31-05-2026

4502CMD303031250069 MD

PHYSICS

1) A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1 from the deck of a ship moving with a speed
v2. A person on the shore observes the motion of the shell as a parabola. Its horizontal range is given
by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following statements is correct for stationary waves ?

(1) Nodes and antinodes are formed in case of stationary trasverse wave only
In case of longitudinal stationary wave, compressions and rarefactions are obtained in palce of
(2)
nodes and antinodes respectively
Suppose two plane waves, one longitudinal and the other transverse having same frequency and
(3) amplitude are travelling in a medium in opposite directions with the same speed, by
superposition of these waves, stationary waves cannot be obtained
(4) None of the above

3) A loop of flexible conducting wire of length ℓ lies in magnetic field B which is normal to the plane
of loop. A current I is passed through the loop. The tension developed in the wire to open up is :-

(1)
BIℓ

(2)

(3)

(4) BIℓ

4) A steel wire of uniform cross-sectional area 2mm2 is heated upto 50°C and clamped rigidly at two
ends. If the temperature of wire falls to 30° then change in tension in the wire will be, if cofficient of
linear expansion of steel is 1.1 × 10–5/°C and Young's modulus of elasticity of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2 :-

(1) 44N
(2) 88N
(3) 132N
(4) 22N

5) For a particle executing S.H.M.

Select the correct graph.

(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Both (a) & (b)
(4) All (a), (b) & (c)

6) The position vector of a particle is meter and its angular velocity rad s–1
then linear velocity : (in ms–1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) An angular impulse of 20 Nms is applied to a hollow cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 20 cm. The
change in its angular speed is :

(1) 25 rad/s
(2) 2.5 rad/s
(3) 250 rad/s
(4) 2500 rad/s

8)

Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the ratio of

densities of earth and moon is then radius of moon in terms of will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) Statement-1 : A ray of light is incident at the galss-water interface at an angle i. It emerges

finally parallel to the surface of water as shown in figure. Then

Statement-2 : The refracted ray follows a path in accordance with Snell's law of refraction.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Staternent-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Staternent-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

10) Statement-I: The velocity of sound in the air increases due to presence of moisture in it.
Statement-II: The presence of moisture in air lowers the density of air.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

11) A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through
its centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular velocity ω
about the same axis. The final angular velocity of the combination of discs is :–

(1) ω

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The ratio of the intensity at the centre of a bright fringe to the intensity at a point one-quarter of
the distance between two bright fringe, from the centre is

(1) 16
(2) 1/2
(3) 4
(4) 2

13) A small spherical solid ball is dropped in a viscous liquid. Its journey in the liquid is best

described in the figure drawn by :-

(1) curve A
(2) curve B
(3) curve C
(4) curve D

14) Two closed containers of equal volume filled with air at pressure P0 and temperature T0. Both are
connected by a narrow tube. If one of the container is maintained at temperature T0 and other at
temperature T, then new pressure in the conainers will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The n rows each containing m cells in series are joined in parallel. Maximum current is taken
from this combination across an external resistance of 3Ω resistance. If the total number of cells
used are 24 and internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 then

(1) m = 8, n = 3
(2) m = 6, n = 4
(3) m = 12, n = 2
(4) m = 2, n = 12

16) A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron from a metal surface whose work function is W0. If
this electron enters into a uniform magnetic field of induction B in a direction perpendicular to the
field and describes a circular path of radius r, then the radius r, is given by, (in the usual notation):-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) When a monochromatic source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photocell, the stopping
potential (cut off voltage) and the saturation current are found to be respectively 1V and 27mA. If
the same source is placed at a distance 0.6 m from the cell, then

(1) the Stopping potential will be 0.25V and current will be 27 mA

(2) the stopping potential will be 1V and the current will be 3 mA
(3) the Stopping potential will be 1V and the current will be 9 mA
(4) the Stopping potential and the current will be same as before

18) In given figure charge given to outer sphere is Q. Inner conducting sphere is grounded. What

will be charge on inner conducting shell.

(1)

(2) Q

(3)

(4)

19) A block of mass 10 kg lying on a smooth surface is struck by a water jet releasing water at 5 kg/s
at a speed of 10 m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will be

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 7.5 m/s2
(4) 10 m/s2

20) A uniform disc of radius R and mass M can rotate without friction on an axle passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its plane face. A cord is wound over the rim of the disc and a uniform
force F is applied on the cord as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the tangential acceleration of a

point on the rim of the disc is proportional to :-

0
(1) R
(2) R1
(3) R–1
(4) R–2

21) A monoatomic gas undergoes a process given by 2dU + 3dW = 0, then the process is:

(1) isobaric
(2) adiabatic
(3) isothermal
(4) polytropic

22) A disc of mass 20 kg is hanged using two strings of length 10 m and 7 m as shown in the figure.

The radius of the disc is 5m. Find tension in the string of length 7 m :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making angle θ with the horizontal.
Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) m u2 sin θ cos θ

(3)

(4)

24) A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflection surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) Zener diode is used in reverse bias

(2) LED is used in forward bias.
(3) Photodiode is used in reverse bias
(4) Solar cell is used in forward bias.

26) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Thermal resistance (p) [MT–3K–4]

(B) Stefan's constant (q) [M–1L–2T3K]

(C) Wien's constant (r) [ML2T–3]

(D) Heat current (s) [LK]

(1) A–p; B–q; C–r; D–s
(2) A–q; B–p; C–s; D–r
(3) A–p; B–q; C–s; D–r
(4) A–q; B–p; C–r; D–s

27) A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q–q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when

they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of should be :-

(1) 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 4
(4) 1/4

28) Two small balls having equal positive charge Q (Coulomb) on each are suspended by two
insulating strings of equal length 'L' metre, from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole set up is taken in
a satellite in to space where there is no gravity (state of weight lessness) Then the angle (θ) between
the two strings is

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 0º < θ < 180º

29) A potential difference of 10 V is applied across a conductor of 1000Ω. The number of electrons
flowing through the conductor in 300 s is
(1) 1.875 × 1016
(2) 1.875 × 1017
(3) 1.875 × 1022
(4) 1.875 × 1019

30) In a reverse biased diode, when the applied voltage changes by 1V, the current is found to
change by . The reverse bias resistance of the diode is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) The energy of a photon is E = hv and the momentum of photon is , then the velocity of
photon will be

(1)

(2) EP

(3)

(4)

32) ACB is right-angled prism with other angles as 60° and 30°. Refractive index of the prism is 3/2
AB has thin layer of liquid on it as shown. Light falls normally on the face AC. For total internal

reflecctions, maximum refractive index of the liquid is :-

(1) 1.8
(2) 1.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 1.6

33) When a lens of power P (in air) made of material of refractive index μ is immersed in liquid of
refractive index μ0. Then the power of lens is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

34) A thin wire of length l and mass m is bent in the form a semicircle as shown. Its moment of

inertia about an axis joining its free ends will be :

(1) mℓ2
(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

35) A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field

directed into the paper AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then :-

2
(1) VA – VC = – 4Bωℓ

(2)
2
(3) VA – VC = 4Bωℓ

(4)

36) A body of mass m starting from rest from origin moves along x-axis with constant power (P).
Then relation between velocity and time is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 250 turns in the secondary. The peak
value of the ac is 28 V. The r.m.s. secondary voltage is nearest to :-
(1) 50 V
(2) 70 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 40 V

38)

A wire of density 9 gm cm–3 is stretched between two clamps 100 cm apart which is subjected to an
extension of 0.05 cm. What is the lowest frequency of transverse vibration in the wire ?

