15-02-2026

1103CMD303003250054 MD

PHYSICS

1) When the net force F acting on the particle varies as its position along x-axis shown in the figure,
which of the following cannot be oscillatory motion. (where x is the position of the particle)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

For a particle executing S.H.M., when the potential energy of the oscillator becomes 1/8 the
maximum potential energy, the displacement of the oscillator in terms of amplitude A will be..........

(1) A/√2
(2) A/2√2
(3) A/2
(4) A/3√2

3) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations :

and

.
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) None of the above

4) A block is executing SHM about a certain mean position. v1 is its speed close to mean position and
v2 is its speed close to extreme. a1 is magnitude of its acceleration close to mean and a2 is magnitude
of its acceleration close to extreme:-

(1) v1 > v2, a1 > a2

(2) v1 > v2, a1 < a2
(3) v1 < v2, a1 < a2
(4) v1 < v2, a1 > a2

5) For any type of oscillatory or vibratory motion which force is necessary :-

(1) Damping force

(2) Restoring force
(3) External force
(4) Any force

6) Which of the following does not hold in SHM ?

(1) Work done in one complete oscillation is zero.

(2) Energy is converted continuously from PE to KE and vice versa.
(3) Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.
(4) Velocity is maximum at mean position.

7) If the maximum velocity and maximum acceleration of a particle executing SHM are equal in
magnitude, then the time period will be :

(1) 1.57 seconds

(2) 3.14 seconds
(3) 6.28 seconds
(4) 12.56 seconds

8) The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are 'ω' and 'A' respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is 'T' and potential energy is 'V'. Then the

ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A particle executes simple hormonic motion between x = –A and x = +A. It starts from x = 0

moves in +x-direction. The time taken for it to move from x = 0 to x = is T1 and to move from to

is T2, then

(1) T1 < T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T2 = 2T1
(4) T1 = 2T2

10) If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time period

(1) Increases by 1%
(2) Decreases by 1%
(3) Increases by 2%
(4) Decreases by 2%

11) The equation of SHM of a particle is given as where x is the displacement from
the mean position. The period of its oscillation (in seconds) is :-

(1) 4

(2)

(3)

(4) 2π

12) A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation x = 5.0 cos(2πt + π). At time t = 2 , its
displacement, speed and acceleration respectively is :

(1) 0, -10π, +20π2

(2) 5, 0, -20π2
(3) -5, 0, +20π2
(4) -5, +5π, -10π2

13) A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring of negligible mass, the system oscillates with a
frequency n. What will be the frequency of the system, if a mass 4m is suspended from the same
spring ?

(1) n/4
(2) 4n
(3) n/2
(4) 2n

14) Which is correct graph for the particle performing SHM:

(K.E = Kinetic Energy, P.E or U = Potential Energy, X = Displacement from mean position)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according to
the relation y = Kt2, (K = 1 m/s2) where y is the vertical displacement. The time period now becomes

T2. The ratio of is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)

(3) 1

(4)

16) The displacement from mean position of a particle in SHM at 1.5 seconds is of the amplitude.
Its time period will be :-

(1) 18 s
(2)
(3) 9 s
(4)

17) When a particle executing SHM oscillates with a frequency n, then the kinetic energy of the
particle :-

(1) changes periodically with a frequency of n.

(2) changes periodically with a frequency of 2n.
(3) changes periodically with a frequency of n/2
(4) remains constant

18) Two bodies performing SHM have same amplitude and frequency. Their phase at a certain
instant are as shown in the figure. The phase difference between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A particle at end of a spring executes SHM with a period t1, while the corresponding period for
another spring is t2 if the period of oscillation with the two spring in series is T, then :-

(1) T = t1 + t2
2 2 2
(2) T = t1 + t2
–1 –1 –1
(3) T = t1 + t2
–2 –2 –2
(4) T = t1 + t2

20) A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is α and maximum
velocity is β. Then its time period of vibration will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Find the time period of oscillation in following arrangement :-

2π
(1)

2π
(2)

2π
(3)

2π
(4)

22) Identical spring block system oscillates in two arrangements I & II as shown. The ratio of time

periods in the two arrangements is :-

(1) cosθ : 1
(2) tanθ : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) sinθ : 1
23) A particle moves on the x-axis according to the equation x = A + B sinwt. The motion is simple
harmonic motion with amplitude :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A + B
(4)

24) A simple pendulum is making oscillations with its bob immersed in a liquid of density times of
density of bob. What is its time period ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The time period of a particle undergoing S.H.M. is 16 sec. It starts motion from the mean
position. After 2 second its velocity is 0.4 m/s. The amplitude is :-

(1) 1.44 m
(2) 0.72 m
(3) 2.88 m
(4) 0.36 m

26) A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with a amplitude A1. When the mass M
passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move

together with amplitude A2. The ratio of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Assertion :- In a simple harmonic motion, velocity does not change uniformly with
displacement.
Reason :- The graph between velocity and displacement for a harmonic oscillator is a parabola.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude a. The magnitude of average

velocity of the particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance from the extreme
position is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If displacement x and velocity v are related as 4v2 = 25 – x2 in a SHM. Then time period of given
SHM is (Consider SI units) :-

(1) π
(2) 2π
(3) 4π
(4) 6π

30) The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is.

(1) zero
(2) 0.5π
(3) π
(4) 0.707π

31) A particle is subjected to two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that its x
and y coordinates are given by

The path of the particle will be :

(1) An ellipse
(2) A straight line
(3) A parabola
(4) A circle
32) The displacement from mean position of a particle moving in a straight line is given by:
. In this t is in second and y is in meters. Match the item in the column II (all
units are in SI system) with corresponding items from the column I.

Column – I Column – II
(A) Initial velocity (t = 0) (p)
(B) Maximum acceleration (q)
(C) Maximum velocity (r)
(D) Initial acceleration (t = 0) (s)
(1) A → s, B → r, C → p, D → q
(2) A → r, B → p, C → q, D → s
(3) A → p, B → q, C → s, D → r
(4) A → q, B → p, C → s, D → r

33) A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the
mean position are V1 and V2 respectively. Its time period is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The KE and PE of a particle executing SHM with amplitude A has ratio 2 : 1 then its
displacement is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

35) A pendulum has period T for small oscillations. An obstacle is placed directly beneath the pivot,
so that only the lowest one quarter of the string can follow the pendulum bob when it swings in the
left of its resting position as shown in the figure. The pendulum is released from rest at a certain
point A. The time taken by it to return to that point is :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 3T/4
(4) T/4

36) The period of a particle is 8s. At t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio of distance covered by
the particle in 1st second and 2nd second will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A lift is ascending with acceleration g/3. What will be the time period of a simple pendulum
suspended from its ceiling if its time period in stationary lift is T ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A girl is swinging in a swing in a sitting position. If she stands and swings, how will the period of
swing be affected :-

(1) The period will not change

(2) The period will now be longer
(3) The period will now be shorter
(4) The period will first increase and then decrease

39) Three masses of 500 gm, 300 gm and 100 gm are suspended at the end of a spring as shown and
are in equilibrium. When the 500 gm mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 2
second. When the 300 gm mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 1 sec

40) The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration

of the particle at t = 4/3 s is :-

(1)
cm/s2

(2)
cm/s2

(3)
cm/s2

(4)
cm/s2

41) The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts
and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be:–

(1)

(2) T

(3)

(4) 2T

42) Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of
amplitudes of A and B is -

(1)
(2) k1/k2
(3)
(4) k2/k1

43) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2kg is 19 joules. If its potential energy at mean
position is 5 joules, its K.E. at the mean position will be :

(1) 9J
(2) 14J
(3) 4J
(4) 11J

44) The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = a sin2ωt. The motion of the
particle corresponds to:

(1) simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π

(2) simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π
(3) non-simple harmonic motion
(4) simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π

45) A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro
like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 ms–2 at a
distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is:

(1) 2πs
(2) πs
(3) 2s
(4) 1s

CHEMISTRY

1) Most stable carbanion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following show + I-effect :-

(1) – OH
(2) – OCH3
(3) – CH3
(4) – Cl

3) The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is ?

