20-04-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS12 MD

PHYSICS

1) The electric current in the circuit is given by for some time. Calculate RMS current
for the period t = 0 to t = τ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) An a.c having a peak value 1.41A is used to heat a wire. For producing same heat value of d.c will
be :-

(1) 1.41 A
(2) 2.0 A
(3) 0.707 A
(4) 1.0 A

3) You are supplied with an ammeter of resistance 3Ω and two resistors of resistance 1Ω and 2Ω
respectively. In which of the following combinations the potential difference across the meter will be
0.75 V when a current of 1A flows through the combination ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The amount of charge passed in time 't' through a cross-section of a wire is

Q(t) = At2 + Bt + C
then correct statements are,
The dimension of :-
(a) A is ampere sec.
(b) A is ampere sec–1
(c) B is ampere
(d) C is ampere sec.

(1) a, c, d
(2) a
(3) b, c, d
(4) Only c, d

5) Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other under a mutual force of attraction.
At the instant when velocity of A is v and that of B is 2v, the velocity of centre of mass of the system
:-

(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) 3v
(4) Zero

6) Two blocks A and B are joined together with a compressed spring. When the system is released,
the two blocks appear to be moving with unequal speeds in the opposite directions as shown in
figure. Select correct statement :

(1) The centre of mass of the system will remain stationary.

(2) Mass of block A is equal to mass of block B.
(3) The centre of mass of the system will move towards right.
(4) It is an impossible physical situation.

7) From the fixed pulley, masses 2kg, 1kg and 3kg are suspended as shown in the figure. Find the

extension in the spring if k = 100 N/m. (Neglect oscillations due to spring) :-

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.3 m
(4) 0

8) A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1μF can withstand maximum voltage V1 = 6kV (kilo-volt) and
another capacitor of capacitance C2 = 3μF can withstand maximum voltage V2 = 4 kV. When the two
capacitors are connected in series, the combined system can withstand a maximum voltage of :-

(1) 4kV
(2) 6kV
(3) 8kV
(4) 10kV

9) Find equivalent capacitance and charge on 5µF in a given circuit :-

(1) 44µF, 300µC

(2) 16µF, 150µC
(3) 15µF, 200µC
(4) 4µF, 50µC

10) A table fan, rotating at a speed of 2400 rpm is switched off and the resulting variation of the rpm
with time is shown in the figure. The total number of revolutions of the fan before its come to rest is

:-

(1) 420
(2) 320
(3) 190
(4) 380

11) A motor car is travelling at 60m/s on a circular road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its speed
at the rate of 4 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is :

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

12) The distance between the two charges 25 and 36 is 11cm. At what point on the line
Joining the two, the intensity will be zero?

(1) At a distance of 5 cm from 25

(2) At a distance of 5 cm from 36
(3) At a distance of 10 cm from 25
(4) At a distance of 11 cm from 36

13) Two identical charged sphere are suspended in air by strings of equal lengths and make an angle
of 30° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 gmcm–3, the angle remains the
same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid. Take density of material of the sphere = 1.6 gm
cm–3 :-

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 10
(4) None of the above

14) A semicircular loop of radius R is rotated with an angular velocity ω. perpendicular to the plane
of a uniform magnetic field B as shown in the figure. Emf induced in the loop is :

(1) BωR2

(2)
BωR2

(3)
BωR2

(4)
BωR2

15) In an A.C. sub-circuit as shown in figure, the resistance R = 0.2 Ω. At a certain instant

VA– VB = 0.5 V, I = 0.5 A, and current is increasing at the rate of = 8 A/s. The inductance of the
coil is

(1) 0.01 H
(2) 0.02 H
(3) 0.05 H
(4) 0.5 H
16)
The figure shows three circuits with identical batteries, inductors and resistances. Rank the circuits
according to the currents through the battery just after the switch is closed, greatest first.

(1) I2 > I3 > I1

(2) I2 > I1 > I3
(3) I1 > I2 > I3
(4) I1 > I3 > I2

17) In an EM wave propagating along X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 × 1010
Hz along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–7 T. The expression for electric field will be :-

10
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
(4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

18) In an electromagnetic wave,

E = 1.2 sin(2 × 106 t –kx)N/C.
Find value of intensity of magnetic field.

(1) 4 × 10–8 A/m

(2) 0.1 × 10 A/m
–2

(3) 0.4 × 10–2 A/m

(4)
A/m

19) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the
mainscale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale
is :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

20) Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.
Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

21) A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8 cm. If the entire
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in the capillary tube will
be

(1) 8 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 20 cm

22) A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil which is
immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water
level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram).

The density of the oil is :

(1) 425 kg m–3

(2) 800 kg m–3
(3) 928 kg m–3
(4) 650 kg m–3

23) A cube made of material having a density of 0.9 × 103 kg/m3 floats between water and a liquid of
density 0.8 × 103 kg/m3, which is immiscible with water. What part of the cube is immersed in water
?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A cubical block of side a and density ρ slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity v.
There is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness t between the plane and the block. The coefficient of

viscosity of the thin film will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Ve and Vp denote the escape velocities from the earth and another planet having twice the radius
and the same mean density as that for the earth. Then :-

(1) Ve = Vp
(2) Ve = 2 Vp
(3) Ve = Vp/2
Ve = Vp /
(4)

26) A body is orbiting very close to the earth’s surface with kinetic energy K. Additional energy
required to completely escape the body from the given orbit is

(1) K
(2) 2K
(3) K/2
(4) 3K/2

27) An electron having kinetic energy K is moving in a circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic induction. If kinetic energy is doubled and magnetic induction tripled, the radius
will become
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A bar magnet when placed at an angle of 30° to the direction of magnetic field induction of 5 ×
10–2T, experiences a moment of couple 25 × 10–6 N-m. If the length of the magnet is 5 cm its pole
strength is:-

(1) 2 × 10–2 A-m

(2) 5 × 10–2 A-m
(3) 2 A-m
(4) 5 A-m

29) A closely wound solenoid of 1000 turns and area of cross-section 3 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of
1A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a
horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 'B'. When axis of solenoid making an angle 30° with the
field, then torque on solenoid is 1.2 ×10–2 Nm. Magnetic field will be

(1) 5 × 10–2 T
(2) 4 × 10–2 T
(3) 6 × 10–2 T
(4) 8 × 10–2 T

30) If the K.E of a particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage change in the de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle is :-

(1) 25
(2) 75
(3) 60
(4) 50

31) In the experiment of photoelectric effect, graph is shown, what will be value of υ1 :-
(1) 1.23×1015 Hz
(2) 2.75×1016 Hz
(3) 0.25×1014 Hz
(4) 2.45×1014 Hz

32) An electron and proton are separated by a large distance and the electron approaches the proton
with a kinetic energy of 2.4 eV. If the electron is captured by the proton to form a hydrogen atom in
the ground state, the wavelength of the photon given off is :

(1) 0.077 nm
(2) 0.77 nm
(3) 7.7 nm
(4) 77 nm

33) A body is moving on a rough horizontal surface with velocity 10 m/s as shown in figure. The
angle of friction for the body is

(1) 53o
(2) 60o
(3) 45o
(4) 37o

34)

In which of the following cases the magnitude of acceleration of the block A will be maximum
(Neglect friction, mass of pulley and string) :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) In the figure, all surfaces are smooth. The smaller block does not slip upon larger block. The
external force F is