(y = 9 × 1010 Nm–2) ⇒ y = young's modules

(1) 60 Hz
(2) 55.3 Hz
(3) 35.4 Hz
(4) 45.3 Hz

39) A soap bubble has radius R and thickness d(<<R) as shown. It colapses into a spherical drop.
The ratio of excess pressure in the drop to the excess pressure inside the bubble is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40)

A particle with charge + Q and mass m enters in a magnetic field of magnitude B as shown. Time

spend by particle in field will be (where T = )

(1) Tθ
(2) 2Tθ
(3)

(4)

41)

A ball of density ρ is released from deep inside of a non viscous liquid of density 2 ρ. It will move up :

(1) with an increasing acceleration

(2) with a constant acceleration
(3) with a decreasing acceleration
(4) with zero acceleration

42) AB and CD are long straight conductors, distance d apart, carrying a current I. The magnetic

field at the midpoint of BC is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Figture shows the cross-sectional view of the hollow cylindrical conductor with innear radius 'R'
and outer radius "2R". Cylinder is carrying uniformly distributed current i along it's axis. The

magnetic induction at point 'P' at a distance from the axis of the cylinder will be :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) What will be the force constant of the spring system shown in the figure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A body starts from the origin with an acceleration of 6 m/s2 along the x-axis and 8 m/s2 along the
y-axis. Its distance from the origin after 4 seconds will be

(1) 56 m
(2) 64 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 128 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion : In an atom, the velocity of electron in the higher orbits keeps on decreasing.
Reason : Velocity of electron is inversely proportional to radius of the orbit.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are false.

2) Match the following column:-

Column-I Column-II

(a) mvr = nh/2π (p) paschen series

(b) Infrared region (q) total energy of e–

(c) λ = h/p (r) de-Broglie equation

(d) (s) Schrodinger equation

(e) (t) Bohr's equation

(1) (a) – t, (b) – q, (c) – r, (d) – p, (e) – s
(2) (a) – t, (b) – p, (c) – r, (d) – q, (e) – s
(3) (a) – r, (b) – q, (c) – t, (d) – s, (e) – p
(4) (a) – s, (b) – p, (c) – q, (d) – r, (e) – t

3) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at (RH =
Rydberg constant)
Statement II : When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity vs
wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

4)

An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives 38.71% of
C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

5) If K1 is the equilibrium constant at temperature T1 and K2 is the equilibrium constant at

temperature T2, and if T2 > T1 and reaction is endothermic then :-

(1) K2 < K1
(2) K2 = K1
(3) K2 > K1
(4) All of these

6) What is the pH of a solution in which 25.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 25 mL of 0.08 M HCl
and final solution is diluted to 500 mL :-

(1) 3
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13

7) Which of the following aqueous solution has pH greater than 7 :-

(1) CuSO4
(2) FeCl3
(3) NaCl
(4) CH3COONa

8) What is the molarity of F– ions in a saturated solution of BaF2? (Ksp = 1.0 × 10–6)

(1) 1.0 × 10–2

(2) 1.0 × 10–3
(3) 1.26 × 10–2
(4) 6.3 × 10–3

9)

(i)

(ii)
Calculate the heat of formation of SO2.

(1) – (2x + y)
(2) – (2x – y)
(3) x + y
(4) 2x / y

10) Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in

the figure. AB → Isothermal expansion

AC → Adiabatic expansion
Which of the following options is not correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11)

Match the following :-

(1) a–S, b–R, c–Q, d–P
(2) a–P, b–R, c–Q, d–S
(3) a–Q, b–R, c–S, d–P
(4) a–R, b–P, c–S, d–Q

12) Match the given compounds in column I with their structure in column Il and assign the correct
code.

Column I Column II

A ClF3 I Trigonal pyramidal

B XeOF4 II Square planar

C SF4 III Bent T-shape

D PCl3 IV See-saw

V Square pyramidal
(1) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-V, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I

13) Which is correct ?

2–
(1) (Bond order) CO > CO3
(2) (Bond angle) NH3 < NF3
(3) (Bond energy) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
(4) (Bond length) C–C < N–N < O–O < F–F

14)
Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole moment of is ?

(1) 1.5 D
(2) 1 D
(3) 2.35 D
(4) 3 D

15) Nitrogen cannot be obtained by heating :

(1) Ba(N3)2
(2) Pb(NO3)2
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7(s)
(4) NH4NO2(s)

16) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) F2 has higher bond dissociation Energy than Cl2

(2) F has higher electron affinity then Cl
(3) HF is stronger acid than HCl
(4) Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

17) Which of the following order is correct with respect to the given property ?

(1) SiF4 > SiCl4 : b.p. order.

(2) MgCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 : Kp order when kept at fixed temperature in a closed container.
(3) XeF2 > XeF4 : dipole moment order.
(4) XeF2 > XeF4 : fluoride accepting tendency order.

18) Select the correct order of IP :-

(1) Ne+ < Ne

(2) Al3+ > Al+ > Al2+
(3) K+ > Cl–
(4) Cu+ > Cu2+

19) A solid compound 'X' on heating gives CO2 gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water
forms 'Y'. On passing an excess of CO2 through 'Y' in water, a clear solution, 'Z', is obtained. On
boiling 'Z', compound 'X' is reformed. The compound 'X' is :-

(1) CaCO3
(2) Na2CO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) Ca(HCO3)2

20) Which is correct :-

Process Result

(1) Colour is intensified

(2) CuSO4 is react with KCN is formed

(3) KMnO4 reacts with HF MnF6 is formed

KMnO4 (purple) and MnO2

(4) K2MnO4 reacts with CO2
(brown) is formed
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) The correct IUPAC name for the compound [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] is

(1) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(2) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(3) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(I)
(4) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I)

22) Incorrect order of stability of complex compound is :-

+2
(1) [Fe(dmg)2] > [Fe(en)2]
+2 +2
(2) [Cu(trien)] > [Cu(en)2]
–3
(3) [CoF3(H2O)3] > [CoF6]
–3
(4) [Co(OX)3] > [Co(acac)3]

23) The complex [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] can exhibit.