(1) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H
(2) ClCH2CH2CH2COOH
(3) CH3COOH
(4) HCOOH

4) In which of the following compounds carbon–chlorine bond distance is minimum :-

(1) CH3—Cl
(2) C6H5—CH2—Cl
(3) CH2=CH—Cl
(4) CH2=CH—CH2—Cl

5) Arrange in decreasing order of basic strength :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > III > I > IV
(3) IV > I > III > II
(4) IV > I > II > III

6) Which of the following is most stable carbocation:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
7)
The correct decreasing order of pKb is :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > IV > II > I
(3) II > III > IV > I
(4) IV > II > I > III

8) Which one is the correct order of acidity ?

(1) CH ≡ CH > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3

(2) CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH3 – CH3
(3) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH> CH ≡ CH
(4) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

9) Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of acidic strength

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) II > III > I
(4) II > I > III

10) Which is wrong electromeric effect :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :-

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N>CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N>(CH3)2NH>CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

12) Assertion : Enol is more stable than Keto.

Reason : Enol is stabilised by aromaticity.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true but not correct explanation.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion and reason are true and correct explanation.

13) Decreasing order of basic strength is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Arrange the following in their acidic strength order

(1) a > b > c

(2) c > a > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) a > c > b
15)
In compounds (A) and (B) inductive effect of phenyl group is

(1) +I, +I
(2) –I, +I
(3) –I, –I
(4) +1,–1

16) Tautomerism can't be exhibited by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism ?

I II III

(1) Both I and II

(2) Both II and III
(3) III only
(4) Both I and III

18) Which of following is correct regarding stability of given resonating structures ?

(1) I > II > III
(2) I > III > II
(3) II > I > III
(4) II > III > I

19) Correct order of –I effect ?

(1) –CN > –NO2 > –X

(2) –NO2 > –OCH3 > –C≡N

(3)

(4)

20) The total number of +M groups are

(a) –OH (b) –NH2

(c) –COOH (d)

(e) –NO2 (f)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 0

21) Which one of the following resonating structure of 1-methoxy-1,3-butadiene is least stable?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) In which of the following carbon-nitrogen bond length is minimum :-

(1) CH3–NH2
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–NH2
(3)
(4) CH3–CH2–NH2

23) The strongest base is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of basicity:

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > I > II

25) Which anion have resonance with vacant d-orbital ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Which compound have no resonance of lone pair

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which is minimum stable anion ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Which is minimum stable anion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Correct stability order of

(1) III > II > I > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) III > IV > II > I

30) Which is more stable than

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) Match the terms mentioned in column I with the terms in column II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Hyperconjugation (i) Cyclohexane & Hexene

b. Isomers (ii) σ–π conjugation

c. Nucleophile (iii) Species that can receive a pair of electrons

d. Electrophile (iv) Species that can supply a pair of electrons

(1) a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
(2) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)
(3) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv)
(4) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d (iii)

32) Consider the following carbocations

The relative stabilities of these carbocations are such that :-

(1) d < b < c < a

(2) b < d < c < a
(3) d < b < a < c
(4) b < d < a < c

33) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : All atom in have complete octet.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

34) Stability order of following resonating structures is

(1) I > II > III
(2) II > III > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) II > I > III

35) Consider the following carbanions -

(a) CH3 – (b) CH2 = (c) CH ≡

Correct order of stability of these carbanions is -

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > a > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) c > a > b

36) Rank the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability:-

(1) I > II > III > IV > V > VI

(2) VI > V > IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > IV > VI > III > V
(4) I > IV > VI > V > II > III

37) Inductive effect involves :

(1) Delocalisation of σ-electrons

(2) Partial displacement of σ-electrons
(3) Delocalisation of π-electrons
(4) Displacement of lone pair electrons

38) Which is wrong electronic delocalisation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The radical, is aromatic because it has :-

(1) 6p–orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

(2) 6p–orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(3) 7p–orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(4) 7p–orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

40) Which of the following has maximum pka value?

(1) F3C–COOH
(2) CHCl2–COOH
(3) O2N–CH2COOH
(4) NC–CH2–COOH

41) Which of the following carbocation does not undergo rearrangement :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Which is maximum stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Correct order of basic strength

is

(1) I > III > II

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > I > II
(4) III > II > I

44) In which all atom have complete octet ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45)
Stability order of tautomers is -

(1) R < P < Q

(2) P < R < Q
(3) P = R < Q
(4) P < Q < R

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I: Growth is regarded as one of the fundamental and conspicuous characteristics of

living being.
Statement-II: Growth can be defined as an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or
its parts or even of an individual cell.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect

2) The form of growth where in new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of
meristem is called:

(1) Open form of growth

(2) Closed form of growth
(3) Determinate form of growth
(4) Indeterminate form of growth

3) Identify the given figure:

(1) Figure shows geometric growth with equation
Figure shows geometric growth with equation
(2)

(3) Figure shows arithmetic growth with equation

Figure shows arithmetic growth with equation
(4)

4) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

5) A primary root grows from 5 cm to 20 cm in a week. Calculate the absolute growth (AGR) and
relative growth rate (RGR) of that root

AGR RGR

1. 15 cm 300%

2. 15 cm 100%

3. 10 cm 50%

4. 10 cm 10%
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following matches is not appropriate regarding measurement of growth?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Statement-I: Environmental signals such as light and gravity also affect certain phases of growth
in plant.
Statement-II: Every plant has an optimum temperature range best suited for its growth

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

8) Recognise the following figure and choose the correct option

 A – vascular cambium, B – shoot apical meristem,
(1)
C – root apical meristem
A – shoot apical meristem, B – vascular cambium,
(2)
C – root apical meristem
A – root apical meristem, B – shoot apical meristem,
(3)
C – vascular cambium
A – shoot apical meristem, B – root apical meristem,
(4)
C – vascular cambium

9) Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different
kinds of structures. This ability is called

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Plasticity
(3) Differentiation
(4) Development

10) Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D in given diagram :-

(1) A–Mature cell, B–Differentiation, C–Maturation, D–Meristematic cell
(2) A–Meristematic cell, B–Maturation, C–Differentiation, D–Mature cell
(3) A–Meristematic cell, B–Differentiation, C–Maturation, D–Mature cell
(4) A–Meristematic cell, B–Differentiation, C–Maturation, D–Meristematic cell

11)

Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Buttercup (i) Parthenocarpy

(B) Tomatoes (ii) Gaseous PGR

(C) Sugarcane (iii) Gibberellins

(D) Cucumbers (iv) Plasticity

(1) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i

12) The given figure show –

(1) Developmental heterophylly in buttercups

(2) Environmental heterophylly in larkspur
(3) Environmental heterophylly in buttercup
(4) Developmental heterophylly in Larkspur
13) According to given figure which of the following is correct option :

(1) Represent sigmoid growth

(2) Represent linear growth
rt
(3) Can be express as W1 = W0 e
(4) (1) and (3) Both

14) Find out correct labelling sequence in given figure of "Germination and seedling development in

bean".

