetes

D Trichoderma S Basidiomycetes
(1) A : Q; B : P; C : S; D : R
(2) A : P; B : Q; C : R; D : S
(3) A : P; B : Q; C : S; D : R
(4) A : Q; B : P; C : R; D : S

9) The main plant body is sporophyte and differentiated in true root, true stem and true leaves, is
observed in :

(1) Bryophyta and Pteridophyta

(2) Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm
(3) Algae and Bryophyta
(4) Bryophyta and Gymnosperm

10) Antheridium and archegonum both are present in :

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Algae

11) Two different type of spores (micro spore and megaspore) are formed in

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Adiantum
(3) Selaginella
(4) Funaria

12) In histone protein which amino acids are present more abundantly:-

(1) Lysine and alanine

(2) Arginine and valine
(3) Glycine and arginine
(4) Lysine and arginine

13) During DNA replication one strand is formed continuous and second strand is formed
discontinuous because:-

(1) DNA synthesis is bidirectional

(2) DNA replication is semiconservative
(3) DNA chain formation take place in 5' to 3' direction only
(4) DNA replication is semidiscontinuous

14) Replication of DNA on template strand forming lagging strand take place :-
How many option are correct related to this
(A) Formation of okazaki fragments.
(B) Direction of fragment formation 5'→ 3'
(C) It is opposite to helix opening.
(D) Need ligase to join.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All

15) In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is GAT , TAG ,CAT , GAC what shall be the sequence
of its complementary strand

(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA

(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA
(4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG

16) How many nucleotides are found in haploid content of human DNA :

(1) 3.3 × 109 bp

(2) 48502 bp
(3) 5386
(4) 4.6 × 106 bp

17) Which of the following enzyme is helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
template independent manner?

(1) Severo ochoa enzyme

(2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

18) The enzyme that catalyzes the peptide bond formation is located in :-
(1) Smaller sub unit or ribosome
(2) Cytosol of cell
(3) Larger sub unit of ribosome
(4) 3' end of t-RNA

19) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column II
(Scientists) (Experimental material)
a. [Link] 1. E. coli
b. Hershey and Chase 2. Bacteriophage
c. Meselson and Stahl 3. Fababeans
d. Taylor etal 4. Pneumococcus

a b c d

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 4 2 1 3

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 4 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which component of RNA polymerase holoenzyme catalyses elongation process of transcription ?

(1) Sigma factor

(2) Rho factor
(3) Core enzyme
(4) Co-factor

21) A human gene product can be produced by genetically engineered bacteria. This is possible
because the

(1) Genetic code is universal

(2) Human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
(3) Bacterial cell can carry out the splicing reaction
(4) Mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria

22) Protein synthesis in an animal cells, takes place:-

(1) Only in the cytoplasm

(2) In the nucleolus & cytoplasm
(3) Cytoplasm & mitochondria
(4) Only on ribosome attached to nucleolus

23) given structure represents :-

Category Component (x)

(1) Nucleotide Adenine

(2) Nucleoside Uracil

(3) Cholesterol Guanine

(4) Amino acid NH2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) t-RNA has anticodon loop

(2) t-RNA has an amino acid acceptor end
(3) For initiation, there is specific t-RNA that is referred to as initiator t-RNA
(4) For termination there is specific t-RNA that is referred to as terminator t-RNA

25) During processing of Hn-RNA in eukaryotes after transcription, the following event is true :-

(1) In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 5' end in a template dependent manner
(2) The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world
(3) The split gene arrangements represents probably an advanced feature of genome
(4) In prokaryotes RNA polymerase II transcribe Hn-RNA

26) Select odd one regarding genetic code :

(1) Degenerate
(2) Nearly universal
(3) Specific
(4) Ambiguous

27) In there are 3.3 × 109 bp present in genome, then what would be the length of the DNA of any
somatic cell–

(1) 1.1 meter

(2) 2.2 meter
(3) 3.3 meter
(4) 6.6 meter

28) In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are:

(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

29) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I:- DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction 3'→5'
Statement-II :- The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA
ligase.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

30) Ribozyme is :-

(1) Protienaceous enzyme

(2) Non protienaceous enzyme
(3) Antibiotics
(4) Retrovirus

31) Which of the following is not a constituent of DNA

(1) Deoxyribose sugar

(2) Phosphoric acid
(3) Purines
(4) Cysteine

32) Which of the following RNA is called as adapter RNA ?