(a) linkage isomerism (b) Coordination isomerism
(c) Ionisation isomerism (d) Optical isomerism
The correct answer is :-

(1) Only 'a' 'b' and 'c'

(2) Only 'a'
(3) Only 'a' and 'd'
(4) Only 'b'

24)

Given : Freezing point of 0.1 M sucrose solution = 272 K and [Link]. of water = 273 K :-
Which of the following option show correct matches ?
 Column-I Column-II (Their
(various solutions) freezing point )

a 0.1M BaCl2 solution p 271 K

b 0.1M NaCl solution q 270 K

0.1M K3 [Fe(CN)6]
c r 268 K
solution

0.1M Al2(SO4)3
d s 269 K
solution
(1) (a–r), (b–p), (c–s), (d–q)
(2) (a–q), (b–p), (c–s), (d–r)
(3) (a–q), (b–s), (c–p), (d–r)
(4) (a–s), (b–q), (c–r), (d–q)

25) For a reaction between A and B the order with respect to A is 1 and the order with respect to B
is 2. If the concentration of both A and B are doubled, the rate constant will increase by a factor of :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) None

26) Following diagram is given for the reaction A + B → C + D. The enthalpy change and activation

energy for the reverse reaction C + D → A + B are respectively

(1) x, y
(2) x, x + y
(3) y, x + y
(4) y, y + z

27)

Determine the value of for the following reaction

Cu2+ + Sn2+ Cu + Sn+4
if equilibrium constant is 106.

(1) 0.1773 V
(2) 0.01773 V
(3) 0.2153 V
(4) 1.773 V
28) The standard reduction potential for Cu+2/Cu is + 0.34V. What will be the reduction potential at
pH = 14 for the above couple, Ksp of Cu(OH)2 is 1.0 × 10–19.

(1) – 3.2013
(2) – 0.2205
(3) – 0.913
(4) – 1.23

29) Which of the following structures represents α - D-glucopyranose :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which have minimum pKb value :-

(1) p–Cl–C6H4NH2
(2) o–NO2C6H4NH2
(3) CH3–CH2–NH–Ph
(4) p–CH3–C6H4CH2–NH2

31) Which is correct statement following structures

(1) b, d and e are antiaromatic
(2) a and d are non-aromatic
(3) a, c and f are aromatic
(4) a, b, c and f are aromatic

32) Which of the following pairs does not represent resonance structures :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Possible product (monochlorination) (only structural isomers)

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 5
(4) 8

34) Which of the following statement is false for the given reaction ? CH3CH2COONa

CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3+ CO2+ NaOH+H2

(1) Reaction is known as kolbe’s electrolysis

(2) is formed during the reaction
(3) CO2 gas is liberated at anode
(4) pH level of solution decreases in the reaction

35) Major product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods except

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

37)

Consider the following sequence of reaction.

The final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2) C6H5CH2CH2OCH3

(3)

(4)

38) Salicylic acid can be easily prepared by reaction between :-

(1) Phenol and CO2/NaOH followed by acidification

(2) Benzoic acid and H2O2
(3) Benzene diazonium chloride and CO2
(4) Phenol and formic acid

39)
Compound 'B' is :

(1) Methyl salicylate

(2) Phenyl salicylate
(3) Acetyl salicylic acid
(4) Salicyldehyde

40) In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved
from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :

(1) 37.33
(2) 45.33
(3) 35.33
(4) 43.33

41) In the following reaction, X is

(1) Aniline
(2) Salicylic acid
(3) Phenol
(4) Benzoic acid

42) CH3COOH
Identify D in above reaction sequence.

(1) CH3CH2NC
(2) CH3– NC
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3CN

43) Which reaction show correct product

(A)

(B) No Reaction

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

44) Final product of A, B, C, D respectively :-

(i)

(ii)

(iii) .
(iv) CH3–COOH
(1) ,CH3–CH2–NC, ,

(2)
CH3–CH2–NC,CH3–CONH2

(3)
,CH3–CH2–NC, ,CH3–CONH2

(4)
, CH3–CH2–NC, ,CH3–CONH2

45) Which of the following compound will form 2°-alcohol when treated with Grignard reagent
followed by hydrolysis–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Binomial nomenclature means

(1) Each name has one component - the generic name

(2) Each name has two components - the Generic name and the specific epithet
(3) Each name has one component - the specific epithet
(4) Each name has two components - the generic name and the local name

2) Which one of the following is not the basis of five kingdom classification?

(1) Cell structure

(2) Body organisation
(3) Reproduction
(4) Reserve food material

3) Which one of the following matches is correct?

(1) Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Deuteromycetes

 (2) Mucor Reproduction by Conjugation Ascomycetes

(3) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes

(4) Albugo Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Pyrenoids :-

(1) Are located in the chloroplasts of most of the members of chlorophyceae

(2) Contain protein besides starch
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Are lipid bodies

5) The first stage of gametophyte in mosses is the protonema which :-

(1) Develops directly from a spore.

(2) Is creeping green branched and frequently non filamentous stage.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Is brown and non-photosynthetic

6) Root hairs arises from which region :

(1) Root cap

(2) Region of maturation
(3) Region of meristematic activity
(4) Region of elongation

7) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called:-

(1) Plumule
(2) Pulvinus
(3) Bulb
(4) Tuber

8) Given Floral diagram represents.

(1) Fabaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae

9) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) In dicotyledonous leaves, the vascular bundles are covered with bundle sheath.
(b) In monocotyledonous stems, the central vascular bundles are usually smaller than the peripheral
vascular bundles.
(c) In grasses, some abaxial superficial cells are transformed into bulliform cells along the veins.
(d) In dicotyledonous roots, the conjuctive tissue is made up of parenchyma.
(e) Multicellular hairs are present in dicotyledonous stems.

(1) Only b & c

(2) Only a
(3) Only a & c
(4) Only c & d

10) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty,
colourless cells. These cells are called :-

(1) Bulliform cells

(2) Starch sheath
(3) Hard bast
(4) All are possible

11) The size of pleuropneumonia like organism (PPLO) is:

(1) 0.02 μm
(2) 1-2 μm
(3) 10-20 μm
(4) 0.1 μm

12) Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanonacteria are:

(1) Heterocysts
(2) Basal bodies
(3) Pneumatophores
(4) Chromatophores

13) Statement-I: Membrane of lysosome is known as tonoplast.

