24-05-2026

5001CMD303001260004 MD

PHYSICS

1) [ML2T–3] represents the dimensions of :-

(1) Pressure
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Force

2) A dimensionless quantity:-

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

3) If n is numerical value of a physical quantity and u is the size of unit then ?

(1) nu ≠ constant
(2) n ∝ u

(3)
n∝
(4) n and u are not correlated

4) Dimensional formula of angular momentum :-

(1) [M1L2T–1]
(2) [M2L2T–2]
(3) [M1L2T–3]
(4) [M1L1T–1]

5) Dimensional formula for energy is :-

0
(1) M L2T–2
(2) MLT–2
(3) ML2T–2
(4) ML2T–1

6) If K = find dimensional formula of K :-

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT4]

7) A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b ?

(1) MLT–3 and ML2T–4

(2) MLT–3 and MLT–4
0
(3) MLT–1 and MLT
(4) MLT–4 and MLT–1

8) The dimensional formula of force is -

(1) [Mº Lº T1]

(2) [Mº L1 T–2]
(3) [M1 L2 T–2]
(4) [M1 L1 T–2]

9) Match the type of unit (Column A) with its corresponding example (Column B):

Column-A Column-B
(a) Base unit (i) N
(b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
(e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)

10) The angle between vectors and is :-

(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) If and are unit vector along X, Y and Z axis, then tick wrong statement -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
12)

The unit vector along is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) What is the value of linear velocity, if and also

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) If = –PQ, then angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

15) The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The angle between and is :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°

(3)

(4)
17) The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector difference. In that case, the forces :

(1) must be parallel to each other

(2) must be perpendicular to each other
(3) must be equal in magnitude
(4) must be unequal in magnitude

18)

In vector diagram shown in figure where ( ) is the resultant of vectors ( ) and ( ).

If R = , then value of angle θ is :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

19) Vector sum of two forces of 4N and 6N can not be:

(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 3 N

20) Two forces each of the magnitude 25 N are applied on a point as shown. Their resultant force is

:-

(1)
(2) 25 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 12.5 N

21) If a particle moves from point P(2,3,5) to point Q (3,4,5) its displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Angle between and is θ. What is the value of ?

(1) P2Q cos θ

(2) Zero
(3) P2Q sin θ cos θ
(4) P2Q sin θ

23) Which of the sets given below may represent the magnitudes of three vectors adding to zero ?

(1) 2, 4, 8
(2) 4, 8, 16
(3) 1, 2, 1
(4) 0.5, 1, 2

24) If and , then projection of on is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

If and then work done by the force :-

(1) – 7 J
(2) 7 J
(3) – 10 J
(4) 10 J

26) If and are perpendicular vectors ; . Then the value of α is

:-

(1) –2
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) –8

27) What happens when we multiply a vector by 2.

(1) direction reverse and magnitude double
(2) direction remain unchanged and magnitude double
(3) direction and magnitude remain unchanged.
(4) None

28) If , then find the angle between and .

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

29) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

30) The roots of 10x2 – 27x + 5 = 0 are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If y = x3 + x2 + x + 1, then = ?

(1) 3x2 + 2x + 1
(2) 6x + 2
(3) 6
(4) 6x2 + 2x2

32) The area of a blot of ink is growing such that after t seconds, its area is given by A = (3t2 + 7)
cm2 . Calculate the rate of increase of area at t = 5 second.

(1) 20 cm2/s
(2) 30 cm2/s
(3) 60 cm2/s
(4) 40 cm2/s
33) If then graph between x & y:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Range of cosθ will be:-

(1) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 0
(2) 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ –1
(3) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1
(4) –∞ ≤ cos θ ≤ ∞

35) cos equals to

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

36) The sum of a series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Find sum of 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ..... upto 50

(1) 5050
(2) 2525
(3) 1275
(4) 4525

38)

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

39) Find

(1) 64
(2) 80
(3) 40
(4) 90

40) Vector makes angles α, β and γ with the z, y and x axis respectively, then sin2α + sin2β +
sin2γ = ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

41) If and , then find a unit vector parallel to ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If magnitudes of is equal to n times of
magnitude of , then the angle between and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) 50 coplanar forces each equal to 50 N act on a body. Each force makes angle with preceding
force. What is the resultant of the forces :-

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

44)

Value 1 N in CGS will be -

(1) 103 dyne

(2) 105 dyne
(3) 102 dyne
(4) 106 dyne

45) If is a unit vectors, the value of c is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY
1) ψ expressed as wave function can represent :-

(1) Probability of an electron

(2) Amplitude of the e– wave
(3) Electron wave function
(4) Both 1 & 3

2) In H-atom when electron transit from 7th orbit to 2nd orbit then number of total spectral lines in
emission spectrum are :

(1) 15
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 21

3) de-Broglie wavelength of electron is related to applied voltage is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

Paschen series of emission spectrum of H-atom lies in :-

(1) Visible region

(2) I.R region
(3) U.V region
(4) None

5) On increasing radius (r) which of the following increases according to Bohr's model.

(1) Total energy

(2) Potential energy
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Kinetic energy

6) The correct increasing order for the energy of given orbitals is :

4d, 5f, 7s, 6p

(1) 4d < 6p < 7s < 5f

(2) 7s < 4d < 6p < 5f
(3) 4d < 5f < 6p < 7s
(4) 4d < 7s < 6p < 5f

7) The radius of nucleus of will be

(1) 1.2 × 10-15m

(2) 2.7 × 10-15m
(3) 10.8 × 10-15m
(4) 4 × 10-15m

8) Energy of third excited state for Be+3 is :-

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –1.51 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –0.54 eV

9) According to Bohr's model of hydrogen atom :

(1) Total energy of the electron is quantised

(2) Angular momentum of the electron is quantised
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of above

10) Bohr's model can explain :

(1) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only

(2) the spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only
(3) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(4) the solar spectrum

11) According to Bohr theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 6th orbit :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The energy of a photon of radiation having wavelength 3000 Å is nearly :-

(1) 6.63 × 10–19 J

(2) 12.63 × 10–25 J
(3) 18.63 × 10–16 J
(4) 8.63 × 10–49 J

13) A 100 watt bulb emits light of λ = 400 Å, the number of photons/sec emitted by the bulb will be-

(1) 5 × 1016
(2) 2 × 1019
(3) 20 × 1029
(4) 5 × 1015

14) In Rutherford's experiment most of the -particles went straight through the gold foil because

(1) -particles are positively charged

(2) -particles move with high speed
(3) Most part of the atom is empty space
(4) There is no nucleus in an atom

15) Anode rays are :

(1) Negatively charged

(2) Positively charged
(3) Neutral
(4) Electromagnetic radiations

16) For which of the following species, Bohr theory is applicable ?

