02-06-2026

1103CMD303021250178 MD

PHYSICS

1) Unpolarized light falls on two polarizing sheets placed one on top of the other. What must be the
angle between the characteristic directions of the sheets if the intensity of the final transmitted light
is one-third of the maximum intensity of the transmitted beam from first sheet :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) An erect image, three times the size of object, is obtained with a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 36 cm. The distance of object from the mirror is :-

(1) 12 cm
(2) 18 cm
(3) 24 cm
(4) 36 cm

3) An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV. The
wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to :-

(1) 10.4 × 10–26 m

(2) 654 nm
(3) 654 Å
(4) 654 × 10–11 m

4) The mobility of electron and holes in a sample of intrinsic germanium at room temperature are
0.36 and 0.14 m2/V-s. If electron and holes densities each are equal to 2.5 × 1019/m3, then
conductivity of germanium will be {in (ohm-meter)–1} :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

5) Angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom is . Wavelength of this electron is

approx:-

(1) 1Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 100 Å
(4) 150 Å

6) If alpha particle and deutron move with velocity v and 2v respectively, the ratio of their de-Broglie
wave length will be :-

(1)
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4)

7) If each spring has spring constant of 10 Nm–1 and attached mass is 10 kg, then find frequency of

oscillation.

(1) π Hz

(2)
Hz
(3) 2 Hz
(4) 2π Hz

8)

If the wavelength of incident light changes from 4000Å to 3100Å change in stopping potential will be
:-

(1) 0.35 V
(2) 0.9 V
(3) 0.40 V
(4) 0.1 V

9) For three circuit elements A, B and C, following observations were made in lab:
(a) element A cannot conduct d.c. but allows a.c. through it .
(b) element B conducts both AC and DC but in unidirection only.
(c) Element 'C', when connected across dc, conducts only for one direction and emits light whose
intensity first increases and then decreases with increase in applied voltage.
The elements A, B and C are respectively identified as :-

(1) Diode, LED, capacitor

(2) Capacitor, diode, LED
(3) Diode, resistor, capacitor
(4) Capacitor, LED, diode
10) A vernier callipers has 20 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 19 divisions of main
scale, one division of main scale is 0.5 mm then least count of vernier callipers will be :-

(1) 0.035 mm
(2) 0.025 mm
(3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.40 mm

11) Drops of water fall from the roof of a building 18 m high at regular intervals of time. When the
first drop reaches the ground, at the same instant fourth drop begins to fall. What are the distances
of the second and third drops from the roof ?

(1) 6 m and 2 m
(2) 6 m and 3 m
(3) 8 m and 2 m
(4) 4 m and 2 m

12) Consider the two configurations shown in equilibrium. Find ratio . (Ignore the mass of the

rope and the pulley)

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 3

13) Find maximum value of m so that system do not move

(1) 10 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 15 kg
(4) 6 kg

14) Railway tracks are banked at the curves so that :

(1) the train may not fall down inwards
(2) the weight of the train may be reduced
the necessary centripetal force to train may be obtained from the horizontal component of the
(3)
reaction force of railway tracks
(4) no frictional force may be produced between the wheel and the track

15) At what height above the earth surface does the value of g becomes 36% of the value at the
surface of earth :

(1) 2R/5
(2) 2R/3
(3) 3R/7
(4) R/3

16)

Water column pressure of 10 atm is applied on a glass slab. Find fractional volume compression
(bulk modulus of glass, B = 40 × 109 Pascal)

(1) 4 × 10–5
(2) 2.5 × 10–5
(3) 10–4
(4) 4 × 10–6

17) Assertion :- The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules of a given mass of an ideal
gas is 1.5 times the product of its pressure and its volume. Reason :- The molecules of a gas collide
with each other and the velocities of the molecules change due to the collision.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) A vessel has 6g of oxygen at pressure P and temperature 400K. A small hole is made in it so that
oxygen leaks out. How much oxygen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2 and temperature is 300 K?

(1) 3g
(2) 2g
(3) 4g
(4) 5g

19) In an a.c. circuit, V and I are given

by V = 100 sin (100 t ) volt

I = 100 sin (100 t + ) Amp.

then the power dissipated in the circuit is :-
(1) 104 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 2500 W
(4) 5 W

20) A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged with 10 μC. Another uncharged conducting
sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After that, if the spheres are separated,
then surface density of charge on the spheres will be in the ratio of :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

21) Four equal charges of magnitude q are arranged as shown in figure. Now the charge at center C

is taken to infinite, then work done by the external force will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has charge density ρ, the electric field at a
distance r from the centre of sphere (r > R) will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A conducting rod of length 2ℓ is rotating with constant angular speed ω about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between
two ends of the rod is :-

(1) Bωℓ2

(2)
Bωℓ2

(3)
Bωℓ2
(4) Zero

24) In the circuit shown in the figure, what is the value of I2 long after pressing the key k.

(1) 1 A
(2) 1 mA
(3) 0.5 A
(4) zero

25) Statement-1 : Wave length of microwaves lies between infrared and radiowaves.
Statement-2 : Microwave oven based on application of microwaves.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

26) A and B are two concentric circular conductors of center O and carrying currents i1 and i2 as
shown. If ratio of r1 : r2 is 1: 2 and ratio of flux densities at O due to A and B is 1 : 3, then the ratio of

i1 : i2 is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) An electron having kinetic energy K is moving in a circular path of radius R perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field. If kinetic energy is double and magnetic field tripled, the radius will become
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The variation of magnetic susceptibility (฀) with temperature (T) for a diamagnetic substance
is best represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity at a point is (1/4) of the maximum intensity.
Angular position of this point is -

(1) sin–1 (λ/d)

(2) sin–1 (λ/2d)
(3) sin–1 (λ/3d)
(4) sin–1 (λ/4d)

30) A person with a normal near point (25 cm) using a compound microscope with objective of focal
length 8.0 mm and an eyepiece of focal length 2.5 cm can bring an object placed at 9.0 mm from the
objective in sharp focus. Calculate the maximum magnifying power of the microscope :-

(1) 44
(2) 88
(3) 22
(4) None

31)

A river is flowing west to east at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river, capable
of swimming at 10 m/min, in still water, wants to swim across the river by the shortest path. He
should swim in the direction:

(1) due north

(2) 30° E of N
(3) 60° E of N
(4) 30° W of N

32) A uniform rod of mass m and length L is suspended with two massless strings as shown in the
figure. If the rod is at rest in a horizontal position the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2 is:

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2: 1
(4) 4: 3

33) Match the column :

Column I Column II

Gravitational potential at the

A. P.
centre of a solid sphere
 Escape velocity from earth
B. Q.
surface

C. Kepler's second law R.

Total energy of satellite very

D. S. 11.2 km/s
close to earth
(1) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

34)

Two capillaries A and B of equal length but radii r and 3r are connected in series across a pressure
difference of P. The ratio of pressure difference across A and B is :

(1) 81 : 1
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

35) The displacement x of a body of mass 1 kg on a horizontal smooth surface as a function of time t

is given by , the work done in the first second is

(1) 1J

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Match the column-I with column-II and choose best suitable option -

Column-I Column-II

Heating of one
Heat transfer by
(A) end of mettalic (P)
convection
rod

Heat from sun Heat transfer

(B) (Q)
to earth by conduction

Is proportional
to
Rate of difference in
(C) (R)
cooling temperature of
body and
surrounding
 Heat transfer
due to bulk Heat transfer
(D) (S)
motion by radiation
of fluid
(1) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P
(2) A–Q, B–S, C–R, D–P
(3) A–S, B–Q, C–R, D–P
(4) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q

37) Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent
0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rises to 80°C. What is the
mass of steam condensed? Latent heat of steam = 536 cal/g.

