08-03-2026

1103CMD303003250055 MD

PHYSICS

1) If y1 = 5 sin (πt + πx + ) & y2 = 12 cos (3πt – πx + ) superpose, then find the displacement of
particle at x = 1 at t = 2.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its ends is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its
third harmonic mode. The speed of the wave and its fundamental frequency is :-

(1) 320m/s, 120 Hz

(2) 180m/s, 80 Hz
(3) 180m/s, 120 Hz
(4) 320m/s, 80 Hz

3) In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources S1 and S2 is I0. The

wavelength of the wave is λ = 4 m. Resultant intensity at D will be :-

(1) 4I0
(2) I0
(3) 2I0
(4) zero

4) The two nearest harmonic of a tube close at one end and open at the other end are 220 Hz and
260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 20 Hz
(3) 30 Hz
(4) 40 Hz
5) A body is executing S.H.M. When its displacement from the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the
corresponding velocity of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the time period of the body is

(1) 2 πsec
(2) π/2sec
(3) πsec
(4) 3π/2sec

6) A segment of wire vibrates with fundamental frequency 400 Hz under a tension of 8 kg weight.
The tension at which the fundamental frequency of same wire becomes 800 Hz is

(1) 16 kg-weight
(2) 32 kg-weight
(3) 12 kg-weight
(4) 24 kg-weight

7) If a sphere rolling on an inclined plane with velocity V without slipping, the vertical height of the

incline in terms of velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If I1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing
through its centre of mass and I2 is the moment of inertia of the ring formed by bending the rod,
then:

(1) I2 = I1/4π
2

(2) I2 = I1/π
2

(3) I2/I1 = 0.3

(4) I1/I2 = π /3
2

9) Two particles of equal mass 2m go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth and a satellite revolving around it
becomes zero, then the satellite will-

(1) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity

(2) move tangentially to the original orbit with same velocity
(3) become stationary in its orbit
(4) move towards the earth

11) When an ideal gas in a cylinder was compressed isothermally by a piston, the work done on the
gas was found to be 1.5 × 104 joules. During this process about :-

(1) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
(2) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed into the gas
(3) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed into the gas
(4) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed out from the gas

12)

A heavy mass is attached to a thin wire and is whirled in vertical circle. The wire is most likely to
break :-

(1) When the mass is at the highest point of the circle

(2) When the mass is lowest point of circle
(3) When the wire is horizontal
(4) At an angle of cos–1(1/3) from the upward vertical

13) A particle (bob) of mass 1 kg is performing vertical circular motion. Then :

(1) Power delivered by tension at point (4) is negative.

(2) Power delivered by tension at point (2) is positive.
(3) Power delivered by gravitational force at point (3) is zero
(4) Power delivered by gravitational force at point (4) is negative.

14) Two solids A and B of same volume float in water. It is observed that A floats with half of its
volume immersed and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. The ratio of densities of A and B is:

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

15) The x - t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The

acceleration of the particle at t = 12 s is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a period of T. If it is completely immersed in non-viscous

liquid, having density of the material of the bob, the new period will be :-

(1) T
(2) 2T
(3) 3T
(4) T/2

17) The frequency of vertical oscillations of the three spring, mass system, shown in the figure is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A block is in the state of rest on an inclined plane as shown. Find which direction best describes

the net force applied by inclined plane on the block.

(1) (Horizontally)

(2)

(along inclined)
(3)

(normal to inclined)

(4)

(vertically)

19) Two particles perform simple harmonic motion of same frequency and about same mean
position. Their amplitude is same and is equal to A and their time period is T. If at t = 0 their

separation is A with one particle at mean position, their separation at t = is :-

(1)

(2) A

(3)

(4) 0

20) A block of mass m is performing SHM with an amplitude A, on a frictionless surface. When it is
at negative extreme position as shown, a bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v0 collides and gets
2 2
embedded into it at time t = 0. The displacement x at any time t will be (mv0 = 2kA ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) When the net force F acting on the particle varies as its position along x-axis shown in the figure,
which of the following cannot be oscillatory motion. (where x is the position of the particle)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

23) For wave speed is :-

(1) 330 m/sec

(2) 660 m/sec
(3) 165 m/sec
(4) zero

24) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations :

and

.
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) None of the above

25)

If a simple pendulum is taken to a place where value of g decreases by 4%, then the time period :-

(1) Increases by 0.5%

(2) Increases by 1%
(3) Increases by 2%
(4) Decreaes by 0.5%

26) A particle is acted upon by a force and it is displaced from a point (1, 1, 4) to
(1, 1, 8), then find out work done by the force.

(1) 884 kJ
(2) 448 J
(3) 284 kJ
(4) 248 J

27) Regarding speed of sound in gas match the following :-

speed
Temperature of gas is made 4
(A) (P) becomes t
times and pressure 2 times
imes

Only pressure is made 4 times speed become

(B) (Q)
without change in temperature 2 times

Only temperature is changed speed remains

(C) (R)
to 4 times unchanged

Molecular mass of the gas is speed become

(D) (S)
made 4 times half
(1) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – S, C – Q, D – S
(3) A – S, B –R, C – Q, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – Q

28) When wave enter from one medium to another medium which quantity remain unchanged :-

(1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
(3) Wave speed
(4) Amplitude

29) Two waves of intensity ratio 9 : 1 produce interference then is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 10 : 8

30) Young's modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in C.G.S. unit, it will be equal to :-

(1) 1.9 × 1010

(2) 1.9 × 1011
(3) 1.9 × 1012
(4) 1.9 × 1013

31) A student writes following four different expression for the displacement 'y' in a periodic motion
:

(a) y = a sin
(b) y = a sinVt

(c)

(d)
Where "a" is maximum displacement V is the speed and T is the time period, then dimensionally :-

(1) a and b are wrong

(2) b and c are wrong
(3) c and d are wrong
(4) d and a are wrong

32) A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation x = 5.0 cos(2πt + π). At time t = 1.5 s, its
displacement, speed and acceleration respectively is :

(1) 0, –10π, + 20π2

(2) 5, 0, –20π2
(3) 2.5, + 20π, 0
(4) –5.0, + 5π, –10π2

33) Which of the following statement is incorrect for an object executing S.H.M. :

(1) The value of acceleration is maximum at the extreme points

(2) The total work done for completing one oscillation is zero
(3) The energy changes from one form to another
(4) The velocity at the mean position is zero

34) A particle executes SHM with periodic time of 6 seconds. The time taken for traversing a
distance of half the amplitude from mean position is :

(1) 3 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3) 1 sec.
(4) 1/2 sec.