(1) a = cotyledon, b = hypocotyl, c = epicotyl, d = epicotyl hook

(2) a = hypocotyl, b = cotyledon, c = epicotyl, d = epicotyl hook
(3) a = epicotyl, b = epicotyl hook, c = cotyledon, d = hypocotyl
(4) a = cotyledon, b = epicotyl, c = epicotyl hook, d = hypocotyl

15) The given figure shows development of an embryo that undergoes two phases A and B. Select
the correct option regarding it.
 A B

(1) Geometric phase Arithmetic phase

(2) Arithmetic phase Geometric phase

(3) Arithmetic phase Exponential phase

(4) Exponential phase Stationary phase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) How many of the following statement are correct-

(A) The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement which in turn require only oxygen
(B) Water provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for growth
(C) Water help in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities
(D) Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as a sources of energy

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Fill in the blanks:

1. In ....a.... growth, both the progeny cells following mitotic cell division retain the ability to divide
and continue to do so.
2. In ...b... growth, following mitotic cell division, only one daughter cell continues to divide while
the other differentiates and matures.
3. Arithmetic growth is mathematically expressed as...c...
4. The exponential growth can be expressed as...d...

rt
(1) a–arithmetic, b–geometric, c–W1 = W0e , d– Lt=L0 + rt
rt
(2) a–arithmetic, b–geometric, d–W1 = W0e , c– Lt=L0 + rt
rt
(3) b–arithmetic, a–geometric, c–W1 = W0e , d– Lt=L0 + rt
 rt
(4) b–arithmetic, a–geometric, d–W1 = W0e , c– Lt=L0 + rt

18) Statement-I :- Development in plant is under the control of intrinsic and extrinsic factors.
Statement-II :- Intrinsic factor includes only intercellular (genetic) factors.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

19) Parenchyma cells that are made to divide under controlled laboratory conditions during plant
tissue culture, represents :

(1) Differentiation
(2) Dedifferentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) Undifferentiated mass of cells

20) Cork cambium and interfascicular vascular cambium are formed through

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Redifferentiation
(3) Differentiation
(4) Development

21) A phytohormone which was first isolated from a fungus

(1) Is basic in nature

(2) Helps in seed germination
(3) Decreases sugarcane yield
(4) Is used to promote fruit ripening

22) In which of the following options the PGR is correctly matched with its two functions?

(1) Induces immediate stomatal

(a) Abscisic acid closure in leaves
(2) Induce rooting in a twig

(1) Bolting in rosette plant

(b) Gibberellins (2) Speed up the malting process
in brewing industry

(1) Delay leaf senescence

(c) Ethylene
(2) Controls xylem differentiation

(1) Used to kill monocotyledonous:

(d) Auxin weeds
(2) Promotes nutrient mobilization
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Read the following statements :-

A. The bakane disease of wheat seedlings, was caused by a fungal pathogen Gibberella fujikuroi .
B. [Link] reported the appearence of symptoms of disease in rice seedlings.
C. H.H Cousins (1901) confirmed the release of a volatile substance from ripened guavas.
D. Miller et al (1955), later idenfied and crystallised the cytokinesis promoting active substance
kinetin.
How many of the following options are incorrect:-

(1) A and B
(2) Only C
(3) C and D
(4) A and C

24) Statement I: F. Skoog and his co-workers observed that callus from tobacco stems proliferated
only when the nutrient medium was supplemented with auxins alone.
Statement II: Kinetin was identified and crystallised by Miller et al. in 1955 as the cytokinesis
promoting active substance.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

25) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The discovery of each of the five major groups of Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs) was
accidental, beginning with the observations of Charles Darwin and his son.
Statement II: F.W. Went isolated a substance called auxin from the tips of oat seedling coleoptiles,
which was responsible for the phototropic response observed by Darwin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

26) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The plant growth regulator (PGR) abscisic acid is involved in growth promoting
activities such as dormancy and abscission.
Statement II: Ethylene, a gaseous PGR, is largely an inhibitor of growth activities and could fit into
the group of PGRs that play a role in plant responses to wounds and stresses.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

27) Go through the following statements:

(I) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(II) Used to prepare weed free lawn
(III) Promotes the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits
The above functions are carried out by:-

(1) GA
(2) C2H4
(3) ABA
(4) Auxin

28) Read the following statements :

(i) NAA and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxins.
(ii) Auxins promote flowering in pineapples.
(iii) Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but promote the abscission of older
mature leaves and fruits.
(iv) Apical bud removal is applied for hedge making and creating bushy tea plants.
(v) Auxin induces parthenocarpy, like, in tomatoes.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

29)
Which is the correct statement related to above diagram.

(1) In diagram (a) apical dominance occurs due to cytokinins.

(2) In diagram (b) plant with apical bud intact.
(3) In diagram (a) plant with apical bud removed
(4) In diagram (b) the growth of lateral buds into branches after decapitation.

30) Hormone involved in speeding up the malting process in the brewing industry.

(1) GA
(2) NAA
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA

31) A farmer sprayed a commercial plant growth hormone and found that his cabbage plant
grew into a herb with long internodes. Which of the following growth promoter was used

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellic acid
(4) Abscisic acid

32) Spraying sugarcane with gibberellins increases the yield by as much as 20 tonnes, per acre. GA
perform it by.

(1) Improving sugar quality

(2) Delaying in senesence
(3) Internodal elongation
(4) Cell division

33) Assertion :- Spraying of gibberellin leads to early seed formation in conifers.

Reason :- Gibberellins hastens the maturity period.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

34) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Causes elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(c) Increases length of sugarcane stem
(d) Promotes bolting in beet
(e) Causes lateral shoot growth

(1) a, c, d - Gibberelins
(2) b, d, e - Auxin
(3) a, c, e - Cytokinin
(4) a, b, c - Gibberelins

35) Which PGR is present in coconut milk and yeast extract DNA?
(1) C2H4
(2) IBA
(3) Cytokinin
(4) NAA

36) Which of the following hormone help to form new leaves, lateral shoot growth and adventitious
shoot formation?

(1) Zeatin
(2) 2, 4-D
(3) Dormin
(4) IAA

37) Assertion : Cytokinins helps in the delay of leaf senescence.

Reason : Cytokinins promote nutrient mobilisation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Identify A, B, C, D.