(1) Greater than (M + m)g tanθ

(2) Less than (M + m)g tanθ
(3) Equal to (M + m)g tanθ
(4) Equal to (M + m)g cotθ

36) A square ABCD of side 1 mm is kept at distance 15 cm in from of the concave mirror as shown in
the figure. The focal length of the mirror is 10 cm. The length of the perimeter of its image will be

(1) 8 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 12 mm
(4) 6 mm

37) A thin wire of length L and mass m is bent in the form of a semicircle [Fig]. Its moment of inertia
about the axis joining its free ends will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) mL2

(3)

(4)

38) A particle of mas m in the X-Y plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular
momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then

(1) LA > LB
(2) LA = LB
(3) the relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
(4) LA < LB

39) P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels 57 meV above the valence band. The maximum
wavelength of light required to create a hole is (Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-

(1) 57Å
(2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å
(4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å

40) Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of truth table it can be found that to
produce a high output (1) at R, we must have :

(1) X = 0, Y = 1
(2) X = 1, Y = 1
(3) X = 1, Y = 0
(4) X = 0, Y = 0

41) In the following circuits PN-junction diodes D1, D2 and D3 are ideal for the following potential of
A and B, the correct increasing order of resistance between A and B will be :-

(i) –10 V, –5 V (ii) –5V, –10 V

(iii) –4 V, – 12 V

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(3) (ii) = (iii) < (i)
(4) (i) = (iii) < (ii)

42) A steel rod of length 1m is heated from 25ºC to 75ºC keeping its length constant. The
longitudinal strain developed in the rod is (Given : Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 12 ×
10-6/°C) :-

(1) 6 × 10–6
(2) 6 × 10–5
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) Zero

43) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

44) In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150
cm away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the
point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is :
(1) 9.75 mm
(2) 15.6 mm
(3) 1.56 mm
(4) 7.8 mm

45) If , then what is the value of

(1)
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) A gas expands against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume
of 20 dm3. It absorbs 800 J of heat from its surroundings. Then ΔU is :

(1) – 312 J
(2) + 123 J
(3) – 213 J
(4) + 231 J

2) Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released
when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until
volume is 15 litres :

(1) Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero
(2) Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive.
(3) Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero
(4) Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero.

3) Given,
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔH = –395 kJ
S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g); ΔH = –295 kJ
CS2(ℓ) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2SO2(g); ΔH = –1110 kJ
The heat of formation of CS2(ℓ) is :-

(1) 250 kJ
(2) 62.5 kJ
(3) 31.25 kJ
(4) 125 kJ

4)

When CrI3 oxidises to and equivalent mass of CrI3 will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which is the self indicator is used in redox titration?

(1) Ferrous ammonium sulphate

(2) KMnO4
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None

6)

The mass of Mg that react with 64g of O2 will be

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

(1) 24g
(2) 48g
(3) 72g
(4) 96g

7) Insulin contains 3.4 % sulphur Then, the minimum molecular mass of the insulin is about :

(1) 940 amu

(2) 9400 amu
(3) 3600 amu
(4) 970 amu

8) 0.585% NaCl solution at 27°C has osmotic pressure:-

(1) 2.49 atm

(2) 5 atm
(3) 1.2 atm
(4) 3.8 atm

9) One litre of a buffer solution containing 0.01 M NH4Cl and 0.1 M NH4OH having pKb of 5 has pH
of:

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 6
10) Statement-1: NaCl cannot be hydrolysed.
Statement-2: It is a salt of strong acid and strong base.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

11)

Which of the following statement is correct :

If = 0.34V
= 0.0V
= –0.136V

(1) Cu can be oxidised by H+ ion.

2+
(2) Sn ion can be reduced by H2
(3) Sn can be oxidised by Cu2+
(4) Cu can be oxidised by Sn2+

12) For the reaction A + B C, it is found that doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by
4 times, and doubling the concentration of B doubles the reaction rate. What is the overall order of
the reaction ?

(1) 4

(2)

(3) 3
(4) 1

13) Adding inert gas to system :

N2 + 3H2 2NH3 at equilibrium, at constant volume will have the following impact :-

(1) Extra amount of N2 and H2 are formed

(2) Molar concentration of N2, H2 and NH3 becomes same
(3) No change in the equilibrium
(4) The production of ammonia increases

14) What is the maximum wavelength line in the Lyman series of He+ ion?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) If the kinetic energy of particle is doubled. De Broglie wave length becomes :

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times
(3) times

(4)
times

16) Find the major product from the following reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Statement-I: 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol can not de distinguished by iodoform.

Statement-II: 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol both are secondary alcohols.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

18) CH3COOH
Identify D in above reaction sequence.
(1) CH3CH2NC
(2) CH3– NC
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3CN

19) On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/H2O, the glucose is oxidised to :-

(1) saccharic acid

(2) glucaric acid
(3) gluconic acid
(4) valeric acid

20) Which of the following groups includes all essential amino acids for man -

(1) Leucin, methionine, lysine, & valine

(2) Tryptophan, phenylalanine, glycine & glutamine
(3) Glutamine, valine & arginine
(4) Phenylalanine, valine, lysine, glycine tyrosine

21) Product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
B Will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) The function of AlCl3 iin Friedel-Craft’s reaction is to :

(1) Absorb water

(2) Absorb HCl
(3) Produce nucleophile
(4) Produce electrophile

24) Which of the following carbanion is least stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In which of the following compound carbon nitrogen bond length will be maximum ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Correct order of acidic strength ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) III > II > I
(4) I > III > II
27) Statement-I: 2-butanol on heating with H2SO4 gives 1-butene and 2-butene.
Statement-II: Dehydration of 2-butanol follows Saytzeff rule.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

28)

Which of the following alkene is most reactive for hydration

(1) ethene
(2) propene
(3) 1-butene
(4) 2-methyl propene

29) Compare rate of SN1 :-

(1) II > III > I

(2) II > I > III
(3) I > II > III
(4) III > II > I

30) If internuclear axis is x-axis then HOMO orbital(s) of O2 molecule is..

(1) σ*2px
(2) π*2pz, π*2py
(3) π*2py, π*2px
(4) π2pz, π2py

31) The bond angle of NH3 and NH4+ and NH2– are in the order

+
(1) NH2¯ > NH3 > NH4
+
(2) NH4 > NH3 > NH2¯
+
(3) NH3 > NH2¯ > NH4
+
(4) NH3 > NH4 > NH2¯

32) Assertion : At room temperature O2 and N2 are stable molecule but S2 and P2 are less stable.
Reason : 2pπ – 2pπ collateral overlapping is effective but 3pπ – 3pπ overlapping is weak.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

33) Which of the following complex is colourless ?

(1) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3

34) Metal-ligand bond order is more than 1 in which of the following complex species ?

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
3–
(2) [Cr(Cl)6]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3

35)

(1) : All the lanthanoids are silvery white soft metal.

(2) : Mischmetal is an alloy which mostly consists of iron and small traces of lanthanoid metal(s).
(3) : Among actinoids, Pu and Np exhibit highest oxidation state.
(4) : Ce+4 is coloured due to d-d transition
Select the correct sequence.

