03-06-2026

9610WMD801490250058 MD

PHYSICS

1) The quantity which has the same dimensions as those of surface tension:-

(1) Coefficient of viscosity

(2) Spring constant
(3) Force
(4) Impulse

2) The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be-

(1) 10Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 50Ω
(4) 30Ω

3) The resistance of platinum wire at 0ºC is 4Ω and 8.4Ω at 60ºC. The temperature coefficient of
resistance of the wire is-

(1) 0.183ºC–1
(2) 1.83ºC–1
(3) 18.3ºC–1
(4) 0.0183ºC–1

4) If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit then the value of R is given by-

(1) 200Ω
(2) 100Ω
(3) 300Ω
(4) 400Ω

5) In hydrogen spectrum the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ. The shortest wavelength
in the Pfund series is :-

(1) 4λ

(2)

(3)

(4) 16λ

6) A horizontal bridge of height 100 m is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge
throws a small ball vertically downwards with a speed u. The ball strikes the water surface after 2
sec. Find value of u. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3) 60 m/s
(4) 80 m/s

7) At any instant of time t, the displacement of a particle is given by (1–6t) (in SI unit) under the
influence of force of 2 (SI unit). The value of instantaneous power is (SI unit) :-

(1) 12
(2) –12
(3) –6
(4) 6

8) If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is reduced to half its original mass and its length is

made thrice its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is times its original time
period. Then the value of x is-

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4)

9) 20 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible
internal resistance. When these are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current become n
times. The value of n is :-

(1) 400
(2) 200
(3) 100
(4) 500

10) An unpolarised light beam travelling in air, strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle; then
which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) The refracted light will be partially polarised
(b) The reflected light will be completely polarized.
(c) The refractive index of glass with respect to air will be equal to 'tangent of angle of incidence'.
(d) Both the reflected and refracted light will be partially polarised

(1) c and d only

(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d

11) A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle pqrsp. The work done by gas along the path

rs is-

(1) Zero
(2) –50J
(3) –160J
(4) 80J

12) The following circuit comprises different logic gates as shown in diagram :-

For inputs A and B, the output (Y) of the circuit is similar to the output
of :-

(1) NAND gate

(2) AND gate
(3) XOR gate
(4) NOT gate

13) A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear
speed is v in the direction shown which one of the following options is correct-

(1) Point A moves slower than point B.

(2) Point A moves faster than point B.
(3) Both the point A and B moves with equal speed.
(4) Point B has zero speed.

14) The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of mass
M and radius R, in a circular orbit at an altitude of 3R from the surface of the earth is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The ratio of frequencies of first overtones produced by an open organ pipe to that of closed
organ pipe having the same length is-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

16) The correct statements about photon among the following are : (Here C is the velocity of light
and ν is the frequency of light)

(A) The energy of photon is

(B) The momentum of a photon,

(C) In a photon-electron collision total energy is conserved but total momentum is not conserved
(D) Photon possesses negative charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B, C and D all
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, B and D only

17)
In the nuclear emission stated above the mass number and atomic number of X respectively are :-

(1) 286, 81
(2) 290, 80
(3) 288, 82
(4) 290, 82

18) A square wire frame of side 10 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension
of water is 0.07 N/m, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is-

(1) 5.6 mN
(2) 56 mN
(3) 28 mN
(4) 2.8 mN

19) A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with a speed v. If length of string
becomes 3 times while keeping the tension same, the speed of bob becomes-

(1) v
(2) v

(3)

(4) 3v

20) The velocity (v) - time (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below-

The acceleration (a) - time (t) graph that best suits this motion is-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21)

The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is-

(1) 0.2 A from A to B through E.

(2) 2 A from A to B through E.
(3) 2 A from B to A through E.
(4) 0.2 A from B to A through E.

22) A light ray enters a right angled prism at point P as shown in figure. It travels through the prism
parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. Find the refractive index of prism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.40 eV, the work functions of
Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively which of
these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons ?

(1) Both Cs and K

(2) K only
(3) Na only
(4) Cs only

24) A wire carrying a current 5A along the positive x-axis has length 2m. It is kept in a magnetic
field . The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is-

(1) 50N
(2) 30N
(3) 20N
(4) 40N

25) In a vernier callipers, (N) divisions of vernier scale coincide with (N-2) divisions of main scale. If
1 MSD represents 0.05 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 100N
(4) 100(N–1)

26) A capacitor has a capacitance of 100μF and it is connected to a voltage source that changes at a
rate of 20 V/s. What is the displacement current?

(1) 1 mA
(2) 2 mA
(3) 3 mA
(4) 4 mA

27) The maximum elongation of a copper wire of 10 m length if the elastic limit of copper and its
young's modulus respectively are 1.5 × 108 N/m2 and 12 × 1010 N/m2 is-

(1) 1.25 cm
(2) 12.5 cm
(3) 125 cm
(4) 12.5 m

28) If x = 20 sin (4πt + ) m represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion,
then time period and amplitude of motion respectively are-

(1)
, 20 cm
(2) 2s, 20 m

(3)
, 20 m
(4) 2s, 40 cm
29) The temperature of a gas is –150ºC. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that rms
speed of molecules is increased by 2 times?

(1) –450ºC
(2) 1107K
(3) 553ºC
(4) 1887K

30) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Material) Susceptibility (฀)

(A) Diamagnetic (I)

฀∝
0
(B) Ferromagnetic (II) ฀∝T

(C) Paramagnetic (III)

฀∝

(D) Non-Magnetic (IV) ฀ = 0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) (A–I), (B–IV), (C–IV), (D–II)
(2) (A–II), (B–III), (C–I), (D–IV)
(3) (A–III), (B–I), (C–IV), (D–II)
(4) (A–IV), (B–II), (C–I), (D–III)

31) A very long conducting wire is bent in a semicircular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The

magnetic field at point P for steady current configuration is given by-

(1)
pointed outward from the page

(2)
pointed outward from the page

(3)
pointed inward to the page

(4)
pointed inward to the page

32) For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below :-
Statement-I :- If distance between the slits is increased, the fringe width increases.
Statement-II :- If the sources of light used are of green and red light alternatively, the angular
fringe width will be greater for green light as compared to that for red light.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

33) In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates
sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 24 V/m. Then the amplitude of oscillating
magnetic field is (Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m/s)

(1) 8 × 10–8 T
(2) 0.8 × 10–8 T
(3) 8 × 10–7 T
(4) 0.8 × 10–7 T

34) Two bodies of mass 4m and 16m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the
line joining the bodies where the gravitation field equals zero, will be (G = Gravitational constant) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The equivalent capacitance between A and B of the system shown in the following circuit is-

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 6 μF
(4) 8 μF

36) Two bodies P and Q of mass m and 2m respectively, undergo completely inelastic one
dimensional head-on collision. Initially the body P moves with velocity v1 while body Q moves with

velocity in the same direction. The velocity of system after collision is v2. The ratio v1 : v2 is-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2

37) Assertion : Net electric field inside conductor is zero in electrostatic condition.
Reason : Potential inside conductor is same at all point inside it.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

38) A horizontal force of 100N is applied to a block B as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B
are 5 kg and 15 kg. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on

block B is-

(1) Zero
(2) 25 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 50 N

39) The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through one of its ends and
perpendicular to the rod is 27 kg-m2. The length of this 1 kg rod is-

(1) 3m
(2) 6m
(3) 9m
(4) 12m

40) In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 20 mH, capacitance 2μF and resistance R is 100Ω.
The frequency on which resonance occurs is-

(1) 0.9 KHz

(2) 1.2 KHz
(3) 0.8 KHz
(4) 2 KHz

41) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I :- When zener diode is used as DC voltage regulator, then with the increase in input
voltage Vi, zener voltage Vz remains unchanged. But when Vi decreases, then Vz also decreases.
Statement II :- LED's requires low operational voltage and less power as compare to incandescent
lamp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

42) The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 20V and internal resistance 2Ω, when
connected through an external resistance of 3Ω as shown in the figure.

(1) 10V
(2) 20V
(3) 12V
(4) 16V

43) A light ray travels distance 's' in time t2 in a denser medium and distance '10s' in a rarer medium
in time t1. If the critical angle of denser medium with respect to the rarer medium is 30°; find ratio

(1) 1 : 20
(2) 10 : 1
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

44) A metallic bar of Young's modulus, 1 × 1011 Nm–2 and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10–6
ºC–1, length 2m and area of cross section 10–4 m2 is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC without expansion or
bending. The compressive force developed in it is-

(1) 1 × 103 N
(2) 4 × 103 N
(3) 200 × 103 N
(4) 0.5 × 103 N

45) A bullet is fired from a gun in the direction 45º above the horizontal. If maximum height attained
by the bullet is 1 km, find projection speed of bullet. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 280 m/s

(2) 200 m/s
(3) 400 m/s
(4) 100 m/s
 CHEMISTRY

1) An aqueous solution of HCl with pH 1.0 is diluted by adding equal volume of water (ignoring
dissociation of water). The pH of HCl solution would (Given log 5 = 0.7)

(1) reduce to 0.5

(2) increase to 1.3
(3) remain same
(4) increase to 2

2) The percentage dissociation of a salt (MX3) solution at given temperature (van't Hoff factor i = 2)
is.................... % (Nearest integer)

(1) 33
(2) 35
(3) 66
(4) 50

3) The effect of temperature on spontaneity of reactions are represented as:

ΔH ΔS Temperature Spontaneity

(A) + – any T Non spontaneous

(B) + + low T spontaneous

(C) – – low T Non spontaneous

(D) – + any T spontaneous

The correct combinations are :-

(1) (B) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

4) Which of the following graphs most appropriately represents a zero order reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) pH of water is 7 at 25°C. If water is heated to 80°C, it’s pH will :

(1) Decrease
(2) Remains the same
(3) H+ concentration increases, OH– concentration decreases
(4) Increase

6) In a first order decomposition reaction, the time taken for the decomposition of reactant to one
fourth and one eighth of its initial concentration are t1 and t2 (s), respectively. The ratio t1/t2 will :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Correct statements for an element with atomic number 9 are

A. There may be 5 electrons for which ms = and 4 electrons for which ms =

B. There is only one electron in pz orbital
C. The last electron goes to orbital with n = 2 and ℓ = 1
4. The sum of angular nodes of all the atomic orbitals is 1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and D Only

(2) A and C Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A and B Only

8) What is the atomic mass of Na ?

(1) 23
(2) 23 g
(3) 23 amu
(4) 46 g

9)

The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula (Zr4+)3 is given by
relation :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A solution of aluminium chloride is electrolysed for 30 minutes using a current of 2A. The
amount of the aluminium deposited at the cathode is ___ .
[Given : molar mass of aluminium and chlorine are 27 g mol–1 and 35.5 g mol–1 respectively, Faraday
constant = 96500 C mol–1].