(1) 0.13 kg
(2) 1.3 kg
(3) 13 kg
(4) 0.013 kg

38) For a certain organ pipe, three successive resonance frequencies are 425 Hz, 595 Hz, 765 Hz,
respectively if the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s then the length of the pipe is :-

(1) 0.2 m
(2) 0.4 m
(3) 1.0 m
(4) 2.0 m

39) Two waves of wavelength 1.0 m and 1.01 m produced 7 beats in 2 sec. in a gas. What is the
velocity of the waves in the gas :-

(1) 553.5 m/s

(2) 432.7 m/s
(3) 353.5 m/s
(4) None of these

40) The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration

of the particle at t = 4/3s is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) Figure shows rough sketch of meter bridge. Galvanometer shows zero deflection at length ℓ cm.
Now R1 and R2 are interchanged then balancing length increases by 25 cm. Find R1/R2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) For a glass prism µ = and the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism.
The angle of the prism is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

43) The potential energy U of a particle is given by U = 20 + (x – 4)2 J. Total mechanical energy of
the particle is 36 J. Select the correct option :-

(1) Mean position is x = 4m

(2) Amplitude is 4m
(3) K.E. of the particle at x = 2m is 12 J
(4) All of these

44)

If the moment of inertia of a ring about an axis through centre of mass and perpendicular to the
plane is 100 kg-m2, the moment of inertia about an axis tangential to the ring is and lying in plane.

(1) 200 kg-m2

(2) 25 kg -m2
(3) 50 kg -m2
(4) 150 kg -m
45) Truth table for the given circuit is :-

A B E

0 0 1

(1) 0 1 0

1 0 1

1 1 0

A B E

0 0 1

(2) 0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

A B E

0 0 0

(3) 0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

A B E

0 0 0

(4) 0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

CHEMISTRY

1)
The gas A2 in the left flask allowed to react with gas B2 present in right flask as
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g); Kc = 4 at 27°C. What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is
established?
(1) 1.33 M
(2) 2.66 M
(3) 0.66 M
(4) 0.33 M

2) The equivalent conductance of 1M benzoic acid is 12.8 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1. If the equivalent conductance
of benzoate ion and H+ ions at infinite dilution are 42 and 288.42 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1 respectively. Its degree
of dissociation is :-

(1) 39%
(2) 0.38%
(3) 3.87%
(4) 8.27%

3) The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman & Balmer series will be :–

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.4
(4) 10

4) For a reaction, AB5 → AB + 4B The rate can be expressed in following ways

So the correct relation between K and K1 is :-

(1) K1 = K
(2) K1 = 2K
(3) K1 = 4K
(4) 2K1 = K

5) For a gaseous reaction, following data is given :

A → B; K1 = 1015 e–3000/T
C → D; K2 = 1014e–1000/T
The temperature at which K1 = K2 is :-

(1) 434.2 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 868.43 K
(4) None of these

6) The angular momentum of an electron in 4s- orbital , 3p- orbital, and 4th orbit are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The half reaction occuring in quinhydrone electrode is :

+ 2H+ + 2e–, E° = 1.30 volt

What will be the electrode potential at pH = 3?

(1) 1.48 V
(2) 1.20 V
(3) 1.10 V
(4) 1.30 V

8) When chlorine react with hot and con. NaOH then main product formed :-

(1) NaOCl + NaCl

(2) NaClO3 + NaCl
(3) NaClO4 + NaCl
(4) Cl2 + Cl2O

9) Incorrect order of radius is :

(1) La+3 > Ce+3 > Gd+3 > Lu+3

(2) Sc < y ≈ La
(3) Ti+4 < Zr+4 ≈ Hf+4
(4) Ca+2 < Sr+2 < K+

10) Arrange the following statements in order of True(T)/False (F) :-

(a) Among Li+, Be+ and B+ ions Li+ has the highest ionization enthalpy
(b) The negative value of electron gain enthalpy of Cl > F because there is weak electron-electron
repulsion in the bigger 3p-subshell of Cl as compared to compact 2p-subshell of F
(c) Formation of S–2 and Ar–, both require the absorption of energy
(d) Incorrect order of electron affinity is S > Se > Te > O

(1) TTTF
(2) FFFT
(3) FFTT
(4) TTTT
11) Which of the oxyacid have highest number of acidic hydrogens and also has a peroxy linkage ?

(1) H2S2O8
(2) H4P2O8
(3) H5P3O5
(4) H3PO5

12) Select the correct diagram for the π*2pY orbital :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) What will be the correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region, for the
complex, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(CN)6]3–, [Co(H2O)6]3+ ?

3– 3+ 3+
(1) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6]
3+ 3+ 3–
(2) [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3+ 3+ 3–
(3) [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3+ 3+
(4) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(H2O)6]

14) The ease of liquification of noble gases decreases in the order :-

(1) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(2) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(3) Xe > Ar > Kr > Ne > He
(4) Xe > He > Kr > Ar > Ne

15)

Select wrong statement about diborane (B2H6)?

(1) 2C–2e bond formed by terminal hydrogen.

(2) 3C–2e bond formed by bridge hydrogen.
(3) 3C–2e bond, called Banana bond.
(4) All hydrogen are present in same plane.

16) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) KO2 > RbO2 > CsO2 (thermal stability)

(2) CaF2 > CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2 (melting point)
(3) NaCl > KCl > RbCl2 > CsCl > LiCl (melting point)
(4) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > LiCl > NaCl (covalent character)

17) Which is correctly matched

Compound Total stereoisomer
(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3 3
(2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl 2
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] 2
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] 3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Among the following, metal carbonyls, the C-O bond is strongest in :

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
2–
(4) [Ti(CO)6]

19) Same number of unpaired electron is observed in which of the following complexes
(a) [MnCl6]3– (b) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(c) [CoF6]3– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

(1) a and b
(2) a & c
(3) b & d
(4) c & d

20) Borax bead test given by :

(1) Co+2
(2) Pb+2
(3) Sn+2
(4) All of these
21) Which of the following oxide is most basic ?

(1) V2O5
(2) Cr2O3
(3) MnO
(4) MnO2

22) Which among the following is least soluble ?

(1) MnS (Ksp = 7 × 10–16)

(2) FeS (Ksp = 4 × 10–19)
(3) NiS (Ksp = 3 × 10–12)
(4) PtS (Ksp = 8 × 10–73)

23) The following reaction and rate low have been experimentally determined :- 2NO2(g) + F2(g) →
2NO2F(g)
Rate = k[NO2] [F2] Which of the following mechanism provides the best explanation of the
experimental rate law ?