(1) TFTF
(2) TTFF
(3) TFFT
(4) FTTF

36) Which element is having lowest melting and boiling point :

(1) Ti
(2) Cu
(3) Zn
(4) Mn

37) Consider the following ionization steps :

M(g) → M+(g) + e–; ΔH = +100eV
M(g) → M (g) + 2e ; ΔH = +150eV
2+ –

Select correct statement(s) :

(a) I.E.1 of M(g) is 100 eV
(b) I.E.1 of M+(g) is 150 eV
(c) I.E.2 of M(g) is 250 eV
(d) I.E.2 of M(g) is 150 eV
(1) a, b, d
(2) b, d, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, a

38) A mixture, on heating with concentration H2SO4 and MnO2, librates reddish brown vapour of

(1) Br2
(2) NO2
(3) HBr
(4) I2

39) An aqueous solution of gas (X) turns red litmus paper into blue; then gas will be :

(1) SO2
(2) NO2
(3) NH3
(4) CO2

40)

There is no S-S bond in :-

–2
(1) S2O3
–2
(2) S2O5
–2
(3) S2O6
–2
(4) S2O7

41) Which is incorrect order for group 14 elements?

(1) CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 : Order of stability
(2) CO2 > SiO2 > GeO2 : Order of acidic charade

(3)

(4) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb : Order of I.E.

42) Assertion : Li and Mg shows diagonal relationship.

Reason : Li and Mg are diagonal to each other in the periodic table.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

43) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

44) How many stereoisomers are possible for the given compound :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 16

45) Select anti-aromatic compound :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) Modern taxonomic studies based on only morphological character.

(2) The number and types of organism present on earth refers to biodiversity.
(3) 1.7 to 1.8 million species are known are described.
(4) Classification is the last step of taxonomic studies.

2)

Which of the following are correct regarding prokaryotic cells ?

(A) Genetic material is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
(B) Compartmentalisation of cytoplasm is present.
(C) The plasma membrane is similar structurally to that of the eukaryotes.

(D) Genetic material is organised in the form of many chromosomes.

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and C

3) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The boundaries of kingdom Protista are not well defined

(2) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell membrane structure
(3) Eubacteria form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) Members of Protista primarily aquatic

4)

Identify the below diagram :-

A - Volvox, B - Chlamydomonas, C - Fucus,

(1)
D - Porphyra
A - Volvox, B - Fucus, C - Porphyra,
(2)
D - Chara
A - Chlorella, B - Fucus, C - Laminaria,
(3)
D - Dictyota
A - Volvox, B - Laminaria, C - Fucus,
(4)
D - Porphyra
5) Identify the diagram and a, b and c.

(1) Chara; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c - Hold fast

(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe

(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c - Holdfast

(4) Fucus; a - Air bladder, b - Midrib, c - stipe

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) In plant kingdom, heterospory was started in

(1) Algae
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Riccia
(4) Pteridophyta

7) The given floral formula belongs to which family

(1) Fabaceae
(2) Asteraceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Liliaceae.

8) Given floral characters are related to which family :

Flowers pentamerous,
gynoecium-bicarpellary and syncarpous,
ovary placed obliquely,
placentation axile,
swollen placenta
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Leguminosae
(3) Papilionaceae
(4) Liliaceae

9) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
Starch sheath
Scattered vascular bundles
Presence of water containing cavity within vascular bundles
Closed vascular bundles
Exarch xylem
Intrafascicular cambium
Out of these features how many are found in maize stem?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

10)

Which of the following is true about guard cells?

(1) Outer wall is thin

(2) Inner wall (towards stomatal pore) is thick
(3) Bean-shaped in dicots and dumb-bell-shaped in grasses
(4) All of these

11) Assertion :- In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm.

Reason :- Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

12) Choose the correct statement:

a. Vacuole can occupy upto 90% volume of the cell.
b. Vacuole contain excretory product and other material not useful for the cell.
c. Tonoplast facilitates the transport of material against concentration gradient in to the vacuole.

(1) Only b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a, b and c

13) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:-
 Column-I Column-II
(A) Leeuwenhoek i First saw and described a living cell.
(B) Robert Brown ii Presence of cell wall is unique to plant cells.
(C) Schleiden iii Discovered the nucleus
All plants are composed of different kind of
(D) Schwann iv
cells.
(1) A-i B-iii C-ii D-iv
(2) A-i B-iii C-iv D-ii
(3) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
(4) A-i B-iv C-ii D-iii

14) If 26 chromosomes are present in male gamete of an organism. How many chromatids are
present in metaphase stage of diploid cell in this organism ?

(1) 23
(2) 104
(3) 46
(4) 92

15) Statement-I :- Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were placed in protista in five kingdom
classification.
Statement-II :- Amoeba and paramoecium were placed in animal kingdom in two kingdom
classification.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

16) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- In the first meiotic division the homologous chromosomes pair to form bivalents, and
undergo crossing over.
Statement-II :- In anaphase I homologous chromosomes move to the opposite poles with both their
chromatids. Each pole receives equal the chromosome number of the parent cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is true.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

17) Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct
statements.
Statements :
(A) Cyclic photophosphorylation takes place probably to meet the difference in number of ATP and
NADPH + H+ used in the dark reaction.
(B) Plastoquinone removes many protons from the stroma while transporting an electron.
(C) Photophosphorylation take place only in light reaction and in dark reaction.
(D) Stroma lamellae have PS-I only and lack NADP reductase.
Options :

(1) C and D
(2) A and B
(3) B and C
(4) A and D

18) Products of light reaction are:

(1) ATP, NADPH2, O2

(2) ATP, FADH2, O2
(3) NADH2, FADH2
(4) Glucose, starch

19) In C4 plants, how many times carboxylation and decarboxylation respectively takes place for
synthesis of one molecule of glucose :-

(1) 6, 6
(2) 12, 6
(3) 6, 12
(4) 12, 12

20) (A) The F1 head piece is a transmembrane protein complex which contains the site of ATP
synthesis. (B) F0 is an integral membrane protein which forms the channel through which protons
cross the outer membrane of mitochondria.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Both A and B are correct
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

21) Pyruvic acid __'A'___+ B

Choose the correct combination :-

(1) A = Lactic acid, B = CO2, C = NAD

(2) A = Ethanol, B = H2O, C = NAD
(3) A = Ethanol, B = CO2, C = NAD
(4) A = Acetyl CoA, B = CO2, C = NAD

22) Select correct option w.r.t examples of limited and unlimited growth in the following plant
parts/organ :-
 Fruit Shoot apex Leaf Root apex

(1) Limited Limited Limited Unlimited

(2) Limited Unlimited Unlimited Limited

(3) Limited Unlimited Limited Unlimited

(4) Unlimited Unlimited Limited Unlimited

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t physiological effects of ethylene on flowering plants.

(1) It increases the number of female flowers in cucumber.

(2) It accelerates abscission of plant parts.
(3) It inhibits sprouting in potato tubers.
(4) It breaks dormancy of seeds.

24)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

25) Identify A, B, C and D

A-Syngamy, B-Embryo, C-Triple fusion,

(1)
D-Endosperm
A-Endosperm, B-Syngamy, C-Embryo,
(2)
D-Triple fusion
A-Endosperm, B-Triple fusion,
(3)
C –Syngamy, D-Embryo
A-Endosperm, B-Triple fusion, C-Embryo,
(4)
D-Syngamy
26) If the number of chromosomes in gametes of an angiosperm is 12. What will be the number of
chromosome in primary endosperm cell, embryo and synergids respectively.