(1) Be+
(2) Li+
(3) H
(4) He

17) Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element 89X231 is:-

(1) 89, 231, 89

(2) 89, 89, 242
(3) 89, 142, 89
(4) 89, 71, 89

18) The maximum number of electrons in p-orbital with n = 6, m = 0 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 14

19) Which orbital has two angular nodes?

(1) s
(2) p
(3) d
(4) f

20) Which of following sets are isobars ?

(I) 1H3, 2He3 (II) 19K40, 20Ca40
(III) 5B11, 6C13 (IV) 7N15 9F19

(1) I, III
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II

21) How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4 and ms =

(1) 32
(2) 18
(3) 19
(4) 16

22) How many orbitals and maximum no. of electrons are associated with n = 4 :-

(1) 32, 64
(2) 16, 32
(3) 4, 16
(4) 8, 16

23) How many radial nodes are present in 4d-orbital:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

24)

The orbital diagram in which the Pauli exclusion principle is violated.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) According to plank's theory, energy of a photon is directly proportional to :-

(1) Wavelength
(2) Time period
(3) Frequency
(4) Amplitude

26) Find radius of nucleus of 64X

(1) 1.33 × 10–13 m

(2) 10.32 × 10–13 m
(3) 2.66 × 10–13 m
(4) 5.32 × 10–15 m

27) For He+, r2 : r3 radius ratio will be :-

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 3 : 2

28) Value of planck constant (h) is :-

(1) 6.626 × 10–34 J-s

(2) 6.626 × 10–47 J-s
(3) 1.226 × 10–40 J-s
(4) None of these

29)

In an electronic transition atom cannot emit :-

(1) Visible light

(2) γ - rays
(3) Infra red light
(4) Ultra violet light

30)

Which one of the following species will give a series of spectral lines similar to that of Mg2+ :-

(1) Al3+
(2) Na
(3) Mg+
(4) F

31)

The radiation of low frequency will be emitted in which transition of hydrogen atom :–

(1) n = 1 to n = 4
(2) n = 2 to n = 5
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 5 to n = 2

32) Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by :-

(Atomic no.: Ni=28, Ti=22, Cr=24, Co=27)

(1) Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

33) For any H like system, the ratio of velocities of I, II & III orbit i.e., V1 : V2 : V3 will be :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1

34)

In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled & the mass attributed to protons were halved,
the atomic mass would become approximately :-

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

35) Which of the following has the largest de-Broglie wavelength (all have equal velocity) ?

(1) CO2 molecule

(2) NH3 molecule
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

36) Number of wave in third Bohr's orbit of hydrogen is :

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12

37) de-Broglie equation is-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following electronic transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount
of energy ?

(1) from n = 1 to n = 2
(2) from n = 2 to n = 4
(3) from n = 5 to n = 1
(4) from n = 3 to n = 5

39) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

40) Heisenberg Uncertainity principle is not valid for

(1) Moving electron

(2) Motor car
(3) Stationary particles
(4) 2 & 3 both

41) Identify the pair which are not isotopes :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) The positive charge of an atom is :-

(1) spread all over the atom

(2) distributed around the nucleus
(3) concentrated at the nucleus
(4) all of these

43) Naturally occurring boron has two isotopes whose atomic weights are 10.00 (I) and 11.00 (II).
Atomic weight of natural boron is 10.80. The percentage of isotopes (I) and (II) respectively is :-

(1) 20 and 80
(2) 10 and 20
(3) 15 and 75
(4) 30 and 70

44) The electron is

(1) α-ray particle

(2) Cathode ray particle
(3) Hydrogen ion
(4) Positron

45) No. of neutrons in an alluminium atom will be :-

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 12
(4) 9

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion :- Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues.
Reason :- In the dense regular connective tissues, the collagen fibres are present in rows.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2)

White fibrous connective tissue covering of kidney is called -

(1) Periosteum
(2) Perimysium
(3) Endomysium
(4) Renal capsule

3) Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Fibreless
a. Adipose tissue (i)
matrix

Cuboidal Abundant fat

b. (ii)
epithelium cells

c. Cartilage (iii) PCT

d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv),d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

4)

Match the column (I) with column (II) :-

Column (I) Column (II)

(i) Interdigitation (a) Transitional epithelium.

(ii) Gap junction (b) Stratified epithelium.

(iii) Tight junction (c) Columnar epithelium.

(iv) Desmosomes (d) Nervous Tissues.

(1) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – a
(2) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – b
(3) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – a
(4) (i) – a, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – b

5) Statement-I : Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion & absorption. Statement-II :
They are found in moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

6) Statement-I : Cartilage is solid & pliable and resist compression.

Statement-II : Cartilage is present in tip of nose, outer ear joint, between adjacent bones of
vertebral column.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

7) In above diagram of adipose tissue, identify A, B and C:

A B C

Cell
(1) Vacuole Fat
membrane

Cell
(2) Cytoplasm Nucleus
membrane

Cell
(3) Nucleus Fat
membrane

Fat storage Cell

(4) Nucleus
area membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Following are the four diagrams given, choose correct indicating the example belonging :-

(1) Goblet cell Salivary gland Ligament Skin

(2) Goblet cell Salivary gland Skin Ligament
(3) Salivary gland Goblet cell Skin Ligament
(4) Salivary gland Goblet cell Ligament Skin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones? (Articular cartilage)

(1) Calcified cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Fibrous cartilage

10) Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue
and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.

(2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
(3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively
(4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively

11) 5-HT is the chemical name of which product?

(1) Heparin
(2) Histamine
(3) Serotonin
(4) All of above

12) Statement-I : Pseudostratified is a epithelium having a single layer of cell

Statement-II : All the cell of the pseudostratified lies on the basement membrane

(1) Statement-I and II is true and statement-II is correctly explaning the statement-I
(2) Statement-I and II is true and statement-II is not explaining the statement-I
(3) Both the statement is false
(4) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

13) Germinal epithelium of ovary is formed of ?