(1) 2NO2 + F2 → 2NO2F (One step)

NO2 + F2 → NO2F + F (Fast)
(2)
NO2 + F → NO2F (Slow)
F2 → 2F (Slow)
(3)
2NO2 + 2F → 2NO2F (Fast)
NO2 + F2 → NO2F + F (Slow)
(4)
NO2 + F → NO2F (Fast)

24) Suppose two elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X2Y3 when 0.05 mole of
XY2 weighs 5 g while 3.011 × 1023 molecules of X2Y3 weighs 85 g. The atomic masses of X and Y are
respectively :-

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 40
(3) 40, 30
(4) 80, 60

25) 10 ml of A (boiling point = 68°C) and 10 ml of B ([Link] = 95°C) were mixed together and 19.95 ml
of mixture was obtained. The [Link] of azeotropic mixture obtained by them will be :

(1) < 68°C

(2) > 68°C but < 95°C
(3) > 95°C
(4) Unpredictable

26) Which of the given following stability order is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

The major product in the reaction

(1) t-Butyl ethyl ether

(2) 2, 2-Dimethyl butane
(3) 2-Methyl pent-1-ene
(4) 2-Methyl prop-1-ene

28)
product (C) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Identify A in the given reaction

 (Major Product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) In the given reaction :

(a) and (b) respectively be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Oxygen gas weighing 64 gm is expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1 atm to 0.25 atm at
30°C. Calculate entropy change
(in JK–1 mol–1), assuming the gas to be ideal.

(1) 18 JK–1 mol–1

(2) 23 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 30 JK–1 mol–1
(4) 15 JK–1 mol–1

33) For the reaction,

.
Initially if 2.5 mole of Fe(NO3)2 and 3.6 mole of Na2CO3 is taken. If 6.3 mole of NaNO3 is obtained
then % yield of given reaction is

(1) 50%
(2) 64%
(3) 87.5%
(4) 100%

34) Which of the following reaction has positive entropy change ?

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(2) H2O(s) → H2O(l)
(3) Cgraphite → Cdiamond
(4) CO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2CO3(aq)

35)
Which of the following is correct comparison of rate of haloform reaction with varoius halogens :-

(1) rcl2 > rBr2 > rI2

(2) rI2 > rBr2 > rcl2
(3) rcl2 = rBr2 = rI2
(4) rBr2 > rcl2 > rI2

36) Consider the following sequence of reactions

The ketone (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37)
End product (C) in above reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following will not give Lassaigne’s test for N in sodium extract?

(1) C6H5NHNH2
(2) NH2CONH2
(3) NH2–NH2
(4)

39) In carius method 0.3905 g of an organic compound gave 0.7175 g of silver chloride calculate the
percentage of Chlorine in the compound

(1) 48.45
(2) 54.56
(3) 45.45
(4) 40

40) The major product of the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)
(1)

at pH 4-5 product is

(2)

at pH 4-5 product is

(3)

at pH 8-9 product is

(4)

at pH 8 to 10 product is
42)
Codes :

P Q R S

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 4 3 1

(D) 2 3 4 1
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

43) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason(R):
Assertion (A): Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary amines.
Reason (R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction at room temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

44) The test performed on compound X and their inferences are

Test Interference

(a) 2,4-DNP test No coloured precipitate

 (b) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate

(c) Azo-dye test Dye formation

Compund 'X' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Rate of reaction with aqueous ethanol follows the order :-

(P)

(Q)

(R)

(S)

(1) P > Q > S > R

(2) Q > P > R > S
(3) P > R > Q > S
(4) R > P > S > Q
 BIOLOGY

1) In a plant two non-allelic genes present on the same chromosome and have 5 cM distance
between them. What percentage of gametes produced by that plant will have parental combination
genes ?

(1) 5%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 95%
(4) 47.5%

2)

Match the following column A (features) with column B (Genetic disorder) and choose the correct
option given below.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Synthesising too few globin molecules (i) Haemophilia

(b) Synthesising incorrectly functioning globin (ii) Thalassemia

(c) Blood clotting protein is affected (iii) Myotonic dystrophy

(d) Autosomal dominant trait (iv) Sickle cell anaemia

(1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

3) Coconut milk contains __________ hormone

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA

4)

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(I) Produces a small number of

(A) Pacific Salmon fish
large sized offspring

(II) Produces a large number

(B) Mammals
small sized offspring
 (III) Breed only once in their
(C) Oysters
lifetime

(IV) Breed many time during

(D) Birds
their lifetime
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(2) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
(4) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I

5) Statement I: Androecium represents the male reproductive whorl of a flower.

Statement II: Gynoecium includes anthers and filaments.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

6) A scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the fruit is :-

(1) Micropyle
(2) Testa
(3) Hilum
(4) Radicle

7) A flower of Mustard has six stamens and if each microsporangium has 40 pollen mother cells,
then how many pollen grains will be formed in the flower ?

(1) 2400
(2) 1920
(3) 3840
(4) 960

8)

Which of the following chemicals is or are produced in light reaction of higher plants ?

(1) ATP only

(2) NADPH only
(3) ATP & NADPH
(4) ATP & NADH

9) In monocotyledonous seed, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a

proteinous layer called :

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Aleurone layer
(4) Seed coat

10) In which plant leaves become fleshy for storage of food ?

(1) Opuntia
(2) Bryophyllum
(3) Onion
(4) Asparagus

11) In which plant stem act as organ of perennation to tide over conditions unfovourable for growth
?

(1) Onion
(2) Colacasia
(3) Pineapple
(4) Citrus

12) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Rose has inferior ovary

(2) Guava has superior ovary
(3) Cucumber has inferior ovary
(4) Brinjal has inferior ovary

13) Choose the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Most green algae have one or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the chloroplasts
(2) Brown algae are the largest algae
(3) Red algae shows only Oogamy
(4) Green algae, show diplontic life cycle

14) Assertion : In Gymnosperms male and female gametophyte remain within the sporangia
retained on the sporophyte.
Reason : The male & Female gametophyte do not have an independent living existence in them.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Find out the incorrect statement in the following:-

(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature.

(2) Bacteria are very complex in structure and they have very simple behaviour.
(3) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
(4) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having different cell wall structure

16) Starting with a bacterium that divides once in 30 minutes, how many bacteria are formed after
12 hours of growth?

(1) 224
(2) 212
(3) 248
(4) 236

17) Duration of a cell cycle in yeast is approximately:

(1) 90 seconds
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 45 minutes

18) If a mitocyte has 10 pg of DNA and 16 chromosomes in G1 then which of the following is correct
?

(1) S-phase will have 5 pg of DNA

(2) The cell at anaphase stage will have 20 pg of DNA and a total of 32 chromosomes
(3) G2-phase will have 8 chromosomes in a cell
(4) The cell at metaphase will have 10 pg of DNA and a total of 16 chromosome

19) If a cell has 20pg DNA in G1 stage, what will be the amount of DNA in each daughter cell after
meiosis-I ?

(1) 20 pg
(2) 10 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 60 pg

20) With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements
is not correct?

(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have
(2)
much lower temperature optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 enriched atmosphere for higher yield
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

21) Mark the incorrect statement for the organelle which has cart wheel like organisation :
(A) They are surrounded by amorphous peri-centriolar material
(B) the organisation is typical 9 + 2
(C) Each peripheral fibril is a doublet
(D) They form basal body of cilia or flagella

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

22) Read the following statements carefully :

(A) Inner nuclear membrane is continuous with RER & it bears ribosomes.
(B) Materials of the nucleus stained by the acidic dye was given the name chromatin by Flemming

(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

(2) Only (A) is incorrect
(3) Only (B) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct

23) The floral diagram given below belongs to :-

(1) Pea
(2) Lupin
(3) Mustard
(4) Tomato

24) Wheat, grasses, Monocotyledonae & Plantae shows

(1) Same taxa of different categories

(2) Different taxa of same category
(3) Same taxa of same category
(4) Different taxa of different category

25) Mushrooms, bracket fungi or puff balls are placed in :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

26)

In Rhizophora plant roots is modified for ?