Statement-II: Contractile vacuole helps in osmoregulation and excretion.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect

14) "Omnis cellula-e-cellula" given by :-

(1) Robert Hooke
(2) Singer
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Leeuwenhoek

15) What will be the amount of DNA in a male gamete in pollen grain if its mother cell has 80 pg
DNA in G2 phase?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 80 pg

16) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

Centromeres split and

p. Telophase t.
chromatids separate

Decondensation of
q. Prophase u.
chromosomes

Complete
r. Metaphase v. disintegration of
nuclear membrane

Condensation of
s. Anaphase w.
chromosome material
(1) p-u, q-w, r-v, s-t
(2) p-w, q-u, r-t, s-v
(3) p-t, q-u, r-v, s-w
(4) p-w, q-v, r-u, s-t

17) What is correct about C4 plant ?

p. They have special type of leaf anatomy
q. They tolerate high temperature
r. They lack a process called photorespiration
s. Have lesser productivity
t. Show no response to highlight intensities

(1) pst
(2) qrst
(3) prst
(4) pqr

18) Which of the following acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and
IV ?
(1) Cytochrome a
(2) Cytochrome b
(3) Cytochrome c
(4) Cytochrome a and c1

19) Select the incorrect statement for the Ethephon.

(1) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples

(2) It is a source of ethylene
(3) It promotes male flowers in cucumber thereby increases yield
(4) It accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits

20) Assertion : As each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad.
Reason : Each one is a potential pollen or microspore mother cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Match the column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

Mass of cells within ovule with

(A) Funicle (I)
more food

(B) Hilum (II) Basal part of ovule

One or two protective layers of

(C) Integument (III)
ovule

Region where body of ovule fuses

(D) Chalaza (IV)
with the funicle

(E) Nucellus (V) Stalk of ovule

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, E-V
(4) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-IV

22) Nucellar polyembryony is found in

(1) Citrus
(2) Capsella
(3) Tomato
(4) Brinjal

23) Inheritance of starch grain size shows :

(1) Dominant recessive relationship
(2) Co-Dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Multiple allelism

24) Given below is the pedigree of an autosomal dominant disorder Myotonic dystrophy :

In this pedigree the genotype of all affected children will be :-

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

25) Assertion (A) :- Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from Griffith's
transformation experiment.
Reason (R) :- The method of DNA replication is semi-conservative.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

26)

The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires set of proteins that are collectively referred to
as :-

(1) Histones
(2) Polyamines
(3) Non-Histone Chromosomal protein
(4) Globins

27) In lac operon of [Link], an operator gene combines with

(1) Inducer gene to switch on the transcription of structural gene

(2) Regulator gene to switch on the transcription of structural gene
(3) Repressor protein to switch off the transcription of structural gene
(4) Repressor protein to switch on the transcription of structural gene

28) What would be the correct base sequence in mRNA for the given DNA strand ?
5'-AATGCCTTAAGC-3'

(1) 5'-AAUGCCUUAAGC-3'
(2) 5'-UUACGGAATTCG-3
(3) 3'-UUACGGAAUUCG-5'
(4) 3'-AAUGCCUUAUCG-5'

29) The heavy DNA of [Link] replicates in N14 medium. After how much time we got equal amount of
hybrid DNA and light DNA :-

(1) 20 minutes
(2) 40 minutes
(3) 60 minutes
(4) 80 minutes

30) The number of individuals in each trophic level depends upon :-

(1) The number of individuals at the higher trophic level

(2) The number of individuals at the lower trophic level
(3) The number of food chains present
(4) The amount of sunlight available

31) Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our
country?

(1) Sunderbans and Rann of kutch

(2) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(3) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(4) Kerala and Punjab

32) World summit on sustainable development (2002) was held in :-

(1) Argentina
(2) South Africa
(3) Brazil
(4) Sweden

33) In which of the following both pairs have correct combination :-

In situ conservation – Seed Bank

(1)
Ex-situ conservation – National park
In-situ conservation – Cryopreservation
(2)
Ex-situ conservation – Wild life sanctuary
In-situ conservation – Biodiversity hot spot
(3)
Ex-situ conservation – Wild life safari park
In-situ conservation – Tissue culture
(4)
Ex-situ conservation – Sacred groves

34) Assertion:- Plasmids are single-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.

Reason:- Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic cells.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both assertion and reason are true that the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

35) Select the incorrect statement

(1) Fruit formed without fertilisation of ovary is called parthenocarpic fruit.

In mango and coconut, the fruit develop from multicarpellary inferior ovary and are called
(2)
drupe fruit.
(3) Hilum is a scar on the seed coat.
(4) Micropyle is a small pore above the hilum.

36) Statement I: During G0 phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S-phase of interphase.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

37) Study the given graph showing the effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis. Which
of the following statements regarding this is correct?

(1) Light is a limiting factor in the region A

 Region C represents that rate of photosynthesis is not increased further by increasing light
(2)
intensity
(3) Point D represents saturation point
(4) All of these

38) In alcoholic fermentation,yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol.

(1) Remains less than 7 percent

(2) Reaches about 10 percent
(3) Reaches about 13 percent
(4) Remains between 7 to 12 percent

39) Swelling of piece of wood when placed in water is:-

(1) Growth but not development

(2) No growth and development
(3) Development but not growth
(4) Both growth and development

40) Which of the given statement are related to outbreeding devices.

(a) Discourage self pollination.
(b) Prevent loss in genetic variation.
(c) Different placement of anther and stigma

(1) a & b only

(2) a & c only
(3) b & c only
(4) All a, b & c

41) Which of the following is true about linkage :-

I. It is phenomenon in which more recombinants are produced in F2-generation.
II. More parental combination are produced in F2-generation
III. Genotype which are present in parent reappear in low frequency in F2-generation.
IV. It is a phenomenon in which two chromosome are linked.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) I and III
(4) III and IV

42) In a snapdragon a cross with pink and white flowered plants in the ratio 1 : 1. The cross was
made between ____ and ____ flowered plants :-

(1) Pink, Pink

(2) Red, White
(3) Pink, White
(4) Red, Pink

43)

Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?

[NCERT : (E) 92] A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also
expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
(1) A and B only
(2) C and D only
(3) B and E only
(4) A and E only

44) In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes:

(1) rRNA - 28S, 18S and 5.8S

(2) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
(3) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
(4) tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs

45) Which of the following is a correct match ?

Column-I Column-II

(i) Carrying capacity A

(ii) Deceleration B

(iii) Asymptote C

(iv) Acceleration D
(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-C, (iv)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-A
(3) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-D, (iv)-A

46) Transgenic tobacco which is developed through RNA interference, prevent the infestation of :-

(1) A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia

(2) A bacterium – Pseudomonas putida
(3) A fungi – Trichoderma
(4) An insect – Aphid

47) What is correct about given chemical structure?