(1) tRNA
(2) 23 s r RNA
(3) 5 s r RNA
(4) m RNA

33)

Which of the following is related to degeneracy of genetic code ?

(1) Some amino acids coded by only one codon.
(2) One codon coding for only one amino acid.
(3) One amino acid coded by more than one codon.
(4) One codon coding for many amino acids.

34)

Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Ribozyme → Nucleic acid

(2) Anticodon → t-RNA
(3) Rho factor → Translation
(4) George Gamow → Genetic code

35)

Okazaki fragments are :–

(1) Segments of RNA capable of translation

(2) Segments of DNA which undergo recombination
(3) Segments of chain of nucleotides formed during transcription
(4) Segments of chain of nucleotides formed during replication of DNA

SECTION-B

1) Few stages of life cycle of moss is given below. Arrange these events in correct order starting
from sex organ bearing structure and select the correct option from option given below :
A. Protonema
B. Leafy gametophyte
C. Spore formation
D. Spore germination
E. Fertilization
F. Sporophyte

(1) A → B → C → D → F → E
(2) A → B → C → D → E → F
(3) A → B → E → F → C → D
(4) B → E → F → C → D → A

2) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A. Adiantum P. Lycopsida

B. Selaginella Q. Sphenopsida

C. Equisetum R. Psilopsida
 D. Psilotum S. Pteropsida
(1) A : S; B : P; C : Q; D : R
(2) A : S; B : P; C : R; D : Q
(3) A : S; B : Q; C : R; D : P
(4) A : S; B : Q; C : P; D : R

3)

Which of the following is a parasitic protozona?

(1) Paramoecium
(2) Gonyaulax
(3) Euglena
(4) Trypanosoma

4) Prothallus is :
a. Multicellular
b. Sporophyte
c. Usually autotrophic
d. Usually dioecious

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

5)

Which one is true among the following:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Which of the following enzyme will inhibit transformation when we add into
above test tube :-

(1) Protease
(2) RNase
(3) DNase
(4) Lipase

7) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the lists.

List-I List-II

a Ligase Joins short segments of DNA together.

DNA
b Cuts protein at specific sequence
polymerase

Breaks the hydrogen bonds between

c Helicase complementary pairs during DNA
replication.
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) a and b are correct but c is false
(3) a is correct but b and c are false
(4) a and c are correct but b is false

8) A normal DNA molecule is continuously replicate in N15 medium then what is the % of light DNA
in 4th generation.

(1) 12·5%
(2) 25 %
(3) 0 %
(4) 6.25 %

9) In RNA , Nucleotides are bonded by -

(1) H - bonds
(2) Phospo diester bonds
(3) Ionic bonds
(4) Salt linkage

10) Which of the following sequence is present in 3′ end of t-RNA :-

(1) ACC
(2) CCA
(3) G
(4) CAC

11) Find out incorrect statement with respect to DNA structure.

(1) Two polynucleotide chains in a DNA are linked through hydrogen bonds
Two adjacent nucleotides in each polynucleotide chain of DNA, are linked through 3' -
(2)
5' phosphodiester linkage
Guanine is bonded with cytosine with three hydrogen bonds while adenine forms two hydrogen
(3)
bonds with 5-methyl uracil.
The pitch of DNA helix is 34 nm and there are roughly 10 bp in each turn, hence the distance
(4)
between two adjacent bps in a helix is approximately 3.4 nm

12) Read the statements carefully :

(a) RNA polymerase is one type in prokaryote that forms mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, therefore division of
labour is absent.
(b) RNA polymerase is 3 types–I, II and III in eukaryotes and therefore division of labour to form
different type of RNA is present.
(c) In prokaryotes sigma (σ) factor for initiation of transcription.
(d) Coupled transcription and translation occurs in prokaryotes and uncoupled transcription and
translation occurs in eukaryotes.
(e) Termination in prokaryotes by Rho(ρ) factor.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) All correct