(1) 36, 24, 12

(2) 24, 36, 12
(3) 12, 36, 24
(4) 36, 12, 24

27) Which of following is first step of post pollination event

(1) Zygote formation

(2) Embryo formation
(3) Pollen-pistil interaction
(4) Seed formation

28) Which one of the following is suitable for Drosophila melanogaster?

(1) Same morphology of male and female flies

(2) Agar-agar medium
(3) Short life cycle
(4) Less no. of progeny per mating

29) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are
located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

30) A pea plant with genotype AaBb is selfed and 2000 seeds are obtained. Find out no. of seeds with
both heterozygous traits.

(1) 250
(2) 1000
(3) 750
(4) 500

31) Given pedigree represent how many of the following disorder :-

(1) Polydactyly, Pseudorickets
(2) Polydactyly, colourblindness
(3) Myotonic dystrophy, Polydactyly
(4) Sickle cell anaemia, Polydactyly

32) In which of the following, starch grain size is not matched with its genotype?

(1) BB - Big
(2) Bb - Big
(3) Bb - Intermediates
(4) bb - Small

33) Distance between the genes a, b, c & d in map units is a–d = 3.5, b–c=1, a–b=6, c–d=1.5
& a–c=5. Find out the sequence of the genes on chromosome :-

(1) adcb
(2) acdb
(3) abcd
(4) acbd

34) Which of the following was not a goal of the HGP ?

(1) To determine the sequence of 6 billion chemical base pairs

(2) To store the gathered information in database
(3) To transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industry
(4) To address the ELSI that may arise from the project

35) Statement-I :- DNA polymerases are not only fast in polymerisation but also catalyse the
reaction with high degree of accuracy
Statement-II :- Any mistake during replication would result into mutation
In light above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below -

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

36) tRNA with Tyr has which of the following anticodon.

(1) AUG
(2) UAC
(3) UCA
(4) AGU

37) DNA is very long with respect to its diameter. If a strand of B-DNA is 0.1 mm in length, what is
the ratio of length to diameter ?

(1) 50,000
(2) 10,000
(3) 1,00,000
(4) 2,00,000

38) Bonding between deoxyribose and base in pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is :-

(1) 1' – 1' glycosidic linkage

(2) 1' – 6' glycosidic linkage
(3) 1' – 9' glycosidic linkage
(4) 1' – 4' glycosidic linkage

39) Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to lac operon ?

(1) Single operator for three structural genes, z, y and a.

(2) Monocistronic m RNA formation.
(3) Allolactose is real inducer.
(4) Repressor protein shows negative regulation.

40) Who is known as the father of Indian ecology ?

(1) Prof. R. D. Misra

(2) Warming
(3) Reiter
(4) E. P. Odum

41) Select the incorrect statement wrt interspecific interactions

Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community by reducing the intensity of

(1)
competition between the competing prey species.
Commensalism is an association between two species in which one is benefitted and the other is
(2)
almost unaffected.
Competition occurs only when closely related species compete for the same resources that are
(3)
limiting.
Extinction of a pollinator invariably leads to the extinction of the plant species that is associated
(4)
with it in an obligatory way.

42) Humus is degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrient occur by the process
known as:
(1) Decomposition
(2) Humification
(3) Mineralization
(4) Catabolism

43) Match the column I and column II and select the correct answer

Column I Column II

Amount of biomass or
organic matter produced Gross primary
(a) (i)
per unit area during productivity
photosynthesis.

Total biomass production at Primary

(b) (ii)
producer level. productivity

Biomass available for the

Secondary
(c) consumption to (iii)
productivity
heterotrophs.

Rate of formation of new

Net primary
(d) organic matter by (iv)
productivity
consumers.
(1) (a)→(ii), (b)→(iii), (c)→(i), (d)→(iv)
(2) (a)→(i), (b)→(iv), (c)→(ii), (d)→(iii)
(3) (a)→(ii), (b)→(i), (c)→(iv), (d)→(iii)
(4) (a)→(i), (b)→(ii), (c)→(iii), (d)→(iv)

44) Study the following pie chart with respect to global diversity of plants and select the correct

option :-

A B C D E F

Fern &
(1) Angiosperm Lichen Algae Fungi Mosses
Allies

Fern &
(2) Fungi Lichen Algae Angiosperm Mosses
Allies

Fern &
(3) Fungi Mosses Angiosperm Lichen Algae
Allies

Fern &
(4) Angiosperm Lichen Fungi Algae Mosses
Allies
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) The Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in

(1) 1992
(2) 2002
(3) 2010
(4) 1990

ZOOLOGY

1) True coelom appeared frist in the course of evolution in :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Aschelminthes

2) Segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinoderms
(3) Aschelminthes, Arthropoda, Echinoderms
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

3) Radially symmetrical diploblastic animals usually have______level of organisation.

(1) Cellular
(2) Tissue
(3) Organs system
(4) both (2) and (3)

4) Animals in which body cavity is completely lined by mesoderm are called :-

(1) Pseudocoelomates
(2) Acoelomates
(3) Coelomates
(4) Diploblastic

5) Read the following statement w.r.t frogs :

(i) They are cold blooded
(ii) They perform camouflage to hide from their enemies
(iii) They undergo hibernation but no aestivation
(iv) The frog drinks water
(v) The skin usually remains dry
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

6) Which structure absent in fore brain of frog :

(1) Paired Cerebral hemisphere

(2) Paired diencephalon
(3) Olfactory lobe
(4) All structure present

7) Assertion (A): Enzyme activity declines at temperatures both below and above the optimum
temperature.
Reason (R): High temperature denatures proteins, while low temperature temporarily inactivates
enzymes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

8) In which of the given molecules phosphate group is not present?

(1) Lecithin
(2) Uridylic acid
(3) Palmitic acid
(4) Guanylic acid

9) Rate of diffusion of gases is dependent on the :-

(1) Partial pressure gradients of gases

(2) Solubility of gases in blood
(3) Thickness of the diffusion surface
(4) All of these

10) Receptors associated with aortic arch can recognise

(1) Change in CO2 concentration

(2) Change in N2 concentration
(3) Change in H+ concentration
(4) Both (1) and (3)

11) During erythroblastosis foetalis :-

(1) Rh antibodies of mother destroy the foetal RBCs.
(2) Rh antibodies of mother destroy the mother's own RBCs.
(3) Rh antibodies of foetus destroy the foetal RBCs.
(4) Rh antibodies of foetus destroy the mother RBCs.

12) Which of the following is not a function of parasympathetic nervous system ?

(1) Decrease in rate of heart beat

(2) Decrease the speed of conduction of action potential
(3) Increase of cardiac output
(4) Decrease in cardiac output

13) Select the incorrect match refered as material as absorbed in different parts of the nephron of
kidney ?

Part of nephrone Reabsorbed material

(1) Ascending limb of LOH NaCl

(2) Descending limb of LOH Water

(3) PCT Glucose

(4) DCT Amino acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) How much blood is pumped by heart to kidney ?

