01-06-2026

2001CMD303031260002 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1) 15
(2) 17
(3) 9
(4) 4

2) For the given function x = t2 then graph between & t will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3)

(1) –2ax sin (ax2 + b)

(2) 2ax sin (ax2 + b)

(3)

(4)

4) Select the parabola for given equation y = x2 + 2

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) Sum of is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Correct graph for y = –3x + 2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Find the value of x1 so that = 5.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) The position time equation for a ball thrown vertically up in air is given by h = 20t – 10t2. Find the
time at which its height is maximum.

(1) 0.5 sec

(2) 2sec
(3) 0.25 sec
(4) 1sec

9) What will be distance between points A (1, 2, 3) and B (4, 5, 2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) For the given series find sum upto 20 terms 1, 2, 3, 4.....

(1) 220
(2) 105
(3) 210
(4) 180

11) What is the correct graph for y = 5e–x ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Find the integration of (3 cos x + e–2x)

(1)

(2)

(3) 3 sin x – 2e–2x + c

(4) 3 sin x + 2e–2x + c

13) Find integration of

(1)

(2) 2ℓn (2t – 3) + c

(3)

(4)

14) Find the area bounded by the curve y = x2, on the x-axis and the ordinate x = 1 to x = 3 :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Differentiate y = 4x3 + 3x2 – 7x + 5 with respect to x.

(1) 12x2 + 6x – 7

(2)
x4 + x3 – + 5x
(3) 12x + x – 7
2 2

(4) None of these

16) If x = at4 and y = bt3 . Find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Calculate

(1) 1
(2) 0.995
(3) 1.005
(4) 0.99

18) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t. the independnt variable x.

y = 2 sin(ωx + ϕ) where ω and ϕ are constants

(1) 2ωcos(ωx + ϕ)
(2) ωcos(ωx – ϕ)
(3) 4ωcos(ωx + ϕ)
(4) 2ωcos(ωx – ϕ)
19) The slope of graph for the equation y = 4x2 at point P is-

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 32
(4) 16

20) The radius of a circular plate increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/s. At what rate does the area

increase when the radius of plate is cm.

(1) 1 cm2/s
(2) 0.1 cm2/s
(3) 0.5 cm2/s
(4) 2 cm2/s

21) Assertion : sin2º = Reason : sinθ θ (if θ is very small)

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

22) Match the given columns.

Column-I Column-II

(P) (A)
at x = 0

(Q) (B) 4
at

(R) (C) 3

(S) (D) 1

(1) P-B,Q-C,R-B,S-A
(2) P-A,Q-B,R-C,S-D
(3) P-C,Q-B,R-A,S-D
(4) P-D,Q-C,R-B,S-D

23) If y = xlnx than is :

(1) 1 + lnx
(2) x + lnx

(3)

(4)

24) Value of tan75° is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The circumference of the following circle :

x2 + y2 = 25

(1) 10π
(2) 5π
(3) 25π
(4) 50π

26) If time t = (1 + 0.01)5 s, then value of t is approximately :-

(1) 1.03 s
(2) 5.05 s
(3) 1.05 s
(4) 5.00 s

27) The slope of shown line is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) ?

(1) e5
(2) 5e4
(3) 0
(4) e

29) If y = 2x2 – 8x + 5 then minimum value of y is:-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) –3
(4) –5

30) The value of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) y = ecos x, =?

(1) –sin x ecos x

(2) –sin x esin x
(3) esin x
(4) e–sin x

32) Find minimum value of y is:

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 4
(4) 16

33) Cos (–240°)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Convert the angle from 780° to radian :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Differentiation of with respect to x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with constant speed V. The change in velocity in

moving P to Q is :-

(1) 2V cos 40°

(2) 2V sin (40°)
(3) 2V cos 20°
(4) 2V sin (20°)

37) At what angle should the two forces 2P and P act so that the resultant force is P :-
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

38) How many minimum number of coplanar vectors having different magnitudes can be added to
give zero resultant:-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

39) In a triangle, shown in figure:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) The resultant of two forces of 10N and 5N can never be:-

(1) 12 N
(2) 5N
(3) 10 N
(4) 4N

41) If the magnitudes of vectors , and are 12,5 and 13 units respectively and
the angle between vectors and is:-