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple coloumnar
(4) Pseudostratified

14) Cartilage can be found in ?

(1) tip of nose & in the middle ear

(2) in between vertebrae
(3) in between skull bones
(4) Anterior end of tongue
15) Which tissue is also known as lymphoid tissue:-

(1) White fibrous

(2) Yellow fibrous
(3) Reticular fibrous
(4) Mucoid tissue

16) Which of the following connective tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

17) Which tissue support, strengthen, protect and insulate other tissues in the body ?

(1) Epithelia
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Single Tissue with all these properties cannot exist

18) Secretory duct of salivary gland is lined by-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Stratified columnar epithelium
(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium

19) Pillar-like cells are present in:

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium
(4) Both (2) and (3)

20) Yellow, white and reticular fibres, respectively are made up of which proteins ?

(1) Elastin, Reticulin, Collagen

(2) Reticulin, Elastin, Collagen
(3) Collagen, Elastin, Reticulin
(4) Elastin, Collagen, Reticulin protein

21) Find the wrong statement

(1) Epithelial tissue is derived from ectoderm only

(2) Epithelial tissue is avascular
(3) Epithelial tissue cells rest upon basement membrane
(4) Epithelial tissue can be single layered or multilayered

22) Read the following A-D statements -

(A) Bones support and protect softer tissue and organs.
(B) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(C) The limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions.
(D) The bone marrow in some bones is the sites of production of blood cells.
How many of the above statements are correct :

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

23) Ossification of tendon results in formation of _____ and _____ is an example :-

(1) Sesamoid bone, clavicle

(2) Sesamoid bone, patella
(3) Membranous bone, clavicle
(4) Visceral bone, os-cordis

24) Assertion : Body of cockroach is covered by hard and chitinous exoskeleton and each segment
has hardened plates called sclerites.
Reason : Segments are joined to each other by a thin flexible articular membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Assertion : Development in cockroach is Paurometabolous. Reason : Development in

Periplaneta americana is through nymphal stage.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

26) The given figure shows alimentary canal of cockroach. Identify the parts labelled as A to D and
select the correct option.

A B C D

Hepatic Malpighian
(1) Gizzard Crop
Caeca tubules

Hepatic Malpighian
(2) Crop Gizzard
Caeca tubules

Malpighian Hepatic
(3) Crop Gizzard
tubules Caeca

Malpighian Hepatic
(4) Gizzard Crop
tubules Caeca
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Match the following regarding the morphology of Cockroach and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(i) Tergites (A) Forewings

(ii) Tegmina (B) Upper lip

(iii) Hypopharynx (C) Dorsal Sclerite

(iv) Labium (D) Tongue

(v) Labrum (E) Lower lip

(1) (i)-D, (ii)-E, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-D, (v)-A
(3) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-E, (v)-B

28) How many statements are wrong ?

(A) One pair wings arise from each thoracic segments of cockroach.
(B) In female cockroach 9th & 10th sternum form genital chamber
(C) One pair anal style arise from 9th sternum in female
(D) Midgut of cockroach is lined by cuticle
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In cockroach, the forewings are opaque, leathery and prothoracic in origin.
Statement-II : In cockroach, the hind wings are transparent, membranous and metathoracic in
origin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

30) Statement I : Blood vascular system of cockroach is open type.

Statement II : Heart of cockroach lying along mid-ventral line of thorax and abdomen.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is not correct.

31) Supra oesophageal ganglia in cockroach supply nerve to :-

(1) Labrum and labium

(2) Compound eye and Labium
(3) Compound eye and Antennae
(4) Labium and Antennae

32) In Peripleneta americana, the wings extends beyond the tip of the abdomen in :-

(1) Males
(2) Females
(3) Both male and females
(4) None of the above

33) Blood of cockroach contain corpuscles are known as:-

(1) Haemocytes
(2) Plasmocytes
(3) Coagulocytes
(4) none of the above
34) Position of head in relation to body axis of cockroach is known as :-

(1) Epignathous
(2) Hypognathous
(3) Prognathous
(4) None of these

35) Out of following which is the character of sexual dimorphism in Cockroach :-

(1) Anal cerci

(2) Stink gland
(3) Anal style
(4) Both (1) and (3)

36)

What is true for both male and female cockroach

(1) Both have 10 jointed Antenna

(2) In males and female Elytra is for flight
(3) Both have anal cerci on 10th segment
(4) Both have anal styles on 9th segment

37) With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several image of an object. This
kind of vision is called :-

(1) Nocturnal vision, being common during night

(2) Mosaic vision, with more sensitivity but less resolution
(3) Mosaic vision, with more resolution but less sensitivity
(4) Nocturnal vision, with more sensitivity and more resolution

38) The nerve cord of cockroach is -

(1) Double ventral and solid

(2) Double dorsal and hollow
(3) Single dorsal and solid
(4) Single ventral and hollow

39)

Select the incorrect statement regarding the respiratory system of cockroach :-

(A) Consists of tracheal system
(B) It consists of 10 pair spiracles
(C) Thoracic spiracles are two pair

(D) First pair of abdominal spiracles are ventrally located

(1) A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

40) All of the following statement is correct for cockroach except :-

(1) In cockroach mosaic vision found with more sensitivity but less resolution
(2) Titillator is the part of cockroach antennae
A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caecae is present at junction of foregut and
(3)
midgut
(4) The haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes

41) On an average, how many ootheca are produced by female cockroach :-

(1) 9-10
(2) 9-14
(3) 9-15
(4) 7-9

42)

Choose the correct pathway of blood circulation in cockroach :

(1) Heart → Ostia → Sinuses

(2) Ostia → Sinuses → Heart
(3) Sinuses → Heart → Ostia
(4) Sinuses → Ostia → Heart

43) In cockroach nerve cord ganglia are :-

(1) 2 thoracic and 4 abdominal

(2) 3 thoracic and 6 abdominal
(3) 3 thoracic and 5 abdominal
(4) 2 thoracic and 7 abdominal

44) Mark the correct match with respect to Periplaneta.

(1) Mushroom gland → 6th–7th abdominal segments

(2) Testes → 2nd – 6th abdominal segments
(3) Spermathecae → 6th–7th abdominal segments
(4) Ootheca → 14 – 16 each containing 9–10 fertilised eggs.