(1) 1100 - 1200 ml/min

(2) 2200 - 2300 ml/min
(3) 1500 - 1700 ml/min
(4) 3100 - 3200 ml/min

15)

Correctly match list-1 with list-2

List-1 List-2
(A) Collar bone (i) Pectorial girdle
(B) Glenoid cavity (ii) Pelvic girdle
(C) Acetabulum (iii) Patella
(D) Knee cap (iv) Clavicle

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

16) In Hydra, tentacles helps in :

(1) Locomotion
(2) Capturing of the prey
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Respiration

17) Match the following (Parts of CNS):

Column A Column B
(A) Forebrain (1) Coordination and balance
(B) Midbrain (2) Connecting link between brain and spinal cord
(C) Hindbrain (3) Vision, hearing, motor control
(D) Brain Stem (4) Memory, sensory processing

(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

18) Statement I: Myelinated nerve fibers conduct impulses faster than non-myelinated fibers.
Statement II: Myelin sheaths are formed by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

19) Assertion (A): Thymus gland play a major role in providing immunity.
Reason (R): Thymosin helps in differentiation of T- lymphocytes

(1) A & R both correct & R is correct explanation to A

(2) A & R both are correct but R is not correct explanation to A
(3) A is correct & R is wrong
(4) A & R both are wrong

20) Pineal gland secretes melatonin which regulates:

(1) Calcium metabolism

(2) Water balance
(3) Circadian rhythm and sleep-wake cycle
(4) Blood glucose level
21) Fifty secondary oocytes in female and fifty secondary spermatocytes in male give rise to:

(1) 500 ova and 200 sperms

(2) 100 ova and 200 sperms
(3) 50 ova and 100 sperms
(4) 200 ova and 50 sperms

22) The male acessory glands constists of :-

(i) Testes
(ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Bartholin gland
(iv) Prostate
(v) Bulbourethral
(vi) Sertoli cells

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v)

23) In human embryonic development first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on head are
observed by the end of

(1) First month

(2) Second month
(3) First trimester
(4) Fifth month

24) The region outside the seminiferous tubules which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is called :-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space

25) A natural method of contraception, periodic abstinence is

(1) Abstaining from coitus from day 1 to 5 of the menstrual cycle.

(2) Abstaining from coitus from day 17 to 22 of the menstrual cycle.
(3) Abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
(4) Abstaining from coitus from day 5 to 10 of the menstrual cycle.
26) Identify the procedure shown in the figure given below:

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Ovarian cancer
(4) Uterine cancer

27)

Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the female.
They work by

(1) Inhibiting ovulation

(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these

28) Forelimbs of whales, bats, humans and cheetah are examples of which of the following
processes?

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Adaptive convergence

29) Evolutionary convergence or convergent evolution is characterised by

(1) Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups

(2) Development of a common set of characteristics in different groups of organism.
(3) Development of characteristics by random mating
(4) Replacement of common characteristics in different groups.

30) Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called

(1) Founder effect

(2) Saltation
(3) Branching descent
(4) Natural selection

31) The first organism which invaded land were

(1) Angiosperm
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Animal
(4) Arthropods

32) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of malignant tumors?

(1) Metastasis
(2) Contact inhibition
(3) Rapid growth rate
(4) Infiltrating surrounding tissues

33) Which type of immune response is responsible for the rejection of a transplanted organ?

(1) Humoral immunity

(2) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI)
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Passive immunity

34) Which of the following is a non-infectious disease?

(1) Malaria
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Cancer
(4) Common Cold

35) Match the items in Column I with those in Column II:

Column I Column II
(Disease) (Causative Agent)
(a) Malaria (i) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Typhoid (ii) Plasmodium vivax
(c) Amoebiasis (iii) Salmonella typhi
(d) Filariasis (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

36) Identify the microbes in the given diagrams and select the correct option :
(1) a is adenovirus
(2) c is tobacco mosaic virus
(3) b is bacteriophage
(4) c is adenovirus

37) The Puffed up appearance of dough is due to-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 and ethonol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of yeast monascus

38) Identify the restriction enzyme used to cut the site X, Y respectively :

(1) Pvu-I, Pst-I

(2) Sal-I, [Link]
(3) Pvu-II, Pst-I
(4) BamHI, Sal-I

39) The following figure shows :-

(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Biolistics
(4) Downstream processing

40) Assertion :- In addition to 'ori' the cloning vector must have selectable markers.
Reason :- Selectable markers helps in identifying & eliminating non-transformant & selectively
permit the growth of the transformant.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) Assertion : You cannot see pure DNA fragments in visible light and without staining.
Reason : DNA only absorbs UV light and is stained by ethidium bromide.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Assertion : C peptide is not present in the mature insulin.

Reason : Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and
pigs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion
of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

(1) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
(2) Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
(3) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
(4) Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.

44) Read the given statements and select the correct option :
Statement-I : Plants, bacteria, Fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation
are called genetically modified organism (GMO).
Statement-II : Genetic modification of organism can have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

45) C-peptide of human insulin is

(1) a part of mature insulin molecule

(2) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges.
(3) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(4) responsible for it biological activity.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 1 4 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 3 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 3 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 4 1 4 3 3 1 1 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

IDC= Irms =

3) Question Explanation :
We have to identify the circuit in which potential drop across ammeter is 0.75V.

Concept :
This question is based on Circuit Analysis.

Solution :

i=

v = iR =

Hence,
Option (3) is correct.

4) Formula :
In a given equation
[Dimension of each term of left] = [Birension of each term on right]

Calculation :
Given
θ = At2 + Bt + C (θ Change flowing thrown conductor)
By principle of homogenity Thrown conductor having dimension as ampere - sec ∴ I = θ/t
[θ] = [At2]
1 ⇒ [A] = [θ/t2] = [Ampere-sec/(sec)2] t - time
= [A] = [Ampere/sec] = [Average sec–1]
2 ⇒ [θ] = [Bt] ⇒ [B] = [θ/t] = [Average sec–1] = [Ampere]
 3 ⇒ [θ] = [C] ⇒ [Ampere]

5)

Zero

6)

As net force on system = 0 (after released)

So centre of mass of the system remains stationary.

7)

kx = 20

8) (Qsafe)1 = 6 mc (Qsafe)2 = 12 mc
⇒ Qckt = (Qsafe)1 = 6 mc
⇒ V1 = 6 KV & V2 = 2 KV
⇒ Vcombination = V1 + V2 = 8 KV

9)

Ceq = 4µF

Q = 60 × 4 = 240µC

10)

320

11)

5 m/s2

12) Suppose electric field is zero at point N in the figure.

Then at N,
13)

14)
Let at any time t
flux passing through the coil at time t
ϕ = BA cos θ

Here θ = 0°, A = αR2

ϕ=B

|emf| =

Here (cons.)

emf =

15) VA – VB =
0.5 = L(8) + (0.2 × 0.5)
0.4 = L(8)
L = 0.05 H

16) At t = 0 Inductor behaves as open circuit hence

I1 = 0, I2 = ,I3 =
So I2 > I3 > I1

17) f = 3 × 1010 H2 B0 = 10–7T

E0 = CB0 = 3 × 108 × 10–7 = 30 V/m
Ez = E0sin (Kx – wt)

18) cB0 = E0

Am–1

19)

0.1 mm =
MSD = 1mm

20) i = 15°, e = 60°, δ = 30

δ = i + e– A = A = 45°.

21)

1. Problem Explanation:
Determine the length of the water column in a capillary tube when the entire system is placed
in a freely falling elevator.