(1) 0
(2) π
(3) π/2
(4) π/4

42) The following sets of three forces acts on a body whose resultant cannot be zero :

(1) 10, 10, 10

(2) 10, 10, 20
(3) 10, 20, 23
(4) 10, 20, 40

43) Find resultant vector:-

(1)
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4)

44) The resultant of the vectors and is perpendicular to the vector and its magnitude is equal
to half the magnitude of vector . The angle between and is:-

(1) 120°
(2) 150°
(3) 135°
(4) None of these

45) If then the angle between & is:-

(1) 0

(2)
rad

(3)
rad
(4) π rad

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion (A) The ionic size of Mg2+ > Al3+. Reason (R) In isoelectronic species, greater the
nuclear charge, less is the size.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

2) Correct statements among the following is/are :-

(1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic

(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonding atoms
(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide
(4) None of these are incorrect
3) 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbital are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is

(1) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

(2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(3) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(4) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

4) The relation, ΔHEG = –EA does not hold good for :-

(1) Chlorine
(2) Oxygen
(3) Neon
(4) Fluorine

5) Among the following oxides, which is least acidic :-

(1) B2O3
(2) CO2
(3) NO2
(4) None of these

6) The electronic configuration of four elements are:-

(a) [Xe]6s1 (b) [Xe]4f14 5d1 6s2
2 10 5
(c) [Ar]4s 3d 4p (d) [Ar]3d7 4s2
Which one of the following statements about these elements is not correct ?

(1) a is a strong reducing agent

(2) b is a d-block element
(3) c has high electron affinity
(4) d shows variable oxidation state

7) 4d45s2 configuration belongs to which group?

(1) IIA
(2) VIB
(3) IA
(4) None of the above

8) The second electron gain enthalpies (in kJ/mol) of oxygen and sulphur respectively are

(1) –780, + 590

(2) –590, +780
(3) +590, +780
(4) +780, +590

9) Select correct order of bond polarity

(1) N—H > P—H > As—H > Sb—H
(2) C—H bond in CH4 < C—H bond in CH2F2
(3) N—H > O— H > F — H
(4) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

10) Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide ?

(1) Sr(OH)2
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2

11) Choose correct statement :

(i) IP does not depend upon electron - electron repulsion.
(ii) IP is affected by the attraction of electron towards nucleus.
(iii) The Zeff will always less than nuclear charge for multi electron species.
(iv) Generally, shielding is much more effective when orbitals in inner shell are partially filled.

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) ii, iv

12) The sizes of following species increase in the order:

(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < Al

(2) F– < Al < Na+ < Mg2+
(3) Al < Mg2+ < F– < Na+
(4) Na+ < Al < F– < Mg2+

13) Correct increasing order of metallic character is :-

(1) Si < P < S

(2) As < P < N
(3) Al < Ge < As
(4) Br < Se < As

14) Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity.

N, O, F, C, Si
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Si < C < N < O < F

(2) Si < C < O < N < F
(3) O < F < N < C < Si
(4) F < O < N < C < Si
15) Match List-I with List-II and select correct code for your answer :-

List-I List-II
(Properties) (Decreasing order)

(P) Ionisation energy (i) Ne > Na+

(Q) Atomic radius (ii) S>O

(R) Electronegativity (iii) Hf > Zr

Electron gain enthalpy

(S) (iv) O>N
(Magnitude only)
(1) P - i ; Q - ii ; R - iii ; S - iv
(2) P - i ; Q - iii ; R - iv ; S - ii
(3) P - iv ; Q - ii ; R - i ; S - iii
(4) P - iii ; Q - i ; R - iv ; S - ii

16) The number of elements in longest group and shortest period are respectively ?

(1) 7,18
(2) 32, 32
(3) 32, 8
(4) 32, 2

17) Which of the following bond is maximum polar?