(2) Only ‘e’ is incorrect
(3) Only ‘c’ is incorrect
(4) a, b, c correct

13) Biochemical characterisation of transforming principle was done by :

(1) Alfred Hershey and martha chase

(2) Frederick Griffith
(3) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty
(4) Meselson and Stahl

14)

The figure below show three steps (A, B, C) of central dogma

 Select the A, B and C step with their respective statement :
(1) A → Replication → In this process RNA depandant RNA polymerase enzyme is used
(2) C → Translation → In this process reverse transcriptase enzyme is used
(3) B → Transcription → In this process RNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme is used
(4) A → Replication → In this process DNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme is used

15)

Which of the following RNA is synthesized by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes:-

(1) 5.8s rRNA and hnRNA

(2) snRNA and 5s rRNA
(3) tRNA and 28s rRNA
(4) tRNA and hnRNA
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 4 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 3 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

W = Fs = μRs = μmgs
= 0.2 × 50 × 9.8 × 1 = 98 J

2)

Work done = Area under F – x graph

W = Area of rectangle ABCD + Area of ΔCDE

3)

As the force is variable, we shall find the work done in a small displacement from x to x + dx and
then integrate it to find the total work. The work done in this small displacement is
dW = F dx = (2 + x) dx

Thus, W =

= = 3.5 J

4) Ek =

Ek' = = 1.44 Ek

% change in KE =

= = +44%

5) v =
w = Kf – Ki
 = 13.5 J

6)

[NCERT pg # 136 Q. 6.13]

Wgravity + Wair = mv2

Wair = mv2 – mgh

Wair = × 5 × (10)2 – 5 × 10 × 20 = – 750J

7)

W = mgh = 4 × 10 × 3 = 120 J

8)

If the motor pumps water (density ρ) continuously through a pipe of area of cross-section A with
velocity v, then mass flowing out per second.
m = Avρ ...(i)
Rate of increase of kinetic energy

= ...(ii)
Mass m, flowing out per, sec, can be increased to m' by increasing v be v', then power increases
from P to P'.

or

Now,
As, m' = nm; v' = nv

∴
or P' = n3P.

9)

⇒ W = 18.75 N-m

10)

Here gravitation force of earth is centripetal force θ = 90°, WD = 0

11)
 w= n=4

12)

Work done by gravitational force

= force × component of displacement along force

= mg(R) =
= 392 × 10–5 J = 3.92 mJ

13)

Applying WE theorem
Wg + WS = 0

mg(h + x) – =0

K=

14) W = Fd cosθ
= 10 × 10 × cosθ = 50

⇒
⇒ θ = 60°

15)
Pout = 90% of Pin ⇒ 8.1 kW

16)

= (5000) (10)
= 50000 N.
At t = 50s, mass of rocket ⇒ M = 1500 – 10(50)
= 1000 kg

⇒ acceleration (a) = = 50 m/s2

17)
For m1 : T = m1g
For m2 : T = m2gsinθ
⇒ m1g = m2gsinθ

18) At equilibrium reading or tension is 15 kg-force.

19)

Tension T = m(g + a)
= 6(10 + 1)
= 66 N

20)
Tension at midpoint of rod, T = (3+7) a = 100 N

21) Pseudo force ⇒ Forward

a ⇒ Backward & speed decreases

22)
fmax = µ × 50 = 0.5 × 50
= 25 N
10N < 25N, the lower block will not move, the system is at rest, hence no friction on the upper
block.

23)

tan θ =
 ⇒ θ = tan–1

28) Equation of projectile

so,

29)

p = mv cosθ = 2 × 20 × = 20 kg ms–1

31) t = = 10 secs

32) t =

=
Alternative method

33)

= ⇒ t = 36 s

35)
 36)

vf = 10 m/s

37)

Power,

⇒v∝x

38) Work done = 0

⇒ Area = 0
x = 2x0

Now = tanα

0
x = So x =
Hence option (1)

39)

Vertical displacement is same in both cases so both will reach simultaneously if both are released
together.