35) The period of a particle executing S.H.M. is 8 s. At t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio of
the distances covered by the particle in the 1st second to the 2nd second is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) What will be the force constant of the spring system shown in the figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of the circle, the period sense of
revolution and the initial positions are indicated on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of the x-

projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe of length is equal to that of the first
overtone of an open pipe of length . The ratio of their length is :

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 3 : 5
(4) 3 : 4

39) The equation of a wave on a string of linear density 0.04 kg m-1 is given by

. The tension in the string is :

(1) 6.25 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 12.5 N
(4) 0.5 N

40) Match the column I and column II

Column I Column II
 Longitudinal Particles of the medium vibrate
(A) (P)
waves perpendicular to the wave propagation.

Two progressive waves of slightly

(B) Transverse wave (Q) different frequencies superimpose in the
same direction

Two progressive waves of same

(C) Beats (R) frequency superimpose in the opposite
directions.

Particles of the medium vibrate along the

(D) Stationary waves (S)
wave propagation.
(1) A - Q, B - R, C - Q, D - P
(2) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R
(3) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D - R
(4) A - P, B - Q, C - S, D - R

41) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is -

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

42) An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27°C resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled
with the same gas at 90°C, the resonance frequency at the same mode will be :-

(1) 420 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 484 Hz
(4) 512 Hz

43) A tunning fork having frequency 500 Hz produce 4 beats/sec with sitar wire. If we decrease
tension in wire it vibrates in unison with tuning fork. The frequency of wire before change is

(1) 504 Hz
(2) 496 Hz
(3) 500 Hz
(4) 498 Hz

44) "Stationary wave" are so called because in them :-

(1) The particle of the medium are not disturbed at all

(2) The particle of the medium do not execute SHM.
(3) There occurs no flow of energy along the wave
(4) The interference effect can't be observed.
45) Four wires of identical lengths, diameters and of the same material are stretched. The ratio of
their tension is 16:9:4:1. The ratio of their fundamental frequencies is.

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(2) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(4) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1

CHEMISTRY

1) E⊕ will attack at which position :

(1) 1 or 3
(2) 2 or 3
(3) 3 or 4
(4) 2 or 5

2) The active species in the nitration of benzene is

+
(1) NO2
(2) HNO3
–
(3) NO3
–
(4) NO2

3) Which of the following is most reactive in electrophilic substitution reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4)
Compare rate of E.S.R :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > b > a

5) In the reaction the major product formed is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) products. Which is not obtained in product ?

(1) CH3–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which reaction is suitable to obtained n pentane only in good yield ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following product is not formed by hydrogenation of alkene or alkyne?

(a) n-butane (b) neopentane
(c) methane (d) ethane

(1) a,b,c
(2) b,c
(3) c,d
(4) b,c,d

9)
Product C is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following has smallest bond dissociation energy of C–H bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH2=CH–CH2–H
(4) CH3–CH2–H

11) Identify the name of reaction which is not correctly matched with the reaction.

CH3CH2CH2CH3
(1)
→ (Isomeration)
(2) C6H14 C4H8 + C2H6 → Pyrolysis
(3) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O → Controlled oxidation
(4) CH4 + HNO3 CH3NO2 → Nitration

12) Rate of dehydrohalogenation for alkyl halide is least :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) Principal functional group in

(1) Alcohol
(2) Carboxylic acid
(3) Ketone
(4) Amide

14) Number of olefinic bond in the given compound is :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

15) IUPAC name for the compound

(1) α-Methyl cyclohexanone

(2) 2-Methyl cyclohexanone
(3) Heptanone-2
(4) Methyl cyclohexanone

16) Assertion(A): is less stable than

Reason(R): The +I effect of the CH3 groups tends to stabilze the

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is NOT correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) & (R) is false

17) Which of the following have 180° bond angle?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Correct name of CH3–OH will be ?

(1) Carbinol
(2) Wood spirit
(3) Methyl alcohol
(4) All

19) Which is general formula of amine ?

(1) CnH2n+2N
(2) CnH2nN
(3) CnH2n+3N
(4) CnH3nN

20) In compound no. of σ and no. of π bond is respectively

(1) 4, 3
(2) 5, 5
(3) 3, 4
(4) 11, 5
21)

(1) 2-Acetoxy ethanoic acid

(2) 2-Methoxycarbonyl ethanoic acid
(3) 3-Methoxyformyl ethanoic acid
(4) 2-Methoxyformyl acetic acid

22) Assign correct E, Z configuration to following molecules :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following show Geometrical isomerism.

(1) 1,1-Diphenyl-1-butene
(2) 1,1-Diphenyl-2-butene
(3) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
(4) 3-Phenyl-1-butene

24) Calculate total number of geometrical isomers in the following compound

CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–C6H5

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

25) Number of structural isomers of C6H14 is -

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

26) CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism :-

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

27) Common name of the compound

CH2=CH–CH2–NH2 is :

(1) Vinyl amine

(2) Allyl amine
(3) Divinyl amine
(4) Diallyl amine

28) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2–

29)

Invalid name of given compound is :-

CH3–CH=CH–CN
(1) Allyl cyanide
(2) Crotononitrile
(3) But-2-enenitrile
(4) None of these

30) R-2-chloro-3-methyl butane is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following is not D-sugar :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

32) Compare stability of following resonating structures :-

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) I > II > IV > III

33) How many total benzenoid isomers are possible for molecular formula C7H8O.
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

34) The value of specific rotation depends on -

(1) Concentration
(2) Nature of substance
(3) Length of polarimeter tube
(4) All of these

35) In which of following lone pair of electron is not delocalised :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Most stable conformation of ethylene glycol among the following is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

37) How many stereoisomer does this molecule have CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

38)

Odd electron intermediate species is :

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) Carbon free radical
(4) Carbene

39) Which of the following order of inductive effect is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3) –CT3 > – CH3[+I]

(4) –OH > –OCH3 [–I]

40) Pick the most basic compound :-

(1) Ammonia
(2) Alkyl amine
(3) Aryl amine
(4) Amide

41) Arrange the given carbocation according to their stability :-

(1) I > II > III
(2) III > I > II
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > I > III

42) Incorrect stability order is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Find the most stable carbanion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In the following compound which hydrogen can be extracted easily by free radical substitution
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Given compound are :-

(1) Non-aromatic
(2) Anti-aromatic
(3) Aromatic
(4) Alicyclic

BIOLOGY

1) As we go from kingdom to species, the number of common characteristic goes on-

(1) Decreasing
(2) Increasing
(3) Remain same
(4) First increasing then decreasing

2) In the given taxonomic categories the missing ranks A, B & C are sequently in reference to a
plant:

(1) Family, order, phylum

(2) Genus, order, phylum
(3) Genus, order, division
(4) Genus, order, kingdom

3) Which of the following is true for Mango ?