(1) A-Ethylene, B-Abscisic acid, C-Cytokinins, D-Gibberellins

(2) A-Auxin, B-Abscisic acid, C-Gibberellins, D-Ethylene
(3) A-Ethylene, B-Auxin, C-Gibberellins, D-Abscisic acid
(4) A-Ethylene, B-Cytokinin, C-Auxin, D-Gibberellins

39) Assertion : Ethylene increases the yield in cucumber

Reason : Ethylene promotes more female flower in cucumber.
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
 If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

40) Among them which effects are due to Ethylene activity within plant.
I. Horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of the axis
II. Apical hook formation in dicot seedlings
III. Fruit ripening
[Link] of stomata during water stress

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

41) Which of the following physiological effects, is common to both Auxin and Ethylene?

(1) Sprouting of potato tuber

(2) Petiole elongation in deep water rice plants
(3) Flowering in pineapple
(4) Weed killing

42) A – Break seed and bud dormancy

B – Initiates germination in peanut seeds
C – Sprouting of potato tubers
D – Promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants
E – Promotes root growth and root hair formation
According to above information, it is related with

(1) IAA
(2) CK
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

43) Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a
flowering plant, is indicated in :-

(1) Annual plants

(2) Floral parts
(3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation
(4) Leaf abscission

44) Which one of the following is chemically identical to ABA ?

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid

(2) Kinetin
(3) Dormin
(4) 2, 4-D

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Abscisic acid (ABA) is known as the stress hormone and plays a crucial role in seed
development, maturation, and inducing dormancy.
Statement II: Abscisic acid (ABA) generally acts as a synergist to gibberellins (GAs) in most
situations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

46) Which of the following statement is not correct :

(1) Cilia helps in movement of particles and mucous in a specific direction

(2) Endocrine glands do not have ducts
(3) Tight junction help to stop substance from leaking across a tissue
(4) Microvilli are present in trachea and bronchioles

47) Which junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together

(1) Tight junction

(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Synapses
(4) Gap junction

48) Identify the given below diagram with its function :

(1) Areolar tissue - Connect skin to muscle

(2) Dense connective tissue - Connects muscle to bone
(3) Adipose tissue - Stores fat
(4) RBCs - Helps in transport of gases

49) Assertion : Compound epithelium is composed of two or more layers of cells.

Reason : It's main role is absorption and secretion.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

50) Which of the following junction is helpful in the transfer of ions ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Macula adherens

51) Which of the following tissue have free surface ?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Neural

52) In the given how many show division of labour ?

Cells, Tissues, Organ, Organ systems

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53)

The four sketches given below represent four different animal tissues. Identify correct match with
respect to location and function :-

Tissue Location Function

Simple squamous Transport of
(1) B Fallopian tube
epithelium gamete
Simple cuboidal Air sacs of Diffusion
(2) C
epithelium lungs boundary
Compound
(3) D Skin Protection
epithelium
 Simple columnar Tubular part of
(4) A Secretion
epithelium nephron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) An example of fluid connective tissue is

(1) Bones
(2) Cartilage
(3) Blood
(4) All of these

55) Which of the following is not associated with epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularized
(3) It provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body
(4) It helps in protection secretion, absorption, respiration etc.

56) Areolar tissues contain

(1) T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes

(2) fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells
(3) fibroblast cells only
(4) fibroblasts and fat globules only

57) Given diagram is a cross section of body tissue. Different labells are located in this diagram.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched with their function

(1) a,c,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,f
(4) b,e,f
58) Which of the following tissue is present in skin?

(1) Dense regular connective tissue

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Ligaments
(4) Tendons

59) Epithelium cells get nutrition from :-

(1) Neighbouring cell

(2) Its own blood vesseles
(3) Nervous tissue
(4) Underlying connective tissue

60) In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a
specific function. Such an organisation is called :-

(1) Cellular
(2) Organ
(3) Tissue
(4) Organ system

61) Condition necessary for the formation of organ system :

(1) Absence of all 4 basic types of tissues

(2) Chemical interaction
(3) Physical interaction
(4) Both (2) and (3)

62) Which epithelium is found in PCT of nephron?

(1) Brushbordered cuboidal epithelium.

(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium.
(3) Glandular cuboidal epithelium.
(4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium.

63) A tissue which faces body fluid or the outside environment and provide a covering for some part
of the body –

(1) Epithelium tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Neural tissue

64) Which of the following type of cell junctions are found in animal tissues?
(a) Adhering junctions
(b) Tight junctions
(c) Gap junctions
(d) Plasmodesmata

(1) a , b and d
(2) a , b and c
(3) b , c and d
(4) d only

65) Assertion: Squamous epithelium helps in the diffusion of gases in lungs.

Reason: Squamous epithelium bears microvilli.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion is incorrect explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

66) Which of the following statement is correct regarding this diagram

(1) Inter cellular material is solid, pliable and resists compression.

(2) It is a type of Areolar tissue
(3) Example of nervous tissue
(4) Mature cell is osteocyte

67) Read the following definition of tissues and select the appropriate words for the blank spaces.
" A group of __"A"__ along with __"B"__ perform __"C"__ is called tissue."
Options -

(1) A = Similar cells; B = Intracellular substances; C = Specific function

(2) A = Dissimilar cells; B = Intracellular substances; C = Different function
(3) A = Dissimilar cells; B = Intercellular substances; C = Different function
(4) A = Similar cells; B = Intercellular substances; C = Specific function

68) Which modification of cell membrane increase maximum surface area for absorption?

(1) Kinocilia
(2) Microvilli
(3) Cilia
(4) Stereocilia
69) Which of the following structures does the given figure represent?

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Multicellular gland
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Unicellular gland

70) According to structure and function of cell in multicellular animals. Tissue is classified into how
many types

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

71) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

72) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells and functions as a lining for :

(1) Body cavity

(2) Ducts
(3) Tubes
(4) All of these

73) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in tubular parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

74) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Kinocilia
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli

75) Match the following :-

Single layer of
Columnar
(i) flattened cells with a
epithelium
irregular boundaries

Single layer of cube Squamous

(ii) b
like cells epithelium

Single layer of tall Cuboidal

(iii) c
slender cells epithelium
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c

76) See the following figure and identify the following simple epithelial tissues :-

A B C D
Pseudostratified
(1) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar columnar
(ciliated)
Pseudostratified Ciliated
(2) Cuboidal Columnar
squamous columnar
Ciliated
(3) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar
columnar
Ciliated
(4) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar
columnar
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78)

In the given statements how many are correct regarding cellular junction ?
(a) Present in nearly all animal tissues
(b) Provides both structural and functional links between individual cells of tissue.
(c) Adhering junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(d) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

79) Which of the following is not a cell of connective tissue?

(1) Mast cell

(2) Adipose cell
(3) Goblet cell
(4) Macrophage

80) Identify the given below tissue diagram with it's type and select the right option for the

two together :-

Tissue Type
(1) Cartilage Dense regular connective tissue
(2) Tendon Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Bone Specialised connective type
(4) Ligament Dense irregular connective type
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Assertion : The simple columnar epithelium is composed of single layer of tall and slender cells.
Reason : Their nuclei are located at the centre of cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

82) Statement-I : Compound epithelium is found in pharynx and dry surface of buccal cavity.
Statement-II : Columnar cells line blood vessels.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

83) Which of the following labelled structure represents macrophage in the given diagram?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

84) Statement A : Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the
skin
Statement B : Compound squamous epithelium occurs in stomach, intestine and trachea.