45) In male cockroach, external genitalia are represented by A surrounding the B . Choose
the option which fill blanks A and B correctly

A B
 1 2 phallomeres Caudal style

2 3 phallomeres Gonopore

3 6 gonapophyses Gonopore

3 pairs of Spermathecal
4
gonapophyses pores
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Which of the following statements is not true for plasma membrane?

(1) It is present in both plant and animal cells.

(2) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it.
(3) Proteins present are tightly as well as loosely associated with the lipid bilayer.
(4) Carbohydrate is never found in plasma membrane.

47) Match the column-

Column I Column II
(a) Cristae (i) Flat membranous sacs in chloroplast
(b) Cristernae (ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(c) Thyllakoid (iii) Disc shaped sacs in golgi apparatus
(1) a - ii, b- i, c- iii
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - i
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - ii

48) Polysome is a chain of :

(1) Oxysomes
(2) Dictyosomes
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Sphaerosomes

49) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) The number of mitochondria in a cell do not correspond to the function of cell.
(2) Mitochondria are common to both plant and animal cells.
(3) Mitochondria and Chloroplast are semiautonomous organelle
(4) Mitochondria divides by fission to increase its number

50) Unicellular organism are capable of

(1) Existence independently & performing essential function of life.
(2) Existence in colony & performing essential function of life with other colony member.
(3) Existence aerobically & essential function possible in water only.
(4) Unicellular organism exists in tissues & performs essential function together.

51) Perinuclear space provide

(1) Barrier between material inside nucleus and cytoplasm

(2) Barrier between material inside ER & Nucleus
(3) Barrier between Nucleolus & nucleoplasm
(4) Barrier between cytoplasm and extracellular matrix.

52) How many of the following cell organelle are bounded by single membrane Mitochondria,
Lysosome, Peroxisome Golgi body, Nucleus, Nucleolus, ER, Sphaerosome, Ribosomes

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

53) Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) The number of chromosome is fixed and is same in all the individuals of a species.
(B) During different stages of cell division, cells show structured chromosomes in Place of
chromatin.
(C) Nuclear pores are the passages through which movement of RNA & Protein take place in one
direction between nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Chromatin is visible during M-phase or division phase only.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

54) Which of the following process will be most affected if nucleolus is destroyed in a cell-

(1) Starch synthesis

(2) Lipid synthesis
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Nuclear membrane formation

55) George Palade observed granular structure under electron microscope which is composed of

(1) RNA & DNA

(2) RNA & Carbohydrates
(3) RNA & Proteins
(4) RNA & Amino acids

56) Elailoplast store -

(1) Protein
(2) Starch
(3) Fat
(4) More than one are correct

57) Nuclear envelope consists of two parallel membranes with a space of _____between them.

(1) 1 to 5Å
(2) 100Å–500Å
(3) 1–5nm
(4) 10–50Å

58) Chromosomes have polarity and polar ends of chromosomes are known as :-

(1) Kinetochores
(2) Satellite
(3) Telomere
(4) Chromatids

59) Who for the first time reported that the most striking difference between animals and plant cell
is cell wall

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Virchow
(4) Haekel

60) Sedimentation coefficient of cytoplasmic ribosomes of eukaryote cell :-

(1) 50s + 30s

(2) 60s + 40s
(3) 25s + 35s
(4) 23.2s + 5.8s

61) Which one of the following is a polymorphic cell organellae :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Lysosome
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Mitochondria

62) Select the incorrect statement:

(1) Micro bodies contain various enzyme and are present in both plant and animal cells.
Few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constriction of constant location. This give the
(2)
appearance of a small fragment called the satellite.
Nuclei are spherical structures present in nucleoplasm and it is a site for ribosomal RNA
(3)
synthesis.
Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction or the centromere on the sides of
(4)
which disc shaped structures called kinetochores are present.

63) Which cell organelle divides by fission to increase its number.

(1) ER
(2) Golgibody
(3) Lysosome
(4) Plastids

64) Proteinaceous radial spokes and hub are the part of ..............

(1) Nuclear membrane

(2) Nucleolus
(3) Chromosome
(4) Centriole

65) Microtubules are the constituents of:

(1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

(2) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(3) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

66) The axoneme usually has .............. pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral
microtubules.

(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Nine
(4) Twelve

67) Nuclear envelope is derived from -

(1) Golgi body

(2) RER
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Cytosol

68) Find correct match -

(1) Aleuroplast - Store lipid

(2) SER - Synthesize steroid hormone
(3) RER - Drug detoxification
(4) Golgi body - protein synthesis

69) Omnis cellula - e cellula means

(1) All plants are made up of cell.

(2) All animals are made up of cell.
(3) New cells are formed from pre existing cells.
(4) Living organisms are composed of cells and their products.

70) Lysosomes are rich in

(1) Nucleic acids

(2) Hydrolytic enzymes
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Hormones

71) Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Centrioles are absent in all plants.
(B) Cytoskeleton is made up of network of membranes.
(C) Cilia/Flagella have 9 + 2 array of axonemal microtubules.
(D) Enzymes of glyoxysome are helpful in seed germination.
Which of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) Only B

72) Which of the following present in vacuoles?

(1) Water and sap only.

(2) Water and excretory product only.
(3) Water, sap and excretory product.
(4) None of the above

73) Ingestion of solid food by plasma membrane is called

(1) Endo osmosis

(2) Pinocytosis
(3) Cytokinensis
(4) Phagocytosis

74) Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

(1) Grana
(2) Pyrenoid
(3) Stroma
(4) Both grana and stroma.

75) Catalase is the main enzyme of

(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) SER
(4) Golgi

76) Synthesis of cell wall material of carbohydrate nature takes place in

(1) Dictyosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosome
(4) All of above

77) Endomembrane system involve

(1) Single membrane organelles

(2) Double membrane organelles
(3) Only without membrane organelles
(4) None of these

78) Match the column:

Column I Column II
A. Metacentric chromosomal 1. Middle centromere
B. Sub-metacentric 2. Centromere slightly way from middle
C. Acrocentric 3. Centromere close to its end
D. Telocentric 4. Terminal centromere
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(3) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
(4) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

79) The following cells are without nucleus

(1) Mature Erythrocytes of many mammals

(2) Sieve tube cells of plant
(3) Bacterial cell
(4) All of these

80) Cilium and flagellum emerges from centriole like structure which is called
(1) Basal granules
(2) Belpharoplast
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Spindle fiber

81) Chromosomes composed of

(1) DNA, RNA, Histone, non-histone

(2) DNA and Histone
(3) DNA and RNA
(4) DNA, RNA and Histone

82) Which structure divided cytoplasm into two distinct compartments luminal and extra luminal

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Centriole
(3) Ribosome
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

83) The membrane covering the vacuole in known as :

(1) Desmosomes
(2) Tonoplast
(3) Plasmadesmata
(4) Tyloses

84) Smaller cell is

(1) Less active metabolically

(2) With smaller nucleus
(3) With larger nucleus
(4) More active metabolically

85) Which cell organelle show cis and trans face ?