(1) It is the structure of Tyrosine AA

(2) It is the structure of Serine AA
(3) It is the structure of Glutamic Acid
(4) It is the structure of Cysteine AA

48) In which of the following conditions, contact inhibition get disturbed ?

(1) AIDS related complexes

(2) HIV infection
(3) Malignant tumor
(4) Severe combined immuno deficiency

49) In a polysaccharide chain the right end is ____ and left end is called ____ respectively:-

(1) Reducing non reducing

(2) Non reducing reducing
(3) N-terminal C-terminal
(4) C-terminal N-terminal

50) The excretory organ of hemichordates:

(1) Flame cells

(2) Solenocytes
(3) Kidneys
(4) Proboscis gland

51) Inter sensory associations are a function of which area of cerebral cortex?

(1) Sensory area

(2) Inter sensory area
(3) Motor area
(4) Association area

52) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum annelida ?

(1) Pseudocoelom
(2) Ventral nerve cord
(3) Closed circulatory system
(4) Segmentation
53) How many statements are correct for basis of classification of animals
(i) An undifferentiated layer, mesogloea, is present in between the ectoderm and the endoderm in
triplobastic animals
(ii) Annelids, Molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates are coelomates.
(iii) Aschelminthes are called pseudocoelomates
(iv) The animals in which the body cavity is absent are called acoelomates.
(v) Platyhelminthes to chordates are called diploblastic animals

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

54)

(1) Energy level of A is low as compare to B

(2) Energy level of B is high as compare to C
(3) Energy level of D is high as compare to E
(4) Energy level of C is low as compare to A and B

55) Which of following antibody will be produced during allergic reaction ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

56) Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organisms and mode of infection ?

Disease Causative Organism Mode of infection

(1) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

(2) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection

(3) Elephantiasis pneumoniae bancrofti With infected water and food

(4) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anophele mosquito

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Assertion (A): Origin of replication is an essential part of a vector.

Reason (R): Ori is responsible for initiating replication.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

58) The above figure is related with myosin monomer (Meromyosin). Identify A to C-

(1) A-head, B-LMM, C-GTP binding sites

(2) A-head, B-cross arm, C-Ca+2 binding sites
(3) A-Actin binding site, B-cross arm, C-ATP binding sites
(4) A-myosin binding site, B-HMM, C-ATP binding sites

59) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) Any population has built in variation in characteristics

(2) Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution
(3) The geological history of earth never correlates with the biological history of earth
(4) According to Darwin, the fitness refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness

60) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the cleaved plasmid vector became possible with?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) Exonucleases
(3) DNA ligase
(4) Endonucleases

61) Which of the following contraceptive devices also protects against sexually transmitted diseases
?

(1) Condom
(2) Sponge
(3) IUDs
(4) LNG-20

62) Oogenesis is the process in the ovary that results in the production of female gametes. Which
statement about oogenesis in human female is false?

(1) Oogenesis begins at puberty

(2) In oogenesis unequal cytokinesis results in one large cell, which goes on to form the egg.
(3) At birth, an ovary already contains all the cells it will ever have that will develop into eggs.
(4) The process of oogenesis is completed, when the egg cell is penetrated by sperm

63) DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with:

(1) Luke warm Isopropanol

(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room temperature
(4) Ethidium bromide

64) Read the following statements (A–E) (A) Gross deformities in genital organs
(B) Elephantiasis
(C) Vector is female Aedes mosquito
(D) Slowly developing chronic inflammation usually of blood vessels of lower limbs
(E) It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
How many of the above statements are incorrect about given diagram

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

65) The characteristic feature of birds which makes them different from reptiles is -

(1) Homoeothermic nature

(2) Post anal tail
(3) Vertebral column
(4) Viviparity

66) Choose the incorrect statement regarding the enzyme carbonic anhydrase :-

(1) Present in high concentration in RBCs

(2) Present in plasma also
(3) Facilitates the reaction of CO2 and H2O in both directions
–
(4) Helps in the formation of HCO3 in which O2 is trapped as bicarbonate

67) In mollusca, gills has the functions :-

(1) Respiratory and circulatory

(2) Circulatory and excretory
(3) Excretory and respiratory
(4) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory

68) How many cleavages are required for formation of 16 blastomeres :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

69) Expiration takes place when the intrapulmonary pressure is–

(1) Greater than the atmospheric pressure

(2) Lesser than the atmospheric pressure
(3) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(4) Equal to intrapleural pressure

70) Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the following diagram?

(1) A–40 mm Hg, B–95 mm Hg, C–159 mm Hg, D–45 mm Hg

(2) A–40 mm Hg, B–40 mm Hg, C–104 mm Hg, D–45 mm Hg
(3) A–95 mm Hg, B–45 mm Hg, C–40 mm Hg, D–45 mm Hg
(4) A–40 mm Hg, B–95 mm Hg, C–159 mm Hg, D–40 mm Hg

71) During joint diastole :-

(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open

(2) Semilunar valves are closed
(3) All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state.
(4) All of the above

72) Genetically modified organisms have been useful for

(1) Making crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses

(2) Helping to reduce post-harvest losses
(3) Enhancing nutritional value of food
(4) All of the above

73)

Which of the following option is not correct :-

(1) Fertilisation takes place at ampullary region

(2) Zona pellucida block polyspermy.
(3) Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
(4) Myometrium is necessary for implantation.

74) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaca.

75)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect with reference to frog :-

(I) Eyes are bulged and not covered by nictitating membrane.
(II) Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(III) The frog never drinks water.

(IV) pair of nostrils is present above to mouth.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only I

76) If cardiac output of a person is 6 litres and his heart rate is 60 beats per minute then stroke
volume is :

(1) 100 ml. approx.

(2) 84 ml. approx.
(3) 75 ml. approx.
(4) 90 ml. approx.

77) How many given values are correct during normal human physiological condition :-
(a) Normal blood pressure = 120/80 mmHg
(b) Cardiac out put = 5000 ml
(c) Normal Heart beat rate = 90 Beat/min
(d) Pressure during hypertension = 110/90 mmHg
(e) Respiratory rate = 12 – 16 /min.
(f) Inspiratory capacity = 500 ml
(g) Stroke volume = 70 ml

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) All
(4) Four

78) The chronological order of human evolution from first human like being Hominid to recent is :-

(1) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens sapiens

(2) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens sapiens
(3) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens sapiens
(4) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens sapiens → Ramapithecus

79) Which one helps in differentiation of cells in immune system ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Steroid
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Thymosin

80) Which of the following set of cells are affected by HIV?