(1) Storage
(2) Provide support
(3) Provide protection
(4) Respiration

27) Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of :

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Poaceae

28) NAD+ of Krebs cycle functions as :-

(1) Acceptor of hydrogen ion and electrons

(2) Oxygen acceptor
(3) Oxygen donor
(4) Donor of phosphate ions

29) Phloem parenchyma is absent in :-

(1) Most of the Monocotyledonous stem

(2) Most of the Dicotyledonous stem
(3) All Monocotyledonous stem
(4) All Dicotyledonous stem

30) Which is a stress hormone ?

(1) Benzyl aminopurine (BAP)

(2) Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

31) In tissue culture, differentiation of shoot is controlled by :-

(1) Light Intensity

(2) Temperature shock
(3) Low Auxin to high CK ratio
(4) High auxin to low CK ratio

32) Which is/are correct ?

Interaction of biotic and abiotic components result in a physical structure that is characteristic
(1)
for each type of community.
Interaction of biotic and abiotic components result in a physical structure that is characteristics
(2)
for each ecosystem.
 Interaction of biotic and abiotic component result in a physical structure that is characteristics
(3)
of ecology.
Interaction of biotic and abiotic component result in a physical structure that is characteristics
(4)
of population.

33) Given below is the diagrammatic view of a typical dicot embryo. Identify the parts labelled A, B,

C and D and select the right option about them :- Options :-

Part- [A] Part- [B] Part- [C] Part- [D]

(1) Radicle Plumule Cotyledons Root cap

(2) Plumule Cotyledons Root cap Radicle

(3) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle Root cap

(4) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule Root cap

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Biodiversity Hot spot Accelerated habitat loss High Biodiversity regions

Last refuges for a large number of rare &

ii Sacred groves Meghalaya
threatened species

Plants are taken out from

iii Botanical garden Ex-situ conservation
natural habitat for protection

(1) only (i)

(2) only (ii)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

35) Find the incorrect statements about the eubacteria-

(A) Endospores in bacteria are highly resistant structures
(B) Normally bacteria reproduce by budding and binary fission during unfavourable conditions
(C) Most extensive metabolic diversity.
(D) Bacterial structure is very complex, they are very simple behaviour.

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) Only B & D
(4) Only D & A

36) Maximum number of species of plants and animals are believed to be present in :-

(1) Temperate forests

(2) Antarctica
(3) Taiga
(4) Tropical rain forest

37) Animals extinct in the wild are maintained in which of the following conservation sites?

(1) Zoological parks

(2) Biosphere reserves
(3) Hot spot
(4) National parks

38) Which of the following factors are the most important factors influencing population density
under normal conditions?

(1) Immigration and Emigration

(2) Births and Deaths
(3) Births and Immigration
(4) Deaths and Emigration

39) All are the correct statements, except:-

(1) A DNA strand is composed of 2 types of nucleotides.

(2) DNA molecules have an equal number of purines and pyrimidines in their structure.
(3) Chargaff’s rule does not apply to single-stranded DNA.
(4) A bacteriophage known as ϕ×174 has 5386 nucleotides.

40) The term ‘Nuclein’ was given by:-

(1) Wilkins and Franklin

(2) Watson and Crick
(3) Friedrich Miescher
(4) Nirenberg

41) If a hybrid DNA "N15 N14" is allowed to replicate in N14 medium, after three generations how
many DNA will be having N15 :
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 1

42) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

43) Given pedigree chart shows which type of inheritance.

(1) Autosomal recessive (Albinism)

(2) X–linked recessive (color blindness)
(3) Y–linked
(4) Autosomal dominant

44) Assertion (A) : A girl child can never be colorblind if her father is not colorblind.
Reason (R) : Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

45) White eye and yellow body genes in Drosophila were

(1) Very tightly linked and showed higher recombination of 37.2 percent
(2) loosely linked and showed higher recombination of 37.2 percent
(3) Very tightly linked and showed very low recombination of 1.3 percent
(4) loosely linked and showed very low recombination of 1.3 percent

46) A schematic representation of a chordate's embryo is shown in the above figure.

The structures maked A, B, C and D are respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Intestine and gill slits

(2) Post anal part, Gill slits, Nerve cord and Notochord
(3) Post anal part, nerve cord, Notochord and Gill
(4) Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits.

47) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer.

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - v

(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - v, E - i
(4) A - iii, B - v, C - iv, D - ii, E - i

48) Sexes are not seperate in

(1) Porifera
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ctenophora
(4) All of these

49) A histologist observes an epithelium containing single layer of tall and slender cells, having basal
nuclei with mucous in between them on a slide through microscope. Epithelium being discussed in
above statement is

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Columnar glandular epithelium

50) Statement-I : Body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of
at least some organs. This phenomenon is called as metamerism.
Statement-II : Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the ventral side
during embryonic development in some animals.

(1) Both statement-I & statement-II are true

(2) Statement-I is true & statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false & statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I & statement-II are false

51) Observe the following given structure and select the correct option naming it?

(1) Uracil
(2) Thymine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Adenine

52) Glycerol is considered as a

(1) Aldehyde
(2) Monohydroxy alcohol
(3) Trihydroxy propane
(4) Simple lipid

53)

Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps :
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.
C. Release of products.
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken
E. Substrate binding to active site.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, A, D, C, B
(2) A, E, B, D, C
(3) B, A, C, D, E
(4) E, D, C, B, A

54) Assertion: Erythroblastosis foetalis not observed during first pregnancy although foetus is Rh
positive and mother is Rh negative.
Reason: Rh antigens of foetus do not get exposed to Rh negative blood of mother in first pregnancy
as the two bloods are well separated by placenta.
 Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

55) Which of the following is absent in frog but present in cockroach :-

(1) Cloaca
(2) Exoskeleton
(3) Fat body
(4) Indirect development

56) Which part of Rana tigrina's brain include into forebrain ?

(1) Optic lobe

(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) olfactory lobe

57) Which of the following correctly explains the difference between bronchial asthma and
emphysema?

(1) Asthma involves alveolar destruction, emphysema involves bronchial inflammation

(2) Asthma involves narrowing of bronchioles, emphysema involves alveolar wall damage
(3) Both involve reduced haemoglobin levels
(4) Both primarily affect oxygen transport in blood

58) Observe the figure given below. Identify the marking ‘X’ and the nature of the tissue associated

with it. Select the correct option w.r.t ‘X’.

(1) Alveolar wall – Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Basement substance – Connective tissue
(3) Blood capillary – Endothelium
(4) Alveoli – Stratified squamous epithelium

59) Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure and cardiac cycle?
(1) Systolic pressure is lowest pressure during ventricular relaxation
(2) Diastolic pressure occurs during ventricular contraction
(3) Systolic pressure corresponds to ventricular contraction
(4) Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure

60) Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is made of a number of ___ a __ held together by a
common collagenous connective tissue layer called __ b _
Select the correct option for a and b respectively.