(1) ER
(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Centerosome

86) Two adjacent plant cell cytoplasm are connected with each other with the help of

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Golgi body
(3) Primary cell wall
(4) Plasmodesmata
87) Select not incorrect statement

(1) Cisternae is variable in Golgi body

(2) ER will form lysosomes directly
(3) Chloroplast consist of variable number of cisternae.
(4) F0-F1 particles are freely present in mitochondria matrix

88) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA

(2) The chloroplast are generally larger than mitochondria
(3) Both chloroplast and mitochondria are surrounded by two membrane
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an internal compartment called matrix

89) Microfilaments are composed of proteins called

(1) Tubulin
(2) Actin
(3) Desmin
(4) Keratin

90) Select the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Cytoskeleton are filamentous proteinaceous structure

(2) Cytoskeleton mechanical support to cell
(3) Cytoskeleton helps in motility and maintenance of shape of cell
(4) Cytoskeleton occurs in prokaryotic cell also
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain the Question : We need to select the correct physical quantity for given dimension.
Concept : This question is based on dimensions of physical quantities.
Solution :

= [ML2T–3]
Final answer : 3

2)

Explain the Question : We need to comment on dimensionless quantity may have or may not
have unit.
Concept : This question is based on limitations of dimensionless analysis.
0 0 0
Solution : Unit of angle is radian but dimensions = [M L T ]
Final answer : 3

3)

Question Explanation: Relationship between numerical value (n) and unit size (u) of a
physical quantity.

Concept: Magnitude of a physical quantity Q = n × u = constant

Solution :
Q=n×u
∴n=Q/u
∴n∝1/u
As the unit size increases, the numerical value decreases, showing an inverse relationship.

Final Answer: Option (3)

4)

CONCEPTUAL

5) Question Explanation:
In this question, we have to determine the dimensional formula for energy.

Concept:
 Dimensional formula of physical quantities.

Solution:
Energy has the same dimensions as work.
Work = Force x Displacement
[W] = [MLT-2] × [L]
[W] = [ML2T-2] = [E]
[E] = [ML2T-2]

Final answer: Option (3)

6)

Explain the Question : We need to find the dimensional formula for

Concept : This question is based on dimensional analysis.
Solution :

= [LT–4]
Final answer : 3

7) CONCEPTUAL

8) [M1 L1 T–2]

9) Explain the Question : Asking about the correct matching between the column (A) and
column (B).
Concept : This question is based on types of units.
Solution :
Base unit → kg
Derive unit → N or (kgms–2)
Improper unit → kg-wt
Practical unit → hp
Supplementary unit → radian
Final Answer : 2

10)

Explain Question:
Find the angle between and .

Concept:
Anti-commutative property of cross product: =– .

Solution:
1 =
 2 = =–

Vectors V1 and V2 are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

Angle between opposite vectors = 180° =

Final Answer: Option (2)

11)

CONCEPTUAL

12)

Explain Question:
Find the unit vector along the vector

Concept:

Unit vector

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (3)

13) CONCEPTUAL

14)

⇒ θ = 180°

15)

16) ∵

⇒
 ⇒

17)
⇒ A2 – + – B2 = 0
⇒A=B
(∵ = )

18)

sinθ =
⇒ θ = 30°

19) Question Explanation : In this question, we are asked which value cannot be the
resultant of two forces 4 N and 6 N.

Concept: Resultant of two vectors (Addition of vectors).

Solution: For forces F1 and F2 :

Here:

So possible resultant range:

Hence, 1N is not possible

Final Answer: Option (3)

20)

Explanation Question:
According to question:-

We have to calculate resultant of F1 & F2.

Concept:
This question is based on Magnitude of vector sum of two vectors A & B is

Solution:
In the given diagram θ = 120°
(Angle b/w the rails of vectors)
|F1| = 25, |F2| = 25, θ = 120°

|R| =

|R| = 25 Newton.

Final Answer: Option (2)

21)

Question Explanation : If a particle moves from point P(2, 3, 5) to point Q(3, 4, 5), then
calculate its displacement vector.

Concept : This question is based on displacement vector .

Formula :

Solution :

Final answer : Option (3)

22) is perpendicular to . The dot product of perpendicular vectors is zero.

23) The resultant of three vectors lying in a plane may be zero if the magnitude of one vector,
say A.
(B – C) ≤ A ≤ (B + C)
B and C are magnitudes of two other vectors.

24) Projection of on =

= ⇒

25)

Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find the work done by a constant force F
that causes a displacement r.
Concept : Dot product of two vectors.

Formula :

Solution :
Work =
,

W = 10 – 3
W=7J

Final Answer : Option (2)

26)
10+ 14 + 3α = 0
α=–8

27) CONCEPTUAL

28) Question Explanation :

To find the angle between and .

Concept :
This question is based on dot product and vector product.

Solution :

⇒ . AB sin θ = AB cos θ

⇒ tan θ = ⇒ θ = 30°

Final Answer :
Option (1)

29) Correct Answer : (C)

30) Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the roots of the quadratic equation .

Concept: This question is based on Quadratic equation.

Formula :
Solution:
Here, a = 10, b = -27, and c = 5. Applying the quadratic formula:
Calculation :
Discriminant = = 529

x1 = . x2 =

Final Answer:
Option (3)

32) A = 3t2 + 7 cm2

at t = 5,

33)

Explain the Question : The equation represents a curve; identify its graph type.