(1) Macrophage and B-lymphocytes

(2) Macrophage and T-lymphocytes
(3) Eosinophils and mast cells
(4) T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes

81) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

82) A canal called 'cerebral aqueduct' passes through the ?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Mid brain
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Pons

83) Which of the following STD's are caused by protozoa?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Chlamydiasis
(3) Trichomoniasis
(4) Genital herpes

84) Match the following column A & B ?

A B
(1) Cocaine (A) Erythroxylum coca
(2) Morphine (B) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Cannabinoids (C) Cannabis sativa
(4) L.S.D. (D) Papaver somniferum

(1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

(2) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
(3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

85) Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter _________ :-

(1) Acetylcholine
(2) Serotonin
(3) Dopamine
(4) Glycine

86) Cancer is caused due to activation of A to B and/or inactivation of C .

Identify the A , B & C :-

A–oncogene,
(1)
B–Proto-oncogen, C–Tumor suppressor gene
A–Proto-oncogene,
(2) B–Oncogene,
C–Tumor suppressor gene
A–Tumor suppressor gene,
(3) B–oncogene,
C–Proto-oncogene
A–Haplotype,
(4)
B–Onc-gene, C–Opt.-gene

87) During genetic drift sometime the change in allele frequency is so different in the new
population that they become a different species. This effect is called :-

(1) Founder effect

(2) Natural selection
(3) Hardy-Weinberg principle
(4) Bottleneck effect

88) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast
cells. It is known as.

(1) Dense regular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

89) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Dendrites transmit nerve impulses towards the cell body

(2) Axons transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body
(3) Unmyelinated nerve fibre lack Schwann cells
(4) Unmyclinated nerve fibre is commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural systems

90) Which of the following hormone stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from
pancreas :-

(1) Gastrin
(2) Cholecystokinin
(3) Secretin
(4) GIP
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 1 3 4 2 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 1 2 3 4 3 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 4 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Correct option is 1.

2)

Suppose two plane waves, one longitudinal and the other transverse having the same
frequency and amplitude, are traveling in a medium in opposite directions with the same
speed. By superposition of these waves, stationary waves cannot be obtained.
This is because stationary waves are formed only when two waves of the same type (both
longitudinal or both transverse) and frequency travel in opposite directions and superpose.

3) The tension developed in the wire to open up is T =

4)

T = YA ∝ ΔT
= 2 × 1011 × 2 × 10–6 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 20
= 88 N

5)

Conceptual.

6) Explain question:
Find the linear velocity of a particle given and .

Concept:
Linear velocity for rotation about an axis: .

Solution:
The velocity can be computed using

Final Answer: Option (1)

7)

The change in the hollow cylinder's angular speed is 250 rad/s.

8)

g=
gP ∝ ρPRP

⇒6=

Rm =

9)

Question Explanation:
To analyse which statement or statement are correct or wrong.

Concept:
This question is based on snll’s law and critical angle

Solution:

R is the critical angle

For surface I,

Statement 2 – Correct Statement 1 - False

Hence,
Correct Option: 4

10)

Conceptual.

11)

Question Explanation :
The problem asks for the final angular velocity when a rotating disc is placed over another
initially rotating disc, forming a combined system.

Concept :
Conservation of angular momentum

Solution:
Initially , only the bottom disc rotates with angular velocity ω, so initial angular momentum.
Li = I1ω
The top disc is initially at rest. When both discs rotate together without external torque, total
moment of inertial
Itotal = I1 + I2
Using conservation of angular momentum :

Final Answer : Option (2)

12)

13)

Conceptual

14)

Correct option is 1.

17)

Conceptual
20) The constant downward force of pull exerts a torque 'τ' on the disc
τ = Iα = F.R ...(i)

⇒ FR = I

and I =

21)

polytropic

22) T1 + T2 = 200 .....(1)

–T1 × 9 + 200 × 5 = 0
9T1 = 1000

T1 =

23)

Correct option is 2.

24)

The momentum transferred to the surface is

25) Solar cell works in unbaised conditions.

26) 1. Explanation: The question asks to match physical quantities in Column-I with their
corresponding dimensional formulae in Column-II. We will determine the dimensional formulas
for thermal resistance, Stefan's constant, Wien's constant, and heat current.
 2. Concept: Dimensional formulas represent the fundamental units of a physical quantity. By
matching the quantities with their dimensions, we can identify the correct pairings.

3. Solution:

Thermal Resistance

A. This matches with q

Stefan's Constant =

A. This simplifies to MT−3K−4.

Wien's Constant = LK

A. Match: C → s (LK)

Heat Current

A. Match: D → r(ML2T−3)

27) Let separation between two parts be

r⇒

For F to be maximum

28)

The angle \(\theta \) between the two strings is 180°.

29)

The number of electrons flowing through the conductor is 1.875 × 1019

30)

31)

32)
 33) Explanation:
To find power of lens in a medium
Concept:
Lens in surroundin medium made of different 'μ'.
Solution:

putting values →

⇒
Correct option: (3)

34)

Given that, length of wire

= Perimeter of semicircle

Moment of inertia of a right about its diameter =

35)

Question Explanation: Find potential difference between ends of a rotating rod about an
internal point.

Concept:
Each segment of rod develops emf relative to pivot point O.
Net potential difference between ends = difference of emfs of two segments.

Formula:
Calculation:
For OC (length 3ℓ):

VO – VC =
For OA (length ℓ):
VO – VA =
Subtract:

= 4Bωℓ2
Final Answer: Option (3)

36) Question Explanation

A body of mass m moves along the x-axis from rest under a constant power P. We need to
determine the relationship between velocity v and time f

Concept

Solution:
• Power in terms of velocity and mass
P = mav (∵ P = F.V and F =Ma)
• Acceleration is the time derivative of velocity:

• Substituting is into the power equation.

• Rearranging

• Integrating both sides

• Performing integration:

• Solving for v

• This shows that

Correct Answer: Option (1)
Question Level: Tough

37)

The r.m.s. secondary voltage is nearest to 50 V.

38)

∴y= =

=y = 9 × 1010 × = 45 × 106
n= = n=
n = 35.4

39)
Pex = Pex =
Volume of soap solution will remain same

4πR2d = πr3, r = (3R2d)1/3

Ratio =

40)

41)

with a constant acceleration

42) The field at the midpoint of BC due to AB is and the same is due to CD.

Therefore the total field is

43) By using B = , here ,

a = R, b = 2R

We get

=
 44)

Correct option is 2.

45)

CHEMISTRY

49) Question Explanation :

Determine the simplest whole number ratio of atoms in the compound based on the given
percentage composition.