(1) Statement A and B, both are correct

(2) Statement A and B, both are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct

85) Diffusion is the feature of

(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) All of the above

86) Read the following five statements [A–E] :-

(A) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli of lungs
(B) It forms the lining of wet surface like buccal cavity and oesophagus
(C) It occurs in the ducts of endocrine glands
(D) All cells have contact with basement membrane
(E) It is a loose connective tissue
Which of the above are associated with simple epithelial tissue ?

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and A
(4) D and E

87) Which of the following is an example of specialised connective tissue?

(1) blood
(2) bone
(3) cartilage
(4) all of the above

88) True about compound epithelium is :-

(1) Limited role in secretion and absorption

(2) Provide protection against mechanical stresses
(3) Cover moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(4) All of the above

89) How many of the following statements are related to bone ?

a. It is a specialised connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts
and collagen fibres which give bone its strength.
b. It provides structural frame to the body
c. It supports and protects softer tissues and organs
d. The bone cells, osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae
e. They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

90) Read the following (A - D) Statements :-

(A) Ligaments attach one bone to another.
(B) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in dense connective tissue.
(C) The simple epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function.
(D) The columnar epithelium is made of a single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 2 4 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 2 4 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 3 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 1 1 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation:
We have four different plots of force versus position graphs. We have to find which one of the
following is an oscillatory motion.

Concept:
This question is based on Oscillatory and Periodic motions.

Solution:
For a motion to be oscillatory ; Force acting on a particle should be opposite to the direction of
displacement.
Hence, force and displacement must be of opposite signs.
Options, (1), (2) & (3) follow this.
Hence option (4) is not representing oscillatory motion.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

2)

Question Explanation : We need to find the displacement of the particle executing SHM,

when its potential energy (U) = (UMAX)

Concept : Energy in SHM.

Solution :

U= (UMAX)

(mw2) x2 = { (mw2)A2}

x2 =

x= (taking the positive value of x)

Final answer : Option(2)

3) Question is Asking About:

The question provides two equations representing simple harmonic motions and asks for the
ratio of their anplitude.

Concept:
S.H.M.

Formula:

y = A sin(wt + ϕ)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

​y1 =

y2 =
y2 =
Such that A1 = 10

A2 = 10

1:1

Hence, option (4) is correct.

Level : Medium

4) Question Explanation:
In this question, we are asked to compare speed and acceleration near mean position and near
extreme position in SHM.

Concept:
Relation between velocity acceleration and position in SHM.

Solution:
Speed in SHM

⇒ Max at mean, zero at extemre.

Acceleration in SHM.

⇒ Zero at mean, max at extreme.

Near mean → x ≈ 0

Near extreme → x ≈ A

So here
v1 > v2, α1 < α2

Final Answer: Option (2)

5)
1. Explain question
Which force must be present for a system to show oscillatory or vibratory motion?

2. Concept
Oscillation needs a restoring force.

3. Solution
Oscillatory motion occurs only when a restoring force acts to bring the body back toward its
equilibrium position. Without a restoring force, the body cannot repeat its motion back and
forth, so oscillations cannot occur.

4. Final Answer
Option 2

6) Explaining : Asking about correctness of statement about SHM ?

Concept : Acceleration of SHM
Solution : Acceleration is zero at mean position, so option (3) is wrong.
Final Answer : option (3)

7)

|amax| = |vmax|
ω2A = ωA

8)

Explain Question : We have to find ratio of P.E and K.E in SHM at position x.
Concept : This question is based on energy in SHM.
Solution :

P.E. = V =

K.E. = T =

Final answer : 3
9)

10) Question Explanation:

In this question, we are asked how the time perio0d T of a simple pendulum changes if its
length L is increase by 2%

Concept:
Time period of Simple pendulum

Solution:
For simple penduclum time period is given by

For small changes :

Given :

Then :

Time period increases, becasue increaisng length → slower motion.

Final Answer: Option (1)

11) The given equation of SHM is,

OR

...(i)
The standard equation of SHM is,

...(ii)
Comparing equation, (i) and (ii), we get
 ω2 = 16 OR ω=4

The period,

12)

Correct Answer is option (3)

13)

14) Explanation: To find correct of KE, PE & total energy with ‘x’ for vibrating particle.
Concept:

Formula:

PE = Kx2

KE = mv2 (where v = )

So, KE = mw2(A2 –x2)

2
TE = KE + PE = KA
Visual diagram & Calculation:

(i) PE = Kn2
at n = 0, PE = 0

x = –a, PE = K(–a)2 = Ka2 (Maximum)

x = a, PE = Ka2 = Ka2 (Maximum)

(ii) KE = mw2 (A2 – x2)

at x = 0, KE = mw2A2 (Maximum)
 x = –a, KE = mw2 (A2 – A2) = 0

x = +a, KE = mw2 (A2 – A2) = 0

TE = KA2 (constant)

On combining three, correct option is (4).

15) y = kt2

16)

⇒
⇒ T = 9s

17) In S.H.M. if x = A sin ωt

frequency of square of cos ωt is double of

cos ωt and sin ωt
So frequency of K.E. is 2n.

18) P :
Q : ωt = π

19)
∴ T2 = t12 + t22

20)

a = ω2A
b = ωA

21)
Keff = K

T=

22) Time period of spring pendulum only depends upon mass and spring constant (not
acceleration due to gravity)

23)
Amplitude = B

24) t =

T + Vσg = Vρg

T = Vρg –

T = Vρg

geff =
 25) Question Explanation :

We need to find the amplitude of a particle in SHM, given period, time from mean, and velocity
at that instant.

Concept :

For SHM:

Solution :

Given: T = 16 s rad/s, v = 0.4 m/s at t = 2 s.

Since motion starts from mean position

Final answer : Option (1)

26) C.O.L.M. MVmax = (m + M)Vnew ; Vmax = A1ω1

Now, Vnew = A2 . ω2

27) Question Explanation:

In this question, we need to check whether velocity changes uniformly in SHM and whether
the v-x graph is a parabola.

Concept:
Relation between velcoity and position in SHM.

Solution:
In SHM

This shows :
 A. Velocity does not change uniformly with displacemnt (it depends on ).
B. Squaring

This is the equaiton of a downward parabola in v2 v/s x.

but for v v/s x it gives the graph of a semi-elliple, not a parabola.

Therefore, Assertion is true, reason is false.

Final Answer: Option (3)

28) The magnitude of displacement in the given time interval is and time taken by the

particle to cover a distance starting from rest is .

Hence the magnitude of average velocity over given time interval is

vmean =

29)

4v2 = 25 – x2 ⇒

Comparing with

A = 5, Aω = ∴ω= ⇒ T = 4π sec

30)

Correct Answer is option (2)

31) ....(i)

....(ii)

Ellipse.
32)

33)

Correct Answer is option (1)

34)

A2 – x2 = 2x2 ⇒ 3x2 = A2 ⇒ x =

35) Time taken by the pendulum to move from A to B and from B to A =

Time period of oscillation ∝

If only length of the string oscillates, then suppose time period is T1

∴ or T1 =

Time taken to complete half the oscillation by length =

Total time period of oscillation

36) x = Asinωt

If t = 1 second then x =

or
but in two second it will reach to extreme position, so distance travelled in next second

ratio of distance

37) Explanation: The pendulum is suspended in acceleration force (Life) then find its time
period.
Concept: If lift is accelerates then effective gravity changes due to which time period
changes.