2. Concept:
Capillary rise occurs due to the balance between adhesive forces (surface tension) and the
weight of the liquid column. In a freely falling elevator, effective gravity (geff) becomes zero,
altering this balance.

3. Formula:
The capillary rise is given by:

4. Calculation:
In a freely falling elevator, geff =0.
The formula becomes:

Since the tube length is 20 cm, the water will rise to fill the entire tube.

Final Answer:
The length of the water column will be:
22)

928 kg m–3

23) Let in water immersed volume is V1 then

w = (Th)o + (Th)w
VρBg = (V–V1) ρog + V1 ρwg
V × 0.9 × 103 = (V–V1) × 0.8 ×103 + V1 × 103
V(0.9×103– 0.8×103) = V1 (103 – 0.8×103)

24)

= a3 ρg sin θ

25)

Ve = Vp/2

26) For a satellite in a closed orbit,

we know that
Hence, in order to make the body escape, we should make its total energy 0, which can be
achieved by providing additional energy equal to the kinetic energy of the body itself as from
the above relation we can clearly see that T.E. = –K.E.
So, the energy given to the body so as to completely escape from its orbit is equal to its kinetic
energy K.

27)
28) τ = MB sin θ ⇒ τ = (mL) B sin θ
⇒ 25 × 10–6 = (m × 5 × 10–2) × 5 × 10–2 × sin 30
⇒ m = 2 × 10–2 A – m

29) τ = BINA sinθ θ = 30o

30)
As Ex → 16 Ek

∴ λ →

31)

1.23×1015 Hz

32) 13.6 + 2.4 =

33)

37o

34)

35)
w.r.t. wedge
acommon =
since block is not sliding

F = (M+m) g tan θ

36)

Question explanation: Calculate the perimeter of the image of a square object placed in
front of a concave mirror.

Concept: Lateral magnification and longitudinal magnification mL = m2.

Solution: (Step-by-Step)

v = –30 cm

Height of image (vertical sides) =|m| × 1 mm = 2 mm

Length of image (horizontal sides) = m2 × 1 mm = 4 mm
Perimeter = 2 × (2 + 4)
Perimeter = 12 mm

Final answer : (3) 12 mm

37)

38)

LA = LB

39)

λ= = 217100Å

40)

X = 1, Y = 0

41) (i) VA = –10V and VB = –5V

Diodes D1 and D3 are reveres biased and D2 is forward biased.
 (ii) When VA = –5V and VB = –10V
Diodes D2 is reverse biased D1 and D3 are forward biased

(iii) In this case equivalent resistance between A and B is also R.

Hence (ii) = (iii) < (i).

42)

Strain developed :

ε = αΔT = (12 × 10–6) (50) = 6 × 10–4

43) k = = or λ = 50 cm

44)

n1λ1 = n2λ2

650 nm 4th Bright

520 nm 5th Bright
coincide

x= =7.8mm

45)
CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation: A gas expands from 10 dm³ to 20 dm³ against constant external
pressure of 1 atm.
It absorbs 800 J heat. Find ΔU.

Concept: First Law of Thermodynamics: ΔU = q + w

Work done at constant external pressure: w = −Pext ΔV

1 L·atm = 101.325 J

Solution:

ΔV = 20 − 10 = 10 dm³ = 10 L

w = −1 × 10 L·atm
w = −10 L·atm

w = −10 × 101.325 J
w = −1013.25 J

Given q = +800 J

ΔU = q + w
ΔU = 800 − 1013.25
ΔU = −213.25 J ≈ −213 J

Final Answer: Option (3)

47)

Question Explanation: Find the sign of work (w) and heat (q) when an ideal gas expands
isothermally into vacuum from 5 L to 15 L at 10 atm.

Concept: this question is based on free expansion

Solution
Free expansion into vacuum → external pressure = 0.
So work done: ( w = 0 ).
Process is isothermal for an ideal gas → ΔU = 0.
From ΔU = q + w
0=q+0

heat(q)= 0.

Both work and heat are zero.

 Final Answer: Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero

48)

125 kJ

49)
n-factor ⇒ Cr = (+ 3 to + 6) = 3e– loss
Ι = (– 1 to + 7) × 3 = 24 e– loss
n-factor = 27

∴E=

50) Explain Question:

We are asked which compound acts as a self-indicator in redox titration.

Concept:
Self-indicator in redox titration.

Solution:

A. Ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS): Used as a reducing agent in redox titrations, but it is not a
self-indicator.
B. KMnO4: Acts as both oxidizing agent and self-indicator because of its intense purple color. The
endpoint is detected by the appearance of a faint pink color.
C. Therefore, the correct self-indicator is KMnO4.

Final answer: Option (2)

51)

96g

52)

3.4 g sulphur is present in 100 g insulin

∴ 32 g sulphur will be present in × 32 g insulin = 940

∴ Molar mass of insulin is about 940 amu

53)

5 atm

54)
pOH = pKb + log

= 5 + log =4
∴ pH = 14 – 4 = 10

55)

Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

56)

Sn can be oxidised by Cu2+

57)

Rate

total order 2 + 1 = 3

58) Explain the Question : We need to find effect of addition of inert gas at constant volume
for given equilibrium reaction.
Concept : This question is based on effect of addition of inert gas at constant volume.
Solution : No effect on equilibrium on adding inert gas at constant volume.
Final Answer : 4

59)

60) times

61) Question Explanation:

Identify major product.

Concept:
Dehydration of Alcohol

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (4)

62) 2-pentanol can be distinguished from 3-pentanol by iodoform test.

63)

Explain Question : Identify compound D formed from the reaction sequence starting with
CH3COOH.
Concept : This question is based on Acyl chloride formation, Amide formation, Hoffmann
bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Acylation, Hoffmann bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Solution :

Final answer : Option (2)

64) Asking About : Product of oxidation of glucose by Br2 water

Concept : Oxidation by mild oxidising agent.
Sol./Explanation : Br2 water is mild oxidising agent and oxidises –CHO to –COOH but fails to
oxidise –OH group.
CHO COOH
| |
(CHOH)4 (CHOH)4
| |
CH2OH CH2OH
(glucose) (Gluconic acid)

65)

Leucin, methionine, lysine, & valine

66) Question Explanation : Major products will be in the given reaction.

Concept : This question is based on SNAE reaction in acid and acid derivative (Esterification).

Solution :
Final Answer : Option (2)

67) Explanation:- we have to find the end product of given reaction.

concept:-

Answer. (1)

68) 1. Asking About function of AlCl3 in Friedel Crafts reactions.

[Link] This question is based on Friedel Crafts reactions.
3. Solution/Explanation
⇒ AlCl3 in Friedel Crafts reactions is used to generate electrophile.

⇒ example :- CH3 – Cl + AlCl3 →

electrophile
Final answer : 4

69)

70)

Explain Question: In the given compound carbon nitrogen bond length will be maximum.
 Concept: This question is based on Bond length.