Concept :
This question is based on

Solution :

Element C H O

% composition 38.71 9.67 51.62

Relative mole

Simplest ratio 1 3 0

Final Answer :
Option (3)

50)

Conceptual

53) Question Explanation: Solubility product related salt solubility to ion concentrations in
saturated solution.
Concept: Ksp expression determines ion concentration from sparingly soluble salt equilibrium.
Solution:
Ksp = 4s3 ⇒

[F–] = 2s = 2 × 6.3 × 10–3 = 1.26 × 10–2

Final answer: option (3)

54)

Question Explanation: Given two thermochemical equations, use Hess’s law to obtain the
heat of formation of SO₂ from elements.

Concept: Heat of formation = enthalpy change for formation of 1 mol compound from
elements in standard state.
Use Hess’s law: algebraic addition/subtraction of reactions.

Solution:

(i) S(s) + O₂(g) → SO₃(g) ΔH = −2x kCal

(ii) SO₂(g) + O₂(g) → SO₃(g) ΔH = −y kCal

Reverse (ii):

SO₃(g) → SO₂(g) + 2 O₂(g) ΔH = +y kCal

Add to (i):

S(s) + O₂(g) → SO₂(g)

ΔH = (−2x + y) = – (2x – y) kCal

Final Answer: Option (2)

55) Question Explanation :

Analyze the P – V diagram showing reversible isothermal (AB) and adiabatic (AC) expansions
of an ideal gas starting from state A. Identify the statement that is not correct.

Concept : Thermodynamics of Isothermal and Adiabatic Processes.

Solution :
For isothermal,

In adiabatic expansion, cooling takes place, decreasing the temperature.

Thus, TC must be lower than TA.
Final Answer : option (4)

59)

On basis of vector addition.

60)

Pb(NO3)2 → PbO + NO2 + O2

61)

NCERT-XII, part-1, Pg. # 199, Edition -2022-23

62)

Thermal stability of carbonate increases down the group.

63)

Question Explanation: Find the correct statement comparing ionization potentials of different
species.

Concept: Ionization Potential

Solution: K⁺ and Cl⁻ are isoelectronic, meaning they have the same number of electrons. For
isoelectronic species, the one with the higher nuclear charge (more protons) has the higher
ionization potential. K⁺ (19 protons) holds its electrons tighter than Cl⁻ (17 protons).

Final Answer: Option (3)

64)

CaCO3

65)

Conceptual

66)

Question explanation: Naming complex [Ag(NH₃)₂][Ag(CN)₂].

Concept: Identify oxidation states, ligands, metal, counter ion systematically.

Solution

A. [Ag(NH₃)₂] → silver coordinated to 2 ammine ligands → Ag⁺ → diamminesilver(I)

B. [Ag(CN)₂]⁻ → silver coordinated to 2 cyanides → Ag⁺ → dicyanidoargentate(I)

C. Combine cation and anion names → Diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)

Final answer: Option 4

67)

On the basis of SFL and WFL.

68)

Explain Question:
The question asks which type(s) of isomerism the coordination compound [Ag(NH3​)2​][Ag(CN)2​]
can exhibit.

Concept:
Types of isomerism

Solution:
The complex can exhibit linkage isomerism due to the ambidentate CN− ligand, which can bind
through either carbon or nitrogen to the silver ion.
0 0
It do not show Coordination Isomer as [Ag(NH3)CN] [Ag (CN)NH3] not exist, nor ionisation
and not optical Isomerism Possible.

Final Answer: Option (2)

69) Freezing point ∝

70) Rate constant of reaction does not depend on concentration.

71)

Explain the Question : The question asks to determine the enthalpy change (ΔH) and the
activation energy (Ea) for the reverse reaction (C + D → A + B) based on the provided energy
diagram.
Concept : This question is based on activation energy (Ea).
Solution :
Forward reaction (A + B → C + D) : since Eproduct is lower than Ereactants by y, the forward
reaction
is exothermic.
 ΔHfwd = – y
Reverse reaction (C + D → A + B) : The reverse reaction is endothermic and has the opposite
sing.
ΔHrev = –ΔHfwd = –(–y) = +y
Activation energy (Ea) for the reverse reaction :
The reactants for the reverse reaction are C + D.
Ea,rev is the energy difference between the transition state and the reactants C + D.
From the diagram, the energy from the transition state to A + B is x. The energy from A + B
to C + D is y.
Therefore, Ea,rev is the sum of these two vertical segments : x + y.

Final answer : 3

72)

at equilibrium Ecell = 0

=
= 0.1773

73)

Question Explanation:
To find reduction potential of Cu2+/ Cu at pH =14

Concept:
This question is based on Nerst equation for half cell

Solution:
Given pH = 14
–19
KSP of Cu (OH)2 = 1.0×10
if pH = 14; [H+] = 10–14 [OH–] = 1

Reduction half reaction for Cu2+/Cu

From nernst equation:

E = – 0.2205V

Hence,

Correct option: (2)

74) If –OH group on first assymetric carbon is present below the functional group.

75)

p–CH3–C6H4CH2–NH2

77)

It is a tautomer not RS.

78)
Total 5 forms of structural isomers (Haloalkanes) are formed.

79)
pH level of solution increases due to increase in concentration of base NaOH.

80)

cis on anti addtion gives threo.

81)

As OH is poor leaving group in C2H5OH, C2H5OH do not reacts with NaCl.

83) Explain the Question : Identify the reactant and reagent involved in preparation of
salicylic acid.
Concept : This question is based on Kolbe's Schmitt reaction.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

85)

% of N =

86)

87)

Explain Question : Identify compound D formed from the reaction sequence starting with
CH3COOH.
Concept : This question is based on Acyl chloride formation, Amide formation, Hoffmann
bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Acylation, Hoffmann bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Solution :

Final answer : Option (2)

90)

Explain Question : Identify the carbonyl compound that yields a secondary (2°) alcohol upon
reaction with any Grignard reagent (RMgX) followed by hydrolysis.
Concept : This question is based on Grignard Reaction, Nucleophilic Addition to Carbonyls,
Classification of Alcohols
 Solution : The classification of the final alcohol (1°, 2°, or 3°) depends on the starting
carbonyl compound :

Only Acetaldehyde (Option 2) will consistently form a secondary alcohol when treated with any
Grignard reagent (except HMgX, which is not a Grignard).
Final answer : 2

BIOLOGY

92)

NCERT XI Pg#11

93) Ncert PgNo: 18

95)

NCERT XI Pg#29

96)

NCERT, Pg. # 67

97) NCERT-XI, Pg # 70

99) NCERT XI Pg. # 91, 92, 93, 94

100)

NCERT XI Pg#72

101)

NCERT XI Pg#12

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

104) Explain Question: The question asks who proposed the famous cell theory statement
“Omnis cellula e cellula” (every cell arises from a pre-existing cell).
Concept : This question is based on cell theory
Explanation :
● Rudolf Virchow (1855): Proposed the Cell Lineage Theory, stating “Omnis cellula e
cellula”.
Final answer : 3

