01-06-2026

5001CMD303291260005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body goes 30 km South and then 40 km East. What will be the displacement from initial point?

(1) 50 km, 37º South of East

(2) 30 km, 37º South of East
(3) 40 km, 53º South of East
(4) 70 km, 53º South of East

2) A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 8 steps forward and 6 steps backward, following again
by 8 steps forward and 6 steps backward and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1s.
Determine how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 18 m away from the start:-

(1) 48 s
(2) 126 s
(3) 78 s
(4) 162 s

3) A particle's position as a function of time is described as x(t) = 2t2 + 3t + 4. What is the average
velocity of the particle from t = 0 to t = 3 sec ?

(1) 3 m/sec
(2) 6 m/sec
(3) 9 m/sec
(4) 12 m/sec

4) Figure shows the displacement (x)-time (t) graph of the particle moving on the x-axis :-

(1) The particle is at rest

(2) The particle is continuously going along x-direction
(3) The velocity of the particle increases upto time t0 and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to time t0 and then stops

5) One car moving on a straight road covers one third of the distance with 20 km/h and the rest with
60 km/h. The average speed is :

(1) 40 km/h
(2) 80 km/h
(3)

(4) 36 km/h

6) The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x= 9t2–t3 where x is in
metres and t in seconds. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed
along the + x direction ?

(1) 24 m
(2) 32 m
(3) 54 m
(4) 81 m

7) The x and y co-ordinates of a particle at any time t are-given by; x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t where x
and y are in m and t in s.
The acceleration of the particle at 5s is

(1) zero
(2) 8m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

Common Content for Question No. 8 to 9

Paragraph Question
A particle is performing one dimensional motion on x-axis and it's x-coordinate is changing with time
as x = (t2 – 4t), then answer the following question. (x is in m, t is in second) :-

8)

Time when particle comes to rest

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 1 sec

9) A man covered following displacements :-

(a) 25 m west
(b) 20 m 30° east of south
(c) m south
(d) 10 m east
(e) 10 m 60° north of west
The net displacement of the man is :-

(1) 20 m, 30° west of north

(2) 10 m, 60° north of west
(3) 20 m, 30° north of west
(4) None of these
10) A particle moving along the straight line travels first 3m distance with speed 2 m/s, second 3m
distance with speed 3 m/s and the third 3m distance with speed 6 m/s. The average speed of the
particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

11) The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + bx, where α and β are constants.
The retardation is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αbv3
(4) 2β2v3

3 2
12) A particle is moving such that s = t – 6t +18t + 9, where s is in meters and t is in seconds. Find
the minimum velocity attained by the particle :-

(1) 4m/s
(2) 5m/s
(3) 6m/s
(4) 8m/s

13) Evaluate

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle moves along the positive branch of the curve where x = , where x and y are
measured in metre and t in second. At t = 2 sec, the velocity of the particle is :

(1)
m/sec

(2)
m/sec

(3)
m/sec
(4)
m/sec

15) A particle moves m in South–West direction, 12m in upward direction and then 1m in East
direction. Find the net displacement.

(1) 13 m
(2) 17 m
(3) 14 m
(4) 18 m

CHEMISTRY

1) The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is:-

(1) 3.0 × 1023

(2) 6.02 × 1023

(3)

(4)
×1023

2) Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are :-

(1) 3 NA
(2) 20 NA
(3) 24 NA
(4) None

3) Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (at wt. 55.85) is:

(1) Twice that in 60 g carbon

(2) 6.023 × 1022
(3) Half in 8 g He
(4) 558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

4) The gram atomic weight of a triatomic gas is a. The correct formula for the number of moles of
gas in its w g is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3 wa

(4)
5) A gaseous mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of their number of
molecules is :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 7 : 32
(4) 3 : 16

6) One atom of an element x weight 6.645 × 10–23 g. Number of moles of atoms in its 20 kg is :-

(1) 4
(2) 40
(3) 100
(4) 500

7) Which of the following is heaviest ?

(1) 18 ml of H2O
22
(2) 6.022 × 10 molecules of H2O
(3) 0.01 mole of H2O
(4) 10 g of H2O

8) The mass of 1 molecule of water is approximately :-

(1) 18 g
(2) 3 × 10–23 g
(3) 1.5 × 10–23 g
(4) 4.5 × 10–23 g

9) The correct probability density distribution curve with respect to distance r for 2s orbital is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) Choose the incorrect pair regarding the properties given in bracket.