(1) H–F
(2) H–Br
(3) H–Cl
(4) H–I

18) Match the column :-

Column I Column II

Natural transuranic
(A) (P) Na, Mg
element

(B) d-block element (Q) Be, Al

Diagonally related
(C) (R) Fe, Co
elements

(D) Typical elements (S) Np, Pu

Correct code is :-

A B C D
(1) R P S Q
(2) S R Q P
(3) S R P Q
(4) R S Q P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Lanthanoids are :-

(1) 14 elements in the seventh period (Atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sub level
(2) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(3) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(4) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no=58 to 71) that are filling 4 f sublevel

20) In given graph which represents an alkali metal with least atomic number

(1) X
(2) T
(3) S
(4) P

21) Electronic configurations are :-

A = 1s22s22p1, B = 1s22s22p63s13p2,
C = 1s22s12p1, D = 1s22s22p53s1
then which among these will belong to the same group in the periodic table ?

(1) A & B
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

22) Atomic number 34 belongs to :-

(1) 3rd period, 15 group, p block

(2) 4th period, 16 group, p block
(3) 4th period, 2 group, s block
(4) 5th period, 12 group, d block

23) Which of the following is not a representative element :-

(1) Tellurium
(2) Tantalum
(3) Thallium
(4) Astatine

24) Select the correct order of I.E ?

(1) Cu > Zn
(2) Li+ > He > Be2+
(3) N < O > F
(4) K+ > Cu+ > Cu > K

25) Which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Ionisation potential order : F– < Cl–

(2) Electron Affinity order : F < Cl
(3) Ionisation potential order : O– < S–
(4) Electronegatively order : sp3 > sp (for carbon atom)

26) The elements having maximum EA, EN will be :-

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, Br
(3) Cl, F
(4) He, Cl

27) If each orbital can hold maximum 3e– then total number of elements in 4th period will be :-

(1) 18
(2) 32
(3) 54
(4) 27

28) Select the correct order of IP :-

(1) Ne+ < Ne

(2) Al3+ > Al+ > Al2+
(3) K+ > Cl–
(4) Cu+ > Cu2+

29) The atomic number of element having maximum number of unpaired e– in 3p sub shell :-

(1) 33
(2) 15
(3) 11
(4) 27
30) Which is correct order of EN :-

(1) P > Si
(2) C > N
(3) C > Br
(4) B > I

31) Incorrect order of IP :-

(1) Pb > Sn
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Select the correct statements about element "Uue" :-

(1) It is chalcogen
(2) Formula of its oxide is M2O
(3) It is alkaline earth metal
(4) None of these

33) Only liquid non-metal in periodic table is :-

(1) Cl
(2) Br
(3) Hg
(4) Ga

34) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) In Th, last electron enter in d-subshell but still it is f-block element.
(2) EN of S > C
(3) IP can be lower than EA of an element
(4) None of these

35) Incorrect match of general electronic configuration ?

(1) (n – 2) f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2 = f-block elements

(2) ns1–2 = s-Block elements
(3) ns2 np1–6= P-block elements
(4) (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d1–10 ns2 = d-Block elements

36) In which of the following compounds chromium (Cr) shows minimum radius ?

(1) CrO
(2) Cr2O3
(3) CrO3
(4) None

37) Which of the following process involves maximum energy ?

(1) K+ → K+2 + e
(2) Na+ → Na+2 + e
(3) Li+ → Li+2 + e
(4) Be+2 → Be+3 + e

38)

The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configuration of element is :-

(I) 1s22s22p63s23p5 (II) 1s22s22p3
(III) 1s22s22p5 (IV) 1s22p22p63s1

(1) II < IV < III < I

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) IV < III < II < I

39)

In which of the following zeff increases by 0.65:-

(1) C→O
(2) Na→K
(3) Ti→Zn
(4) C→N

40) Select the correct order of radius :-

(1) Ti4+ < Mn7+

(2) Cr+6 > Cr3+
(3) K+ > Cl–
(4) P3+ > P5+

41) Find exothermic reaction :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4) O +
(g)

42) Select incorrect order :-

(1) H+ > F– (Size)
(2) Cs > Ca (Electropositive)
(3) ns np2 1–5
(Normal elements)
(4) (n–1)d 1–10
ns0,1,2 (d-block elements)

43) Total number of gaseous element in periodic table is :-

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 13

44) First four I.P values of an element are 19, 190, 230 and 260 ev/atom. Then element is :-

(1) Li
(2) Al
(3) F
(4) Na

45) Select the correct order of size for :

Cl–, Cl, Na+, Br–, Li+

(1) Br– > Cl > Cl– > Na+ > Li+

(2) Cl– > Br– > Cl > Na+ > Li+
(3) Br– > Na+ > Cl– > Cl > Li+
(4) Br– > Cl– > Cl > Na+ > Li+

BIOLOGY

1) The group of heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking cell wall will be.