(1) 1.660 g
(2) 1.007 g
(3) 0.336 g
(4) 0.441 g

11) Radius of the first excited state of Helium ion is given as :

(a0 → radius of first stationary state of hydrogen atom)

(1)

(2)

(3) r = 4a0
(4) r = 2a0

12) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : One mole of propyne reacts with excess of sodium to liberate half a mole of H2 gas.
Statement II : Four g of propyne reacts with NaNH2 to liberate NH3 gas which occupies 224 mL at
STP.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

13) A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is converted into CO on
addition of graphite. If total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, then KP is :

(1) 0.18 atm

(2) 1.8 atm
(3) 0.3 atm
(4) 3 atm.

14) Which of the following electrolyte can be used to obtain H2S2O8 by the process of electrolysis?

(1) Dilute solution of sodium sulphate

(2) Dilute solution of sulphuric acid
(3) Concentrated solution of sulphuric acid
(4) Acidified dilute solution of sodium sulphate.

15) Arrange the following solutions in order of their increasing boiling points.
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea
(iii) 10–3 M NaCl (iv) 10–2 M NaCl

(1) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(4) (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii)

16) Which of the following is correct order of acidic strength ?

(1) H2O2 > H2O

(2) H3PO3 < H2SO4
(3) H2S < HBr
(4) All of the above

17) Which compound exist :

(1) OF4
(2) SCl6
(3) MnF7
(4) IF7

18) Which of the following is incorrect order of boiling point.

(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3

(2) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
(3) HCl < HBr < HI < HF
(4) SiH4 < GeH4 < CH4 < SnH4

19) Which statements are true about noble gases :

(A) The atomic radii values are very large.
(B) They are diatomic
(C) Radii of noble gases should be compared with Vander Waals radii not with covalent radii

(1) Only A
(2) Both A and B
(3) Both A and C
(4) Both B and C

20) Select the correct statement from the given and choose the correct option :
(A) Ga and Cs have very low melting point
(B) On going down in group-I, ΔegH becomes less negative
(C) s and p block elements are known as representative element except noble gases.
(D) The electronegative value of Be and Al on pauling scale is almost same

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

21) Given below are two statements

Statement I : Be has lower IE than B.
Statement II : O has more IE than N and F.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

22) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Ion/Compounds) List-II (Shape)

+
(A) H3O (I) Distorted octahedral

(B) NO2 (II) Trigonal pyramidal

 (C) XeF6 (III) Bent

(D) XeOF4 (IV) Square pyramidal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below;
(1) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I

23) The stabilisation of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the chelate effect. Which
of the following is the most stable complex species?

(1) [Fe(CO)5]
3-
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(C2O4)3]
3+
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]

24) Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show isomerism. Palladium
complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are

(1) linkage isomers

(2) coordination isomers
(3) ionisation isomers
(4) geometrical isomers

25) What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2H2O (greyish-
green)?

(1) linkage isomerism

(2) solvate isomerism
(3) ionisation isomerism
(4) coordination isomerism

26) Match the complex species given in Column I with the possible isomerism given in Column II and
assign the correct code:

Column I Column II
(Complex species) (Isomerism)
A. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ 1. optical
B. cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ 2. ionisation
C. [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 3. coordination
D. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] 4. geometrical
5. linkage
(1) A - (1), B - (2), C - (4), D - (5)
(2) A - (4), B - (3), C - (2), D - (1)
(3) A - (4), B - (1), C - (5), D - (3)
(4) A - (4), B - (1), C - (2), D - (3)

27) In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double bonds are present?

(1) 3 double bonds; 15 single bonds

(2) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds
(3) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds
(4) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds

28) Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ-dπ bonding?

(1) Carbon
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Boron

29) On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained
which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO2
(3) MnSO4
(4) Mn2O3

30) There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following elements does not belong to this
series?

(1) U
(2) Np
(3) Tm
(4) Fm

31) Most reactive towards HCN is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

Which of the following has R-configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The number of ether isomers represented by formula C4H10O is (only structural) :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 7
34) The IUPAC name of the compound is.

(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

35) Which of the following molecule can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Consider the following compounds / species.

The number of compounds which obey Huckel's rule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

37) Match the reactions in column-I with their types in column-II

Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Types)

Electrophilic
(a) (p) addition
reaction

Free radical addition

(b) (q)
reaction

Elimination
(c) (r)
reaction
 Electrophilic
(d) (s) substitution
reaction

(1) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p

(2) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p
(3) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
(4) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r

38) Which of the following alcohol is benzylic as well as secondary :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)
Product B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) How many of following are ortho-para directing groups in electrophilic substitution reaction
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3

41) The formula of the purple/violet colour formed in Lassaigne's test for sulphur using sodium
nitroprusside is

(1) NaFe[Fe(CN)6]
(2) Na[Cr(NH3)2(NCS)4]
(3) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]
(4) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]

42) The major organic product formed from the following reaction is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
S is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Which statement is/are incorrect –

(1) Natural starch has approximately 10-20% of amylose and 80-90% of amylopectin.
(2) Amylose is water soluble and gives blue colour with iodine
Amylopectin is a branched chain polysaccharides insoluble in water and does not give blue
(3)
colour with iodine
(4) Starch is not hydrolysed by enzyme amylase present in saliva

BIOLOGY

1) To perform chemical analysis of a living tissue, tissue is grinded in:

(1) Trihydroxypropane
(2) Trichloroacetic acid
(3) Toluene
(4) Methylene chloride
2) Enzymes that catalyse removal of group from substrate leaving double bonds, belong to the class.

(1) Isomerases
(2) Hydrolases
(3) Ligases
(4) Lyases

3) In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at

(1) 1-celled stage

(2) 2-celled stage
(3) 3-celled stage
(4) 4-celled stage

4) In an angiospermic ovule, the mass of cells with abundant reserve food materials is called -

(1) Chalaza
(2) Integument
(3) Funicle
(4) Nucellus

5) The given diagram represents a chromosome. Identify the structure A, B & type of chromosome C

:-

(1) A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction, C–Acrocentric

(2) A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction, C–Metacentric
(3) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–Telocentric
(4) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–Submetacentric

6) Microtubules are arranged in a special manner in flagella like :-

(1) 9 + 0
(2) 9 (triplet) + 2 (singlet)
(3) 9 (doublet) + 2 (singlet)
(4) 9 (triplet) + 2 (doublet)

7) What is the percentage of protein and lipid in the plasmalemma of RBC respectively?

(1) 58%, 40%

(2) 40%, 58%
(3) 52%, 40%
(4) 40%, 52%

8) Haploid cells which undergo mitosis are -

(1) Worker bee

(2) Queen bee
(3) Male honey bee
(4) All of the above

9) What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related
population ?

(i) (ii)

(1) Expanding Stable

(2) Stable Declining

(3) Expanding Declining

(4) Declining Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Box ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively represents :

(1) A - Immigration B - Mortality

(2) A - Emigration B - Natality
(3) A - Immigration B - Emigration
(4) A - Immigration B - Migration

11) Assertion : Fig tree and fig wasp show mutualism.

Reason : Fig wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence and fig tree provides suitable egg-laying sites.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Standing crop is :

(1) Amount of biomass per unit area

(2) Energy trapped by producer
(3) Rate of energy produced by consumer
(4) Quantity of energy

13) Which of the following alcoholic drink is obtain without distillation ?

(1) Wine
(2) Beer
(3) Brandy
(4) Both (1) & (2)

14) Consider the following statements and select correct set

(a) Mango, dicots and plants present taxa at same level
(b) Wheat family and mango family belong to different orders but same division
(c) Potato and Datura are included in family Solanaceae
(d) Species is genetically open system
(e) Dicots, monocots and mammals represent taxa at same level

(1) b, c & e
(2) a, c & d
(3) a, c, d & e
(4) a, d & e

15) The major modes of nutrition of kingdom viz. Animalia, Fungi and Plantae, respectively are :-

(1) Autotroph, Chemotroph & Holozoic

(2) Phototroph, Saprotroph & Holophytic
(3) Holozoic, Osmotrophic, Holophytic
(4) Osmotrophic, Holozoic & Holophytic

16) Find the incorrect match from the columns :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Puccinia belongs to class basidiomycetes Club fungi

(2) Agaricus dikaryophase Mushroom

 (3) Trichoderma belongs to class deuteromytetes Perfect fungi

(4) Penicillium sexual cycle is found Sac fungi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

(2) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
(3) Lichens and mosses are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock
(4) In pteridophytes vascular tissue are found in gametophytes

18) In the diagram given above, some of the algae have been
labelled as "A", "B" and "C". These algae are respectively correctly identified as:-

(1) Fucus, Dictyota, Porphyra

(2) Volvox, Porphyra, Chara
(3) Volvox, Polysiphonia, Laminaria
(4) Chlamydomanas, Laminaria, Porphyra

19) Statement-I : Heterophylly is an example of plasticity.

Statement-II : In Buttercup, heterophyllous development is due to environment.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

20) Which of the following is not a product of light reaction ?

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH2
(3) O2
(4) Glucose

21) Statement-I : Photosynthesis is the primary source of all food on earth.

Statement-II : Oxygenic photosynthesis is responsible for the release of oxygen into the
atmosphere by green plants.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

22) Number of glucose molecules required to produces 38 ATP molecules under anaerobic
conditions is:

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 38

23) Statement-I : The compounds that are oxidised during respiration process are known as
respiratory substrates.
Statement-II : Respiratory substrate in plant is only organic acid.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

24) Cortex is the region found between :-

(1) Endodermis and pith

(2) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(3) Xylem and phloem
(4) Epidermis and stele

25) Initiation of lateral roots and cork cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of :

(1) Medullary rays

(2) Pericycle
(3) Endodermis
(4) Cortex

26) The roots that originate from the base of the stem are :-

(1) Lateral roots

(2) Fibrous roots
(3) Primary roots
(4) Prop roots

27) Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut fruits:

(1) Both fruits are parthenocarpic
(2) Endocarp is edible in both
(3) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy
(4) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary inferior ovary

28) Map the genes if, distance between A and B is 3 units, between B and C is 10 units and between
C and A is 7 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map constructed on the above data would
perhaps be:

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, B
(3) B, C, A
(4) B, A, C

29) Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for:

(1) Dominance of genes

(2) Linkage between genes
(3) Segregation of alleles
(4) Recombination of linked genes

30) Which karyotype represents trisomy?

(1) 2n + 1
(2) 2n – 2
(3) 2n – 1
(4) 2n + 2

31) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serves the dual purpose of ________ and ________ in the process
of replication of DNA.

(1) Enzyme, substrate

(2) Catalyst, substrate
(3) Substrate, energy provider
(4) Energy, mutation provider

32) During which phase of the cell cycle does replication of DNA takes place in eukaryotes?

(1) G1
(2) G0
(3) S
(4) G2

33) In the process of transcription, the strand of DNA with polarity ________ acts as a ________ strand.