(1) 4d > 5s (angular node).

(2) 4s = 4p (energy in hydrogen atom)
(3) 3d > 4s (radial node)
(4) 4s > 3s (radial node)

11) Which of the following has greatest number of atoms :-

(1) 1g of butane (C4H10)

(2) 1 g of nitrogen (N2)
(3) 1 g of silver (Ag)
(4) 1 g of water (H2O)

12) The circumference of the 4th Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom is 5.32 nm. The de Broglie wavelength
of the electron revolving in this orbit is :-

(1) 0.133 nm
(2) 13.3 nm
(3) 1.33 nm
(4) 133 nm

13) If number of neutrons in 0.5 mole of , 0.20 mole of , 0.15 mole of H2O and 5 g atom of
hydrogen are w, x, y and z respectively then select correct relation:

(1) w < x < y < z

(2) z < w < x < y
(3) z < x < w < y
(4) x < w < y < z

14) Statement-I: The energy of 3d orbital is greater than 4p orbital.

Statement-II: If two orbital have the same value of , the orbital with lower value of n will
have the lower energy.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

15) As electron moves away from the nucleus, its potential energy

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) None of these

BOTANY

1) In which stage DNA replication takes place ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

2) Maximum cell organelles are synthesize in which phase of cell cycle ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) Prophase

3) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about

(1) four hours

(2) 90 minutes
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours
4) In cells of higher plants, during the S-phase -

(1) DNA replication occurs in nucleus and centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) Centrioles duplicates in the nucleus and DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

5) Read the following statement and select the correct option that bears true statements
(i) After S-phase DNA content become twice but chromosomes number remain same. (ii) A cell in G
phase is metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the
requirement of organism. (iii) Cell division is a progressive process that shows the distinct boundries
between various stages.
(iv) At the end of prophase Golgi bodies, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope get disappear

(1) i, ii and iv
(2) i, ii and iii
(3) i, iii and iv
(4) All of these

6) If a cell has 10 Pg DNA in G1-stage of interphase, what will be the amount of DNA in each
daughter cell after meiosis-I :-

(1) 10 Pg
(2) 20 Pg
(3) 40 Pg
(4) 5 Pg

7) In which stage of cell cycle, cells remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate?

(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G0 phase
(4) M phase

8) During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

(1) S phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase

9) If average duration of cell cycle of a normally dividing cell is 120 minutes then, what should be
the duration of interphase in it?

(1) 120 minutes

(2) More than 114 minutes
(3) 60 minutes
(4) Less than 30 minutes

10) Which phase of the cell cycle lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.

(1) M-phase
(2) G0-phase
(3) Interphase
(4) Synthetic phase

11) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also show :

(1) Synthesis of tubulin protein

(2) Replication of DNA
(3) Splitting of centromeres
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

12) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows -

(1) Continuous growth of cell which is metabolically inactive.

(2) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Splitting of centromere

13) Which of the following is true for the phase marked X in the diagram given below ?

(1) The cell is metabolically inactive

(2) The content of DNA is half in comparison to S-phase
(3) The number of chromosomes is half in comparison to S-phase
(4) Lasts for more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle

14) How much duration required for the formation of 8 cells from a single yeast cell?

(1) 90 minutes
(2) 180 minutes
(3) 270 minutes
(4) 720 minutes

15) If the intial amount of DNA is 2C and number of chromosome, in the cell is 46. What would be
the amount of DNA and the number of chromosomes in the same cell in G2-phase ?

(1) 2C, 46
(2) 4C, 46
(3) 2C, 92
(4) 4C, 92

ZOOLOGY

1) "Frogs have unstable body temperature, i.e. their body temperature varies with the temperature
of the environment". Thus, frogs are _________.

(1) Warm blooded or homeotherms

(2) Cold blooded or poikilotherms
(3) Warm blooded or poikilotherms
(4) Cold blooded or hemoetherms

2) Assertion (A) : The lymphs in frogs exhibit distinction from their blood composition.
Reason (R) : Both lymph and blood contains nucleated RBCs.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is false
(4) A is false and R is true

3) Which of the following statement is correct about the respiration in frog ?