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

2) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are bounded by membrane.
Statement II : Organisation of prokaryotic cells is fundamentally similar.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
3) What is/are true regarding mesosomes ?

These are special membranous structure which is formed by extensions of plasma membrane
(1)
into the cell
(2) They may be present in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae
(3) They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication, respiration and secretion processes.
(4) All of the above

4) According to R.H. Whittaker, Chlorella is placed under the kingdom of ?

(1) Plantae
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Mycota

5) In Carl Woese classification, how many kingdom have prokaryotic organisms ?

(1) Two kingdom

(2) One kingdom
(3) Three kingdom
(4) Prokaryotic organism are placed in one domain not in kingdom

6) Identify the given diagram and select the correct answer.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
7) Match the given below figure

Column-I Column-II

1. a. Vibria

2. b. Spirilla

3. c. Cocci

4. d. Bacilli

(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

8) Assertion (A) : Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances.

Reason (R) : Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesized ATP from the energy released
during oxidation of inorganic substances.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) Assertion : Cell envelope in bacteria acts as single protective unit.

Reason : Cell envelope is chemically complex, tightly bound three layered structure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

10) The vast majority of bacteria are :

(1) Photoautotrophic
(2) Chemoautotrophic
(3) Heterotrophic
(4) Holozoic

11) Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in :

(1) Making curd from milk

(2) Production of antibiotics
(3) Fixing nitrogen in legume
(4) All of the above

12) Which set of disease is caused by bacteria ?

(1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus, citrus canker

(2) Cholera, AIDS, tetanus, kuru
(3) Typhoid, tetanus, Influenza, Rabies
(4) Rabies, AIDS, Mumps, Kuru

13) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes – Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid – Bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella – Help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule – Help in locomotion

14) Read the following statements :

(i) The bacterial structure is very simple but are complex in behaviour
(ii) Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic
diversity
(iii) Some of the bacteria are autotrophic
(iv) Most of the bacteria are heterotrophic
(v) Bacteria possess cell wall
How many of the above statements are not incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

15) Choose the incorrect statement from following :-

(1) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis

(2) Pili do not play a role in motility
(3) Inclusion bodies are bounded by membrane
(4) Cell wall prevent the bacterium from bursting and collapsing

16)

If you remove the fimbriae from a bacterial cell, which of the following would you expect to happen?
(1) The bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue
(2) The bacteria could no longer swim
(3) Transportation of molecules across the membrane would stop
(4) The shape of bacteria would change

17) A bacterial cell undergoes binary fission after every minute. At this rate it taken 1 hour to fill a
glass of bacterial cells. In how much time, the glass will be half filled by bacterial cells :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 45 minutes
(3) 15 minutes
(4) 59 minutes

18) Statement I: Cyanobacteria are unicellular organisms and never form colonial structures.
Statement II: As they are good indicators of water pollution, they do not grow in polluted water
bodies.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

19) Select correct statement regarding sole members of the kingdom Monera
i. Most abundant micro organisms
ii. Not found in extreme habitats
iii. Cellwall absent in all members
iv. Simple in structure but complex in behaviour
v. Show most extensive metabolic diversity

(1) i, iv & v
(2) ii, iii & v
(3) i, ii & iv
(4) i, iii & v

20) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals ?

(1) Halophiles
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Thermus aquaticus
(4) Methanogens

21) What is the role of heterocyst in cyanobacteria ?

(1) They carry out photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation

(2) They carry out only nitrogen fixation
(3) They carry out only photosynthesis
(4) They oxidize inorganic substances to obtain energy

22) Assertion : Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic autotrophs.

Reason : Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a and b similar to green plants.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

23) Which of the following option is incorrect with respect to mycoplasma.