(1) 5′ → 5′, Coding strand

(2) 3′ → 5′, Template strand
(3) 3′ → 3′, Coding strand
(4) 5′ → 3′, Template strand

34) Match column I with column II

Column I Column II

(a) Glycogen (i) Inhibitor

(b) Collagen (ii) Toxin

(c) Ricin (iii) Intercellular ground substance

(d) Malonate (iv) Lectin

(v) Substrate

(vi) Storage form of energy

(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (vi), (c) - (iv), (d) - (v)
(3) (a) - (vi), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (vi), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

35) Assertion : Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, can be
seen in some species of grasses and asteraceae.
Reason : End product of apomixis and sexual reproduction are same i.e. seeds.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is NOT the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

36) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Contractile vacuole (i) Osmoregulation

(B) Mitochondria (ii) ATP synthesis

(C) Lysosome (iii) Packaging materials

(D) Golgi body (iv) Hydrolytic enzyme

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

37) The graph formed by plotting species richness against area for a wide variety of taxa
(angiosperm plants, birds, bats, fresh water fishes, etc.) turns out to be a
(1) Parabola
(2) Straight line
(3) Rectangular hyperbola
(4) Any of the above

38) Assertion :- Trichoderma is a biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens.

Reason :- Nucleopolyhedro virus are good biocontrol agents for insects.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

39) Consider the following statements about fungi and select the option that includes only correct
statements?
(i) A long dikaryophase occur in some fungi
(ii) All the filamentous members of ascomycetes has septate hypha
(iii) Basidiomycetes is also known as fungi imperfecti.
(iv) Deuteromycetes shows zygotic meiosis.
(v) Some fungi can live in symbiotic association with algae and higher plants root.

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) only iv
(3) i, ii and v
(4) Only iii and iv

40) Consider the following statements :-

(a) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction
(b) Diplontic life cycle
(c) Major pigment-chlorophyll a,c and fucoxanthin
(d) Isogamous type of sexual reproduction
(e) Major pigment-chlorophyll a,d and phycoerythrin
How many are true about Fucus :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two
41)
Choose the correct option which is related with different labelled meristem A,B,C and D in above
given diagram :-

(1) A = Root apical Meristem

(2) B = Vascular Cambium
(3) C = Root apical Meristem
(4) D = Shoot apical Meristem

42) Assertion : Respiration is an amphibolic pathway.

Reason : Respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are fasle.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

43) Select the incorrect pair.

Hypodermis in dicot stem – consists of a few layers of collenchymatous cells just below
(1)
the epidermis.
Pith in dicot stem – parenchymatous cells with large intercellular spaces which occupy the
(2)
central portion of the stem.
Palisade parenchyma – the oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma is situated
(3)
below the upper epidermis.
Conjuctive tissue – the parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem of
(4)
roots.

44) The correct floral formula of china rose is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) Assertion: RNA viruses having shorter life span, mutate and evolve faster.
Reason: All viruses have RNA genome.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

46) Select the Incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes :

(a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

47) Match the column-I with the column-II and find out the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Spongocoel (i) Arthropoda

(B) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (ii) Cnidaria

(C) Coelenteron cavity (iii) Porifera

(D) Chitinous exoskeleton (iv) Platyhelminthes

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

48) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ?

(1) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

(2) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
(3) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
(4) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

49) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frog :-

(1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(4) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

50) Select the true statement regarding frog (Rana tigrina) from following :-

(1) Frog is a homeothermal animal.

(2) Frog drinks about 5 litres water per day
(3) Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.
(4) A very long tail is present in posterior part of frog's body.

51) The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air accomodated in the lungs at the end of a
forced inspiration. This includes :

RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity);

(1)
EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV
(2) RV; ERV; IC and EC
RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and
(3)
FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
RV (Residual Volume);
ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume);
(4)
TV (Tidal Volume); and
IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)

52) Find the correct option for the diagram given below :

(1) A–Parietal pleura, B–Visceral pleura, C–Pleural cavity filled with pleural fluid
(2) A–Visceral pleura, B–Parietal pleura, C–Pleural cavity filled with pleural fluid
(3) A–Parietal pericardium, B–Visceral pericardium, C–Pleural cavity filled with pleural fluid
(4) A–Visceral pericardium, B–Parietal pericardium, C–Pleural cavity filled with pleural fluid

53) Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D, Identify the label

and give its function/s.

(1) D = Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg
(2) A = Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
(3) B = Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
(4) C = Vena Cava – takes blood from body parts of the right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
54) Match the following parts of a nephron with their function:

(a) Descending limb of Henle's loop (i) Reabsorption of salts only

(b) Proximal Convoluted tubule (ii) Reabsorption of water only

Conditional reabsorption of
(c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (iii)
sodium ion and water

Reabsorption of ion, water

(d) Distal convoluted tubule (iv)
and organic nutrients.
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii)

55) Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system

(b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex

(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iii) Retina of Eye

(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i). (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

56) What are Nissl granules in a neuron primarily composed of?

(1) DNA and RNA

(2) Proteins and lipids
(3) Free ribosomes and RER
(4) Mitochondria and Golgi apparatus

57) Find out incorrect labelling in following diagram :

(1) Axonal transport and Anterior pituitary

(2) Portal circulation and Posterior pituitary
(3) Anterior pituitary and Posterior pituitary
(4) Portal circulation and Axonal transport

58) Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass
through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)
:-

(1) Somatostatin, oxytocin

(2) Cortisol, testosterone
(3) Insulin, glucagon
(4) Thyroxin,Insulin

59) The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C)

and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.

(1) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for respiratory chain enzymes
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives rise to inner membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes

60) How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?

(1) 60
(2) 40
(3) 20
(4) 80

61) Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively ?

(1) Prophase — Anaphase

(2) Metaphase — Telophase
(3) Telophase — Metaphase
(4) Late Anaphase — Prophase

62) Assertion (A) : Cytokinesis in plant cell occur by cell plate formation method.
Reason (R) : Cytokinesis in animal cells occur by the formation of cell furrow.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

63) Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :

Type of joint Example

(1) Cartilaginous joint between frontal and parietal

(2) Pivot joint between third and fourth cervical vertebrae

(3) Hinge joint between humerus and pectoral girdle

(4) Gliding joint between carpals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) According to the sliding filament theory:

(1) Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other to increase the length of the sarcomere.
(2) Length of A–band does not change.
(3) I–band increases in length
(4) The actin filaments slide away from A–band resulting in shortening of sarcomere.

65) Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:-

(1) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the
(2)
fallopian tube.
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
(3)
cervix.
(4) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.

66) Hysterectomy is surgical removal of :

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Vas-deferense
(3) Mammary glands
(4) Uterus

67) Match the column-A with column-B.

Column A Column B
A Mons pubis i Fleshy folds of tissue
B Labia majora ii Paired folds of tissue
C Labia minora iii Finger-like structure
D Clitoris iv Cushion of fatty tissue
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

68) In following structure, identify A & B and their respective functions.

Function of
A B
A B
(1) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(2) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(3) Mesoderm Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) What happens after vasectomy?

(1) Absence of formation of semen

(2) Formed Sperms are dead or inactive
(3) Sperms immediately disappear in semen
(4) Sperms gradually disappear in semen

70) Vaccination is a part of :-

(1) Treatment
(2) Passive immunisation
(3) Diagnosis
(4) Prophylaxis (Prevention)

71) Match List - I with List - II.

 List - I List - II

(A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan

(B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella

(C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes

(D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

72) Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by :

(1) methylation of morphine

(2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) nitration of morphine

73)

Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and
use.

(a) (b)

Molecule Source Use

(1) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations

(2) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

Accelerates the transport

(3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca
of dopamine

Depressant and slows

(4) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa
down body functions
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Which of the following structure is homologus to the wing of a bird ?

(1) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(2) Wing of a Moth
(3) Hind limb of Rabbit
(4) Flipper of Whale

75) Which of following feature is not necessary for cloning vector :

(1) Origin of replication

(2) High copy number
(3) Selectable marker
(4) Cloning sites

76) Agrobacterium tumefaciens used in Genetic engineering for :-

(1) DNA-mapping
(2) DNA-modification
(3) Gene transfer
(4) DNA finger printing

77) The figure below shows three steps (A,B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?

(1) C = Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

(2) A = Annealing with two sets of primers
(3) B = Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
(4) A = Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C

78) Which of the following is true for Golden rice ?

(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil

(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice
79) To obtain virus - free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which
part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken :-

(1) Apical meristem only

(2) Palisade parenchyma
(3) Both apical and axillary meristems
(4) Epidermis only

80) One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

(1) flying fish

(2) cuttlefish
(3) silverfish
(4) pufferfish

81) Identify A, B and C in the given below blood clotting process.

A B C
(1) Thromboplastin Prothrombin Fibrinogen
(2) Thrombin Fibrinogen Thrombokinase
(3) Thromboplastin Thrombin Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis ?

(1) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

(2) More water reabsorption due to under secretion of ADH
(3) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

83) Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of [Link] formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only
(2) C and D only
(3) D and E only
(4) A and D only

84) Assertion (A) : Cell wall is a living rigid structure which form outer covering for the plasma
membrane of fungi and plants.
Reason (R) : Secondary cell wall is formed on the outer (towards middle lamella) side of the cell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

85) _________ are characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the
articulating surfaces of the two bones :-

(1) Fibrous joints

(2) Synovial joints
(3) Cartilagenous joints
(4) Hinge joints

86) Given below are two statements regarding oogenesis:

Statement I : The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and
shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle.
Statement II : Graffian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the
process called ovulation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

87) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Rubber barrier
(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (III) Lippes loop
(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(2) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I)
(3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)

88) "Diagram" showing inflammation of lower limb due to :-

(1) Filariasis
(2) Elephantiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) 1 and 2 both

89) Match List - I with List -II.

List -I List - II

Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive

(a) Adaptive radiation (i)
use of herbicides and pesticides

(b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of fore limbs in Man and Whale

(c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Which type of bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of
the contents?

(1) Inverted tank bioreactor

(2) Stirred tank bioreactor
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Stirred flasks
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 1 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 1 1 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: Identifying a physical quantity that shares the same dimensional
formula as surface tension.

Concept Involved: Dimensional checking .

Solution:

Final Answer: (2)

2) Question Explanation: Calculating total circuit impedance for an alternating current

source.

Concept Involved: Series AC impedance formula .

Solution:

XL = ωL = 2πfL = 2π × 50 × × 10–3 = 10Ω

XC =

Z=

=
= 10Ω
Final Answer: (1)

3) Question Explanation: Finding the linear temperature coefficient of resistance for a

platinum wire sample.
Concept Involved: Thermal resistance relationship .
Solution:
RT = R0[1 + α(T–T0)]
8.4 = 4[1 + α(60 – 0)]
α = 0.0183ºC–1
Final Answer: (4)

4) Question Explanation: Determining an unknown resistance value when a galvanometer

branch measures a null balance.
Concept Involved: Voltage division and bridge balance rules.
Solution:

i600Ω = A
R = 200Ω
Final Answer: (1)

5) Question Explanation: Finding the shortest wavelength in the Pfund series given the
shortest wavelength in the Balmer series.