I. In frog, cutaneous and pulmonary respirations are found.
II. A pair of elongated pink hollow lungs are found in thorax
III. During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin.
IV. The body of the frog is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
Choose the correct option.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV
(3) II and III
(4) I and IV

4) how many statements are correct

i. the excretory waste in frogs are carried by blood to the kidneys for separation
ii. the urinary bladder is thin walled and opens in to the cloaca
iii. frogs excrete uric acid and are uricotelic animals
iv. each kidney is situated on either side of the vertebral column

(1) i,ii,iv are correct

(2) i,iii,iv are correct
(3) ii,iv are correct
(4) iii,iv are correct

5) Assertion : The system for control and coordination is highly evolved in the frog.
Reason : Nervous system is organised into central, peripheral and autonomic.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

6) A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of the characteristics given below.
(i) Body is covered by skin.
(ii) It exhibits sexual dimorphism.
(iii) On the ventral side the skin is uniformly pale yellow.
Identify the specimen.

(1) Frog
(2) Earthworm
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cockroach

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) In frogs hindlimbs have five digits and are larger and muscular than the fore limbs.
(2) Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.
(3) Alimentary canal is short because frogs are carnivorous.
(4) Copulatory pad is present on the first digit of hind limb and is absent in females.

8) Statement I – Copulatory pads are absent in female frogs.

Statement II – In frogs, during aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through
the lungs.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

9) Dorsal part of frog is ..... and ventral part is ...

(1) Olivegreen, uniformly pale yellow

(2) Olivegreen, uniformly dark yellow
(3) Olivegreen, nonuniformly pale yellow
(4) Olivegreen, nonuniformly dark yellow

10) Which of the following statement/statements are correct about class Amphibia :-
(i) Fertilization is internal
(ii) Respiration is through gills only
(iii) Body is divisible into head and trunk
(iv) Heart is two chambered - one ventricle and one auricle

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

11) Sinus venosus in frog –

(1) Collects oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins and opens in left ventricle.
(2) Joins the right atrium and receives blood through the major veins called vena cava.
(3) Joins the vena cava and opens dorsally in left ventricle.
(4) Collect deoxygenated blood and opens in dorsal surface of heart.

12) Adult Rana tigrina can respire via

a. Skin
b. Buccal cavity
c. Gills
d. Lungs
Select the correct option

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and d

13) Assertion (A):– Nictitating membrane protects the eye of frog in water.
Reason (R) :– Frog belong to phylum vertebrate.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are flase

14) Assertion: Frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter, as they take shelter in deep
burrows. This is known as aestivation and hibernation respectively.
Reason: Frogs are called cold blooded or poikilotherms i.e., their body temperature varies with the
temperature of the environment.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
15) Statement-I : In frogs, 10 pair of cranial nerves arises from the brain.
Statement-II : Midbrain includes olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and paired
diencephalon.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A. 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 4 4 1 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 4 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

∴ Displacement = 50 km, 37º South of East

2) The net distance moved by the drunkard in 14s = 2m.

In five such repetitions, he travels 10 m towards the pit and takes, 14 × 5 = 70s
Now, when he takes 8 steps forward, he would fall into the pit 18 m away.
So, time taken = (70 + 8) s
= 78 s

3) Average velocity =

=
= 9 m/s

4)

up to to V = = constant
After to x = constant ⇒ V = 0

5)

Average speed = = 36 km/h

6) x = 9t2 – t3
speed will be maximum
when a = 0
⇒ 18 – 6t = 0
⇒ t = 3sec.
position at t = 3sec
x = 9 × 32 – 33 = 81 – 27 = 54 m

7) x = 7t + 4t2 y = 5t

8) x = t2 – 4t
v = 2t – 4 v = 0 At t = 2s

9)

tanθ = θ = 60°
20m, 60° south of west

10)

11)

t = αx2 + βx

1 = (2 αx + β)v

. (2αx + β)-2 (2α) = = -2αv3

12) s = t3 – 6t2 + 18t + 9

v= = 3t2 – 12t + 18
For v to be minimum or maximum.
 a= = 6t – 12 = 0 ⇒ t = 2 s
At t = 2 s,

= 6 > 0, i.e. v is minimum at t = 2 s

vmin = 3(2)2 – 12 (2) + 18 = 6 m/s

13) I =

14)

When t = 2s, vx = 2 and vy = 4

15)

= 13 m

CHEMISTRY

16)

mass of 1 atom of He = 4 amu

16 amu contain = 4 He atom

17) Question Explanation: We need to calculate the total number of electron present in 48 g
2+
of Mg ions.