(1) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen

(2) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals & plants
(3) Completely lack cell wall & cell membrane
(4) Mycoplasma are smallest living cell

24) Bacterial reproduce mainly by :-

(1) Endospores formation

(2) Zoospores formation
(3) Binary fission
(4) Sexual method

25) Study the following table carefully and select the correct option for 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Characters Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia

Cell type 1 Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Present
Cell wall 2 Present Present Absent
in some
Nuclear
Absent Present Present Present 3
membrane
Tissue/
Body Tissue/
Cellular Cellular 4 organ/organ
organisation organ
systm

1 2 3 4
(1) Prokaryotic Absent Absent Unicellular
(2) Prokaryotic Present Present Multicellular
(3) Eukaryotic Present Present Multicellular
(4) Eukaryotic Absent Absent Unicellular
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) How many structures are associated with bacterial cell ?

(a) Golgi body
(b) Flagella
(c) Polysome
(d) Naked genetic material
(e) Fimbriae
(f) Cellulosic cell wall
(g) Endomembrane system
(h) Chromatophores
(i) Chloroplast

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

27)

How many of the followings are membranous extensions?

Polysomes, Nucleoid, Chromatophore, Cell wall, Mesosomes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Read the following statement and select the incorrect statement :–

(1) Though the bacteria structure is very simple, they are very complex in behavior.
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen,
(2)
phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
(3) Majority of the heterotrophic bacteria are important decomposers.
(4) All autotrophic bacteria show oxygenic photosynthesis

29) Identify the labelled A, B, C and D in the following figure.

(1) A–Plasma membrane, B–Cell wall, C–RNA, D–Spore formation

(2) A–Plasma membrane, B–Mucilaginous sheath, C–DNA, D–Transformation
(3) A–Mucilaginous sheath, B–Cell membrane, C–RNA, D–Conjugation
(4) A–Cell wall, B–Cell membrane, C–DNA, D–Binary fission

30) Find the incorrect statement :-

(1) Bacteria are the sole members of the kingdom monera

(2) Bacteria occur almost every where.
(3) Bacteria are most abundant micro organisms
(4) Bacteria are not able to survive in extreme habitats

31) Assertion: Bacteria reproduce mainly by binary fission.

Reason: Under unfavourable condition they produce spores.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Chemoautotrophic bacteria that plays important role in nitrogen metabolism :-

(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Nitrosomonas
(3) Rhodospirillum
(4) Clostridium

33)

Select the incorrect statement regarding cyanobacteria?

(i) Perform anoxygenic photosynthesis
(ii) Photosynthetic pigments are attached to chromatophores
(iii) Gas vacuole is present in BGA

(iv) Nostoc is the only filamentous BGA

(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

34)

Read the following statements regarding methanogens and select the correct option :-
(i) They are included in the group Archaebacteria
(ii) They are responsible for the production of biogas in gobar gas plants.
(iii) They live in hot sulphur springs.

(iv) They are strictly anaerobic

(1) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(4) All statements are correct

35)

Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(1) Are the most abundant kind of bacteria
(2) Liberate oxygen in their surroundings
(3) Reduce organic compounds to CO2 and H2O
(4) Are important in recycling of mineral nutrients

36)

Which of the following bacterial structure is similar to eukaryotic mitochondria ?

(1) Plasmid
(2) Mesosome
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Periplasmic space

37) Statement-1: Bacteria under unfavourable conditions, produce spores. Statement-2: Chlorela,
typhoid, tetanus are well known diseases cause by same bacteria.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

38) In five kingdom system bacteria are included in monera but acellular organism like viruses and
viroids, and lichens are included in :-

(1) Kingdom - Fungi

(2) Kingdom - Animalia
(3) Kingdom - Protista
(4) In no kingdom

39) Both Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are autotrophic and both have cell wall whereas both
Paramoecium and Amoeba are heterotrophic and both lack cell wall, then why R.H. Whittaker place
all of them under the same kingdom ?

(1) Because all of them are single celled organisms.

(2) Because all of them have nuclear membrane and other membrane bound cell organelles
(3) Because all of them have cell membrane
(4) Both (1) & (2)

40) Select true statements from the followings :-

(i) Aristotle used morphological characters to classify plants.
(ii) Two kingdom classification was proposed by Linnaeus.
(iii) Whittaker used Habitat information in his five kingdom classification.
(iv) Archaebacteria can live under extreme conditions.