Formula: T = 2π
Calculation:

When lift is at rest T = 2π

When lift is ascending

T = 2π

So final answer is (2).

38)

39)

T=

T∝ ⇒

40)

Equation of SHM will be

x = 1 sin [ωt]
Here T = 8 sec So

x = 1 sin

Now v =

a=

at t = sec

41)

Kℓ = constant ⇒ K' = 4K
& T = 2π ⇒ T' =

42)

43)

Correct Answer is option (2)

44) ( cos2θ = 1 – 2 sin2θ)

This motion is shifted SHM.

It is SHM about

with amplitude and

Angular frequency 2ω

or

45) Magnitude of acceleration of a particle moving in a SHM is, |a| = ω2y; where y is
amplitude.
⇒ 20 = ω2(5) ⇒ ω = 2 rad s–1

∴ Time period of oscillation,

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain the question : Identify the most stable carbanion?

Concept:
This question is based on stability of carbanion, electronegativity, hybridisation and inductive
effect.

Solution :
Stability of carbanion ∝ EN (Csp > Csp2 > Csp3)

(1) (2)
 (3) (4)
So negative charge in on sp carbon. Thus it is most stable.
Final answer : Option (1)

47) Question is Asking About:

Group which shows +I effect

Concept:
Alkyl groups are +I groups
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
–CH3 is methyl (alkyl group) group hence is +I group and shows +I effect.
​Hence, option (3) is correct.

48)

Explain Question : The problem asks which of the given carboxylic acids is the strongest
acid.
Concept : This question is based on Acidity, I Effect, Conjugate Base Stabilization
Solution : Stability Order: Stronger –I Effect near –COOH → More Acidic.

Compound Substituent Position relative to –COOH Effect

CH3CH2CH(Cl)COOH –Cl at α-position Strong –I, maximum stabilization Strongest

ClCH2CH2CH2COOH –Cl at γ-position Very weak –I Weak

CH3COOH –CH3 group +I donating Weaker

HCOOH –H No +I, but no –I Moderate

Thus, α-chloro substitution in CH3CH2CH(Cl)COOH gives the highest acidity.

Final answer : 1

49) Question Explanation: Identify in which of the following compound. carbon-carbon bond
distance is minimum.

Concept: Bond length and resonance .

Bond Length ⇒

Solution: The C-Cl bond length is determined by the bond order. The more partial double
bond character a bond has, the shorter it is. The C-Cl bond in vinyl chloride has partial double
bond character due to resonance, making it the shortest.

Final Answer: Option (3)

 50) Explain the question : Find out the decreasing order of basic strength?
Concept: This question is based on basic strength, electronic effects.
Solution :

Basic strength ∝
Basic strength is determined by availability of lone pair on nitrogen atom.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

Order of basic strength ∝ IV > I > III > II
Final answer : 3

51) Explain the question : Identify which of the following is most stable carbocation.
Concept : Stability of carbocation, resonance, aromaticity.
Solution : Stability of carbocation ∝ resonance.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
So tropylium (option (1)) is aromatic in nature so, most stable.
Final answer : 1

52)

A) Question Explanation: Arrange the given amines in decreasing order of their pKb values.
B) Concept Used: Basicity of Amines, pKb, Electronic Effects (+M, +H, -I), Resonance
C) Answer Explanation:

A. A decreasing order of pKb means an increasing order of basic strength (weakest base to
strongest).
B. Basicity is determined by the lone pair availability on Nitrogen.
 Compound Electronic Effect Basicity Rank pKb Rank

(III) Localized LP (not in resonance). 1 (Most Basic) 4 (Lowest pKb)

(I) Delocalized LP + Strong +M. 2 3

(II) Delocalized LP + +H. 3 2

(IV) Delocalized LP + Strong -I. 4 (Weakest Base) 1 (Highest pKb)

Basicity (Kb) Order: (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV).
Decreasing pKb Order (Highest to Lowest): (IV) > (II) > (I) > (III).
D) Final Answer: Option (4).

53) Question is Asking About:

Correct order of Acidic strength.

Concept:
Acidic strength (Ka) ∝ –M effect
∝ –I effect

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
⇒ –ve charge is more stable on more electro –ve atom.
⇒ Electronegativity of spC > sp2C > sp3C.

Hence correct order of decreasing Ka is

CH ≡ CH > CH3–C ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3–CH3
​Hence, option (1) is correct.

54) Explain the question : Find out the correct order of acidic strength.
Concept : This question is based on acidic strength, resonance, aromaticity.
Solution : Acidic strength ∝ stability of conjugate base.

(1) ϴve involved in aromaticity (most stable)

(2) ϴve involved in antiaromaticity (least stable)

(3) ϴve involved in resonance

Order of stability of CB ⇒ I > III > II
Acidic strength = I > III > II
Final answer : Option(2)

55) Asking About: Wrong electromeric effect.

Concept: Electromeric effect is shown by compounds with multiple bonds.
Solution / Explanation:
In — C ≡ N, electronegativity of Nitrogen atom is more then carbon atom hence shifting of
electron is towards Nitrogen.

∴ given option is incorrect. Hence, option (3) is correct.

56)

Explain Question : The question asks for the correct decreasing basic strength order of
primary, secondary, and tertiary methylamines in aqueous solution.
Concept : This question is based on Basicity of Amines, Inductive Effect (+I), Solvation Effect
(H-bonding), Steric Hindrance
Solution :

Basic strength in aqueous solution is determined by the combined effect of:

A. +I Effect: Electron-donating -CH3 groups increase electron density on Nitrogen. Order:

3° > 2° > 1°.

B. Solvation Effect: Stabilization of the conjugate acid by H-bonding with water. Order: 1°
> 2° > 3°.

C. Steric Hindrance: Bulky groups hinder both protonation and solvation. Order: 1° > 2° >
3°.

For methyl groups, the combined effects result in the Correct experimental order: 2° > 1° >
3°.The Correct order is (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N.
Final answer : 1

57) Enol tautomer is more stable than keto tautomer due to aromatic nature of enol.

58)

Basic strength ∝ + M, + H, + I

∝
59) Explain the question : Find out the correct order of acidic strength.
Concept : This question is based on acidic strength, electronegativity. (a)

, ϴve on sp2c

(b) , ϴve on sp3c

(c) , ϴve on spc Stability of conjugate base ⇒ c > a > b

Acidic strength ∝ c > a > b
Final answer : 2

61) Question Explanation:

Identifying the compound that does not exhibited tautomerism.

Concept:
Tautomerism

Solution:

• For tautomerism to take place –M group must be attached directly or indirectly

to sp3 C containing atlest one hydrogen .

1.

2.

3.

4.

Final Answer: Option (4)

62) Question Explanation:

Identifying the molecules that can exhibit tautomerism.
Concept:
Tautomerism

Solution:
Tautomerism requires the presence of an alpha-hydrogen atom adjacent to a carbonyl group.
The compounds in options I and II both have alpha-hydrogens. The compound in option III has
no alpha-hydrogen. Therefore, only I and II can exhibit tautomerism.
hydrogen at bridge carbon never participates in tautomerism. Thus, only (III) exhibits
tautomerism

(I) (II) (III)

Final answer: option (3)

63) Explain the Question : Ordering the stability of resonating structures.