Concept : Number of moles (n) =

Solution: Use mole concept to find moles of Mg2+.
Each neutral Mg atom has 12 electrons, but Mg2+ losses 2, so it has 10 electrons.
Multiply total ions by 10 to get total electrons.
Mole of Mg2+ = = 2 mol
Number of Mg ions = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.2044 × 1024 ions
2+

Electrons per Mg2+ = 10

Total electrons = 1.2044 × 1024 × 10 = 20 NA
Final Answer: Option (2)

18)

NCERT based

23)

Molecular mass = 18 amu = g=

24)

NCERT based

25) NCERT Based

26)

27)

Circumference of orbit 2πr = nλ

and for 4th orbit 2πr4 = 4λ = 5.32 nm

therefore λ = = 1.33 nm

28) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

29)

Theory based.
 30) As we move away from the nucleus, P.E increases.

BOTANY

31)

Solution :
Given figure represent to cell cycle.

Where
A = represent - Karyokinesis
B = represent - Cytokinesis
C = represent - Anaphase
D = represent - S-phase

Cell cycle =
In given question related to phase in which DNA replication occur so correct answer is option
is (4).

32)

Question explanation: This question asks during which phase of the cell cycle most cell
organelles are synthesized.

Concept : Cell Cycle: Phases And Introduction (G1, S, G2)

Explanation : Most organelle synthesis occurs during the G1 phase.

Final answer : G1

33) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

34) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 121

35)

Explain Question : Identify which statements are TRUE out of the four given about the cell
cycle and cell division.

Concept : This question is based on Cell Cycle and cell division : Mitosis

Solution :
(i) True, DNA doubles after S-phase, chromosome number same
(ii) True, G0 cells are active but don't divide unless needed
(iii) False, Mitosis is continuous, not with sharp boundaries
(iv) True, Prophase ends with disappearance of Golgi, ER, nucleolus, and nuclear envelope.

Final Answer : option (1) i, ii and iv

36)

Question explanation
The question is asking the DNA content in each daughter cell after meiosis I if the parent cell
has 10 Pg in G1.

Concept
Cell cycle – Meiosis.

Solution
In G1, DNA is 10 Pg. After S phase, DNA doubles to 20 Pg. Meiosis I separates homologous
chromosomes, but each chromosome still has two chromatids. Therefore, each daughter cell
has the same DNA content as the original G1 cell, 10 Pg.

Final answer : Option 1

37)

Explain Question: The question is asking you to identify the phase of the cell cycle in which
cells are metabolically active but no longer divide.

Concept: G0- Phase

Solution: The correct Answer: Option 3 — G0 phase

Explanation:
In the G0 phase, cells exit the cell cycle after G1.
They remain metabolically active and perform normal functions but do not divide unless called
upon.
This is also called the quiescent phase.

Final answer: The correct Answer: Option 3 — G0 phase

38)

NCERT based
39)

Question Explanation – The question is asking about the duration of interphase if the
average cell cycle time is 120 minutes.

Concept – Based on cell cycle phases.

Solution – If the total cell cycle is 120 minutes, then interphase will last more than 95% of this
time. 95% of 120 minutes = 114 minutes. Therefore, interphase duration is more than 114
minutes.

Final Answer – More than 114 minutes

40)

Question Explanation – The question is asking which phase of the cell cycle occupies more
than 95% of the total duration of the cycle.

Concept – Based on cell cycle phases.

Solution – Interphase lasts more than 95% of the cell cycle duration. M-phase is relatively
short, while G0 is an exit phase and not part of the regular cycle. The S-phase is only a part of
interphase, not the whole.

Final Answer – Interphase

41)

Explain Question : The question is asking: in the phase where centriole duplication occurs,
which other event also takes place?

Concept : Based on centriole duplication happens in the S phase of the cell cycle.

Solution : Since centriole duplication marks the S phase, the correct associated event is DNA
replication.