Concept : This question is based on standard ellipse equation :

Solution : Given :

⇒
Here, a = 6, b = 2. This is the standard form of an ellipse centred at the origin with semi-major
axis 6 along x-axis and semi-minor axis 2 along y-axis.
Final answer : 4

34) Explain the question : In this question, we have to tell the range of the cosθ.
Concept : This question is based on value of trigonometric functions.
Solution : Value of cosθ lies in the range [–1, 1]
– ≤ cosθ ≤ 1
Final answer: 3

35) Question Explanation : The question asks for the value of . We need to
simplify the angle using properties of the cosine function and then find its value.

Concept : Value of Trigonometric Functions.

Solution:
Trigonometric Periodicity: Cosine is a periodic function with period 2π, meaning
for any integer n.

8π is a multiple of 2π,

so . can be written as →
Comparing with above form, we get

Final Answer : Option (2)

36) Sum =

a=1 r=

Sum =

37)

Sn =
n = 50

Sn =
Sn = 1275

38)

CONCEPTUAL

39)

CONCEPTUAL

40)

sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ

= 1– cos2γ + 1 – cos2γ + 1 – cos2γ
= 3 – (cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ)
=3–1=2

41)

unit vector =

42)

| |=n| |
 2a2 cos θ (1 + n2) = 2a2 (n2 - 1)

cos θ =

43)

Fnet = 0

44)

1N = 105 dynes

45) Question Explanation :

A vector is given and it is a unit vector, we need to find the value of 'c' that makes its
magnitude equal to1.

Concept :
A unit vector has magnitude 1.

Formula :

= 1 for unit vector.

Solution :

⇒ 0.09 + 0.16 + c2 = 1
⇒ c2 = 1 – 0.25 = 0.75 ⇒ c =

Final Answer :
Option (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) Page. 122 para (2)

47)

Total spectral lines

48)
Explaining Question:
We are asked to identify the correct expression that relates the de Broglie wavelength of an
electron to the applied accelerating voltage.
Concept:
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential V volts is given by:

Solution:
The general formula for de Broglie wavelength is:

When constants are substituted (Planck's constant h, mass of electron m, and charge e ), the
simplified form becomes:

So, de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the square root of applied voltage.

49)

I.R.

50) On increasing radius both P.E and T.E increases as P.E or T.E

51) 4d → 4 + 2 = 6
5f → 5 + 3 = 8
7s → 7 + 0 = 7
6p → 6 + 1 = 7
Energy order ⇒ 4d < 6p < 7s < 5f

52) 4 × 10-15m

53) Question Explanation : The question asks for the energy of an electron in the third
excited state of a Be+3 ion.

Concept :
The energy of an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen-like species is given by the formula:

Solution :
For Be+3, the atomic number (Z) is 4.
The third excited state corresponds to the principal quantum number n = 4.

Using the energy formula:

 E4 = – 13.6 ×

E4 = – 13.6 ×

E4 = – 13.6 ×
E4 = – 13.6 eV

Final Answer : option (1)

54)

Explanation the Question:

Identify the key postulates of Bohr’s model for hydrogen atom.

Concept:
This question is based on
Bohr’s model postulates:

1. Angular momentum is quantised:

2. Total energy of electron is quantised:

Solution:
Both energy and angular momentum are quantised in Bohr’s hydrogen atom model
​Final Answer: (3)

55) Question Explanation:The question asks what the Bohr model can explain. The Bohr
model is a simplified model of the atom that makes specific predictions about the energy
levels of electrons.
Concept: Bohar Model:
Analysis:

A. Bohr Model: A model of the atom that postulates that electrons orbit the nucleus in specific
energy levels. It successfully explains the spectral lines of hydrogen.
B. One-Electron Species: The Bohr model is based on calculations that work only for species
with a single electron. This includes hydrogen and hydrogen-like ions.
C. The Bohr model is derived using assumptions that are only valid for one-electron systems.
D. It fails to accurately describe the spectra of atoms with multiple electrons due to electron-
electron interactions.

Final Answer:
The Bohr model is specifically designed to explain the spectrum of atoms or ions containing
only one electron. This includes hydrogen and hydrogen-like ions (e.g., He⁺, Li²⁺).
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2) the spectrum of atom or ion containing one
electron only.
Question Level
Easy

56)
Explanation the Question:
Find the angular momentum of an electron in the 6th orbit according to Bohr's theory.
Concept:
This question is based on
Bohr's quantization rule:

where n = principal quantum number

Solution:
n=6

Final Answer: (2)

57)

Explain the Question : Find the energy with wavelength λ = 3000 Å.

Concept : This question is based on energy of photon.
E = hc/λ
Solution (Calculation) :
Convert wavelength to meters : λ = 3000 Å = 3000 × 10–10 m = 3 × 10–7 m
Planck's constant : h = 6.63 × 10–34 J-s
Speed of light : c = 3 × 108 m/s

Final Answer : 1

58)

Explain the Question : We are asked to find the number of photons emitted per second by a
100 W bulb emitting light of wavelength 400 Å.
Concept : This question is based on
Power of bulb, P = Energy emitted per second
Energy of one photon, E = h·c / λ
Number of photons/sec, n = P / E
Solution :
Given : P = 100 W, λ = 400Å = 4 × 10–8 m, h = 6.626 × 10–34 J·s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Energy of one photon:
E = (h·c)/λ = (6.626 × 10–34 × 3 × 108) / (4 × 10–8) = 4.97 × 10–18 J
Number of photons/sec:
n = P / E = 100 / (4.97 × 10–18) ≈ 2 × 1019
Final answer : 2

59)

Explanation the Question :

In Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment, a thin gold foil was bombarded with α-
 particles (He2+). Most α-particles passed straight through, a few deflected, and very few
rebounded.
Concept: This question is based on Rutherford’s Atomic Model
Solution:
An atom has a small, dense, positively charged nucleus at the center. The rest of the atom is
mostly empty space.
1. Option 1 is incorrect: The positive charge of α-particles does not explain why most pass
straight.
2. Option 2 is incorrect: High speed alone cannot ensure they pass through without deflection.
3. Option 3 is correct: Because most of the atom is empty space, α-particles travel straight
through.
4. Option 4 is incorrect: Rutherford actually discovered the nucleus.
Final Answer: 3

60)

Question Explanation: This question asks about the nature of anode rays (also called canal
rays).

Concept: Anode rays

Solution:
Anode rays are streams of positive ions produced in a discharge tube.

When high-speed electrons strike residual gas molecules, they ionize them.
These positive ions move towards the cathode, and some pass through perforations in the cathode,
forming anode rays.