Solution:

Given compounds Remark

Lone pair on nitrogen delocalizes into aromatic

ring
Resonance increases bond order → shorter C–N
1 bond

Nitrogen adjacent to sp² carbon

resonance possible → moderately short C–N bond
2

Nitrogen adjacent to sp² carbon

3 resonance possible → moderately short C–N bond

Nitrogen bonded to sp³ carbon

4 No resonance or conjugation
Pure single bond → maximum C–N bond length

Final answer: 4

71) Question Explanation: Ordering the acidic strength. Concept: This question is based on
Acidic Strength

Solution: Acidic Strength ∝ Stability of conjugate

∴ Acidic strengths = I > III > II

Final Answer: 4

73)
2-methyl propene

74) Reactivity towards SN1 ∝ stability of intermediate carbocation

Rate of SN1 of halide :- II > I > III

75) σ21s, σx21s, σ22s, σx22s, , [π22px = π22py]

76)

NH4+ > NH3 > NH2¯

77) Explain the Question: Compare stability of O2, N2 with S2, P2 based on overlap.
Concept: This question is based on pπ–pπ overlap effectiveness
Solution: Small 2p orbitals overlap effectively forming strong π bonds; large 3p orbitals
overlap
weakly, reducing stability of S2 and P2. The reason correctly explains the assertion.
Final Answer: 1

78)

Question Explanation:

The question asks to identify the coordination complex which is Colourless.

Concept:

d–d transition, electronic configuration, coordination compounds

Solution:

A complex is Colourless when no d–d transition is possible. In , copper is in +1

10
oxidation state with d configuration, so d–d transition do not occur. Other given complexes
contain partially filled d–orbitals and hence are coloured.

Final Answer: Option (3)

79)

Explanation Question: Select the complex have more than bond order one.
Concept: This question is based on CFT or synergic bond.
 Solution:
[V(CO)6]– due to synergic bonding, V–C bond order > 1

Final Answer
The correct option is (3)

80) Question Explanation:

Check correctness of given lanthanoid– actinoid statements.

Concept:
properties of lanthanides, actinoids, oxidation states, colour.

Solution:
• (1) Lanthanoids are generally silvery white and soft metals → True.
• (2) Mischmetal mainly contains lanthanoids (ce, la, Nd), not iron → False
• (3) Highest oxidation state among actinoids is shown by Np (+7) and pu (+7) → True
• (4) Ce+4 is 4f∘ (no d–d transition), colourless → False

Final Answer: Option (1)

81) Question Explanation:

Identify the 3d element with the lowest M.P. and B.P.

Concept:
Metallic bonding strength in the 3d-series.

Solution:
The melting and boiling points of transition metals depend on the strength of their metallic
bonding, which is determined by the number of unpaired electrons participating from both
(n-1)d and ns orbitals. Titanium (Ti), Manganese (Mn), and Copper (Cu) all have unpaired
electrons that contribute to relatively strong metallic bonds. Zinc (Zn), however, has a
completely filled electronic configuration ([Ar] 3d104s2). In Zn, the d-electrons do not
participate in metallic bonding, resulting in very weak interatomic bonds. This weak bonding is
why Zinc has an exceptionally low melting point (419.5 °C) and boiling point (907 °C)
compared to other 3d-series elements.

Final Answer: The correct option is (3).

82)

a, b, d

83)

Br2
85)

86)

C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb : Order of I.E.

87)

If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

88) Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid state.
That is why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.

89) Question Explanation: Asking about the total stereoisomers of the given hydrocarbon.
Concept : This question is based on counting of stereoisomers.
Solution: Total stereoisomers of unsymmetrical compounds = 2n Here "n" = number of stereo
centers.

Total chiral atoms (n) = 3

Total number of stereoisomers = 23 = 8
Final Answer
The correct option is (3)

90)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about anti aromatic compound.
Concept:-
This question is based on compound having 4nπeΘ
Solution :-

(1) Aromatic

(2) Anti aromatic

(3) to avoid anti aromaticity it convert into tub shape molecule and non-
aromatic in nature.

(4) → Non-aromatic
 Final Answer :- (2)

BOTANY

91) NCERT, Pg. # 3, 5

92)

Explain the Question : This question asks which statements correctly describe the structure
and characteristics of prokaryotic cells.
Concept : This question is based on prokaryotic cells.
Solution :
(A) Genetic material is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane → Correct (they have no true
nucleus).
(C) The plasma membrane is similar structurally to that of the eukaryotes → Correct (both
have a phospholipid bilayer structure).
Final answer : 4

93)

Explain Question : The question is asking about incorrect statement

Concept : This question is based on Monera
Solution : Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae), a group of Protista/Monera, form water blooms,
not eubacteria in general.
Final answer : 3

94) Explain Question : The question asks to match each diagram to its correct scientific
name from the given options.
Concept : This question is based on Intra Of Algae
Explanation :
A - Volvox: The diagram shows a spherical colony of cells, characteristic of Volvox, a colonial
green alga.
B - Fucus: The image depicts a branched, flattened thallus with a distinct midrib, which is
typical morphology of Fucus, a brown alga.
C - Porphyra: The diagram illustrates a sheet-like, leafy thallus, which is a characteristic
feature of Porphyra, a red alga.
D - Chara: The image shows a branched structure with nodes and internodes and whorls of
branches, which is characteristic of Chara, a green alga.
Final answer : 2

95) Explain Question :The question presents a diagram of a brown alga and asks to identify
the organism and label its three main parts, which are marked as a, b, and c
Concept :This question is based on Phaeophyceae
Explanation :
Laminaria is a type of brown algae (Phaeophyceae) commonly known as kelp, characterized by
its large, leaf-like blades.
a - Frond. , b - Stipe , c - Holdfast
Final answer: 3

96)

98)

99)

Ncert page 73.

100) Ncert page

101)

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 125, 126, Para-8.2

104)

104
Fact based

105)

Explain Question: Question asks about: Correctness of statements regarding

placement of organisms in different classification systems.
Concept: Protista
Solution: Statement I → Correct.
Statement II → Correct.
Final Answer: (4)

106)

Explain Question – The question is asking: Which of the two statements about
meiosis-I and anaphase-I are correct?

Concept – Based on meiosis.

Solution – In Prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair to form bivalents and

undergo crossing over. This makes the statement I correct.

In Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes (with both chromatids) move to opposite

poles. Each pole receives half the chromosome number, not equal to the parent cell.
Thus Statement II is [Link] answer – Option 2

107) NCERT-XI, Pg # 213,214,217,218

108)

ATP, NADPH2, O2

109) NCERT (XI) Pg # 219

110)

Only B is correct

111)

113)

It inhibits sprouting in potato tubers

114)

Explain Question : The question presents four statements about pollen grains and asks which
combination includes all the correct statements.

Concept : This question is based on Pollen grain.

Solution : (a) True – Pollen grains are spherical, 25–50 μm in diameter.

(b) True – Sporopollenin is absent at germ pores to allow pollen tube emergence.
(c) True – Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and sometimes consumed for health; claimed to
improve performance in athletes and racehorses.
(d) False – Only ~40% of angiosperms shed pollen at the 3-celled stage; majority shed at 2-
celled stage.

Final Answer : option (2)

115)

116)

36, 24, 12
117)

Pollen-pistil interaction

118)

119) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

120)

121)

Myotonic dystrophy, Polydactyly

122)

124) NCERT-XII Pg. # 102

125) Explain Question –

We need to evaluate two statements about DNA polymerase accuracy and replication errors,
then choose the correct option.

Concept –
DNA replication

Solution –
Statement-I: Correct. DNA polymerases are highly efficient and accurate due to their
proofreading (3′→5′ exonuclease) activity.
Statement-II: Correct. Any mistake during replication that escapes proofreading leads to
mutation.
Thus, both statements are true.