Concept : This question is based on resonance stability.

Solution: Structure I is neutral (most stable). Structure II is more stable than III because the
negative charge resides on the more electronegative Oxygen, whereas III places a positive
charge on Oxygen.

So, stability order ⇒ I > II > III

Final answer : Option (1)

64) Correct order of –I effect ⇒

 65) Question Explanation: Counting the number of +M groups.

Concept: Mesomeric effect (+M effect)

Solution:
Lone pair containing group directly attached to conjugated system can show +M effect.

Example:
.

Final Answer: Option (1)

66) is the least stable structure as it has incomplete octet.

67) Question Explanation : Identify which has C-N bond length minimum.

Concept : Due to Resonance, Bond length becomes decreases.

Solution :

Bond length order →

Pure single Bond > Double in single > Single in double > Pure double bond > Pure Triple
bond

Due to Resonance, C-N Bond length decreases.

Final Answer : Option (3)

68)

Question Explanation: Compare basic strengths of given nitrogen compounds.

Concept: Basicity ∝ availability of lone pair on N for protonation; electron-donating groups
increases basicity, delocalization decreases it.
Solution:

A. (CH₃)₃N — lone pair hindered sterically, moderate base.

B. H₂N–C(=NH)–NH₂ (guanidine) — conjugate acid stabilized by resonance over three N atoms →
very strong base.
C. (C₆H₅)₃N — lone pair delocalized into aromatic rings → weak base.
D. CH₃–NH–CH₃ — strong, but less than guanidine.

Final Answer: Option (2)

69)
Basic strength (1) Localized > Delocalized

(2) ∝
3>1>2

70) Explain the Question : Identify the anion having resonance with a vacant d-orbital.

Concept : This question is based on resonance.

Solution:

Above anion has resonance with vacant d-orbital

Final answer : Option (3)

71)

Explain the Question :- Identify the compound where the nitrogen lone pair does not
participate in resonance.
Concept :-This question is based on Resonance, Localized Electrons, Delocalized Electrons,
Conjugation
Solution :- For a lone pair to participate in resonance, it must be in conjugation (directly
attached to or one atom away from) a π-bond or an empty orbital.
(1) Pyrrole: The lone pair on N is part of the aromatic 6π electron system and is delocalized
inside the ring.
(2) Aniline: The lone pair on N is directly attached to the benzene ring and is delocalized by
conjugation with the ring.
(3) Benzylamine: The lone pair is on an sp3 hybridized N. It is separated from the benzene
ring by a sp³ hybridized -CH2– group. This sp3 carbon breaks the conjugation, making the lone
pair localized.
(4) CH₂=CH-N̈=CH2: The lone pair on N is in conjugation with the adjacent C=C π-bond and
is delocalized.
The compound with no resonance of its lone pair is (3).
Final Answer: Option (3).
 72) +M of –OCH3 decreases stability of anion.

73) Explain the Question :Identifying the minimum stable anion.

Concept : This question is based on stability of anions.
Solution: The stability of an anion is decreased by electron-donating groups. The anion with
the most electron-donating groups will be the least stable.

It has +I of two alkyl groups, so it is least stable. An anion is destabilised by electron donating
group.
Final answer : 4

74) have maximum delocalization so maximum stable.

75)

Question Explanation : Identify the compound which forms a carbanion more stable than
.

Concept : This question is based on Carbanion Stability, Inductive Effect (–I Effect, +I Effect)

Solution : Carbanion stability is increased by electron-withdrawing groups (-I effect) as they

disperse the negative charge. Stability is decreased by electron-donating groups (+I effect).
We must compare the -I effect of the substituent group with Fluorine.

A. Reference: (Stabilized by –I effect of F)

B. (1) : Stabilized by –I effect of Cl.
C. (2) : Stabilized by –I effect of Br.
D. (3) : Destabilized by +I effect of CH3.
E. (4) : Stabilized by strong -I effect of NO2.

The order of the -I effect is: -NO2 > -F > -Cl > -Br > -H > -CH3 (+I). Since the -NO2 group has a
stronger -I effect than -F, it stabilizes the carbanion more effectively. The -CH3 group
destabilizes it. The -Cl and -Br groups have weaker -I effects than -F, making their carbanions
less stable. The Most Stable carbanion is .

Final answer : Option (4)

76)

Explain the Question :- Match the chemical terms in Column I with their correct description
 in Column II.
Concept :-This question is based on Hyperconjugation, Isomers, Nucleophile, Electrophile
Solution :-

A. (a) Hyperconjugation involves the delocalization of σ-electrons with an adjacent π-system or

p-orbital, so it is also known as σ-π conjugation. (a → ii)
B. (b) Isomers are compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures.
Cyclohexane (C6H12) and Hexene (C6H12) are isomers. (b → i)
C. (c) A Nucleophile ('nucleus-loving') is an electron-rich species that can supply (donate) a pair
of electrons. (c → iv)
D. (d) An Electrophile ('electron-loving') is an electron-deficient species that can receive
(accept) a pair of electrons. (d → iii)

The correct matching is: a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii).

Final Answer: Option (1).

77)

stability of carbocation

78)

Explain the Question : Read the assertion & reason and select the correct option.
Concept : This question is based on a resonating structure having complete octet of atoms is
more stable.
Solution :

Stability : II > I, so assertion is false and reason is also false.

Final answer : 4

79)

Explain the Question :- Determine the correct stability order for the given resonating
structures.
Concept :-This question is based on Rules for Stability of Resonating Structures, Octet Rule
Solution :- Stability Order: Neutral (complete octet) > Charged (complete octet) > Charged
(incomplete octet).

Structure Type Octet Status Stability Rank

(I) Neutral All Complete 1 (Most Stable)
(II) Charged All Complete 2
(III) Charged C⁺ Incomplete 3 (Least Stable)

Structure (I) is neutral with complete octets, making it the Most Stable.
Structure (III) has a carbon (C+) with an incomplete octet, making it the Least Stable.
The Correct stability order is (I) > (II) > (III).

Final answer :- (1).

80)

Correct Answer is option (3)

81) Question Explanation: Ordering the decreasing stability of free radicals.

Concept: Stability of Free Radicals

Solution: The stability of a free radical is enhanced by resonance. The benzyl radical is more
stable than the allyl radical. The order is determined by the extent of resonance. The correct
order is I > II > III > IV > V > Stability of free radical ∝ +R
∝ number of ∝ - H {Resonance is dominating over hyper
conjugating}

Final Answer: Option (3)

82)

Correct Answer is option (2)

83) Explain the Question : Identify the wrong electronic delocalization.

Concept : This question is based on resonance.

Solution : A more electronegative atom having π bond, does not sacrifice its π bond. Option 4
is not correctly represented. The correct representation is

Final answer : Option (4)

 84) , Benzyl free radical is aromatic as per Huckel's rule it has 6π electreons
present in p-orbital of carbon atoms involved in formation of benzene ring (Aromatic nature).