(1) fascia, fascicles

(2) muscle bundles, fascicles
(3) fascia, muscle bundles
(4) fascicles, fascia

61) Select the correct set of components found in sweat produced by the sweat glands?

(1) NaCl, small amounts of urea, lactic acid

(2) NaCl, small amounts of uric acid, lactic acid
(3) large amounts of urea, lactic acid, hydrocarbons
(4) sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

62) Statement-i: A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called
synapse.
Statement-ii: Electrical synapses pass electrical signal between cells with the use of Acetylcholine
(1) Both statements i and ii are incorrect.
(2) Both statements i and ii are correct.
(3) Only statement i is correct
(4) Only statement ii is correct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Match List I with List II

List I List II

A LH 1 Spermatogenesis

B FSH 2 Milk ejection

C Oxytocin 3 Steroid Hormone

D Estrogen 4 Ovulation

5 Pigmentation of skin
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2

64) Select the correct option with regards to joints and their location.

(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle - Hinge joint

(2) Between atlas and axis- Pivot joint
(3) Between femur and pelvic girdle - saddle joint
(4) Between the carpal and metacarpal of thumb - gliding point

65) Indicate whether the following statements are true(T) or False(F).

(a) Micturition is carried out by a reflex.
(b) ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic.
(c) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.
(d) Henle's loop plays on important role in concentrating the urine.
(e) Glucose is actively reabsorbed inthe proximal convoluted tubule.

(1) a-T, b-F, c-T, d-T, e-T

(2) a-T, b-F, c-T, d-F, e-T
(3) a-F, b-F, c-F, d-T, e-F
(4) a-T, b-F, c-F, d-T, e-T

66) First movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during
which month of pregnancy ?

(1) Fifth month

(2) Third month
(3) Fourth month
(4) First month

67) The following refers to schematic representation of spermatogenesis. Identify A to E correctly: -

 A-Primary spermatocytes
B-Secondary spermatocytes
(1) C-Spermatogonia
D-Spermatids
E-Spermatozoa
A-Spermatogonia
B-Primary spermatocytes
(2) C-Secondary spermatocytes
D-Spermatids
E-Spermatozoa
A-Spermatozoa
B-Spermatogonia
C-Primary spermatocytes
D-Secondary spermatocytes
(3) E-Spermatids A-Spermatogonia
B-Primary spermatocytes
C-Secondary spermatocytes
D-Spermatids
E-Spermatozoa
A-Spermatogonia
B-Secondary Spermatocytes
(4) C-Spermatozoa
D-Spermatids
E-Primary spermatocytes

68) Choose the option depicting correct sequence of reproductive events in sexual reproduction
(1) Implanation® gestation ® parturition ® insemination
(2) Gametogenesis® insemination ® fertilisation ® implantation
(3) Fertilisation ® insemination ® implantation ® gestation
(4) Implantation® Parturition ® Gestation ® lactation

69) Which of the following is indicative of improved reproductive health of the society ?
(I) Better awareness about sex related matter.
(II) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries.
(III) Better post natal care.
(IV) Increased maternal and infant mortality rates.
(V) Decreased number of couples with small families.
(VI) Better detection and cure of STDs.
(VII) Overall increased medical facilities for all sex related problems.

(1) i, ii, iv and vii

(2) i, v and vi
(3) i, ii, iv, v and vi
(4) i, ii, iii, vi and vii.

70) Which of the following is not a complication of STIs –

(a) Still birth
(b) Infertility
(c) Ectopic pregnancies
(d) Cancer of the reproductive tract
(e) Pulmonary Inflammatory disease

(1) only e
(2) only c and e
(3) only d
(4) only a & b

71) Match the column –

Column-I Column-II
A. ZIFT I. Transfer of ovum into oviduct
II. Transfer of embryo upto 8
B. GIFT
blastomeres into oviduct
C. IUT III. Transfer of semen into uterus
IV. Transfer of embryo more than 8
D. IUI
blastomere into uterus.

A B C D

(1) II IV I III

(2) IV III II I

(3) II III IV I

(4) II I IV III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Assertion: Oogenesis begins during fetal life.

Reason: The primary oocytes are formed and arrested in prophase-1 of meiosis before birth.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and Reason is the correct Explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct Explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

73) Assertion: The sperm head contains an elongated haploid nucleus, the posterior portion of
which is covered by a cap-like structure, acrosome.
Reason: The middle piece is filled with enzymes that help fertisation of the ovum.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and Reason is the correct Explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct Explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are incorrect.

74) Match the columns-I and II, and choose the correct combination from the given options

(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i

75) Assertion (A):- Bt toxin protein does not kill the Bacillus bacteria.
Reasons (R):- In Bacillus bacteria Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

76) cryIIAb control the

(1) Cotton bollworms

(2) Corn borer
(3) Fruit flies
(4) Mosquitoes

77) More individuals acquire mean character value refers to

(1) Stabilizing natural selection

(2) Directional natural selection
(3) Disruptive natural selection
(4) Diversifying natural selection

78) In a population, the frequency of allele A (p) is 0.6 and allele a (q) is 0.4. What will be the
expected frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa) according to Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) 0.16
(2) 0.24
(3) 0.48
(4) 0.36

79) Which of the following statements correctly describes early human evolution?

(1) Homo habilis had brain capacity 900–1200 cc and was a meat eater
(2) Homo erectus fossils were discovered in Africa in 1891 and date back to 0.5 mya
(3) Homo habilis had brain capacity 650–800 cc and did not eat meat
(4) Homo erectus appeared before Homo habilis and had smaller brain size

80) Read the following statements regarding the mechanism of evolution

I) According to Darwin evolution was gradual process.
II) de Vries believed single step large mutation caused speciation and hence called it saltation.
Ill) Lamarck said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by disuse of organs only.
The correct ones in the above are

(1) only II & III

(2) only I & II
(3) only I & III
(4) all I, II and III

81) Plasmodium reproduces asexually in humans in

(1) Salivary glands

(2) RBCs
(3) Stomach wall
(4) Intestinal wall

82) Read the following symptoms (a) Internal bleeding (b) Blockage of intestinal
passage (c) Muscular pain (d) Anaemia
The above given symptoms are true for a disease caused by

(1) Yersinia pestis

(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides
(4) Wuchereria malayi

83) Given below is the diagram of cloning vector pBR322

Choose the option representing correct labellings

(1) A-Pvu I, B-Pst I, C-Pvu II, D-BamH I

(2) A-Pst I, B-Pvu I, C-BamH I, D-Sal I
(3) A-Pst II, B-Pvu I, C-BamH I, D-Sal I
(4) A-BamH I, B-Pvu I, C-Pst I, D-Sal I

84) Which technique is not useful to detect cancer?

(1) Computed tomography

(2) MRI
(3) Radiography
(4) Widal test

85) Observe the chemical structure of below given molecule. Identify the correct statements related
to it

A) Its receptors are present in our central neural system.

B) It is extracted from the latex of poppy plant.
C) It interferes with the transport of the neuro transmitter dopamine.
D) It is known for its effect on cardio vascular system of our body.
(1) Only A and B are correct
(2) Only B, C and D are correct
(3) Only C and D are correct
(4) Only A, B, C are correct

86)

What happens to activated sludge ?

(1) It is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and oceans.
(2) It is completely pumped back into aeration tank to serve as an inoculum.
(3) The major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters.
(4) It undergoes sequential filtration.