Concept Involved: Rydberg Equation for atomic spectrum limits .

Solution:
Shortest wavelength in Balmer series when transition of e⊝ from ∞ to n = 2

…(1)
Shortest wavelength in P fund series when transition of e⊝ from ∞ to n = 5

Final Answer: (2)

6) Question Explanation: Calculating the downwards initial throwing velocity of a ball

dropped from a high bridge.

Concept Involved: Second Kinematic Equation of Motion .

Solution:

s = ut +

–100 = – u(2) – × 10 × (2)2

u = 40 m/s
Final Answer: (2)

7) Question Explanation: Finding the instantaneous power developed by a force given a

time-dependent displacement function.

Concept Involved: Definition of mechanical power .

Solution:
P=

P = ( ) (– ) = –12 (SI unit)

Final Answer: (2)

8) Question Explanation: Finding the value of x for a simple pendulum’s time period when its
mass is halved and length is tripled.

Concept Involved: Time period of simple pendulum .

Solution:

Tnew = Told
(T is independent of mass of bob)

⇒x=3
Final Answer: (3)

9) Question Explanation: Comparing the current ratio when identical resistors are switched
from a series arrangement to a parallel arrangement.

Concept Involved: Series and parallel combinations of resistors .

Solution:

IS =

IP = =

n= = 400
Final Answer: (1)

10) Question Explanation: Identifying polarization states for rays reflecting and refracting
exactly at Brewster’s angle.
Concept Involved: Brewster’s Law and polarization mechanics.
Solution: When light is incident at Brewster’s angle: (a) refracted light is partially polarized,
(b) reflected light is completely polarized, and (c) refractive index follows . Statement
(d) is incorrect because the reflected light is completely polarized. Thus, statements a, b, and c
are correct.
Final Answer: (3)

11) Question Explanation: Finding the work done by an expanding or compressing ideal gas
during a single segment of a cyclic PV loop.
Concept Involved: Isobaric work calculation .
Solution:
W = Area under rs curve bound with Vaxis
= – (400 × 10–6 m3) × (400 × 103 Pa)
W = – 160 J
Final Answer: (3)
12) Question Explanation: Identifying the overall single logic gate equivalent for a given
multi-gate circuit layout.
Concept Involved: Boolean logic reductions.
Solution: Writing down the truth combinations or reducing the gate symbols analytically

confirms that the logic output matches the behavior of a NAND gate .
Final Answer: (1)

13) Question Explanation: Comparing velocities of different points on the perimeter of a

rolling wheel.
Concept Involved: Kinematics of pure rolling motion .
Solution:

vA = 2v cos

vB = 2v cos = 2v sin

so vA > vB
Final Answer: (2)

14) Question Explanation: Calculating the launch energy required to place a satellite into a
specific stable high-altitude circular orbit.
Concept Involved: Total mechanical energy difference .
Solution:
ΔE = TE2–TE1

ΔE =
Final Answer: (3)

15) Question Explanation: Comparing the frequencies of the first overtones between open
and closed organ pipes of equal lengths.
Concept Involved: organ pipes.
Solution:

Final Answer: (2)

16) Question Explanation: Identifying true statements regarding photon mass, energy, and
momentum characteristics.
Concept Involved: Fundamental properties of photons.
Solution: Statement (A) is true. Statement (B) is true. Statement (C) is false
because momentum is always conserved in collisions. Statement (D) is false because photons
are neutral. Thus, only A and B are correct.
Final Answer: (1)

17) Question Explanation: Deducing mass and atomic tracking numbers for a starting
element undergoing successive radioactive decays.
Concept Involved: Alpha, Beta-minus, and Positron tracking accounting balances.
Solution:

∴ A – 4 = 286 and Z – 1 = 81
A = 290 and Z = 82
Final Answer: (4)

18) Question Explanation: Calculating the extra upward force needed to lift a square wire
frame off a water surface.
Concept Involved: Surface tension force on an object with inner and outer contact
boundaries (F = 2 ⋅ T⋅ perimeter).
Solution:
Fexcess = 2 × (T × 4ℓ) = 8Tℓ
= 8 × 0.07 × 10 × 10–2
= 56 × 10–3 N = 56 mN
Final Answer: (2)

19) Question Explanation: Finding the new speed of a bob in a horizontal circular path when
the string length is tripled at constant tension.

Concept Involved: Centripetal force balance with tension .

Solution:

T=
v1 = v
Final Answer: (2)

20) Question Explanation: Selecting the correct acceleration-time graph corresponding to a

given trapezoidal velocity-time profile.

Concept Involved: The slope of a v–t curve represents acceleration .

Solution:
a = slope of v-t curve
so a = –ve, then a = 0 & then a = +ve
Final Answer: (4)
21) Question Explanation: Finding the steady-state current magnitude and loop flow
direction in a two-battery circuit.
Concept Involved: Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) on a single loop.
Solution:

I=
Final Answer: (2)

22) Question Explanation: Finding the absolute index of refraction for a triangular glass
prism where internal paths travel parallel to the base line.
Concept Involved: Boundary Snell’s Law applications .
Solution:

& r1 + r2 = 90°

so,

so,
Final Answer: (3)

23) Question Explanation: Determining which photosensitive metals will undergo

photoelectric emission under a given incident energy.

Concept Involved: Photoelectric condition .

Solution:
Energy of photon E = 2.40 eV
Work functions of Cs and K are less than energy of incident photons but work function of Na is
greater than energy of incident photons. So Cs and K emits photoelectrons.
Final Answer: (1)

24) Question Explanation: Evaluating the magnetic force vector acting on a straight current-
carrying wire inside a uniform magnetic field.

Concept Involved: Vector cross-product force law .

Solution:

F= =5

=5
= 50 N
Final Answer: (1)

25) Question Explanation: Calculation of the vernier constant (least count) of a calliper
given scale division relationships.

Concept Involved: Vernier Constant formula .

Solution:

L.C. = × 1 MSD

= × 0.05 mm = cm

=
Final Answer: (1)

26) Question Explanation: Determining the displacement current inside a capacitor

subjected to a changing voltage source.

Concept Involved: Mathematical expression for displacement current .

Solution:

Id =
= 100 × 10–6 × 20
= 2 mA
Final Answer: (2)

27) Question Explanation: Finding the maximum elongation of a copper wire given its elastic
limit and Young’s modulus.

Concept Involved: Hooke’s Law and Young’s Modulus .

Solution:

ΔLmax =

ΔLmax = = 0.0125 m
= 1.25 cm
Final Answer: (1)

28) Question Explanation: Reading basic SHM parameters like time period and amplitude
from a displacement wave equation.
Concept Involved: Comparing expressions with the standard wave format .
Solution:
Compare with x = A sin (ωt + ϕ)
A = 20 m ω = 4π ⇒ = 4π ⇒ T =
Final Answer: (3)

29) Question Explanation: Determining the final absolute temperature required to triple the
RMS molecular speed of an ideal gas sample.

Concept Involved: Dependance of RMS velocity on temperature .

Solution:

Vrms α ⇒
Let initial speed is V. As speed is increased by 2 times so final speed becomes 3V.

⇒ ⇒ T2 = 9 × 123 = 1107 K
Final Answer: (2)

30) Question Explanation: Matching different classes of magnetic matter with their
characteristic susceptibility tracking relationships.
Concept Involved: Magnetic susceptibility definitions (฀).
Solution: Diamagnetic substances are temperature independent (A → II), Ferromagnetic
tracking follows the Curie-Weiss variant (B → III)​​, Paramagnetic materials track with Curie’s
Law (C → I), and Non-magnetic matter features zero tracking (D → IV).
Final Answer: (2)

31) Question Explanation: Finding the total magnetic field vector at the center of a
semicircular wire flanked by long straight lines.
Concept Involved: Superposition of Biot-Savart field contributions.
Solution:

B=

= pointed into the page.

Final Answer: (3)

32) Question Explanation: Evaluating statement claims regarding fringe widths and angular
trends in YDSE set-ups.

Concept Involved: Proportional relationships for fringes .

Solution:

Fringe width,
Angular fringe width, θ ∝ λ and λR > λG
Final Answer: (4)

33) Question Explanation: Finding the magnetic field wave amplitude given the electric field
wave amplitude in free space.
Concept Involved: Electromagnetic wave field ratios .
Solution:

0
B = = 8 × 10–8T
Final Answer: (1)

34) Question Explanation: Finding the net gravitational potential at the neutral point
between two isolated celestial masses.
Concept Involved: Field neutralization combined with potential superposition

.
Solution:

Position of Neutral point-

r1 =

r2 = R –
Now gravitational potential at point P :-

VP =
Final Answer: (3)

35) Question Explanation: Evaluating the total equivalent electrical capacitance across
terminals A and B.
Concept Involved: Bridge reductions and series-parallel simplification rules.
Solution:

CAD = 2μF
Final Answer: (1)

36) Question Explanation: Finding the ratio of initial to final velocity for a perfectly inelastic
head-on collision.
Concept Involved: Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.
Solution:

By momentum conservation :-

mv1 + 2m = 3mv2
2v1 = 3v2 ⇒
Final Answer: (4)

37) Question Explanation: Assertion-Reason checking regarding electric field and potential
properties inside an electrostatic conductor.

Concept Involved: Field-Gradient properties .

Solution:
By relation between

E=
Final Answer: (1)

38) Question Explanation: Determining the contact force between two blocks moving on a
frictionless horizontal plane under an applied force.
Concept Involved: Newton’s Second Law for connected systems .

Solution: a = = 5 m/s2
on A – NAB = mAa = 5 × 5 = 25 N
NBA = NAB = 25 N
Final Answer: (2)

39) Question Explanation: Calculating the length of a thin rod from its given moment of
inertia about one end.

Concept Involved: Moment of inertia of a uniform rod .

Solution:

I=
ℓ=9m
Final Answer: (3)

40) Question Explanation: Finding the resonant frequency of a series LCR AC network.

Concept Involved: Formula for electrical resonance frequency .

Solution:

7= = 0.8 KHz
Final Answer: (3)

41) Question Explanation: Assessing statements about Zener diode regulation and LED
power efficiency profiles.
Concept Involved: Solid-state device applications.
Solution:
Statement I :- Change in input voltage Vi does not effect the zener voltage Vz as it is the
characteristic property of zener diode.
Statement II :- LED's requires low operational voltage and less power as compared to
incandescent lamp.
Final Answer: (3)

42) Question Explanation: Finding the terminal voltage drop across a battery delivering real
power to an external circuit.
Concept Involved: Terminal Potential Difference relation .
Solution:

I=
TPD = 20 – I × 2
= 20 – 2 × 4 = 12 Volt
Final Answer: (3)

43) Question Explanation: Determining a travel-time tracking ratio across a refractive

boundary using the definition of critical angle.

Concept Involved: Critical angle link with wave speeds .