Final Answer : Option 2

42)

Explain Question : The question asks which event occurs in the same phase of the cell cycle
where centriole duplication in cytoplasm takes place.

Concept : Based on Interphase (synthetic phase).

Solution : Since centriole duplication occurs in the S phase, the associated event is DNA
replication.

Final answer : Option (3)

 43)
Explain Question – The diagram marks G1 phase as "X". The question asks which statement
is true for this phase.
Concept – Based on cell cycle.
Solution – G1 phase is the post-mitotic gap phase. DNA content is 2C, while in S phase it
becomes 4C after [Link], DNA content in G1 is half compared to S phase.
Final answer – Option 2

44) Explain Question – The question asks: how much time does it take for a single yeast cell
to form 8 cells, given the average cell cycle duration of yeast.

Concept – Based on duration of cell cycle.

Solution – Yeast completes one cell cycle in about 90 minutes. To form 8 cells from 1 cell →
the cell must divide 3 times . Each division takes 90 minutes. Total time = 90 × 3=270
minutes.

Final answer – Option 3

45)
Explain Question – The question asks: if a cell has 2C DNA and 46 chromosomes initially (in
G1), what will be the DNA content and chromosome number in G2 phase?
Concept – Based on interphase of cell cycle.
Solution – G1 phase: DNA = 2C, Chromosomes = 46. During S phase DNA replicates, so DNA
content doubles to 4C, but chromosome number remains 46 (each chromosome now has two
sister chromatids). G2 phase: DNA remains doubled at 4C, chromosome number still 46.
Final answer – Option 2

ZOOLOGY

48)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about which statements correctly describe respiration in frogs and
related anatomy..

Concept
frogs

Solution
Statement I is correct: frogs have both cutaneous (skin) and pulmonary (lung) respiration.
Statement II is incorrect: frog lungs are simple, sac-like, and located in the trunk, not
elongated pink hollow lungs like in mammals.
Statement III is correct: during aestivation and hibernation, gas exchange occurs through the
skin.
Statement IV is incorrect: frog body is divided into head and trunk, not head, thorax, and
abdomen.
 Final answer: Option 1

49) NEW NCERT 11 Pg-82,83

50) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 118

51) Question Explanation:

This question is asking to identify an animal based on given external features.

Concept:
Animal Kingdom – External anatomy and sexual dimorphism

Explanation:

A. Body covered by skin → characteristic of amphibians.

B. Sexual dimorphism → males and females are externally distinguishable.
C. The ventral side is pale yellow → typical of frog.

Final Answer: Option 1

52)

Question Explanation: Which statement about frog structure and physiology is incorrect?

Concept: The question is based on morphology and digestion in frogs.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Statement 4 is incorrect.
The copulatory (nuptial) pad is present on the first digit of forelimbs of male frogs, not
hindlimbs, and it is absent in females.

B. Statement 1 is correct: Hindlimbs have five digits and are strong for jumping/swimming.

C. Statement 2 is correct: Bile emulsifies fats; pancreatic juice digests carbohydrates and
proteins.

D. Statement 3 is correct: Alimentary canal is short in carnivorous animals like frogs.

Final Answer: Option 4.

53) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116, 117

55)
 Question Explanation – The question asks which statements correctly describe features of
class Amphibia.

Concept – General characteristics of Amphibia.

Solution –

A. (i) Fertilization is external, not internal → incorrect.

B. (ii) Respiration is by gills, lungs, and skin, not only gills → incorrect.

C. (iii) Body is divisible into head and trunk → correct.

D. (iv) Heart is three chambered (two auricles and one ventricle), not two chambered →
incorrect.

Final Answer – Option 2

56) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 118

57)

Question Explanation: The question asks the different modes of respiration in an adult Rana
tigrina (frog).

Concept: The question is based on respiratory organs in frog

Solution: Adult frogs exhibit cutaneous, buccopharyngeal, and pulmonary respiration,

while gills are present only in the larval (tadpole) stage.

A. Skin (cutaneous respiration) → Correct

B. Buccal cavity (buccopharyngeal respiration) → Correct
C. Gills → Incorrect (present only in tadpole)
D. Lungs → Correct

So, the correct combination is a, b and d.

Final Answer: Option 4

60) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83