87)

Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(1) Dough used for making food such as dosa and idli is fermented by fungi and algae.
Large holes in “Swiss cheese” are due to production of large amount of methane by
(2)
Propionibacterium sharmanii.
In our stomach, lactic acid bacteria play very beneficial role in checking disease causing
(3)
microbes.
(4) The fermented beverages with maximum alcohol content is Beer and gin.

88) A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be —

(1) Narrow spectrum and symbiotic

(2) Free living and broad spectrum
(3) Species specific and inactive on non-target organisms
(4) Species specific and symbiotic

89) Which enzyme is responsible for amplifying DNA in PCR?

(1) DNA ligase

(2) Taq polymerase
(3) Restriction enzyme
(4) RNA polymerase

90) Two stages of insulin (stage P and Q) are shown

in the diagram select the correct statement :
(1) Stage P is earlier and inactive stage of insulin
(2) Stage Q is inactive and earlier stage of insulin
(3) Stage Q is reffered as proinsulin
(4) Stage P is an active stage
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 4 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 2 4 1 1 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

18 + u = 6
u = – 12 cm

3) Question Explanation : We are asked to find the wavelength of light emitted by an LED of
GaAsP with band gap Eg = 1.9 eV.

Concept :
The wavelength of emitted light is related to the energy gap by
E(eV) = 1240 / λ (nm)

Formula :
λ = 1240 / Eg

Solution :
Eg = 1.9eV
λ = 1240/1.9 = 652.6 nm
= 654 nm

Final Answer : option (2)

4)

Explain Question: For an intrinsic germanium Semi-conductor at room temperature

Concept: Conductivity in Intrinsic Semi-conductor

Formula:

Solution:

Final answer: option (1)

5) Explain Question:
Find the de Broglie wavelength of an electron whose angular momentum equals 3h/2π.

Concept:
Angular momentum quantization: L = n(h/2π).
Thus n = 3.
De Broglie condition: 2πr = nλ.

Solution:
Formula:
Radius of nth orbit: r = a0 n2

Wavelength: λ =
n = 3 → r = 0.53 Å × 9 ≈ 4.77 Å
Circumference = 2πr ≈ 30Å
λ = 30Å / 3 ≈ 10 Å

Final answer: option (2)

6) Explain Question:
α – particle → mα = 4mp; vα = v
Deuteron → md = 2mp; vd = 2v

Find →

Concept:
de-Broglie Wavelength.

Formula:

Solution:
Since Planck's Constant (h) is a universal. So,
Final answer: Option (3)

7)

Explain Question: In this question we have to find the frequency of oscillation for the given
combination of springs and mass.

Concept: Combination of spring.

Solution: In the given figure all the springs having spring constant 10 Nm–1 are in parallel
combination.

M = 10kg

frequency f =

Final answer: option (2)

8)

Explain the Question : The question asks how much the stopping potential changes when the
wavelength of incident light in a photoelectric experiment is changed from 4000 Å to 3100 Å.
Concept : This question is based on photoelectric effect.
Solution :
From the Einstein's PEE.
E = ϕ + eVs ∵ "ϕ" remain constant then,
ΔE = e ΔVs

ΔVs = 12400

ΔVs = 12400

ΔVs = 12400 ×
Final answer : Option (2)

9)
 Capacitor blocks D.C. but allows A.C. to pass through it.
Diode conducts with both D.C. and A.C. but unidirectionally only.

LED, when connected across DC, conducts only in one direction and emits light. The intensity of this
emitted right first increases & then decreases with increase in applied voltage.

10) Least count = 1 m.s.D.

= mm = mm
= 0.025 mm

11)

Explain the question : Drops fall at equal intervals from a height of 18 m, and when the first
drop hits the ground, the fourth just starts falling. We need the positions of the second and
third drops.
Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity, Free fall
time of fall t = √(2h/g).
Solution :

distance of 3rd drop from root : →

distance of 2nd drop from root : →

Final answer : 3

12) Question Explanation: For given arrangement we need to find ratio of TA and TB

Concept: Translation equilibrium with pulley system

Solution:
TB =

Now,

TA : TB = 2 : 1

Final answer: option (1)

13) Explain Question:

Find the maximum mass m to prevent system motion.

Concept:
Limiting Static Friction.

Solution:
Total mass on table (M) = 2 + 8 = 10kg
Maximum static friction (fmax)= μMg = 0.5 × 10 × g = 5g
Weight of hanging mass (W) = mg
For equilibrium: W = fmax
mg = 5g ⇒ m = 5kg

Final Answer: Option (2)

14)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

15) Explain the question : Find height h where g becomes 36% of its value on surface.
Concept : This question is based on variation in g with height.
Solution :

Formula :

∴
0.6h = R – 0.6 R

h= R
Final answer : Option (2)

16)

1 atm = 105 pascal (approx)

17)
Also, due to collision velocities of gas molecules changes.

18) …(1)
After leakage

…(2)
from (1) & (2)

⇒ m = 4g
Gas leaked = 6 – 4 = 2g

19) P = Vrms Irms Cosϕ

20)

After touching & separation of spheres

 21) Question Explanation: Work required = decrease in potential energy when central
charge is taken to infinity.
Concept:

Solution:

Distance from center to each vertex (equilateral triangle):

Potential at center due to three charges:

Potential energy of central charge:

Work done by external force:

Final Answer: Option (2)

22) Explain Question :

If volume charge density is ρ we have to calculate electric filed at distance r from center (r >
R).

Concept:
Electric field at outside point of non-conducting sphere.

Solution:
Final Answer: option (4)

23) Question Explanation : To find induced emf between two ends of rod as shown in figure.

Concept : Motional EMF(Rotational).

Solution :

⇒ Vx – Vy = 0

Final Answer : Option (4)

24) Explain the Question : To find current I2 after steady state in inductor.
Concept : This question is based on RL circuit at steady state.
Solution : After long time of key closed, inductor behave short circuit.

I1 = =1A

I2 = × 1 A = 0.5 A
Final Answer : (3)

25)

Question Explanation: The given question is asking whether the given two statements about
microwave are true or false.

Concept: The electromagnetic spectrum and the nature and application of microwaves.

Solution:
 Statement -I is true
Statement -II is true (Microwave oven based on application of microwaves)

Final Answer: Option (​1)

26)

Question Explanation : The question asks for the ratio of currents i1 and i2 flowing through
two concentric circular coils, given the ratios of their radii and the magnetic flux densities they
produce at their common center O.
Concept : Biot-Savart Law, Magnetic field at the center of a circular current loop.
Solution :

B=

i ∝ Br.

Final Answer : The correct option is (1)

27)

Explain the Question : An electron with kinetic energy K moves in a circular path of radius R
in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its motion. If the kinetic energy is doubled and
the magnetic field is tripled, the new radius is to be found.

Concept : This question is based on motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field.

Formula :

Solution :

Initially,
When kinetic energy is doubled,
K′ = 2K
When magnetic field is tripled,
B′ = 3B
New radius,

Final answer : Option (2)

28) For a diamagnetic substance ฀ is small, negative and independent of temperature.

29) Explain Question:

To find the angular position of the point at which intensity 1/4th of the maximum intensity

Concept:

Relation b/w phase difference and path difference,

Solution:

Now from the relation between ϕ and Δx.

Δx =

Final Answer: Option (3)

30) Explain question:

We have to find the maximum magnifying power of a compound microscope using focal
lengths of the objective and eyepiece when the final image is at the near point.