(1) Order – Poales, Class – Monocotyledonae

(2) Order – Poales, Kingdom – Spermatophyta
(3) Class – Monocotyledonae, Kingdom – Angiospermae
(4) Order – Sapindales, Class – Dicotyledonae

4) In five kingdom system of classification blue green algae included in :-

(1) Animalia
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Protista

5) In which of the following system of classification each character (vegetative and sexual) is given
equal importance ?
(a) Artificial system
(b) Numerical system
(c) Natural system
(d) Phylogenetic system

(1) a and d
(2) only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b
6) Which of the following plant group is called vascular embryophytes ?

(1) Thallophyta
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) (1) & (2) both

7)

In slime moulds,
(a) The main body is wall less
(b) True wall is found around spores
(c) Spores are dispersed by water
(d) Nutrition is photosynthetic

(1) Statements a, b are correct

(2) Statements a, c are correct
(3) Statements b, d are correct
(4) Statements a, d are correct

8) Identify the given diagrams and select the correct options :-

A B C D

(1) Sphagnum Porphyra Dictyota Laminaria

(2) Sphagnum Dictyota Polysiphonia Laminaria

(3) Sphagnum Fucus Laminaria Chara

(4) Sphagnum Chara Polysiphonia Laminaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes are limited in distribution because :

(1) They are avascular plants

(2) They are embryophyte
(3) Depending of sporophyte on gametophyte
(4) They need water for transport of male gametes (Antherozoids)
10) Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of:

(1) Prokaryota
(2) Thallophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Spermatophyta

11) Observe the following diagrams of plants carefully and identify the heterosporous plant.

(1) A and C only

(2) A and D only
(3) Only A
(4) A, B and D only

12) Read the following 4 statement (a-d). How many of the statements given below are correct.
(a) Primary cell wall is capable of growth which gradually diminishes as the cell matures
(b) Secondary wall is formed on the inner side of the primary wall
(c) The middle lamella is madeup of Ca pectate mainly.
(d) Anton van leeuwenhoek ovserved the first living cell.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

13) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Cell wall – Structural support

(2) Central vacuole – Storage
(3) Amyloplast – Starch storage
(4) Plasmodesmata – Protection
14) Identify the correct match from the following :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1 Acrocentric a Centromere in the centre i I-shape

2 Metacentric b Centromere at the end ii V-shape

Centromere is situated close to

3 Telocentric c iii J-shape
its end.

Centromere is slightly away

4 Submetacentric d iv L-shape
from the centre
(1) 1-c-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii, 2-d-iv
(2) 4-c-iii, 1-b-i, 3-a-ii, 2-d-iv
(3) 2-a-ii, 3-b-i, 1-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(4) 4-d-iv, 2-b-ii, 3-a-iii, 1-c-i

15) The golgi cisternae are arranged :-

(1) Concentrically near the plasma membrane

(2) Perpendicular near the nucleolus
(3) Concentrically near the nucleus
(4) Perpendicular near the cell membrane

16) During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in :-

(1) S phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase

17)

In which stage of cell division, number of chromosomes best counted:-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Interphase

18) Plant material best suited for studying mitosis is:

(1) cork
(2) anther
(3) root tip
(4) all of these

19) The figures below show 3 phases of mitosis select the option giving correct identification
together with the correct event ?

(1) C-Telophase-nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters

(2) B-Anaphase-segregation of homologous chromosome
(3) A-Prophase-chromosomes get fully condensed
(4) C-Metaphase-condensation of chromatin to form chromosome

20) Stem modify into flattened structure in :-

(1) Opuntia
(2) Zaminkand
(3) Banana
(4) Eichhornia

21) Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair

(1) Hypogynous flower – Mustard

(2) Axile placentation – Argemone
(3) Asymmetric flower – Canna
(4) Imbricate aestivation – Gulmohur

22) According to given diagram, find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous - ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous - ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous - ovary superior
(4) Epigynous - ovary inferior

23) In which type of inflorescence the flowers are borne in a basipetal order

(1) Racemose
(2) Cymose
(3) Spike
(4) Catkin

24) In which type of placentation, the ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary :-

(1) Marginal
(2) Parietal
(3) Axile
(4) Free central

25) Which meristem is generally cylindrical ?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Lateral and intercalary both

26) Which of the following is true?

(1) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen.

(2) Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen.
(3) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen.
(4) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen.

27) Which of the following is not a part of ground tissues system ?

(1) Mesophyll
(2) Cortex
(3) Vascular bundle
(4) Pericycle

28) Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.

(2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

29) Which structure comprises a single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces
?

(1) Epidermis of root

(2) Endodermis of root
(3) Pericycle of root
(4) Medullary rays
30) If green plant cells are incubated with O18-labelled water, which of the following molecules will
become radioactive when the cells are exposed to light ?

(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) H2O
(4) Sugar

31) Which of the following reactions most appropriately explains the photosynthesis in higher plants
?

(1)
6CO2+12H2O C6H12O6+6O2+12H2O

(2)
6CO2+6H2O C6H12O6+6O2

(3)
C6H12O6+6O2 6CO2+6H2O

(4)
6CO2+12H2O C6H12O6+6O2+6H2O

32) All of the following are required for photosynthesis to occur, except :-

(1) CO2
(2) Light
(3) Green pigment of the leaf
(4) Starch

33) Study the pathway given below.

In which of the following options, correct

words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated ?

A B C

(1) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration

 (2) Fixation Transamination Regeneration

(3) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration

(4) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Assertion : Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also called as Z scheme.

Reason : When all the carriers are placed in a sequence on a redox potential scale, it gives its
characteristic shape.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35)

How many molecules of CO2 are released during two turns of Krebs cycle ?

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 3

36) The yields of complete aerobic respiration from 1 molecule of glucose ?