Solution:

= sin 30º

Final Answer: (3)

44) Question Explanation: Finding the internal thermal stress force setup inside a fixed
metal bar when heated.
Concept Involved: Thermal stress formulas .
Solution:
Force F = YA α ΔT = 1011 × 10–4 × 10–6 × (100–0)
F = 1 × 103 N
Final Answer: (1)

45) Question Explanation: Calculating the initial launch speed of a projectile fired at
45° that reaches a peak height of 1 km.

Concept Involved: Maximum vertical height expression .

Solution:

Hmax =

1000 =
⇒ u = 200 m/s
 Final Answer: (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : - An aqueous solution of HCl with pH 1.0 is diluted by adding equal volume
of water (ignoring dissociation of water). The pH of HCl solution would (Given log 5 = 0.7)
Concept : This question is based on Oswald dilution Law
Solution :
HCl(aq) pH = 1; [H+] = 10–1
If equal volume of water is added concentration will become half

[H+]sol = ⇒ 5 × 10–2
pH =2 – log 5
pH = 1.3
Final Answer : (2)

47) Explaining : - The percentage dissociation of a salt (MX3) solution at given temperature
(van't Hoff factor i = 2) is.................... % (Nearest integer)
Concept : This question is based on abnormal colligative properties.
Solution :

i = 1 + (n – 1)α
i = 1 + (4 – 1) α = 2

α = = 33.33% ≈ 33%
Final Answer : (1)

48)

Explaining : - The effect of temperature on spontaneity of reactions are given in the table.
Find out the correct combinations :-
Concept : This question is based on Gibbs Free Energy
Solution :
∵ ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
For spontaneity of reaction : ΔG = –ve
Final Answer : (2)

49) Explaining : - Which of the following graphs most appropriately represents a zero order
reaction ?
Concept : This question is based on zero order reaction.
Solution : -
For zero order reaction : A → P
Rate = k
[A]t = a0 – kt
Final Answer : (2)

50)

Explaining : - pH of water is 7 at 25°C. If water is heated to 80°C, it’s pH will

Concept : This question is based on pH effect with temperature.
Solution : -
With increase in temperature, Kw of water increases
So, degree of dissociation of water increase
∴ pH as well as pOH of water decrease.
Final Answer : (1)

51) Explaining : - In a first order decomposition reaction, the time taken for the
decomposition of reactant to one fourth and one eighth of its initial concentration are t1 and t2
(s), respectively. The ratio t1/t2 will :
Concept : This question is based on 1st order reaction.
Solution : -
For Ist order reaction
When Ct = Co/4
t1 = 2t50%.
when Ct = Co/8
t2 = 3t50%

so =
Final Answer : (4)

52) Explaining : - Correct statements for an element with atomic number 9 are

A. There can be 5 electrons for which ms = and 4 electrons for which ms =

B. There is only one electron in pz orbital
C. The last electron goes to orbital with n = 2 and l = 1
4. The sum of angular nodes of all the atomic orbitals is 1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Concept : This question is based on Quantum Number
Solution : -
Element with atomic number 9 is Fluorine
F(9) = 1s2 2s2 2p5

(A) 5 electrons can be up-spin and 4 electrons can be down spin

(B) Unpaired electron can be in anyone of px, py or pz orbital
(C) Last electron is in 2p subshell with n = 2, ℓ = 1
(D) Angular node for s-orbital = 0 while of each p-orbital = 1
Sum of all angular node = 3
Final Answer : (2)

53) Explaining : Find out the atomic mass of Na

Concept : This question is based on Atomic mass, mass no.
Solution : - Na → 23 amu
Final Answer : (3)

54) Explaining : - The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula

(Zr4+)3 is given by relation

Concept : This question is based on Ksp
Solution : -
Zr3(PO4)4(s) 3Zr+4(aq) + 4PO4–3(aq)
– 3s 4s
3 4 7
Ksp = (3s) (4s) = 6912 s

s=
Final Answer : (1)

55) Explaining : - A solution of aluminium chloride is electrolysed for 30 minutes using a

current of 2A. The amount of the aluminium deposited at the cathode is ___ .
Concept : This question is based on Electrolysis
Solution : -

gm equivalent of Al deposited =

w = 0.336 g
Final Answer : (4)

56) Explaining : - Radius of the first excited state of Helium ion is given as :
a0 → radius of first stationary state of hydrogen atom.
Concept : This question is based on Bohr Radius
Solution : -

0 0
r = a0 =a . = 2a .
Final Answer : (4)

57) Explaining : - Given below are two statements :

Statement I : One mole of propyne reacts with excess of sodium to liberate half a mole of H2
gas.
Statement II : Four g of propyne reacts with NaNH2 to liberate NH3 gas which occupies 224
mL at STP.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
 given below:
Concept : This question is based on Mole Formula
Solution : -

CH3 – C ≡ CH + NaNH2 → CH3C ≡

0.1 mol
V = 0.1 × 22400 ml = 2240 ml
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Final Answer : (1)

58) Explaining : - A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is
converted into CO on addition of graphite. If total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, then KP is
Concept : This question is based on Kp
Solution : -
CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g)
0.5 –
0.5–x 2x
Ptotal = 0.5 + x = 0.8
x = 0.3

= 1.8
Final Answer : (2)

59) Explaining : - Which of the following electrolyte can be used to obtain H2S2O8 by the
process of electrolysis?
Concept : This question is based on Electrolysis.
Solution : -
Theory based.
At anode :
2HSO4– → H2S2O8 + 2e–
Final Answer : (1)

60)

Explaining : - Arrange the following solutions in order of their increasing boiling points.
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea
–3
(iii) 10 M NaCl (iv) 10–2 M NaCl
Concept : This question is based on Elevation in Boiling Point
Solution : -
ΔTb = i Kb . m . ∝ i.C.
where C = concentration

Options i.C.

(i) 2 × 10–4
(ii) 1 × 10–4

(iii) 2 × 10–3

(iv) 2 × 10–2

B.P. order :
(ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)
Final Answer : (1)

61) Explaining : Which of the following is correct order of acidic strength ?

Concept : This question is based on acidic strength
Solution :
Acidic strength ∝ electronegativity of central atom
Correct order of acidic strength –
(1) H2O2 > H2O
(2) H3PO3 < H2SO4
(3) H2S < HBr
Final Answer : (4)

62) Explaining : Which compound exist :

Concept : This question is based on existence and non existence
Solution :
IF7 exists.
OF4 (absence of vacant orbitals)
MnF7, SCl6 (steric crowding)
Final Answer : (4)

63) Explaining : Which of the following is incorrect order of boiling point.

Concept : This question is based on application of H-bonding
Solution :
Boiling point ∝ Molecular mass of molecules
Correct order of boiling point–
(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
(2) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
(3) HCl < HBr < HI < HF
(4) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4
Final Answer : (4)

64) Explaining : Which statements are true about noble gases :

Concept : This question is based on atomic radius
Solution :
Vander Waals radii > Covalent radii > Metallic radius
Noble gas are stable gases so they exist as monoatomic gases.
Final Answer : (3)

65) Explaining : Select the correct statement from the given and choose the correct option :
 Concept : This question is based on properties of elements.
Solution :
• Ga and Cs have very low melting point
• On going down in group-I, ΔegH becomes less negative
• s and p block elements are known as representative element except noble gases.
• The electronegative value of Be and Al on pauling scale is almost same.
Final Answer : (4)

66) Explaining : Analyse both the statments

Concept : This question is based on ionization energy
Solution :
• Be has higher IE than B.
• O has lesser IE than N and F.
Final Answer : (1)

67) Explaining : Match List-I with List-II.

Concept : This question is based on shape of molecules.
Solution :

(Ion/Compounds) (Shape)
+
(A) H3O (II) Trigonal pyramidal

(B) NO2 (III) Bent

(C) XeF6 (I) Distorted octahedral

(D) XeOF4 (IV) Square pyramidal

Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : The stabilisation of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the
chelate effect. Which of the following is the most stable complex species
Concept : This question is based on Chelation
Solution : Stability ∝ Chelation
Final Answer : (3)

69) Explaining :
Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show isomerism.
Palladium complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are
Concept : This question is based on isomerism
Solution : Given example are linkage isomerism
Final Answer : (1)

70) Explaining : What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2H2O (greyish-green)?
Concept : This question is based on Isomerism
Solution : isomerism with H2O ligand → Solvate/Hydrate
Final Answer : (2)
71) Explaining : Match the column
Concept : This question is based on Isomerism
Solution : A - (4), B - (1), C - (5), D - (3)
Final Answer : (3)

72) Explaining : In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double
bonds are present?
Concept : This question is based on oxyacid

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ-dπ bonding?
Concept : This question is based on pπ-dπ bonding
Solution : pπ-dπ bonding is involved in phosphorus due to availability d orbitals.
Final Answer : (3)

74) Explaining : On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily
compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the
following.
Concept : This question is based on reaction of KMnO4
Solution :
KMnO4 + H2SO4 → Mn2O7
explosive
Final Answer : (1)

75) Explaining : There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following elements
does not belong to this series?
Concept : This question is based on d-f block
Solution : Tm → Lanthanoid element
Final Answer : (3)

76) Explaining : Most reactive towards HCN is :-

Concept : This question is based on most reactive towards HCN (NAR mechanism)

Solution : Reactivity towards NAR ∝

Final Answer : (2)

77)

Explaining : Which of the following has R-configuration?

Concept : This question is based on configuration
Solution :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
Final Answer : (3)

78) Explaining : The number of ether isomers represented by formula C4H10O is (only
structural) :
Concept : This question is based on Number of ether isomer
Solution :

CH3–O–CH2CH2CH3, CH3–CH2–O–CH2CH3,
Final Answer : (2)

79) Explaining : The IUPAC name of the compound

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC name of given compound
Solution :

3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Final Answer : (4)

80) Explaining : Which of the following molecule can show geometrical isomerism ?
Concept : This question is based on G.I.
Solution : In cyclic compound minimum two sp3 carbon, having different groups show G.I.
 Can show GI along ring (Restricted rotation along σ bond) Final Answer : (3)

81) Explaining : Consider the following compounds / species.

Concept : This question is based on aromatic compounds
Solution :

are aromatic

non-aromatic

anti-aromatic Final Answer : (2)

82) Explaining : Match the reactions in column-I with their types in column-II
Concept : This question is based on mixed concept
Solution :

Elimination
(a) (r)
reaction

Free radical addition

(b) (q)
reaction

Electrophilic substitution
(c) (s)
reaction

Electrophilic addition
(d) (p)
reaction

Final Answer : (1)

83)

Question Explanation: Identify which alcohol is both benzylic and secondary (2°).

Concept: Classification of alcohol, Degree of Alcohol (1°, 2°, 3°).

Solution: Rule: Benzylic carbon is the sp³ carbon directly attached to a benzene ring.
Secondary (2°) alcohol has -OH on a carbon attached to two other carbons.

Option 1: -OH is on a carbon attached to a cycloalkadiene ring (not benzene). Not Benzylic.
 Option 2: -OH is on a carbon attached to benzene, but that carbon is attached to three other
carbons 3° Benzylic.