105)

NCERT XII Pg#05

106) NCERT PG. 164-166

107)

NCERT Pg # 218

108) NCERT-XI, Page No. 233

109)

NCERT Reference:
Biology -XI, Page No.-250

110) NCERT Pg. # 22

111)

NCERT XII Pg#06

112) NCERT-XII, Pg - 35

113)

NCERT XII Pg#61

114)

NCERT XII Pg#72

116)

NCERT XII Pg#80

117) The correct answer is:

3. Repressor protein to switch off the transcription of structural gene.
In the lac operon of E. coli, the operator gene (O) interacts with the repressor protein
(encoded by the regulator gene). When the repressor protein is bound to the operator, it
prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes of the operon (lacZ, lacY,
lacA). This effectively "switches off'' the transcription.
When an inducer (like allolactose) is present, it binds to the repressor, causing a
conformational change that prevents the repressor from binding to the operator, allowing
transcription to proceed (switching on the genes).

119)

NCERT XII Pg#86

121)

Correct option is 3.

122)

Explain Question : Asking about The World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD)
Concept : The question is based on Earth Summit, World Summit, Threatened Species
Concept, Red Data Book, Silent Valley
Explanation :The World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) was held in 2002 in
Johannesburg, South Africa to discuss global sustainable development goals
Correct Answer : 2. South Africa

123) Explain Question:

The question asks which potion shows both pairs correctly matched for conservation
methods.

Concept:
in-situ conservation and Ex-situ conservation

Solution:
(1) In-situ ≠ Seed bank (that's Ex-situ). National park is In-situ, not Ex-situ.
(2) In-situ ≠ Cryopreservation (that's Ex-situ). Wildlife sanctuary is In-situ, not Ex-situ.
(3) In-situ = Biodiversity hotspot. Ex-situ = Wildlife safari park. Correct.
(4) In-situ ≠ Tissue culture (that's Ex-situ). Sacred groves are In-situ, not Ex-situ.

Final answer: Option (3)

124) Explanation :
This question is Assertion - Reason type.

Concept :
Kingdom Monera

Solution :
Assertion - False
Plasmids are single-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.
Reason - False
Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic cells.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

125)

NCERT XI Pg#66

127) Explain Question:

The question asks that which statements are correct for the given graph.

Concept:
Light (Factor affecting photosynthesis)

Solution:

The correct statement for the given graph is:

1. Light is a limiting factor in the region A
2. Region C represents that rate of photosynthesis is not increased further by increasing light
intensity.
3. Point D represents saturation point.
So, the correct answer is: 4. All of these.

Final answer: Option (4)

129)

NCERT XI Pg#168

130)

NCERT XI Pg#12

132)

NCERT XI Pg#67
133) Explain Question – The question asks which statements are correct about Klinefelter’s
Syndrome (47, XXY condition).

Concept – Chromosomal Disorders

Solution–
(A) Incorrect → Langdon Down described Down’s Syndrome, not Klinefelter’s.
(B) Correct → Masculine development with some feminine traits (like gynecomastia).
(C) Incorrect → They are usually tall, not short statured.
(D) Incorrect → Mental development is generally normal, not severely retarded.
(E) Correct → Individuals are sterile due to underdeveloped testes.

Final Answer – Option 3

135)

NCERT Pg. # 230

136)

Explanation : This question is asking about the organism controlled by transgenic tobacco
developed through RNA interference.

Concept : Biotechnology: Applications – RNA Interference (RNAi)

Explanation :RNA interference in transgenic tobacco was used to silence a specific gene of
the nematode Meloidogyne incognita, preventing its feeding and infestation.

Final answer : A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia

137) NCERT XI Pg. # 145

139)

NCERT pg#110

140) NCERT (XI) Pg# 54 Para 4.2.10

142)

NCERT XI pg#43

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 156

145)

Explain Question :
 Which of the following antibodies is produced during an allergic reaction?

Concept :
Antibody

Solution :
During an allergic response, IgE binds to allergens and activates mast cells to release
chemicals like histamine, causing allergy symptoms.

Final Answer :
Option (2) IgE

146) NCERT Pg# 146 (E)

147)

NCERT XII pg#164

149) Explain Question:Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Concept: This question is based on Neo Darwinism

Solution:

A. Statement 3: Incorrect - Saltation means large, sudden mutation, not small and multiple-step
mutations.

Final Answer:Option (3)

150)

NCERT XII pg#166

151)

Explain Question : Which of the following contraceptive devices also protects against
sexually transmitted diseases
Concept : This question is based on Birth control temporary methods
Explanation : Among the options, only condoms provide both contraception and protection
against STDs.
Final answer : (1) Condom

153)

NCERT XII pg#168

155) Question Explanation: The characteristic feature of birds which makes them different
from reptiles is:

Concept : This question is based on comparison of reptiles and aves

Explanation : The homoeothermic (warm-blooded) nature is a unique feature that

differentiates birds from reptiles.

Final answer : Homoeothermic nature

156) Question Explanation : Choose the incorrect statement regarding the enzyme carbonic
anhydrase.
Concept : Transport of carbon dioxide.
Solution : The incorrect statement regarding the enzyme carbonic anhydrase is that it helps
in the formation of HCO3– in which O2 is trapped as bicarbonate.
Final Answer : Option (4)

160)

NCERT XI pg#202

161)

NCERT XI pg#200

162) NCERT PG 208

163)

NCERT Pg#35

164) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83

165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 116

166)

Explain Question: The question asks to find the stroke volume of a person given their cardiac
output is 6 liters,AND HEART RATE 60 BPM.

Concept: CARDIAC CYCLE

Solution:

Cardiac Output=Stroke Volume × Heart Rate (Given a typical heart rate of 60 beats per
minute & cardiac output is 6 liters)
Stroke Volume=Cardiac Output/Heart Rate

=6000mL/60

=100 mL

Final answer: (1)

170)

Question Explanation: Asks which immune cells are targeted and affected by HIV infection.

Concept: HIV

Solution: HIV primarily infects helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+) and macrophages, weakening
the immune system and reducing defense against pathogens.

Final Answer: 2

171)

Explain Question :
To identify the haploid structures from the list

Concept : This question is based on gametogenesis

Explanation :

Haploid (n): Spermatid, secondary oocyte, ovum, sperm, polar body (total 5)

Final answer : 4

172) NCERT Pg. # (E) 321, (H) 322

173)

NCERT XII pg#47

175) NCERT XII Pg. # 159

176) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 157

179)

NCERT XI pg#232

180)
The hormone that stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from the pancreas is
Secretin.