(1) 8NADH2, 2FADH2, 2ATP

(2) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 38АТР
(3) 12NADH2, 30ATP, H2O
(4) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP

37) In the above pathway identify A and B:

(1) A-PEP B - Pyruvic acid

(2) A-3PGAL B - Lactic acid

 (3) A-3PGAL B - Ethyl alcohol

(4) A-PEP B - Acetyl Co - A

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38)

Correct sequence of use of respiratory substrates is

(1) Fats, Proteins, Carbohydrates

(2) Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats
(3) Proteins, Fats, Carbohydrates
(4) Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins

39) The floral diagram given below belongs to :-

(1) Pea
(2) Lupin
(3) Mustard
(4) Tomato

40) How many ATP molecule(s) is/are produced by one acetyl CoA without ETS ?

(1) 1ATP
(2) 15 ATP
(3) 14 ATP
(4) 11 ATP

41) A phase of growth of an S-curve which is the maximum and fastest ?

(1) Lag phase

(2) Decline phase
(3) Log phase
(4) Stationary phase

42) The given below diagram shows initial growth and final growth in a month. Determine its
absolute growth rate (AGR) and Relative growth rate (RGR)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)

How many of the following functions/effects are related to the cytokinins ?

bolting, lateral shoot growth, nutrient mobilisation, apical hook formation, internode elongation,
delay of leaf senscence, breaking seed dormancy.
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

44) Which of the given condition is exhibited by the diagrams given below :-

(1) Developmental heterophylly

(2) Environmental heterophylly
(3) Heteroblastic development
(4) Redifferentiation

45) Hormone that promotes growth of lateral buds/has negative effect on apical dominance is :-

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Auxin
(4) Both 2 and 3

46) In the diagram the section of human heart is given certain parts have been represented by
alphabets. Choose the correct option in which an alphabet is not correctly matched with the part
they indicate and their function. Option :-

(1) A = aortic arch → supplies oxygenated blood to body organs

(2) B = SA node → It generates maximum contraction impulses and initiates heart beat
(3) C = pulmonary vein → it collects the deoxygenated blood from lungs
D = chordae tendinae → To prevent the reverse opening of the AV valve towards atria during
(4)
venticular contraction

47)
Observe the following diagram and find out the correct option for (A) :-

(1) Androgen, FSH, LH

(2) Cortisol, Thyroxine, Androgen
(3) Oestrogen, Thyroxine, PTH
(4) Cortisol, ADH, Thyroxine

48)

Select the correct order of events occurring in blood clotting :

(I) Formation of fibrin.
(II) Formation of clot.
(III) Thromboplastin formation.
(IV) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Choose the correct option :

(1) III, IV, II and I
(2) III, II, I and IV
(3) III, IV, I and II
(4) IV, I, III and II

49) Assertion : Rise in , H+ concentration and temperature shift's the Hb-O2 dissociation curve
to right side.
Reason : Rise in , [H+] and temperature decreases the binding affinity of Hb-Towards O2.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50)

Read following features carefully & select out the figure to which they belong. Exclusively marine,
only sexual reproduction, Hermaphrodite, External fertilization, Diploblastic, radial symmetry and
ciliated comb plates :-

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) Only D

51) Consider the following statements (a–d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only:-
(a) At the time of ventricular systole atrioventricular valve are closed and semilunar valve are
opened.
(b) At the time of ventricular diastole atrioventricular valve are opened and semilunar valve are
closed.
(c) At the time of joint diastole atrioventricular valve are opened and semilunar valve are closed.
(d) At the time of atrial systole atrioventricular valve are closed and semilunar valve are opened.
Options :-

(1) Statements a, b and c

(2) Statements a and b only
(3) Statements c and d only
(4) Statements b, c and d

52) Read the following statement :-

(A) In polarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF to ICF through VGC, Na+/K+ pump is open and inner
charge is –ve.
(B) In Depolarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF to ICF through VGC, K+ VGC close.
(C) In repolarisation, K+ ion goes from ICF to ECF through VGC, Na+ VGC are close and inner charge
is –ve.
(D) In hyper polarisation, K+ ion goes from ICF to ECF through VGC, Na+/K+ pump is open and inner
charge is –ve.
How many of above statements are true?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

53)
Choose the correct option for (A), (B) & (C) labelling :-

(1) A – Parathyroid, B – PTH, C – Tetany

(2) A – Thyroid, B – T4, C – Cretinism
(3) A – Thyroid, B – T4, C – Gigantism
(4) A – Parathyroid, B – PTH, C – Hypocalcemia

54) Read the following statements with regards to cockroach :

(i) One pair testis are found in 4th to 6th segments of abdomen of male cockroach.
(ii) Mushroom gland is found in the 6th segment in female cockroach.
(iii) Three pairs of phallomeres are found in male cockroach as external genitalia.
(iv) On an average 9-10 ootheca are produced by a female in one breeding season.
How many statements are correct?

(1) All are correct

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

55) Read the given terms and select the correct option with their appropriate explanation.
(a) Uremia (b) ANF
(c) Micturition (d) Glycosuria

(1) (a) accumulation of urea in blood. (b) process of release of urine and it is a involuntary process.
(2) (b) release from atria of heart. (c) process by which urine is concentrated.
(3) (d) presence of glucose in urine. (b) can cause dilation of blood vessels.
(4) (a) accumulation of uric acid in blood. (d) presence of glucose in urine.

56) During muscular contraction which of the following events occur ?

(a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) 'I' band get reduces in length
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only

57) Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, urine is hypertonic, while is ascending limb
the urine is hypotonic.
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

58) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(i) In urochordates like Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum, notochord is present only in larval tail.
(ii) In cephalochordates like Branchiostoma (Amphioxus or Lancelet) notochord extends from head to
tail region and is persistent throughout the life.
(iii) In chondricthyes mouth is located dorsally and notochord is persistent throughout the life.
(iv) In cyclostomates like Petromyzon scales, Jaw cranium, Vertebral column are absent

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) All except (iv)
(4) All of these

59) After examining the blood group of husband and wife, the doctor advised them not to have more
than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be :

(1) Male Rh– and male Rh+

(2) Female Rh– and male Rh+
(3) Male Rh+ and female Rh+
(4) Male Rh– and female Rh–

60) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis ?
(B) Between carpals ?
(C) Between cranial bone ?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity ?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Elipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket

61) Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the

labels and give its function/s.

(1) D-Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body parts, = 95 mm Hg

(2) A-Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body part, = 60 mm Hg
(3) B-Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, = 90 mm Hg
(4) C- vena cava - takes blood from body parts to the right auricle, = 45 mm Hg

62) Identify the gland (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) shown below and select the option with correct

combination of the gland with their hormone and metabolic effect?