Option 3: -OH is on a carbon attached to a Ph (Phenyl) group and another carbon (CH2Ph).
The -OH group is directly on a Benzylic position (adjacent to Ph) and the carbon is attached to
two other carbons. 2° Benzylic.

Option 4: -OH is on a carbon attached to three other carbons (Ph, CH3, CH2Ph). 3° Benzylic.

Final Answer: Option (3).

84)

Explaining : Product B is
Concept : This question is based on Alkane chemical reaction
Solution :

A = Benzene B = Friedel craft reaction

Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : How many of following are ortho-para directing groups in electrophilic
substitution reaction
Concept : This question is based on -0 and -p directing groups
Solution :
+M

→ ortho para directing

Final Answer : (1)

86)

Question Explanation :

The question asks us to identify the correct formula for the purple/violet color formed in
Lassaigne's test for sulfur when sodium nitroprusside is used.

Concept :
Lassaigne's test is used to detect the presence of nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens in organic
compounds.

Answer Explanation :

The purple/violet color formed in Lassaigne's test for sulfur with sodium nitroprusside is due
to the formation of Na₄[Fe(CN)₅(NOS)], also known as sodium
pentacyanonitrosylferrate(III). This complex compound is responsible for the characteristic
color observed in the test.

Final Answer :

The correct answer is 4. Na₄[Fe(CN)₅(NOS)].

87)

Explaining : Final product is

Concept : This question is based on reaction of aldehyde with amine
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

88)

Explaining : Final product S is

Concept : This question is based on reaction of aldehyde, ketone with R-MgX
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

 89) Explaining : Final product X is
Concept : This question is based on reduction of NO2 and BDC formation
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

90) Explaining : Which statement is/are incorrect –

Concept : This question is based on Starch
Solution :
Amylose Amylopectin
(1) 10-20% (1) 80-90%
(2) water soluble (2) water insoluble
(3) Blue colour with Iodine (3) No colour with Iodine
Final Answer : (4)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution: To analyze the chemical composition of living tissue (e.g., to separate and study
biomolecules like sugars, amino acids, nucleotides, etc.), a fresh living tissue is ground
(homogenized) in trichloroacetic acid (TCA) using a mortar and pestle.
Final Answer : (2)

92) Solution : Enzymes are classified into six major classes based on the type of reaction they
catalyse. Lyases are the class of enzymes that catalyse the removal of a group (such as water,
CO₂, ammonia, etc.) from a substrate by a mechanism other than hydrolysis, resulting in the
formation of a double bond (or sometimes a ring structure).
Final Answer : (4)

93) Explanation: In angiosperms (flowering plants), the pollen grain (male gametophyte)
develops from the microspore. After the first mitotic division, it becomes 2-celled — one large
vegetative cell and one small generative cell. In over 60% of angiosperms (mostly dicots),
pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled [Link] the remaining species (less than 40%), the
generative cell divides further to form two male gametes, so pollen is shed at the 3-celled
stage.
Final Answer : (2)

94) Explanation: In an angiospermic ovule, the nucellus is the central parenchymatous tissue
(mass of cells) that contains abundant reserve food materials. It acts as the megasporangium.
The functional megaspore develops inside the nucellus into the embryo sac (female
gametophyte). The reserve food stored in the nucellus nourishes the developing embryo sac.
Final Answer : (4)

95) Explanation: The diagram shows a typical metacentric chromosome with a satellite.
A → Satellite: The small, knob-like structure present at the end of the chromosome arm.
B → Secondary constriction: The narrow region (Nucleolar Organising Region - NOR) that
connects the satellite to the main chromosome body.
C → Metacentric: The centromere (primary constriction) is present in the middle, dividing the
chromosome into two equal arms.
Final Answer : (2)

96) Explanation: In the flagella (and cilia) of eukaryotic cells, the microtubules are arranged
in a highly specific pattern called the 9 + 2 arrangement (axoneme structure).
9 peripheral doublets: Nine pairs of fused microtubules (each doublet consists of A and B
tubules).
2 central singlets: Two single microtubules in the centre.
This arrangement is responsible for the movement of flagella. The structure is surrounded by
plasma membrane.

97) Explanation: The plasma membrane (plasmalemma) of human Red Blood Cells (RBCs /
Erythrocytes) has approximately: 52% Proteins, 40% Lipids.
(The remaining small percentage is carbohydrates.) This composition is often used as a
standard example while studying the chemical composition of plasma membrane because
RBCs are easily available and their membrane can be isolated easily for biochemical analysis.

98) Explanation: In honey bees, sex determination is based on the haplodiploid system:
Male honey bees (Drones) develop from unfertilized eggs and are haploid (n chromosomes).
All their body (somatic) cells are haploid. These haploid cells undergo mitosis for growth,
development, and formation of sperms (spermatogenesis occurs by mitosis in males, not
meiosis).
Worker bees and Queen bee develop from fertilized eggs and are diploid (2n). Their somatic
cells undergo mitosis, but they are not haploid.

99)

Explanation: Age pyramids (also called population pyramids) reflect the growth status of a
population based on the proportion of individuals in different age groups:
Pre-reproductive (0–14 years), Reproductive (15–44 years), Post-reproductive (45+ years)
Analysis of the given diagrams: Pyramid (i): Broad base (large pre-reproductive population)
and gradually tapering top → Expanding (growing) population. Birth rate is high.
Pyramid (ii): Narrow base (small pre-reproductive population) and relatively broader
middle/upper part → Declining (shrinking) population. Birth rate is low, death rate may be
higher.

100) Explanation: The diagram represents the various factors that affect Population Density
(N).
Birth rate (Natality) and Immigration → Increase the population density (inflow).
Death rate (Mortality) and Emigration → Decrease the population density (outflow).
In the given diagram:
Box (A) is shown as an input (upward arrow into population density) → It represents
Immigration.
Box (B) is shown as an output (downward arrow from population density) → It represents
Emigration.

101) Explanation: Assertion: Fig tree and fig wasp show mutualism. → True
Reason: Fig wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence and fig tree provides suitable egg-laying
sites. → True and correctly explains the Assertion.
This is a classic example of mutualism (obligate mutualism): The female fig wasp enters the
fig inflorescence (syconium), pollinates the female flowers while laying eggs.
The fig tree provides food (for developing larvae) and a safe site for egg-laying. In return, the
wasp helps in pollination of the fig tree

102)

Explanation: Standing crop is the total amount of living biomass (organic matter) present in an
ecosystem at a given time. It is usually expressed as:
Biomass per unit area (e.g., g/m²) or Biomass per unit volume (in aquatic ecosystems).
It represents the existing crop of living organisms (producers, consumers, decomposers) at
any particular moment. It is not a rate, but a standing quantity.

103) Explanation: * Alcoholic beverages are produced depending on the type of raw material
used for fermentation and the type of processing (with or without distillation).
Wine and Beer are produced without distillation and typically have a lower alcohol content.
Brandy, Whiskey, and Rum are produced by distillation of the fermented broth, which
increases their alcohol concentration.

104)

English Solution Evaluation of Statements:

(a) Incorrect: Mango (Species/Genus), Dicots (Class), and Plants (Kingdom) represent taxa at
different taxonomic levels, not the same level.
(b) Correct: Wheat family (Poaceae) belongs to order Poales, and Mango family
(Anacardiaceae) belongs to order Sapindales (different orders). However, both are flowering
plants, so they belong to the same division, Angiospermae.
(c) Correct: Both Solanum tuberosum (Potato) and Datura are classified under the family
Solanaceae.
(d) Incorrect: A biological species is a genetically closed system because its members are
reproductively isolated from individuals of other species, preventing gene flow between
different species.
(e) Correct: Dicots and Monocots are Classes of plants, and Mammals (Mammalia) is a Class of
animals. Thus, they all represent taxa at the same taxonomic rank/level (Class).
Since statements b, c, and e are completely true, option (1) is the correct match.

105) Explanation: * Animalia: Follows Holozoic nutrition (ingestion of solid or liquid

organic food).
Fungi: Follows Osmotrophic / Saprotrophic nutrition (absorb soluble organic matter from
dead substrates after external digestion).
Plantae: Follows Holophytic nutrition (photosynthetic/autotrophic nutrition where inorganic
nutrients are absorbed and synthesized into food using sunlight).

106) Explanation: Trichoderma belongs to the class Deuteromycetes. Deuteromycetes are

commonly known as Imperfect fungi because their sexual (perfect) stages are either
unknown or absent. Therefore, matching it with "Perfect fungi" is incorrect.

107) Explanation: In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a sporophyte, which possesses
true vascular tissues (xylem and phloem). The gametophyte (prothallus) is small,
inconspicuous, and lacks true vascular tissue.

108) Explanation: In the standard NCERT Diversity chapter layout, A represents Volvox
(colonial green alga), B represents Porphyra (red alga), and C represents Chara (green alga).

109) Explanation: Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of

life to form different kinds of structures; this ability is called plasticity. Heterophylly in
cotton, coriander, and larkspur is due to phases of life, whereas in Buttercup (Ranunculus),
the heterophyllous development is environmental (leaves formed in air differ from those
formed in water). Thus, both statements are correct.

110) Explanation: The light reaction produces ATP, NADPH, and O2. Glucose is synthesized
during the dark reaction (Calvin Cycle / Biosynthetic phase) using the ATP and NADPH
produced in the light reaction.

111) Explanation:
Statement-I is true because virtually all living organisms depend on solar energy trapped by
plants via photosynthesis.
Statement-II is also true because green plants use water as an electron donor, splitting it to
release O2 into the atmosphere.

112)

Explanation: Under anaerobic conditions (like fermentation/glycolysis alone), only 2 ATP

molecules are generated net per molecule of glucose.
113)

Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is incorrect because carbohydrates (like glucose) are the
most common respiratory substrates. Proteins, fats, and organic acids can also be used, but
they are not the only ones.

114)

Anatomically, the cortex lies between the outermost layer, the epidermis, and the outermost
layer of the central cylinder (stele, which begins with the pericycle).

115)

In dicot roots, the initiation of lateral roots and vascular/cork cambium during secondary
growth takes place specifically in the cells of the pericycle.

116)

In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short-lived and is replaced by a large number
of roots that originate from the base of the stem. These constitute the fibrous root system
(e.g., wheat plant).

117)

Both mango and coconut are drupe fruits developing from monocarpellary superior ovaries.
In mango, the mesocarp is fleshy and edible, whereas in coconut, the mesocarp is fibrous and
the edible part is the endosperm (not endocarp).

118)

Map distance corresponds directly to the order of genes. The largest distance is between B
and C (10 units), which means B and C are at the extreme ends.
Since Distance(B to A) = 3 units and Distance(A to C) = 7 units, 3 + 7 = 10 units. Therefore, A
must lie in the middle. The correct linear sequence is B - A - C.