6π electrons and 6 p orbitals

85)

Correct Answer is option (4)

86) 4th has maximum number of hyperconjugative forms

87)

Correct Answer is option (3)

88)

Correct Answer is option (1)

89)

Correct Answer is option (2)

90)

Correct Answer is option (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct

92) Indeterminate form of growth

93) Ncert Page 169.

94)

Explain Question – Match the listed characteristics with the correct growth phases in plants.
Concept – This question is based on Phases of Growth
Solution –
(i) → Meristematic phase
(ii) → Maturation phase
(iii) → Elongation phase
Final Answer – 3

95)

NCERT Page No. 171

96)

97) Statement-I and II both are correct

98) A – shoot apical meristem, B – vascular cambium,

C – root apical meristem
NCERT Pg No 168

99)

Correct Answer is option (2)

100) NCERT-XI, Page # 173

101)

Correct Answer is option (1)

102) NCERT Page No. 246

103)

Correct Answer is option (4)

104)

Ncert Page 167.

105)

NCERT Page No. 169

106) NCERT Pg.# 171

107)

Correct Answer is option (4)

108) NCERT Pg.# 247

109)

The correct answer is 2. Dedifferentiation.

In plant tissue culture, parenchyma cells revert to an undifferentiated state and start
dividing, which is called dedifferentiation

110)

Correct Answer is option (1)

111) Helps in seed germination

112)

Correct Answer is option (2)

113)

Correct Answer is option (4)

114)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given statement I and statement II and
select the correct option.

Concept: Discovery of Plant Growth Regulator.

Solution:

Statement I: F. Skoog and his co-workers observed that callus from tobacco stems proliferated
only when the nutrient medium was supplemented with auxins alone.

Statement II: Kinetin was identified and crystallised by Miller et al. in 1955 as the cytokinesis
promoting active substance.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

So, the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: Option 4

115)

Statement I: Correct. The discovery of the major groups of PGRs was indeed accidental,
starting with the observations made by Charles Darwin and his son on phototropism.
Statement II: Correct. F.W. Went did isolate auxin from the tips of oat seedling coleoptiles,
which was the substance responsible for causing the bending towards the light, confirming the
Darwins' observations.

116)

Statement I: Incorrect. The PGR abscisic acid is involved in various growth inhibiting activities
such as dormancy and abscission, not promoting them. Statement II: Correct. Ethylene is a
gaseous PGR that is largely an inhibitor of growth activities and can be associated with the
group of PGRs that are important in plant responses to wounds and stresses.

117) Auxin

118)

Correct Answer is option (2)

119)

Correct Answer is option (4)

120)

Explaining Question:
Identify the Hormone responsible for inducing α-amylase production in barley endosperm.
Concept: This question is based on Gibberellic Acid
Solution: Gibberellic Acid Hormone involved in induction of α-amylase in Barley Endosperm,
because of speed up the malting process in brewing industry.

121)

Class 11, Ncert Page 176.

122)

Correct Answer is option (3)

123) Explain Question

We need to check whether the Assertion and Reason are true, and whether the Reason
 correctly explains the Assertion.

Concept

Gibberellins (GAs)

Solution

Assertion is true — GA spraying leads to early seed formation in conifers.

Reason is true — GA accelerates maturity.

The Reason correctly explains the Assertion because early seed formation happens because
maturity is reached sooner.

Final Answer

Option 4

124)

Correct Answer is option (1)

125)

Correct Answer is option (3)

126)

Correct Answer is option (1)

127) NCERT pg.176,177

128) NCERT XI Page # 175,176,177

129)

Correct Answer is option (1)

130) NCERT XI, Page # 177

131)

Explanation: Ethylene and auxin plays a role in the flowering process by influencing flower
initiation and development, although it's less direct compared to ethylene.

132)
 Correct Answer is option (4)

133)

The correct answer is: 4) Leaf abscission

Explanation:

A. Senescence is the process of aging or the natural deterioration of cells and tissues in a plant.
B. It is an active developmental process that occurs in various parts of a plant, including
leaves, flowers, and fruits.
C. In the case of leaf senescence, this process is followed by leaf abscission (the shedding of
leaves). The cells at the abscission zone break down, leading to the detachment of leaves from
the plant.
D. This process is important for the plant's resource allocation, as it conserves energy and
nutrients by shedding older, less efficient leaves.

134)

Correct Answer is option (3)

135)

Statement I: Correct. Abscisic acid (ABA) is indeed referred to as the stress hormone and is
important for seed development, maturation, and dormancy, helping seeds to withstand
desiccation and other unfavorable growth conditions. Statement II: Incorrect. ABA usually acts
as an antagonist to gibberellins (GAs), not a synergist, meaning it often has opposing effects to
GAs.

136)

Correct Answer is option (4)

137)

Correct Answer is option (2)

138)

Correct Answer is option (3)

139) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

140)

Correct Answer is option (2)

141) NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 101, para 1
NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 101, para 1

142) NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 100, para 2

Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ system

143)

Correct Answer is option (3)

144)

Correct Answer is option (3)

145)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

146)

NCERT [Link]. 103

147)

Correct Answer is option (3)

148)

149)

Correct Answer is option (4)

150) NCERT XIth Pg # 100, Module-5

151)

Correct Answer is option (4)

152)

Correct Answer is option (1)

153)

Correct Answer is option (1)

154)

Correct Answer is option (2)

155) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

156)

Correct Answer is option (1)

157)

Correct Answer is option (4)

158)

Correct Answer is option (2)

159)

Correct Answer is option (2)

160)

Correct Answer is option (1)

161)

Explanation:
In both bronchioles and fallopian tubes, ciliated columnar epithelium is present. The cilia help
in moving mucus in the bronchioles and transporting the ovum in the fallopian tube.

Correct answer: Option (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

162)

Explain Question : Simple epithelium is functions as lining of ?

Concept : This question is based on epithelium tissue.

Solution : Simple epithelium function as lining for Body cavity, Ducts and Tubes.
Final Answer : option (4)

163)

Explain Question : Incorrect about cuboidal epithelium ?

Concept : This question is based on Epithelium tissue.

Solution : Incorrect is option (4)

Because living of stomach and Intestine contain columnar epithelium.

Final Answer : option (4)

164)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

166) NCERT XIth Pg. # 101

167)

Correct Answer is option (1)

168)

Correct Answer is option (1)

169)

Correct Answer is option (3)

170)

Correct Answer is option (3)

171)

Correct Answer is option (3)

172)
Explain Question : To evaluate both statements

Concept : This question is based on epithelial tissue

Explanation : Statement-I : Compound epithelium is found in the pharynx and dry surface of
buccal cavity. Incorrect

(Compound epithelium is found in the pharynx and moist surface of buccal cavity)

Statement-II : Columnar cells line blood [Link]

(Blood vessels are lined by simple squamous epithelium)

Final answer : 1

173)

Correct Answer is option (4)

174)

Question Explanation: Check which statement is true and which is false.

Concept: Epithelium

Solution:

Statement A = Correct – Tight junctions prevent leakage between cells.

Statement B = Incorrect – Compound (stratified) squamous epithelium is found in skin, not in

stomach, intestine, or trachea.

Final answer: Option 3

175) NCERT XIth Pg.#101

176)

Correct Answer is option (1)

177)

Correct Answer is option (4)

178) NCERT XI, Pg # 102

179)
Correct Answer is option (1)

180)

Correct Answer is option (3)