Gland Hormone Metabolic effect

(1) (a) Thyroid Parathormone Stimulates Lipolysis

 Stimulates
(2) (c) Pancreas Insulin
glycogenolysis

stimulates
(3) (d) Adrenal Cortisol
gluconeogenesis

(4) (f) Ovary Androgen Protein catabolism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Identify the correct and incorrect match about the respiratory volume and capcities and mark
the correct answer :-
(a) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(b) Vital capacity = Total lung capacity – Residual volume
(c) Inspiratory capacity = Total lung capacity – Functional Residual capcity
(d) Total long capacity = Vital capacity + Functional Residual capacity

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect

(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct

(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect

(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) How many fishes in list given below have bony endoskelton :-
Scoliodon, Exocoetus, Pristis, Hippocampus, Labeo, Carcharodon, Clarias, Trygon, Pterophyllum,
Catla.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

65) Given below is a figure showing different parts (A, B, C) of a neuron. Select the option with
incorrect information about those parts ?

A - As a group it forms grey matter that gives greyish appearence due to high concentration of
(1)
Nissl's granules.
(2) B - as a group it forms white matter which is opaque, white in colour.
(3) C- Dendrons which remain in contact with receptor organ
(4) A- Its groups are known as ganglia in CNS & as Nuclei in PNS

66) Which of the following animal is triploblastic, acoelomate with solid mesoderm
between ectoderm and endoderm?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Planaria
(3) Earthworm
(4) Sycon

67) Which of the following group of animals exhibit bilateral symmetry only ?

(1) Pennatula, Adamsia, Pleurobrachia

(2) Euspongia, spongilla, Taenia
(3) Ascaris, Nereis, Scorpion
(4) Echinus, Gorgonia, Sycon

68) Read the following statements with respect to Aves:-

(i) Respiration is through skin.
(ii) The fore limbs always possess scales.
(iii) Long bones are pneumatic.
(iv) Heart is completely three chambered.
(v) Digestive tracts have additional chambers called crop and gizzard.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (iii), (v)

(2) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

69)

Match the column I with column II and column III select the correct option from given below
options.
 Column I Column II Column III

(i) Porifera (a) Ancylostoma (p) Bath sponge

(ii) Ctenoplana (b) Fasciola (q) Earthworm

(iii) Coelenterata (c) Pheretima (r) Sea-fan

Dorso-ventrally
(iv) (d) Euspongia (s) Liver fluke
flattened body

External
(v) Aschelminthes (e) Comb plates (t)
Fertilization

(vi) Nephridia (f) Gorgonia (u) Hookworm

(1) i-e-p, ii-a-s, iii-f-q, iv-b-u, v-d-r, vi-c-t
(2) i-c-p, ii-d-s, iii-f-q, iv-b-u, v-e-r, vi-a-t
(3) i-f-p, ii-a-s, iii-d-q, iv-b-u, v-e-r, vi-c-t
(4) i-d-p, ii-e-t, iii-f-r, iv-b-s, v-a-u, vi-c-q

70) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaea.

71) Which of the following is correct?

(a) Pars distalis produces GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH
(b) Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone called melatonin
(c) Posterior lobe of pituitary is also called neurohypophysis or pars nervosa (d) Posterior pituitary
stores and release two hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

72)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect with reference to frog :-

(I) Eyes are bulged and not covered by nictitating membrane.
(II) Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(III) The frog never drinks water.

(IV) pair of nostrils is present above to mouth.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only I

73) Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has
certain mistakes in the labeling. Three of the wrongly labelled bones are :-
Options to be changed as follows

(1) Tibia, tarsals and femur

(2) Femur, fibula and tibia
(3) Tibia, fibula and phalanges
(4) Tarsals, femur, phalanges

74) Assertion :- The mid brain of frog is characterised by a pair of optic lobes.
Reason :- The medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues into spinal
cord.

(1) Both Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is corret explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason is are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

75) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II
Damaged alveolar walls
A. Emphysema (i)
and decreased respiratory surface
B. Asthma (ii) Low atmospheric pressure
C. Silicosis/Asbestosis (iii) Occupational disorder
 Inflammation of bronchi
D. Altitude sickness (iv)
and bronchioles
(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(2) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)

76)

Which of the following respiration take place during hibernation in frog :

(1) Pulmonary respiration

(2) Cutaneous respiration
(3) Buccopharyngeal respiration
(4) Gill respiration

77) Identify the structure A, B, C and D in following diagram-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Maxilla Mandible Labrum Labium

(2) Mandible Maxillae Labium Labrum

(3) Labrum Mandible Maxillae Labium

(4) Labium Labrum Mandible Maxillae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Skin dry, cornified with epidermal scutes is a feature of :

(1) Hyla
(2) Naja
(3) Aptenodyte
(4) Camelus

79) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 2nd–6th
a. Testes K. w. 1 pair
segments

4th–6th
b. Ovaries L. x. 2 pairs
segments

6th–7th
c. Spermathecae M. y. 4 pairs
segments

Mushroom
d. N. 6th segment z. Single
gland
(1) a–L–y, b–K–x, c–M–z, d–N–W
(2) a–L–w, b–K–w, c–N–w, d–M–z
(3) a–K–x, b–L–w, c–N–y, d–M–z
(4) a–N–x, b–M–w, c–K–z, d–L–y

80) Given below are the statements related with the functioning of different parts of human brain :-

(a) A-is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.
(b) B- controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
(c) C-along with amygdala and hippocampus involved in regulation of sexual behaviour expression of
emotional reaction
(d) D-convertes short term memories into long term memories,
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

81) Given below are the diagrammatic representations of organic compounds in living tissue

A B

C D
 E

When one has to perform a chemical analysis, which of the following organic compounds will be
present in filtrate ?
(1) A, B and E
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) C and E

82) Read the following Statements (A–D)

(A) PCT is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium.
(B) Reabsorption is minimum in the descending limb of Henle's loop.
(C) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in DCT.
(D) DCT is also capable of reabsorption of and selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium
ions.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

83) In a polysaccharide, right end of chain is A and left end is B.