119)

Crossing over occurs during pachytene of meiosis-I between non-sister chromatids of

homologous chromosomes. It leads to the breakage and swapping of gene segments,
producing recombination of linked [Link] over occurs during pachytene of
meiosis-I between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. It leads to the breakage
and swapping of gene segments, producing recombination of linked genes.
120) Trisomy is a type of aneuploidy where an extra chromosome is added to a specific
homologous pair, represented as 2n + 1 (e.g., Down syndrome is Trisomy 21).

121) Explanation: Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) act as substrates for DNA

polymerases to build the new strand and also provide energy through the hydrolysis of high-
energy terminal phosphate bonds (similar to ATP).

122)

DNA replication takes place during the S phase (Synthesis phase) of interphase in the
eukaryotic cell cycle.

123)

Question Explanation : Template strand direction

Concept: Transcription – Template vs Coding
Solution:
During transcription, the template strand of DNA has a 3'→ 5' polarity, and RNA is synthesized
in the 5'→ 3' direction.
The coding strand has the same sequence as the RNA (except for thymine replaced by uracil in
RNA) and runs in the 5' 3' direction.
Final answer: (2)

124) (a) Glycogen is a polysaccharide that serves as the primary storage form of energy in
animals and fungi.
(b) Collagen is the mst abundant protein in the animal world, acting as an intercellular
grund substance.
(c) Ricin is a secndary metabolite classified specifically as a toxin.
(d) Malonate is a cmpetitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase.

125) Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction in which embryo is formed but without mixing
(fusion) of gametes; so the ovules get converted into seeds.
The assertion is correct because apomixis forms seeds without fertilization, making it an
asexual mechanism that mimics sexual reproduction. The reason is also correct because both
pathways ultimately yield seeds. However, producing seeds doesn't explain why or how it
mimics sexual reproduction (it mimics it because it bypasses fertilization yet forms a seed
containing an embryo). Thus, it is not the correct explanation.

126) Contractile vacuole handles osmoregulation and excretion in amoeba.

Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell, responsible for cellular respiration and ATP
synthesis.
Lysosome contains cellular hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases) active at acidic pH.
Golgi body is primarily involved in processing and targeting packaging materials.

127)
According to Alexander von Humboldt's species-area relationship, plotting species richness
against area for a wide variety of taxa yields a rectangular hyperbola on a normal scale.
(Note: On a logarithmic scale, it turns into a straight line).

128)

The assertion is true; Trichoderma species are free-living fungi very common in root
ecosystems operating effectively as biocontrol agents. The reason is also true;
Nucleopolyhedroviruses are excellent, species-specific biocontrol choices targeting insects and
other arthropods. However, the virus statement provides absolutely no cause or explanation
for how Trichoderma functions.

129) (i) Correct: Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes feature an intervening dikaryotic stage
(n+n).
(ii) Correct: Higher fungi like filamentous Ascomycetes feature septate and branched hyphae.
(iii) Incorrect: Deuteromycetes are the ones known as fungi imperfecti.
(iv) Incorrect: Deuteromycetes lack a known sexual stage altogether, so they don't showcase
zygotic meiosis.
(v) Correct: Fungi form lichens with algae and mycorrhizae with the roots of higher plants.

130) Fucus is a brown alga (Phaeophyceae). Let's review the points:

(a) True: It reprduces via oogamous sexual reproduction.
(b) True: Uniquely amng most algae, Fucus exhibits a diplntic life cycle.
(c) True: Being a brwn alga, its key pigments are chlorophyll a, c, and fucxanthin.
(d) False: It is strictly ogamous, not isogamous.
(e) False: These pigments belng to red algae (Rhodophyceae).
Statements a, b, and c are correct, making a total of three true statements.

131) Solution:
Here A: Vascular Cambium
B: Vascular cambium
C: Shoot apical [Link]
D: Root apical Meristem
So, the correct answer is: 2. B: Vascular Cambium
Final answer: (2)

132)

Respiration was traditionally considered purely catabolic (breaking down glucose). However,
because various intermediates of the respiratory pathway are withdrawn to synthesize other
compounds (anabolism) when needed, the pathway serves a dual role. A pathway
incorporating both catabolic and anabolic pathways is explicitly defined as an amphibolic
pathway. Thus, the reason correctly defines and explains the assertion.

133)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement about plant tissues.

Concept: Plant Tissue Anatomy.
Solution: The statement describing palisade parenchyma is incorrect. Palisade parenchyma
consists of elongated, columnar cells on the upper side of the leaf.
The description given (oval, round, loosely arranged) actually refers to spongy parenchyma.
The other three statements are correct.
Final Answer: (3)

134)

China rose (Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) belongs to the family Malvaceae. Its floral characteristics
match the formula Br ⊕ ⚥ Epi3-7 K(5) C5~A(∞) G(5) due to the following features:
Br (Bracteate): Bracts are present at the base of the flower stalk.
⊕ (Actinomorphic): The flower shows radial symmetry.
⚥ (Bisexual): Both male and female reproductive structures are present.
Epi3-7 (Epicalyx): A whorl of 3 to 7 bracteoles is present outside the calyx.
K(5) (Calyx): 5 sepals which are united (gamosepalous).
C5~A(∞) (Corolla and Androecium): 5 free petals (polypetalous) attached to infinite stamens
(epipetalous condition), where stamens are fused into a single bundle (monadelphous).
G(5) (Gynoecium): Pentacarpellary, syncarpous condition with a superior ovary.

135)

The Assertion is true: RNA is chemically unstable and reactive compared to DNA.
Consequently, RNA viruses mutate and evolve at a much faster rate (e.g., Influenza virus,
HIV).
The Reasn is false: Nt all viruses contain an RNA genome. Viruses can have either a DNA
genome (like Bacteriophages, Adenovirus, Smallpox virus) or an RNA genome. No virus
contains both DNA and RNA simultaneously.

136) Statement (a) is CORRECT: Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates characterized by the
absence of scales and paired fins. Statement (b) is INCORRECT: They have a sucking and
circular mouth without jaws (they are Agnatha).
Statement (c) is CORRECT: They bear 6–15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
Statement (d) is INCORRECT: Cyclostomes are marine but migrate to freshwater (not deep
sea) for spawning (anadromous migration). After spawning, within a few days, they die.
Since statements (b) and (d) are incorrect, the correct option is (3).

137) Solution: A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i

(A) Spongocoel → characteristic of Porifera → (iii)
(B) Dorso-ventrally flattened body → characteristic of Platyhelminthes → (iv)
(C) Coelenteron cavity → characteristic of Cnidaria → (ii)
(D) Chitinous exoskeleton → characteristic of Arthropoda → (i)
Final Answer: (3)

138) Solution : Let's analyze the options phylum by phylum: Option (1): Sponge (Porifera),
Sea anemone (Cnidaria), Starfish (Echinodermata) — Different phyla.
Option (2): Malarial parasite & Amoeba (Protista/Protozoa), Mosquito (Arthropoda) —
Different phyla/kingdoms.
 Option (3): Earthworm (Annelida), Pinworm (Aschelminthes), Tapeworm (Platyhelminthes) —
Different phyla.
Option (4): Prawn, Scorpion, and Locusta (Locust) all belong to the phylum Arthropoda
(jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton).

139) In a male frog, the correct anatomical pathway for the passage of sperm is:

A. Testes produce sperms.

B. Sperms travel through Vasa efferentia (10-12 in number) arising from testes.
C. They enter the Kidney and open into Bidder's canal.
D. From Bidder's canal, it communicates with the Urinogenital duct.
E. The urinogenital duct runs backward to open into the Cloaca.

Therefore, the proper sequence is: Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal →
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.

140) Statement (1) is FALSE: Frogs are poikilothermic (cold-blooded/ectothermic) animals,

meaning their body temperature varies with the environment. They are not homeothermal
(warm-blooded).
Statement (2) is FALSE: Frogs never drink water. Instead, they absorb water directly
through their highly permeable skin.
Statement (3) is CORRECT: In Rana tigrina (the common Indian bullfrog), poisonous glands
are absent on the skin. .
Statement (4) is FALSE: Adult frogs do not have a tail. A tail is only present during their
larval (tadpole) stage.

141) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is mathematically defined as the total volume of air present
in the lungs after a maximum/forced inspiration. It is the sum total of all pulmonary volumes:
TLC = RV + ERV + TV+ IRV. Where:
RV = Residual Volume
ERV = Expiratory Reserve Volume
TV = Tidal Volume
IRV = Inspiratory Reserve Volume

142)

The lungs are enclosed by a double-layered membrane called pleura.

The outer layer (A) is in close contact with the thoracic lining and is known as the Parietal
pleura.
The inner layer (B) is in contact with the lung surface and is known as the Visceral pleura.
The space between them (C) is the Pleural cavity, which is filled with pleural fluid to reduce
friction on the lung surface.

143) Solution : Label C represents the Vena Cava. It collects deoxygenated (impure) blood
from the body tissues and delivers it to the right atrium (right auricle) of the heart. The partial
pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in deoxygenated blood is characteristically 45 mm Hg. This
matches option (4) perfectly.
 144) (a) Descending limb of Henle's loop: Permeable to water but nearly impermeable to
electrolytes. Therefore, it is responsible for the reabsorption of water only (ii).
(b) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT): Main site of reabsorption; reabsorbs nearly all
essential nutrients, 70-80% of electrolytes, and water. Thus, reabsorption of ions, water,
and organic nutrients (iv).
(c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop: Impermeable to water but allows transport of
electrolytes active or passively. Thus, reabsorption of salts only (i).
(d) Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT): Responsible for the conditional reabsorption of
sodium ions and water (iii) under the influence of hormones like Aldosterone and ADH.

145) (a) Multipolar neuron: Found commonly in the Cerebral cortex (ii).
(b) Bipolar neuron: Found in the Retina of the eye (iii).
(c) Myelinated nerve fibres: Enwrapped with Schwann cells that form a myelin sheath,
commonly found in cranial and Spinal nerves (iv).
(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibres: Enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin
sheath, commonly found in autonomous and Somatic neural systems (i).

146) Solution : Nissl's gramules are small basophilic gramules found in the cyton and
dendrites of neuron. They are essentially RER studded with free ribosomes, involved in protein
synthesis.

147) Solution: In the standard hypothalamic-hypophyseal diagram:

A. Hypothalamic neurons release hormones into a Portal circulatory system to regulate the
Anterior pituitary.
B. Conversely, the Posterior pituitary is under direct neural regulation via Axonal transport
(axons extend directly from the hypothalamus into the posterior pituitary).
C. If a diagram switches these labels (i.e., showing portal circulation going directly into the
posterior pituitary, or direct axonal long-tracts regulating anterior pituitary secretion instead),
that swap constitutes the incorrect labelling.

Therefore, the incorrect pairing/labelling elements are Portal circulation and Axonal transport
relative to their proper anatomical target lobes.