(1) (i) & (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) & (iv)

41) What is/are demerit(s) of two kingdom system of classification?

(1) It did not distinguish prokaryotes and eukaryotes

(2) It did not distinguish unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) It did not separate photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms
(4) All of the above

42) Small, extra nuclear, non essential, circular, double stranded, naked DNA without vital gene is :-

(1) Plastid
(2) Genophore
(3) Episome
(4) Plasmid

43) Which of the following option is incorrect about bacterial pili :-

(1) They are made up of pilin protein

(2) They are shorter than flagella
(3) They help in conjugation
(4) They play an important role in movement

44) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. various layers of cell envelope in bacterial cells.

(1) The outermost layer determines the shape of cells

(2) Glycocalyx is followed by cell wall
(3) Glycocalyx can be seen either in the form of slime layer or capsule in different types of bacteria
(4) Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan

45) Assertion : Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh habitats.

Reason : Archaebacteria survive in extreme conditions due to the presence of peptidoglycan in their
cell wall.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

46)

Type of fertilization in sponges is :

(1) Self, internal

(2) Cross, internal
(3) Cross, external
(4) Self, external

47) Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe

(1) The number of invaginations during embryonic development

(2) The number of heads during embryonic development
(3) The number of germinal layers during embryonic development
(4) The number of cell types during development

48) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

49) Metameric segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinoderms
(3) Aschelminthes, Arthropoda, Echinoderms
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

50) In which phylum the cells performing the same function are arranged into tissues for the first
time ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

51) In sponges which cells lined the spongocoel and the canals ?

(1) Porocytes
(2) Pinacocytes
(3) Choanocytes
(4) Archeocytes

52) Triploblastic, acoelomate exhibiting bilateral symmetry and reproducing both asexually and
sexually with parasitic forms." The Above description belong to animal of phylum

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Cnidaria
53) Set of Animals with open circulatory system, adult with radial symmetry and coelomate
respectively are

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata
(4) Arthropoda, Echinodermata, Chordata

54) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata ? (A) They are
aquatic mostly marine, sessile or free swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(B) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity.
(C) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(D) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of these

55) The radial symmetry is observed in

I. Platyhelminthes
II. Coelenterates
III. Aschelminthes
IV. Annelids
V. Echinoderms

(1) I, II, III and V

(2) II, III and I
(3) I, III and IV
(4) II and V

56) Which of the following phylum have "Tube within tube" body plan ?>

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Nemathelminthes

57) Read following statement carefully with regards to 'sea walnut' :-

"The body of sea walnut bears ....A.... external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in ....B....
Select the correct option which correctly fills up the both blanks [A] and [B] respectively ?

(1) Eight, digestion

(2) Eight, locomotion
(3) Six, locomotion
(4) Six, digestion
58) Match list 'A' and List 'B' correctly and find your answer from the code given below :-

List-A List-B
(Animal) (Common name)

(i) Physalia (A) Brain coral

(ii) (B)
Pennatula Sea fan

(iii)
Gorgonia (C) Sea pen

(iv) Meandrina (D) Portuguese

man of war
(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D
(2) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
(4) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-B

59) Functions of cnidoblast cells is :-

(1) used in excretion

(2) Help in osmoregulation
(3) Helps in anchorage, defence and capture of prey
(4) Helps in food storage

60) Assertion : In Hydra when any plane passing through the centre does not divide the body into
equal halves.
Reason : Hydra is asymmetrical animal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Match the following list of animals with their level of organisation :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Organ level (i) Pheretima

(B) Cellular level (ii) Fasciola

(C) Tissue level (iii) Spongilla

(D) Organ system level (iv) Obelia

Choose the correct match showing division of labour with animal example :-
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

62) Body wall of sponges encloses a large central cavity called __ with small hollow canals:-

(1) Spongocoel
(2) Coelenteron
(3) Archenteron
(4) All of the above

63) Path followed by water in sponges is

(1) Ostia ➔ Spongocoel ➔ Osculum

(2) Osculum ➔ Spongocoel ➔ Osculum
(3) Ostia ➔ Spongocoel ➔ Ostia
(4) Spongocoel ➔ Ostia ➔ Osculum

64) Which of the following is not a feature of ctenophores?