(1) A - Reducing, B - Reducing

(2) A - Reducing, B - Non-reducing
(3) A - Non-reducing, B-Reducing
(4) A - Non-reducing, B- Non-reducing

84) What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram and choose the correct option :-

A - ATP binding site

B - Actin binding site
(1)
C - Head
D - Tail
A - ATP binding site
B - Actin binding site
(2)
C - Head
D - Cross arm
A - ATP binding site
B - Myosin binding site
(3)
C - Head
D - Cross arm
A - ATPase enzyme
B - Actin binding site
(4)
C - Cross arm
D - Head

86) Match correctly between Column I and Column II

Column-I Column-II
 Glucose
(A) Collagen (I)
transport

Binding with some

chemical, like for
(B) Trypsin (II)
smell taste and
hormones

(C) Insulin (III) Hormones

(D) Antibody (IV) Enzyme

Intercellular
(E) Receptor (V)
ground substance

Fight infectious
(F) GLUT-4 (VI)
agents
(1) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-VI, F-I
(3) A-VI, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV, F-III
(4) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-IV, F-VI

87) Which one is incorrect regarding structure marked as 'A' in given figure :-

(1) It lies in medulla

(2) These are 8-12 in number
(3) It forms renal papilla
(4) It contains glomerulus

88) Select the correct statement

(1) Ducts of glands are lined by squamous epithelium

(2) Inner wall of Bowman's capsule is internally lined by columnar epithelium
(3) Stomach is internally lined by columnar epithelium
(4) Fallopian tube is internally lined by cuboidal epithelium

89) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column -I Column - II Column - III

Pliable
(1) Bones (a) Adipocytes (i)
matrix

Fibroblast
(2) Cartilage (b) (ii) Loose matrix
cells
 Areolar
(3) (c) Osteocytes (iii) Store fat
tissue

Adipose Nonpliable
(4) (d) Chondrocytes (iv)
tissue matrix
(1) (1)-(d)-(i); (2)-(c)-(iv); (3)-(a)-(iii); (4)-(b)-(ii)
(2) (1)-(c)-(iv); (2)-(d)-(i); (3)-(b)-(ii); (4)-(a)-(iii)
(3) (1)-(c)-(i); (2)-(d)-(iv); (3)-(b)-(iii); (4)-(a)-(ii)
(4) (1)-(a)-(i); (2)-(b)-(ii); (3)-(c)-(iii); (4)-(d)-(iv)

90) Given diagram is a cross section of body tissue. Different labels are located in this diagram.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched with their function :-

(1) a,c,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,b,f
(4) b,e,f
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 1 1 4 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: Find the resultant displacement of a particle at a specific position

(x = 1) and time (t = 2) when two waves superpose.

Concept: Principle of superpose y = y1 + y2

Solution:

At x = 1 and t = 2

At x = 1 and t =2

Resultant displacement of a particle

Final answer: Option (1)

2)

v = 320 m/s

fundamental frequency = = 80 Hz.

3)

Path difference, Δx = S2D–S1D

=5–4=1m
 ∴ The corresponding phase difference will be,

Using I = I1 + I2 +

I = I0 + I0 +

4)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

5) and

On solving

6)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

7)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

8)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

9) Centripetal force provided by the gravitational force of attraction between two particles i.e.

10) On sudden removal of gravitational force a satellite will move tangentially to the orbit with
same velocity as the centripetal force is removed.

11) Question Explanation: An ideal gas is compressed isothermally; work done on gas is
given Determine heat transfer.
Concept: First law of thermodynamic for an isothermal process in ideal gas.

Solution:
For isothermal process: ΔU = 0 ⇒ Q = W.

Work done on gas: Won = + 1.5 × 104 J ⇒ work done by gas Wby = – 1.5 × 104 J.

From first law: Q = Wby = – 1.5 × 104 J. (Negative sign means heat flows out)

Convert to calories: 1 cal ≈ 4.184 J.

cal ≈ – 3585 cal ≈ –3.6 × 103 cal

So, 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed out.

Final Answer: option (1)

12) In vertical circular motion tension is maximum at lower point. So it can break from that
point.

13)
Tension is always perpendicular to velocity

14)

Question Explanation : We are given two solids, A and B, both having the same volume. They
float in water with different amounts submerged. Solid A is submerged to half its volume,
while solid B is submerged to two-thirds of its volume. We need to determine the ratio of their
densities.
Concept Based : Archimedes' principle states that a body submerged in a fluid experiences
an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fflid displaced. For floating bodies, the
weight of the object equals the buoyant force.
Formula Used :
Buoyant force (F_b) :

Weight (W) :
Equilibrium condition for floating :
Fb = W
Calculation :
For solid A :

Volume of A immersed : Vd =
Buoyant force on A :
Weight of A :

Simplifying :
For solid B:

Volume of B immersed : Vd =

Buoyant force on B:

Weight B :

Simplifying :
Ratio of Densities :

Now, ratio of the densities of A and B is 3 : 4.

15) ∵ T = 12 sec
A = 4, at t = 12, x = –4
∴ a = –ω2x

16)

ln Liquid → gnet =
ρ = density of liquid
σ = density of material of bob

so TLiq = =

TLiq =

17)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

 18)

Net force by surface on block will be opposite gravity.

19)

at t = ϕ=π
x = Asinπ = 0

20)

Explaining the Question :-

In this equation, initially spring compressed and block is in rest at negative amplitude 'A'.
when bullet strikes with velocity V0 and embeded into block
Now we have to find the position x of the block with time.
Concept:-
This question is based on Amplitude and initial phase are change for new system as energy is
changed.
Solution :-

mv0 = 2mv

A1 =

21)

Question Explanation:
We have four different plots of force versus position graphs. We have to find which one of the
following is an oscillatory motion.

Concept:
This question is based on Oscillatory and Periodic motions.

Solution:
For a motion to be oscillatory ; Force acting on a particle should be opposite to the direction of
displacement.
Hence, force and displacement must be of opposite signs.
Options, (1), (2) & (3) follow this.
Hence option (4) is not representing oscillatory motion.
Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

22) k = = or λ = 50 cm

23) Solution
1. Asking About :
The wave speed for the given wave equation:

2. Concept:
The standard wave equation is :

3. Formula :

4. Calculation / Explanation :
Comparing with y = A sin2(wt–kx), we identify :

Substituting into the formula :

30π π/11 30 x 11330 m/s

5. Final Answer:
v = 330m / s

6. Correct Option: (1) 330 m/sec

24)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

25) Explanation the Question:

A pendulum is taken to a place where g decreases by 4%. We must find the percentage change
in its time period.
Concept:
This question is based on
Time period of a simple pendulum, T ∝ . So when g decreases, T increases.
Formula:
ΔT/T = – (1/2)(Δg/g) × 100%
Solution:
Decrease in g = 4% → Δg/g = –0.04
ΔT/T = –(1/2) (–0.04) = 0.02 = 2%
26)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

27)

Speed of sound,
T → absolute temperature
Mw → Molecular mass

28)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

29)

Question Explanation :
Two waves have intensity ratio 9 : 1 and they interfere. Find the ratio of maximum intensity to
minimum intensity in the interference pattern.