Since anode rays consist of positive ions, they are deflected by electric and magnetic
fields.

The direction of deflection confirms that they carry positive charge.

Final Answer: Option (2)

61)

CONCEPTUAL

62)

Theory Based

63) Question Explanation:

We are to find the maximum number of electrons in a p-orbit with quantum numbers:
Given:
• n =6
•m=0
• orbit type : p -orbital
concept: Quantum number
Solution
• For p-orbitals the azimuthal quantum number l =1
• The magnetic quantum number m for p-orbitals can be –1, 0, +1
• Each orbital (specific m value) can hold maximum 2 electrons (with opposite spins)
• So, even though n = 6 indicates energy level the number of electrons in an orbital (not
subshell ) is still governed by the Pauli Exclusion Principle
Since only one orbital is specified (m =0) maximum number of electrons in that orbital =2
Final Answer: option (2)

64)

Nodal plane =
= 2 (for d)
Nodal plane (for d) = 2

65)

Question Explanation: Identify the sets of isobars.

Concept: Isobars and Atomic Structure

Solution: Isobars are atoms with the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z);
this is true for sets I (A=3) and II (A=40).

Final Answer: Option (4)

66) Question Explanation :

We need to find number of electrons with quantum number n = 4, s =

Concept :
This question is based on Quantum number.

Solution :
Number of orbitals = n2 = 42 = 16

There is only one electron in an orbital with s =

Only 16 electrons present with n = 4, ms =

Final Answer : (4)

67)

Question Explanation :
In this question principle quantum number (n) is given and number of orbitals and maximum
number of electrons is to be find.

Concept :
This question is based on Quantum number.

Solution :
Number of orbitals = n2 = 42 = 16
Number of electrons = 2n2 = 2 × 42 = 32

Final Answer : (2)

68) Question Explanation :

We need to find number of radial nodes are present in 4d-orbital.

Concept :
This question is based on Radial node.

Solution :
Number of Radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1
4d ⇒ n = 4, ℓ = 2
Radial node = n – ℓ – 1 = 4 – 2 – 1 = 1

Option (2)

69) Question Explanation :

In this question, we need to find orbital diagram that violate Pauli's principle exclusion.

Concept :
This question is based on Pauli's exclusion principle.

Solution :
According to Pauli's principle an orbital can hold a maximum of two electrons with opposite
spin.

Final Answer : (4)

70)

Question Explanation: We need to find which property is directly proportional to energy of

photon according to Planck's theory.

Concept: Plank's quantum theory.

Solution:
 E = hv
E ∝ v ; (h is constant)
∵ v is frequency

Final Answer: Option (3)

71)

Question explanation: Calculate the radius of the nucleus of an atom which contains 64
nucleons.
Concept: The nuclear radius is estimated by the formula: R = R0 × A1/3

where R0 = 1.33 × 10–13 cm and A is the mass number (number of nucleons).

Solution:
Given A = 64 the cube root is: 641/3 = 4
Thus, R = 1.33 × 10–13 × 4 = 5.32 × 10–13 cm
Final answer: Option (4)

72) Question Explanation : The question asks for the ratio of the radius of the second orbit
(r2) to the third orbit (r3) for a Helium ion (He+).
Given Data

A. Ion: He+
B. Orbits: n2 = 2 and n3 = 3

Concept The radius of an orbit in a single-electron species is proportional to the square of the
principal quantum number (rn ∝ n2).
Solution :
The ratio is found by dividing the squares of the orbit numbers:

The ratio of the radii r2 : r3 for He+ is 4 : 9.

Final Answer : option (2)

73)

Question Explanation :
Value of Planck's constant is to be found.

Concept :
This question is based on Planck's constant.

Solution :
Planck's constant is a fundamental constant.
Planck's constant (h) = 6.626 × 10–34 J.s.
Final Answer : (3)

74)

Visible → Balmer series

Infra red → Paschen, brackett, Pfund, Humphery
U.V. light → Lyman series.
Atom can not emit γ-rays.

75)

Mg+2 → 10e¯
Al+3 → 10e¯
Same number of electrons.

76)

In transition, away from, lowest frequency radiation will be emitted.

0
77) 28Ni+2 ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d8

Number of unpaired e¯ s = 2
Magnetic moment ⇒
= 2.84 BM.

78)

V1 : V2 : V3

2.188 ×106 × : 2.188 ×106 × : 2.188 ×106 ×

1 : :

79)

Question Explanation: Calculate new atomic mass of Nitrogen-14 after changing proton and
electron masses.
Concept : Atomic mass ≈ sum of proton, neutron, and electron masses; electron mass
negligible.
Solution:
% change = Reduces.
Final Answer : option (3)

80)

Explain Question:
Question is asked which particle has the largest de Broglie wavelength when all have the same
velocity.
Concept:
This question is based on de Broglie wavelength: λ = h/mv
Solution:
At same v, λ∝1/m​ ⇒ smaller mass ⇒ larger wavelength.
Mass order: Electron ≪ Proton ≪ NH₃ < CO₂
Smallest mass ⇒ Electron ⇒ largest λ.
Final Answer: (3)

81)

Question Explanation: We need to find the number of de Broglie wavelengths (or waves) in
the third orbit of hydrogen.

Concept: In Bohr’s model, the number of waves in nth orbit = n.

Solution:
For third orbit, n = 3
Number of waves = 3

Final Answer: Option 1

82)

Theoritical.

83) For the transition n = 1 to n = 2, the energy change, ΔE is positive, i.e., energy is
absorbed. For the transition n = 5 to n = 1, ΔE is negative, i,e., energy is released.

84)

Question explanation:
Identify the correct relation(s) as per Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle among the given
options.
Concept:

This question is based on Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to

measure simultaneously and precisely both quantities of certain pairs like position-momentum
or energy-time.

Solution:

Option 1: - This is the standard form of the uncertainty principle for position
and momentum.

Option 2: - This is the uncertainty relation for energy and time.

Option 3: - Since Δp = m. Δv, dividing the first expression by m gives this

correct form.

All three are mathematically correct and consistent with Heisenberg's principle.

Final answer: Option 4: All of the above

85)

Motor car and stationary Particles (2 and 3 both)

As we know it is not valid for macroscopic particles & stationary particles.

86) Isotopes → same atomic number but different mass number.