Final Answer – Option 1

126)

127)

128)
129)

Monocistronic m RNA formation.

130)

Explain Question: The question is asking who is recognized as the Father of Indian Ecology
— meaning, the person who made the most significant early contributions to the field of
ecology in India.

Concept: Introduction of Ecology

Solution: The Correct Answer: 1. Prof. R. D. Misra

Prof. Ramdeo Misra is known as the Father of Indian Ecology for his pioneering work in
ecological research and for promoting environmental awareness and ecosystem studies in
India.

Final answer: 1. Prof. R. D. Misra

131)

Question Explanation: The question is asking you to identify which statement about
interspecific interactions (relationships between different species) is incorrect.

Concept: Population Interaction

Solution:

The Correct answer: 3. Competition occurs only when closely related species compete for the
same resources that are limiting.

Explanation :

Competition is not limited to closely related species — it can also occur between unrelated
species that use the same limiting resources (e.g., birds and bats competing for insects).

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Final answer: Competition occurs only when closely related species compete for the same
resources that are limiting.

132)

Mineralization
 133)

Column I Column II

Amount of
biomass or
organic matter Primary
(a) (ii)
produced per unit productivity
area during
photosynthesis.

Total biomass Gross

(b) production at (i) primary
producer level. productivity

Biomass available
for the Net primary
(c) (iv)
consumption to productivity
heterotrophs.

Rate of formation
of new organic Secondary
(d) (iii)
matter by productivity
consumers.

134)

Explain Question : The question asks to match sections of a pie chart (A to F) with plant
groups based on their global diversity, using the correct option from the table.

Concept : How many Species are there on Earth.

Solution :

Final Answer : option (3)

135)

ZOOLOGY

136)

Annelida
137)

Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

138)

139)

Coelomates

140)

NCERT PAGE NO. 81, 82

143) Ncert page 106.

145)

Question Explanation: The question asks what changes are detected by receptors associated
with the aortic arch.

Concept: Regulation of respiration.

Solution: The aortic arch contains [Link] are sensitive to blood

changes in:-

A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) concentration

B. Hydrogen ion (H⁺) concentration (pH of blood),to help in regulating rate of breathing.

Final answer: Option 4

146)

Explain Question:
The question asks what happens during erythroblastosis foetalis, specifically which antibodies
destroy whose red blood cells.

Concept:
Action of RH antibodies during RH incompatibility

Solution:
In erythroblastosis foetalis, an-negative mother produces RH antibodies after exposure to RH -
positive foetal RBCs . these maternal RH antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red
blood cell of the Rh – positive foetus, leading to the disease.

Final answer: Option (1)

147) NCERT (XI) Pg # 287

148) Explain the question : This question asking about absorption of different materials in
specific parts of nephron.
Concept : This question is based on tubular reabsorption.
Solution :
(1) Ascending limb of LOH - NaCl reabsorbed - correct
(2) Descending limb of LOH - water reabsorbed - correct
(3) PCT - Glucose reabsorbed - correct
(4) DCT - amino acids are not reabsorbed here they are absorbed in PCT - incorrect.
Final answer : option (4)

149) Question Explanation:Blood supply to kidneys

Concept:Renal blood flow

Solution:Kidneys receive about 20–25% of cardiac output. This equals around 1100–1200 ml
of blood per minute in a healthy adult.

Final Answer:1100 – 1200 ml/min

152) Explaining :
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

153) Explaining :
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

154)

NCERT PAGE NO.335

155) Explaining : Pineal melatonin → biological clock (day-night cycle, seasonal reproduction
in animals)
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

156)

50 ova and 100 sperms

157)

NCERT-XII, Page # 27

159) NCERT-XII Pg. # 43

160)

Abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.

161) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 61

162)

Oral contraceptives having progesterone or both progesterone and estrogen inhibit ovulation
and also change the quality of cervical mucus. Saheli works by preventing implantation.

163)

164)

Development of a common set of characteristics in different groups of organism.

165)

Saltation

166)

167) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A) Metastasis: The spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to other parts of
the body. This is a characteristic of malignant tumors.
B) Contact inhibition: This is a property of normal cells, where they stop dividing when they
come into contact with other cells. Malignant (cancer) cells lose contact inhibition, leading to
uncontrolled growth.
C) Rapid growth rate: Malignant tumors typically grow very rapidly.
D) Infiltrating surrounding tissues: Malignant tumors have the ability to invade and
damage nearby tissues.
Final Answer : (2)
168) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A) Humoral immunity: Involves antibodies produced by B-lymphocytes
circulating in body fluids (humors).
B) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI): Involves T-lymphocytes that directly attack infected cells
or foreign cells, such as those in a transplanted organ. This is the primary mechanism behind
graft rejection.
C) Innate immunity: Non-specific defense mechanisms that come into play immediately or
within hours of an antigen's appearance in the body.
D) Passive immunity: Involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not directly related to
transplant rejection.
Final Answer : (2)

169) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A) Malaria: Infectious, caused by Plasmodium (protozoan).
B) Pneumonia: Infectious, caused by bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus
influenzae) or viruses.
C) Cancer: Non-infectious. It is characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of cells.
D) Common Cold: Infectious, caused by Rhinovirus.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : (a) Malaria: Caused by Plasmodium species, e.g., Plasmodium vivax. (a)-(ii)
(b) Typhoid: Caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. (b)-(iii)
(c) Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery): Caused by the protozoan Entamoeba histolytica. (c)-
(iv)
(d) Filariasis (Elephantiasis): Caused by filarial worms, e.g., Wuchereria bancrofti. (d)-(i)
Final Answer : (1)

171) Concept :
Solution : Virus diagram mentioned in NCERT.
Final Answer : (2)

172) NCERT, Page no:181

173) NCERT XIIth Pg.#199

174) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201

175) NCERT XII, Page # (E) 199, (H) 218

176)
 Question Explanation :
The question is asking about assertion and reason.

Concept :
This question is based on Process of genetic engennering.

Solution :

A. The assertion is accurate; DNA itself doesn't have a strong visible color, so it's typically not
seen without staining.
B. The reason is also accurate; DNA's absorbance of UV light is used in conjunction with
fluorescent stains like ethidium bromide to visualize DNA fragments.
C. The reason directly explains why you need UV light and staining to see DNA; the DNA is
essentially invisible in visible light

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

177) NCERT XII Pg#211 (E)

NCERT XII Pg#231 (H)

178) The correct answer is: 3.

Red algae
Explanation:

A. Carrageenan is a polysaccharide that is produced by red algae (Rhodophyceae). It is commonly

used as a thickening agent in food, cosmetics, and pharmaceuticals.

179)

Explain Question: The question is asking two statements about genetically modified
organisms (GMOs).

Concept: Genetically modified organism

Solution:

Explanation :

Statement-I: Correct. Organisms whose genes are altered by human intervention are called
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs).
Statement-II: Correct. GMOs can have unpredictable effects on ecosystems, such as affecting
non-target species.

Hence, both statements are true.

Final answer: Option (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

180)
Explanation :
Human insulin is initially synthesized as proinsulin, which contains three components:

A-chain

B-chain

C-peptide

During maturation, the C-peptide is removed, leaving only the A and B

chains, which are linked together by disulfide bonds.

The removal of C-peptide is necessary to convert proinsulin into its active, functional form
(mature insulin).

Final Answer : (3)