40)
 For 4 kg block

4g – T = 4a

4g – =T

T=

42)

Since rod is rigid, its length can’t increase.

∴ velocity of approach of A and B point of rod is zero.
⇒ u sin θ – v cos θ = 0
⇒ v = u tan θ

43) Let the block moves upward with velocity u,

∴ ucosθ = v.

44)

=
= 2m/s2

45)

For 'm' → mg – T = ma ...(1)

For (m + 2m) → T = 3 ma ...(2)
(1) + (2) → mg = 4ma

a=
For horizantal block of mass 'm'
Fr = ma
 µ mg = ma

µmg =

µ=

46)
∴ usinθ = g

∴
OR
For vertical component of motion. One sec for upward journey and one sec for downward. So
for downward motion.

48)

S = ut + at2

– 10 = 5t –
5t2 – 5t – 10 = 0
t2 – t – 2 = 0

49)

aR = 8 m/s2
uR = 0
SR = 2 m

S = ut +

2=0+

t=

CHEMISTRY

51) PF5 shows pseudo berry rotation.

 53)

BrF3 → sp3d. → Triagonal Bi-Pyramidal.

axial > equatorial

56)

Intermolecular H-bond ∝ Mpt

∝ Viscosity

63)

64) VO + Fe2O3 ⇌ FeO + V2O5

nf = 6

67)

68)

Psolution =

69) V.S. = 5.6 × N

70)

log

72)

= 100 × 0.01052
= 1.05g

77)
 x : y

2:1

78)

Min. Mw = 800

79)

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

n=
at 't' 32 – 2x 2 – x 2x
LR = oxygen ∴ x = 2
∴ 28 mol H2 4 mol H2O
= 28 × 2 = 56g 4 × 18 = 72 g

80)

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

1 mol CH4 = 16 g
∴ water (g) = 2 mol
= 36 g

81)

82)

ppm =

83)

Ps = P°A + XB (P°B – P°A )

84 = 70 + 0.2 (P°B – 70) → P°B = 140

84)

85)

RLVP = XB = 0.02

89) Tetracyano methane

 93)

If XA = 1 then PS = 120(1) + 140

= 260 mm

94)

r2 = 28 r1

95) e– in = (6 + 3 × 8) + 2
= 32 per ion

mol =
no. of ions = mol × NA = 0.1 × 6 × 1023
no. of e– = 6 × 1022 × 32 = 192 × 1022
= 1.92 ×1024

96)

1 molecule CH4 = 16 amu

1 amu = (1.66 ×10–24g)
mass of 1 molecule of CH4 = 16×(1.66 × 10–24g)
= 2.66 × 10–23g

97)

(g aq)Al = (g aq) AlCl3

(mol × VF)Al = (mol × VF) AlCl3

mol × 3 =
molAl = 0.05
∴ total mol = 0.05 + unreacted mol

= 0.05 +
= 0.07

98)
 Na : O : S : H

: : :
0.6 : 4.34 : 0.3 : 6.2
2 : 14 : 1 : 20

100)

If P (0.9,0) then Xs = 0.1

∴ VPsol = 70(0.1) + 20(0.9) = 25

BIOLOGY-I

102)

NCERT Pg. No. 243

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg No. 335

106)

NCERT-XIth Pg # 320 (E), 320 (H)

107) NCERT XII Pg. # 157

112) NCERT-XII, Page # 154

113)

NCERT-XII Pg # 159; Para-8.5

114)

NCERT-12th Pg No. # 133

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 333

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 333

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13
 124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17,18

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 25, 28

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

137)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 333

138)

NCERT Pg. 332

 139)

NCERT Pg. # 333

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11, 21, 24, 28

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12,13,17,30

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27,32,33

 158)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17,18

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30 & 32

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

161)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 32

163) NCERT XII Pg. # 106

166)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 96

176) NCERT Pg # 112

179)

NCERT Pg.# 106

180) NCERT-XII Page No. 88

181)

NCERT XII, Page # 97

186)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30

187)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

188)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

191)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 101

192) NCERT XII Pg. # 106

 196)

NCERT Page-97

197)

NCERT Page No. # 110

198)

NCERT Pg. # 85

199) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98