Concept:
This question is based on Wave Interference.

Formula :

Solution :
Given the intensity ratio

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

Level : Easy
30)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

31) Since, LHS is displacement, so RHS should have dimensions of displacement. Also
argument of a trigonometric function should be dimensionless. In expression (2) argument is
not dimensionless and in expression (3) a/T has not the dimensions of displacement.

32)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

33)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

34)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

35)

At t = 0, the particle is at mean position, so

x = a sin (ωt)

x = a sin

x = a sin is the displacement of the particle from 0 → t s

Let x1 = displacement of the particle from 0 → 1s
and x2 = displacement of the particle from
0 → 2s

x1 = a sin =
x2 = a
Hence displacement of the particle from t = 1s to t = 2 s is
(x2 - x1)

(x2 - x1) = a

36)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

37)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

38) Here,

Given for first overtone,

and for first overtone n = 1

So, the ratio of lengths

39)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

40)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

41)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

42)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

43)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

44)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

45)

T1 : T2 : T3 : T4 = 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
f1 : f2 : f3 : f4 = 4 : 3 : 1
CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation:

The question shows the structure of furan with Number positions and asks at which position
an electrophile (E+) wil preferentially attack.

Concept:
Electrophilic aromatic substitution, aromatic heterocyclic, stability of resonating structures.

Solution:
Drawing the resonating structures of furan:

• Comparing the stability of Resonating structures-

(I) = (VI) > (III) = (IV) > (II) = (V)
• Ist & VIth structures are same as well as electrophilic substitution is not possible on oxygen
atom because it has no hydrogen atom.
• So, electrophilic substitution is possible where the e– density is maximum the position in
which have maximum e– density is identity the more stable R.S. (III) & (IV).
• e– density is maximum at the position 2 & 5 in R.S. (III) & (IV) so, E⊕ will attack at 2 & 5
position in furan.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4).

47) Explanation:
The active species in nitration of benzene.

Concept:
This question is based on NO2⊕ is the active specy in nitration of benzene.

Solution:
nitronium ion (NO2+​ )is an electrophile that actually attacks the benzene ring.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

48) Explain Question –The question asks to identify the compound that is most reactive
towards electrophilic substitution reactions among the given options: phenol, nitrobenzene,
toluene, and benzene.
 Concept – Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR), Activating and Deactivating Groups,
Electron Donating Groups, Electron Withdrawing Groups, Resonance Effect, Inductive Effect,
Hyperconjugation.

Solution –
The reactivity of an aromatic compound towards electrophilic substitution is determined by the
nature of the substituent on the benzene ring. Activating groups increase the electron density
of the ring, making it more reactive, while deactivating groups decrease the electron density,
making it less reactive.

A. Phenol: Has a hydroxyl group (-OH). The -OH group is a strongly activating group due to the
donation of lone pairs on oxygen through resonance (+M Effect).
B. Nitrobenzene: Has a nitro group (-NO₂). The -NO₂ group is a strong electron-withdrawing and
strongly deactivating group due to both -M & -I Effect.
C. Toluene: Has a methyl group (-CH₃). The -CH₃ group is an activating group due to +H & +I
Effect.
D. Benzene: Has no substituent. Its reactivity serves as a reference point.

Comparing the effects:

-OH is a strong activator. -
CH₃ is an activator (weaker than -OH).
-NO₂ is a strong deactivator.
Benzene is the baseline.

The order of reactivity towards ESR is: Strongly Activated > Activated > Benzene >
Deactivated.
Among the given options, phenol is the most strongly activated & Most reactive towards
ESR due to the powerful electron-donating resonance effect (+M Effect) of the hydroxyl
group.

Final Answer – Option (1)

49) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about order of rate of ESR

Concept :
This question is based on order of rate of ESR

Solution :

∴ Rate of ESR is : - (a) > (b) > (c)

Final Answer :
Option (1)

50) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about product of reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on electrophile attack at electron rich site.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (4)

51) Wurtz reaction

52) Sodalime decarboxylation is best method to obtain good yield of n-pentane.

53)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

54)

55) Bond dissociation energy ∝

56)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

57)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

58)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

59)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

60)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

61)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

62)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

63) Correct Answer is Option (4).

64)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

65)

66)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

67)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

68)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

69)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

70)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

71)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

72)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

73)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

74)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

75)
Correct Answer is Option (4).

76)

Explaining the Question:

Identify the sugar which does not have 'D' configuration
Concept: 'D-L' configuration
Solution:
In a correct fisher projection formula on the last chiral carbon if group is on RHs os Hydrogen
atom then assign 'D' otherwise 'L'.

(1) : D-sugar.

(2) : L-sugar.

(3) : D-sugar.
Final Answer: Option_2

77) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about stability of resonating structure.

Concept :
This question is based on stability resonating structure.

Solution :
Stability of resonating structure : II > I > III > IV

Final Answer :
Option (1)

78)

79)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

80) Question Explanation: Identifying where the lone pair is not delocalized.
Concept: Resonance
Solution: A lone pair is not delocalized if it is not part of a conjugated system. The compound
in option D, with a saturated carbon, has no conjugation, so the lone pair is not delocalized.

81)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

82)

83)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

84)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

85)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

86)
 Correct Answer is Option (4).

87)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

88)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

89)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

90)
Both ring are aromatic, so this compound is aromatic.

BIOLOGY

91)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

92)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

93)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

94)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 18

95)

NCERT XIth Page No.29,30

96)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

97)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which statements about slime moulds are correct. It
provides four statements about their structure, spore characteristics, spore dispersal method,
and nutrition, and asks to identify the correct pair(s).

Underlying Concept: Slime moulds are a group of organisms classified under protists that
have a unique life cycle. Their main body, called plasmodium, lacks a cell wall, while the
spores they produce are protected by a true cell wall. They are heterotrophic organisms and
do not perform photosynthesis. Spore dispersal mechanisms can vary but are typically not by
water.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: 'Slime moulds = wall-less plasmodium + walled spores' and
'They are heterotrophic, not photosynthetic.'

Common Mistakes: Confusing slime moulds with fungi by assuming their main body has a
cell wall; thinking slime moulds are photosynthetic; assuming spore dispersal happens mainly
by water.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options stating spores are dispersed by water or that
nutrition is photosynthetic are incorrect because slime moulds are heterotrophs and their
spores are typically dispersed by air or other means. The main body does not have a cell wall,
so any statement contradicting this is wrong.

98) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 31,35

99)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

100) Allen module [Link] 113 [Link] 129

101)

NCERT XI Page # 31

102) NCERT Pg. # 132

103)
Correct Answer is Option (4).

104) NCERT XI, Pg.# 139, fig. 8.12

105) NCERT XI Pg.# 133

106)

Ncert Page 121.

107)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

108)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

109)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

110)

111)

112)

113)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

114)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

115)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

116)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

117)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

118)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

119) NCERT XI Pg. # 91, Ist Paragraph

120)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

121)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

122) NCERT, Page#206

123)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

124) NCERT Pg. # 212

125)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

126)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

127)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

128)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

129) NCERT XI (H) Pg.# 80

 130)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

131)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

132)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

133)

NCERT XI, Pg # 249, 250

134)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

135)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

136)

Question Explanation: Identify the mismatched part-function pair from the labeled heart
diagram.

Concept: The question is based on cardiac anatomy.

Solution:
C = pulmonary vein → it collects the deoxygenated blood from lungs: This is incorrect.
Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart. In the
diagram, the vessel labeled (C) appears to be a pulmonary vein due to its direct connection to the
left atrium.
Therefore, the option in which an alphabet is not correctly matched with the part they indicate and
their function is option 3.

Final answer: C = pulmonary vein → it collects the deoxygenated blood from lungs

137)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

138)

Question Explanation : What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the process of
blood clotting?

Concept : The question is based on coagulation of blood.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 (III, IV, I and II).

A. Step I: Injury leads to release of thromboplastin (III).

B. Step II: Thromboplastin haelps in conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (IV).

C. Step III: Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin (I).

D. Step IV: Fibrin threads trap blood cells forming a clot (II).

Final answer : III, IV, I and II

139) NCERT Pg#275

140)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

141)

Explain Question: You're asked to evaluate statements ,and select the option that
includes only the correct statements.

Concept: cardiac cycle

Solution:

(a) At the time of ventricular systole atrioventricular valves are closed and semilunar
valves are opened. (correct)

(b) At the time of ventricular diastole atrioventricular valves are opened and
semilunar valves are closed. (correct)

(c) At the time of joint diastole atrioventricular valves are opened and semilunar
valves are closed. (correct)

Final answer: 1

142)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

143)

Question Explanation: You are given labels (A), (B), and (C) referring to an endocrine gland,
its hormone, and the disorder caused by its deficiency. You must choose the correct option
that correctly matches all three labels.

Concept: Thyroid gland

Solution: The thyroid gland(A)secretes thyroxine (T4)/(B).Deficiency of thyroxine in childhood

causes cretinism(C), a disorder characterized by stunted physical and mental development.

Final answer: A – Thyroid, B – T4, C – Cretinism

144) Question Explanation:

This question is asking about identifying the correct statements related to reproductive
anatomy and reproduction in cockroach.

Concept:
reproductive system and life cycle of cockroach.

Explanation:
(i) is correct: Testes are present in the 4th–6th abdominal segments of male cockroach.
(ii) is incorrect: Mushroom gland is present in male, not female.
(iii) is incorrect: Three phallomeres form the external genitalia of male cockroach, not three
pairs.
(iv) is correct: A female produces about 9–10 ootheca in one breeding season.
So, only statements (i) and (iv) are correct.

Final Answer: Option 3

145)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

146)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

147) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 296

148)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

149)

Question Explanation : The question asks which parental blood groups can cause
complications in childbirth, leading to the doctor’s advice.
 Concept : Rh incompatibility in pregnancy.

Solution :

If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive, the first child may be unaffected, but
the mother can develop anti-Rh antibodies.
In subsequent pregnancies, these antibodies can attack the red blood cells of an Rh positive
fetus, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Final Answer : Option (2)

150)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

151)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

152)

Question Explanation: Identifying glands and their correct hormonal effects.

Concept: Human Endocrine System.

Solution:

A. (1) (a) Thyroid - Parathormone - Stimulates Lipolysis: The thyroid gland (a) produces
thyroid hormones not parathormone (produced by the parathyroid glands). So this is
incorrect.
B. (2) (c) Pancreas - Insulin - Stimulates glycogenolysis: The pancreas (c) produces insulin,
but insulin inhibits glycogenolysis. So this is incorrect.
C. (3) (d) Adrenal - Cortisol - Stimulates gluconeogenesis: The adrenal cortex produces
cortisol, which stimulates gluconeogenesis. This is correct.
D. (4) (f) Ovary - Androgen - Protein catabolism: (f) Appears to be the testis in a female. So
this is incorrect.

Final Answer: 3

153)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

154) NCERT XI, Page # 57 Ist & IInd para

155)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

156)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

157)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

158) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

159)

NCERT Page # 39-49

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83

161)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

162) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 116

163)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

164)

NCERT Pg.#119

165)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

166)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 118

167) NCERT (XI) Pg # 112

168)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

 169)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

170)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

171)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

172) NCERT Pg. # 294

173)

Concept:
Polysaccharide structure, glycosidic bonds, reducing end, non-reducing end.

Explanation:

A. A reducing end of a polysaccharide chain is the end that has a free anomeric carbon (a
hemiacetal or hemiketal group) that is not involved in a glycosidic bond.
B. A non-reducing end is an end where the anomeric carbon is involved in a glycosidic bond
and is therefore not free to undergo oxidation.

Final Answer: The correct option is 2. A - Reducing, B - Non-reducing.

174)

Explain the Question : The question asks what is denoted by X and Y in the enzyme-
catalyzed reaction graph.
Concept : This question is based on How Do Enzymes Bring About Such High Rates Of
Chemical Conversions
Solution –
The graph shows potential energy vs progress of reaction.
Y is the higher peak, representing activation energy without enzyme.
X is the lower peak, representing activation energy with enzyme.
Enzymes lower the activation energy, making reactions faster.
Final Answer : (2)

175)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

176)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

 177) Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement regarding the kidney structure
marked as 'A' in the diagram.
Concept: The question is based on renal anatomy
Solution:
In the given diagram 'A' is renal pyramid.

A. Option 1: It lies in the medulla — correct; structure 'A' is a renal pyramid, located in the
medulla.
B. Option 2: These are 8–12 in number — correct; human kidneys typically have 8–12 renal
pyramids.
C. Option 3: It forms the renal papilla — correct; the apex of each pyramid forms the renal
papilla, which drains into minor calyces.
D. Option 4: It contains glomerulus — incorrect; glomeruli are located in the cortex, not
in the medullary pyramids.

Final answer: Option 4

178)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

179)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

180)

Correct Answer is Option (3).