148)

A. Hormones that can easily pass through the lipid bilayer of cell membranes are lipid-soluble
(lipophilic) hormones. These include steroid hormones and iodothyronines. Their receptors
are intracellular (mostly nuclear).
B. Cortisol (glucocorticoid) and Testosterone (androgen) are both steroid hormones derived
from cholesterol. They cross the plasma membrane easily and bind to intracellular receptors.
C. Peptide/protein hormones like Insulin, Glucagon, Oxytocin, and Somatostatin are water-soluble
and bind to extracellular membrane-bound receptors.

149) Part (B) represents the Inner membrane: The inner membrane of a mitochondrion
forms a number of infoldings directed toward the matrix called cristae (singular: crista),
which increase its surface area. This perfectly matches the statement.
 150)

A ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different types of proteins

(specifically, around 80 proteins span across both the large and small subunits in
eukaryotic/prokaryotic systems described generally).

151) Solution:
Fig. A → Anaphase-Sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles.
Fig. B → Prophase- Chromosomes condense, centriole move towards poles
Final answer: 4

152) Assertion (A) is TRUE: Plant cells have a rigid cell wall, so they cannot form a furrow.
Instead, cytokinesis starts in the center of the cell and grows outward by forming a cell plate.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Animal cells lack a cell wall, so the plasma membrane undergoes
invagination to form a peripheral cell furrow that deepens centripetally to divide the
cytoplasm.

153) Option (1) is incorrect: The joint between frontal and parietal bones of the skull is a
fibrous joint (sutures), which is immovable.
Option (2) is incorrect: A pivot joint exists between the first cervical vertebra (atlas) and the
second (axis). The joints between subsequent vertebral bodies are cartilaginous joints.
Option (3) is incorrect: The joint between the humerus and pectoral girdle is a ball and
socket joint, not a hinge joint.
Option (4) is CORRECT: A gliding joint occurs between flat articulating surfaces of bones,
such as between the individual carpals of the wrist.

154)

According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction:

A. When a muscle fiber contracts, thin (actin) filaments slide inward over the thick (myosin)
filaments.
B. This sliding action pulls the Z-lines closer together, leading to the shortening of the
sarcomere and a decrease in the length of the I-band and H-zone.
C. Crucially, the length of the A-band remains constant (does not change) because the
thick myosin filaments themselves do not change in length during contraction.

155)

Fertilization can only occur if both the ovum and sperm are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region of the fallopian tube. Because both gametes have a limited lifespan,
asynchronous arrival will fail to result in fertilization. This is why not all copulations lead to
pregnancy.

156) Solution: Hysterectomy is the medical and surgical term used for the partial or
complete removal of the uterus (womb).
 157) Solution:
A. Mons pubis: This is the fleshy-pad of fatty tissue that covers the pubic bone. So, A matches
with iv. Cushion of fatty tissue.
B. Labia majora: These are the larger, outer folds of skin that protect the vulva. So, B
matches with i. Fleshy folds of tissue.
C. Labia minora: These are the smaller, inner folds of skin that surround the clitoris and
vaginal opening. So, C matches with ii. Paired folds of tissue.
D. Clitoris: This is a small, sensitive organ located at the top of the vulva. So, D matches with
iii. Finger-like structure.
Therefore, the correct matching is: A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
So, the correct answer is Option 1.

158)

In a blastocyst:

A. The outer surface layer of cells (A) is called the Trophoblast. Its main function is to attach to
the endometrium of the uterus during implantation.
B. The inner cluster of cells (B) attached to one side is called the Inner cell mass. It contains
stem cells that differentiate to give rise to all the tissues and organs of the embryo.

159)

A. Vasectomy involves cutting and tying a small part of the vasa deferentia. This prevents new
sperms from traveling from the testes into the ejaculatory fluid.
B. However, sperms that were already stored upstream in the seminal vesicles and ampulla
before the surgery remain there.
C. Therefore, it takes several weeks or multiple ejaculations for the residual sperms to be
completely cleared out. Sperms gradually disappear from the semen over time.

160)

A. Prophylaxis refers to action taken to prevent disease rather than treating it once contracted.
B. Vaccination introduces an attenuated or inactivated pathogen into the body to safely stimulate
the immune system, inducing memory cells to protect against future infections. Thus, it is a
key preventative measure (prophylaxis).

161) Explanation:
(A) Typhoid: Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. So, (A) matches with
(II) Salmonella.
(B) Elephantiasis: Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis) is caused by parasitic worms,
specifically filarial worms like Wuchereria bancrofti. These worms belong to the group
Aschelminthes (roundworms). So, (B) matches with (III) Aschelminthes.
(C) Ringworm: Ringworm is a fungal infection caused by various dermatophytes, including
the genus Microsporum. So, (C) matches with (IV) Microsporum.
(D) Malaria: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the Plasmodium genus. So, (D)
matches with (I) Protozoan.
Final Answer: 3. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
 162)

A. Heroin, chemically known as diacetylmorphine, is produced by the acetylation of

morphine, which is extracted from the latex of the poppy plant (Papaver somniferum).

163)

A. Structure (a) is the chemical structure of Morphine.

B. Morphine is extracted from the latex of the poppy plant, Papaver somniferum.
C. Clinically, it is a highly effective sedative and painkiller, often given to patients undergoing
surgery.

164) Homologous structures share a common anatomical origin and basic structural plan
inherited from a common ancestor, even though they may perform different functions.
The wing of a bird and the flipper of a whale are both modifications of the forelimbs of
mammals/birds (tetrapods). They share the same basic bone structure (humerus, radius, ulna,
carpals, metacarpals), making them homologous.

165) A cloning vector is used to carry foreign DNA into a host cell for replication or
expression. The necessary features of a cloning vector include:

A. Origin of replication : This allows the vector to replicate within the host cell.
B. Selectable marker : This helps identify and select cells that have successfully taken up the
vector.
C. Cloning sites : These are specific sites (often with restriction enzyme sites) where foreign
DNA can be inserted.

166) Solution : Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains the Ti (Tumor-inducing) plasmid. In

genetic engineering, this plasmid is modified (disarmed) to serve as a highly effective vehicle
for Gene transfer into target plant cells. It naturally delivers its T-DNA piece into plant
genomes.

167)

In a standard PCR cycle:

A. Step A: Denaturation (takes place at a high temperature, around 94–96°C, not 50°C).
B. Step B: Annealing (primers bind to complementary sequences around 50–65°C).
C. Step C: Extension (Taq polymerase, a heat-stable DNA polymerase, synthesizes new
complementary strands using dNTPs at 72°C).

Therefore, option (1) accurately defines step C as Extension running under a heat-stable enzyme.

168)

A. Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice (Oryza sativa) produced to biosynthesize
β-carotene, a precursor of Vitamin A.
B. This trait was introduced by inserting genes from the daffodil plant (Narcissus
pseudonarcissus) and a soil bacterium (Erwinia uredovora). The β-carotene gives the grains a
 distinct yellow-golden color.

169)

A. Even if a plant is entirely infected with a virus, its apical and axillary meristems remain
virus-free. This is primarily because the rate of cell division in the meristematic zone is much
faster than the rate of viral multiplication, and there is no vascular connection (xylem/phloem)
directly entering the active zone.
B. Culturing both apical and axillary meristems can produce virus-free clones.

170) Solution:

A. Silverfish — a wingless insect, belongs to phylum Arthropoda (class Insecta).

B. Flying fish — belongs to phylum Chordata (class Pisces).
C. Cuttlefish — belongs to phylum Mollusca.
D. Pufferfish — belongs to phylum Chordata (class Pisces).

Final answer: (3)

171)

During blood coagulation:

A. Injured tissues or ruptured platelets release Thromboplastin (A).

B. Thromboplastin triggers biochemical reactions in the presence of calcium ions to form the
active macromolecular enzyme complex Thrombokinase / Prothrombinase (B).
C. Thrombokinase converts inactive prothrombin into active thrombin.
D. Thrombin then converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble network polymer threads called
Fibrin (C), which traps formed elements to form the clot.

Therefore:

A. A = Thromboplastin
B. B = Thrombokinase
C. C = Fibrin

172)

A. Diuresis is the increased excretion of urine. To prevent diuresis, the body needs to reabsorb
more water and electrolytes back into the bloodstream.
B. Aldosterone (secreted by the adrenal cortex) acts on the distal parts of the renal tubules to
stimulate the reabsorption of Na+ ions and water. This increases blood volume/pressure
and effectively concentrates the urine, preventing diuresis.

173)

The correct answer is : 2 - (C) and (D) only

Explanation : Thyroid hormones play a crucial role in various physiological processes. Let's
analyze each statement :
(A) Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance → Under thyroid control.
• These hormones influence kidney function and indirectly affect water and electrolyte balance
by regulating metabolism and renal activity.
(B) Regulation of basal metabolic rate (BMR) → Under thyroid control
• They increase BMR.
(C) Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle → Not under thyroid control
(D) Development of immune system → Not under thyroid control
(E) Support the process of R.B.C. formation → Under thyroid control
• Thyroid hormones stimulate erythropoiesis

174) Assertion (A) is FALSE: The cell wall is a non-living (dead) rigid structure, not a living
one.
Reason (R) is FALSE: The secondary cell wall is formed on the inner side (towards the
membrane / vacuole) of the cell as the cell matures, not on the outer side towards the middle
lamella. The primary cell wall is what lies closest to the middle lamella.

175) Synovial joints are uniquely characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled synovial
cavity between the articulating surfaces of the two connecting bones. This arrangement allows
for considerable movement (e.g., ball and socket, hinge, pivot joints are sub-types of synovial
joints).

176) Statement I is INCORRECT: A fluid-filled cavity called the antrum is the characteristic
feature of a tertiary follicle, not a secondary follicle. The secondary follicle simply gains more
granulosa layers and a organized theca layer.
Statement II is CORRECT: The fully mature tertiary follicle, now called the Graafian
follicle, ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary. This biological release
mechanism is called ovulation.

177) Solution : A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)

Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop
Copper releasing IUD – Multiload 375
Hormone releasing IUD – LNG-20
Vaults – Rubber barrier
Final answer : (3)

178)

The classic clinical textbook diagram showing massive chronic inflammation and swelling of
the lower limbs and scrotum depicts a patient suffering from Elephantiasis, which is also
known interchangeably as Filariasis.
It is caused by the filarial worms Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi. Therefore, both
terms (1) and (2) correctly state the disease.

179) (a) Adaptive radiation: The classic textbook example is Darwin's Finches (iv)
developing different beak shapes from a single ancestral seed-eating stock on the Galápagos
islands.
(b) Convergent evolution: Analogous structures like the wings of a butterfly and a bird
(iii) show convergent evolution where different structures evolve for the same function.
(c) Divergent evolution: Homologous structures like the anatomical bones of forelimbs in
Man and Whale (ii) show divergent evolution from a shared ancestral design.
(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action: Human-driven selection, such as the emergence of
resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides (i).

180)

According to standard biotechnology principles, a Stirred-tank bioreactor is typically

cylindrical or designed with a curved/rounded base to ensure efficient mixing of the entire
system contents and proper oxygen distribution throughout the chamber.