Concept:
Total magnifying power of a compound microscope is equal to the product of object
magnification and eyepiece magnification.
Solution:
m = m0 × m e

=
= 8 × 11
= 88

Final Answer: Option (2)

31) Question Explanation:

At what angle should a swimmer swim, so he can reach to just opposite end.
Concept:
This question is based on River - boat problem.
Solution:

from the figure sinθ =

θ = 30°
the man should swim at 30°, west of north to cross the river in minimum possible path.
Final Answer: option (4)

32)

Explain question : Determine the ratio of tensions T1 and T2 in two strings supporting a
uniform rod in horizontal equilibrium.
Concept : This question is based on the system is in equilibrium, and the sum of torques about
any point should be zero, which leads to a relationship between T1 and T2.
Explanation :
 From the torque balance equation

Final answer :- 3

33)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

34)

Explain the Question : Question is asking about pressure difference across a tube. This
liquid is non-viscous.
Concept : This question is based on in series combination rate flow of liquid in both tube will
remain same.
Solution :

→ =
Final answer : 1

35)

Explanation Question:
Calculate the work done on a 1 kg mass in the first second given its displacement as a function
of time.

Concept:

Work energy Theorem W = ∆K = .

Solution: (step-by-step)
 At t = 0, vi = 03 = 0
At t = 1, vf = 13 = 1

W= ×m×

W= × 1 × (12 – 02)

W= J

Final Answer: Option (2)

36)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

37)

Question Explanation : Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water kept in a calorimeter
of water equivalent 0.02 kg, initially at 15°C, until the final temperature becomes 80°C. Using
heat balance, the mass of steam condensed is to be found. Given: Latent heat of steam L = 536
cal/g

Concept: Calorimetry

Solution: Let the mass of steam condensed be m grams.

Heat released by condensing steam + cooling of condensed water = Heat gained by water +
calorimeter.

m × 540 × 4.2 × 103 + m × 4.2 × 103 × (100 – 80) = 1.12 × 4.2 × 103 × (80 – 15)
560 m = 1.12 × 65
m = 0.127 Kg ≃ 0.13 Kg

Final Answer: Option (1).

38) Question Explanation : We need to find length of the organ pipe from the data of
successive resonance frequency and the speed of sound.

Concept : Stationary wave in sound and organ pipes.

Solution :
The frequency ratio
425 : 595 : 765
5 : 7 : 9 → Only odd harmonic
→ Close organ pipe
 = 425 ℓ=

Final Answer : Option (3)

39)

Let the frequencies of two waves are n1 & n2

n1 = n2 =
b = n1 – n2

v= m/sec

40) From given graph amplitude (a) = 1cm

Time period (T) = 8 sec

∴
Acceleration A = –ω2asinωt

at

41)

Explain the Question : A meter bridge gives null deflection at length ℓ. When R1 and R2 are

interchanged, the new balancing length increases by 25 cm. We must find .

Concept : This question is based on at balance : on interchanging, lengths swap

accordingly.
Solution :

Equating,
Solving given l = 37.5 cm.

Final answer : 1

42) μ =
since, δmin = A
 ⇒ A = 60°

43) U = 20 + (x – 4)2 Umin = 20 J MP = 4

F = –2(x – 4) K = 2
TME = U0 + Kmax = 36 J
Kmax = 16 J

KA2 = 16 K=2
A=4

KE = K(A2 – x2) = 12 J
All are correct

44)
I1 = MR2 = 100 kgm2
I2 = Icm + Md2

=
= 150 kgm2

45)

CHEMISTRY
46)

⇒ mole

[AB(g)] =

47)

Explain the question: Find degree of dissociation

Concept: Kohlrausch's Law and formula ..

Solution:
Benzoic acid is a monobasic acid, thus its limiting equivalent conductance is the sum of
+
the ionic conductances of H and benzoate ions at infinite dilution. The degree of dissociation
(α) is defined as the ratio of the equivalent conductance at concentration C to the equivalent
conductance at infinite dilution.

Using the provided value for 1 M benzoic acid, .

To express this as a percentage, we multiply by 100 to get 3.87%.

Final Answer: Option (3)

48) =

49) Question Explanation:

The goal is to find the relationship between the rate constant K (based on reactant
disappearance) and K1 (based on product appearance) for the reaction .

Concept:
In kinetics, the rate of reaction is equated by dividing the rate of change of each species by its
stoichiometric coefficient:

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (3).

50) K1 = K2
1015e–3000/T = 1014 e–1000/T.

=
–1000/T + 3000/T
10 = e
10 = e2000/T

ln10 =

T=
= 868.58

51) For 4s-orbital = 0

for 3p - orbital =

for 4th -orbit =

52)

Question Explanation : Find quinhydrone potential at pH 3.

Concept: Nernst equation for pH-dependent redox.

Solution:
For the given oxidation half-reaction , the Nernst equation is

.
In a quinhydrone electrode, quinone (Q) and hydroquinone exist in a 1 : 1 molar ratio, so
their concentrations cancel out.
The expression simplifies to .
Since , this becomes .
Substituting the given values and pH = 3,
we get , which rounds to 1.48 V.

Final Answer: Option (1)

53)
 Explain the Question: Identify main product with hot NaOH.

Concept: Disproportionation of chlorine.

Solution:

A. Chlorine reacts with hot, concentrated NaOH by disproportionation.

B. Reaction:

3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O

A. The major oxidized product formed is sodium chlorate (NaClO3) along with NaCl.

Final Answer: Option (2)

54)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

55)

Correct order of electron affinity is

S > Se > Te > O

56)

H4P2O8 – acidic H = 4, Peroxy linkage = 1

57)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

58) Δ ∝
0

order of Δ0 :-
[Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(CN)6]3–
order of λ :-
[Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3–

59) Order of ease of liquification :-

Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

60)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

61) Correct order of thermal stability is

KO2 < RbO2 < CsO2

62)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

63)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

64)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

65)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

66)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

67) lower the Ksp lower the solubility.

68) Slowest step here gives directly the experimentally determined rate law.

69)

Mol. wt. of XY2 = = 100

Mol. wt. of X2Y3 =

Let molar mass of X and Y are a and b respectively

∴ a + 2b = 100

2a + 3b = 170;

a = 40;

b = 30

70) Question Explanation : Find [Link] of azeotropic mixture

Concept: Azeotropic mixture
Solution :
(Vsolution = 19.95 ml) < (V1 + V2 = 20 ml)
ΔV = – ve; –ve deviation solution
↓
Gives max. boiling azeotrope
↓
(Tb)max. > (Tb)1
> (Tb)2

Final Answer: Option (3)

71)

72) (D) we are given a bulky base, hence elimination will take place & not substitution.

73)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

74)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

75)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

76)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

77) ΔS = 2.303 nR log = 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 log

~ 23 J mol–1 K–1

78)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

79) Ssolid < Sliquid

ΔS = +ve
80)

Question Explanation : comparison of rate of haloform reaction with various halogens

Concept: This question is based on Haloform reaction
Solution: The rate of the haloform reaction is independent of the nature of the halogen (X2)
used. The rate-determining step in the basic-catalyzed haloform reaction is the formation of
the enolate ion intermediate (or carbanion) by the abstraction of an α-hydrogen by the base (
).