87)

Fact

88)

Let percentage of first isotope be x then average

at. wt
10 x + 1100 – 11 x = 1080
x = 20
Isotope 1 = 20%, 2= 80%

89) Cathode rays composed of negatively charged particle named as electron.

90) 13Al27
N=A–Z
= 27 – 13
 = 14

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation: The question asks to analyze the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) about
dense connective tissue.

Concept: Dense connective tissue

Solution:

A. Assertion (A): Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in dense connective tissue →
True.

B. Reason (R): In dense regular connective tissue, collagen fibres are arranged in rows →
True, but this only applies to dense regular connective tissue, not all dense connective
tissue (dense irregular tissue has fibres in irregular arrangement).

C. Therefore, R is true, but it is not the correct explanation for A, because A refers to dense
connective tissue in general, not only regular type.

Final answer: Option 2

92) NCERT Pg # 102 (E & H)

93)

Question Explanation – The question asks to correctly match different tissues given in
Column-I with their characteristic features or locations listed in Column-II.

Concept – Animal tissues

Solution –
Adipose tissue is characterized by abundant fat cells, so a → (ii).
Cuboidal epithelium lines the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of nephron, so b → (iii).
Cartilage forms tracheal rings, so c → (iv).
Blood has a fibreless matrix called plasma, so d → (i).

Final Answer – Option 2

94) Module-5, Pg. # 88, NCERT Pg. # 102

95)
Question explanation: Compound epithelium protects and lines moist cavities and ducts.

Concept: Compound Epithelium

Solution:

A. Statement-I: Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion & absorption. This is
correct because its multilayered structure is designed for protection against mechanical
and chemical stress, not for the functions of absorption and secretion.

B. Statement-II: They are found in the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining
of ducts of salivary glands. This is also correct. These are locations where the compound
epithelium's main role is protection from friction and chemical stress, as stated in the
first statement.

Final answer: option 1 Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

96) NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 104

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

98) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 102, 103

99)

NCERT Page No. 104

100)

NCERT Pg. # 102

101) Module#2 Pg.#89

102) Module#2 Pg.#82

103)

The correct answer is 2. Simple cuboidal.

Here's why:Germinal epithelium is the layer of cells that covers the ovary. It's composed of
simple cuboidal epithelium.
104)

Question Explanation: Cartilage can be found in ?

Concept : This question is based on Types of Cartilage.

Solution : In between the vertebrae white fibrous Cartilage is found.

Final Answer : option (2) In between vertebrae

105) NCERT XIth Pg.#104, figure-7.6(b)

106) NCERT XIth Pg.#103, IInd Para

107)

Question Explanation: Identify tissue for support, protection, and insulation.

Concept: Connective tissue functions.

Solution: Connective tissue provides structural support and connects different parts of the
body. It includes specialized types like bone for support and protection, and adipose tissue for
insulation.

Final Answer: Connective tissue

108)

Question Explanation: Secretory duct of salivary gland is lined by-

Concept: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Solution: Secretory duct of salivary gland is lined by Stratified cuboidal epithelium

Final answer: Stratified cuboidal epithelium

109) Question Explanation :

The question is asking which type of epithelial tissue contains pillar-like cells.

Concept :
This question is based on type of epithelium.

Solution :
Columnar epithelium and pseudostratified epithelium both are made of tall, pillar-like cells.
Final Answer :
Option (4)

110)

Question explanation
The question is asking about the protein composition of yellow fibres, white fibres, and
reticular fibres in connective tissue, in that respective order.

Concept
Connective tissue fibres

Solution
Yellow fibres are elastic fibres made up of elastin.
White fibres are collagen fibres made up of collagen.
Reticular fibres are made up of reticulin protein.

Final answer: Option 4

111)

Question explanation
The question is asking about which statement does not correctly describe epithelial tissue.

Concept
introduction: Epithelial Tissue

Solution
Epithelial tissue develops from all three germ layers, not only ectoderm, so the given
statement is wrong.

Final answer
Option 1

112)

NCERT XI, Pg. 104

113)

Module-5, Pg. # 109

114) NCERT pg no. 111

115)

Old NCERT-XI, Page # 115

116)

Question Explanation – The question asks to identify the labelled parts (A to D) in the
alimentary canal of cockroach from the given options.

Concept – Anatomy of cockroach digestive system

Solution –

A is Crop (stores food)

B is Gizzard (grinds food)
C is Hepatic Caeca (secretes digestive enzymes)
D is Malpighian tubules (excretory structures)

So the correct matching is:

A – Crop, B – Gizzard, C – Hepatic Caeca, D – Malpighian tubules

Final Answer – Option 2

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 111, 112 (E)

118) NCERT – ENG – Pg. # 112 & 113

119)

Explain the Question : The question checks whether the structure and thoracic origin of the
forewings and hind wings in cockroach are correctly stated.
Concept : This question is based on thoracic appendages in cockroach.
Solution : In cockroach, the forewings (tegmina) are opaque and leathery, but they arise from
the mesothorax, not the prothorax. Hence, Statement-I is incorrect.
The hind wings are transparent and membranous and arise from the metathorax, so
Statement-II is correct.
Final answer : 2

120)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 114

121) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

122) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 112

123) NCERT-XI, Pg#114

124)

Question Explanation: Head position of a cockroach.

 Concept: Hypognathous head.
Solution:The cockroach head is bent downwards at a right angle to the body axis. This
position, where the mouthparts are directed downwards, is known as hypognathous.
Final Answer:Hypognathous

125) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 112, IInd Para

126)

NCERT Page#112

127) NCERT, Pg. # 114

128) NCERT-XI Pg. # 55

129) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

130)

Question explanation

The question is asking about cockroach anatomy and physiology and requires identifying the
statement that is incorrect among the given options.

Concept
Cockroach morphology and physiology

Solution
Titillator is not a part of antennae; it is a male genital structure, so this statement is incorrect.

Final answer
Option 2

131) NCERT Pg. # 115

132)

Question explanation : Identify the correct flow of blood in cockroach’s open circulatory
system.
Concept : Cockroach – circulatory system (open type)
Solution :

A. Blood in cockroach flows as: Sinuses → Ostia → Heart (from body cavity into heart through
ostia)

Final answer : Option 4

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 114

134) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

135) NCERT page.-114, 115

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141) NCERT Page no.138 (Paragraph 3)

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