Subsequent steps involving the halogenation of the carbanion are much faster than the initial
deprotonation step. Therefore, the rate of the reaction depends only on the concentration of
the substrate and the base, not on the specific halogen used.

Final Answer : Option (3)

81)

82)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

83) Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is given by those compounds in which N is bonded to carbon.

84)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

85)

86)

at pH = 8-9 at pH = 4-5

87)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

88) Gabriel pthalamide synthesis

 89)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

90) Rate of reaction depends on stability of intermediate.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg No. 83

Non-allelic genes with 5 cM distance will form 5% recombinant gametes, so 95% of gametes
will have the parental combination.

92)

NCERT Page No. 89, 90, 91

93) NCERT Page no. 176

94)

NCERT Page no. 231, 232

95) Solution: Gynoecium includes carpels.

Concept: Floral whorls
Final Answer: (3)
96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

97) NCERT-XII Pg. # 6

98)

NCERT Pg. # 209

99) NCERT Pg.# 77

100) NCERT Page No. : 70(XI)

101) NCERT Page No. : 68(XI)

102) NCERT Page No. # 73

103) NCERT XI Pg.# 32-33

104) NCERT Page No. 39

105) NCERT XI Page No. # 13

106)

No. of bacteria after n generation = 2n

No. of generation = Total time/Doubling time

107)

Ncert Page 121.

108) Allen Module

109) NCERT Page. No. 163

110)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

111)
NCERT Pg. # 137

112)

NCERT Page No. 138

113) NCERT XI (H) Pg.# 80

114) NCERT, Pg.# 10

115) Module#4 Pg#48

116) NCERT Pg. # 67, 5.1.2

117) NCERT XI pg # 81

118)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

119) The correct answer is:

1. Most of the Monocotyledonous stem
Explanation:
Phloem parenchyma, a type of parenchyma tissue present in the phloem, is generally absent in
most monocotyledonous stems. In monocots, the phloem is often composed of sieve tubes,
companion cells, and fibers, but lacks phloem parenchyma.
In contrast, phloem parenchyma is present in most dicotyledonous stems, where it serves as a
storage tissue and is part of the phloem.

120) Abscisic acid (ABA) is known as a stress hormone in plants. It plays a critical role in
the plant's response to environmental stresses, such as drought, salinity, and extreme
temperatures. ABA helps plants conserve water by inducing stomatal closure, and it also
promotes seed dormancy, helping the plant survive during unfavorable conditions.

121)
122)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 242

123)

NCERT XII Pg 35(E), 37(H)

124) Question Explanation: Determine the correctness of statements matching conservation

sites with their characteristics.

Concept: In situ and ex situ conservation

Solution: (i) Biodiversity Hotspot: Correctly described as high biodiversity regions facing
accelerated habitat loss.
(ii) Sacred grove: Correctly described as last refuges for threatened species, with Meghalaya
being a known location.
(iii) Botanical garden: Correctly described as an Ex-situ conservation method where plants are
taken out from their natural habitat for protection.
All three statements and their descriptions are correct.

Final Answer: Option 4

125)

NCERT XI Pg # 19

126) NCERT - XI , Page - 4

127) Allen Module Page No. 86

128) NCERT Page No. 193

129)

DNA is made up of four types of nucleotides (not two). These nucleotides are adenine (A),
thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). The statement that a strand is made up of two
types of nucleotides is incorrect.

130) Question Explanation: The scientist who first isolated nucleic acids.
Concept: History of DNA Discovery
Solution: In 1869, the Swiss physician Friedrich Miescher was the first to isolate and identify
nucleic acids.
He extracted an acidic substance containing high amounts of phosphorus from the nuclei of
pus cells and named it 'Nuclein'.
Final Answer: 3.
Friedrich Miescher.

131)

Question Explanation : Meselson–Stahl experiment (semiconservative replication)

Concept: DNA replication : Semiconservative model

Solution:

A. Start: 1 hybrid (N15–N14)

B. After 1st generation → 1 hybrid + 1 light

C. After 2nd generation → 1 hybrid + 3 light

D. After 3rd generation → 1 hybrid + 7 light

So, only 1 DNA still has N15.

Final answer: Option (4)

132)

Question Explanation: The question asks that the given pedigree shows which type of
inheritance.

Concept: Human genetics: Pedigree.

Solution:

In the given pedigree chart, the trait skips generations, which is a characteristic of “autosomal
recessive inheritance.” Both males and females are affected equally, which rules out X-linked
inheritance.

The given pedigree shows autosomal recessive type of inheritance.

So, the correct answer is: 3. Autosomal recessive

Final answer: 3.

133)
Correct Answer is Option (2).

134)

Explain Question: The question asks the assertion and reason statements and selects the
correct option.

Concept: Colourblindness.

Solution:

Assertion (A) : A girl child can never be colorblind if her father is not colorblind.

Reason (R) : Colorblindness is an x-linked recessive disorder.

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

So, the correct answer is: 4.

Final answer: 4.

135) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-4) 4.3.3 Linkage and Recombination

136) Solution : Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits.
Final Answer : (4)

137) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii

138)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

139) Columnar glandular epithelium

140)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

141) NCERT Pg. No.107

142) NCERT Pg. No.106

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 115

144)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

145)

Module

146)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

147)

Question Explanation: The question asks differentiation between two disorders.

Concept: Respiratory disorders comparison

Solution: Asthma causes narrowing of bronchioles due to inflammation, while emphysema

involves destruction of alveolar walls, reducing gas exchange surface.
Final answer: Option - 2

148) Alveolar wall – Simple squamous epithelium

149)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct relation between blood
pressure and cardiac cycle.
Concept: Cardiac cycle & blood pressure
Solution: Systolic pressure is produced during ventricular contraction when blood is pumped
into arteries.
Final Answer: Option (3)

150) fascicles, fascia

151) NaCl, small amounts of urea, lactic acid

152) Only statement i is correct

153) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

154) Pivot joint between atlas and axis

155) Allen module page 91.

156) Fifth month

157) A-Spermatogonia
B-Primary spermatocytes
C-Secondary spermatocytes
D-Spermatids
E-Spermatozoa

158) Gametogenesis® insemination ® fertilisation ® implantation

159)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

160) Ans.-1

161) Correct Answer is Option (4).

162) Ans.-1

163) Ans.-4

164) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

165) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

166) Cotton bollworms

167) Stabilizing natural selection

168)

Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate heterozygote frequency using given
allele frequencies.
Concept: Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium
Solution: Heterozygote frequency = 2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48
Final Answer: Option (3)

169)

Question Explanation: The question asks correct NCERT-based data on early humans.
Concept: Human evolution (hominids)
Solution: Homo habilis had a brain size of 650–800 cc and is described as not eating meat;
Homo erectus appeared later (~1.5 mya, Java fossil).
Final Answer: Option (3)

170) only I & II

171) RBCs

172) Ascaris lumbricoides

173) A-Pst I, B-Pvu I, C-BamH I, D-Sal I

174) Solution : Widal test detect typhoid

Final Answer : (4)

175) Only A and B are correct

176)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

177)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

178)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

179) Question Explanation:

The question asks to identify the enzyme used in PCR amplification.

Concept:
PCR enzyme function

Solution:
Taq polymerase is heat-stable and synthesizes new DNA strands during PCR cycles.

Final answer:
Option - (2) Taq polymerase

180) Correct Option is -1