(1) Radial symmetry

(2) Having comb plates
(3) Exclusively fresh water
(4) Bioluminescence

65) Water transport system of poriferans doesn't perform :

(1) Food gathering

(2) Circulation of Blood
(3) Removal of waste
(4) All of these

66) Digestive system is absent in :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

67) Identify a, b, c, d and choose correct option :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Free
(1) Sexual Sessile Asexual
swimming

Free
(2) Sessile Asexual Sexual
swimming

Free
(3) Sessile Sexual Asexual
swimming

Free
(4) Asexual Sessile Sexual
swimming
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Directions : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of

reason. Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion :- All triploblastic animals are coelomates.
Reason :- All coelomate animals show metamerism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

69) Assertion : The skeleton of sponges is made up of spicules.

Reason : Supportive spicules line the spongocoel

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Assertion : Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system.

Reason : Their digestive system has only a single opening to the outside of the body that serves as
both mouth and anus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) Assertion : Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side
during embryonic development of chordates.
Reason : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrate.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

72) Assertion : Members of platyhelminthese are called flat worms.

Reason : They have dorso-ventrally flattened body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) Read the following statements carefully :-

"Digestive system has only a single opening to the outside of the body that serves as both mouth and
anus and is hence called A and it is found in B . "
In above statement, what is A and B ?

A - Incomplete digestive system

(1)
B - Platyhelminthes
A - Incomplete digestive system
(2)
B - Aschelmintles
A - Complete digestive system
(3)
B - Annelida
A - Complete digestive system
(4)
B - Platyhelminthes

74) Assertion : Hookworms are Pseudocoelomate organisms.

Reason : Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in ectoderm and endoderm in
pseudocoelomates.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

75) Assertion: Member of Porifera are commonly known as sponges.

Reason: In the body of Porifera minute pores are present.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Assertion:- Platyhelminthes are mostly endoparasites.

Reason:- These parasitic form lives inside body of host with help of hooks and suckers.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

77) Statement - I : In open circulation blood is pumped out of heart and the cell and tissues are
directly bathed in it.
Statement - II : In close circulation blood is circulated through series of vessles of varying
diameters.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

78) Two basic forms of Coelenterates (Obelia) are given. Which option is correct ? (A) (B)

(1) (A) and (B) are free swimming

(2) (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually
(3) (A) is medusa and (B) is polyp
(4) (A) and (B) are sessile
79) The above structure doesn't helps a Cnidarian in which of the following given
activities ?
(A) Attachment to substratum
(B) Reproduction
(C) Protection from predator
(D) Food Gathering

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) C, D
(3) B only
(4) B, C, D

80) Following are two categories of symmetry and germ layer given below. Choose an appropriate

answer which belongs to the figures given :

Category Symmetry Germ layer Phylum

(1) A Radial Diploblastic Platyhelminthes

(2) B Bilateral Triploblastic Platyhelminthes

(3) A Bilateral Diploblastic Colenterata

(4) B Radial Triploblastic Annelida

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Identify the types of animals w.r.t. the presence or absence of body cavities :
 A B C

(1) Eucoelomate Pseudocoelomate Acoelomate

(2) Acoelomate Eucoelomate Pseudocoelomate

(3) Acoelomate Pseudocoelomate Eucoelomate

(4) Pseudocoelomate Eucoelomate Acoelomate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Identify the labelled structure in the given figures:

(1) A – Mesoglea, B – Ectoderm, C – Mesoderm, D – Endoderm

(2) A – Mesoderm, B – Ectoderm, C – Mesoglea, D – Endoderm
(3) A – Endoderm, B – Mesoglea, C – Mesoderm, D – Ectoderm
(4) A – Ectoderm, B – Endoderm, C – Mesoglea, D – Mesoderm

83) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct sequence :-

(1) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q

(2) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(4) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p

84) Correctly identify the animals which fall in categories of coelomates, pseudocoelomates and
acoelomates:-

Coelomates Pseudocoelomates Acoelomates

Ascheliminthes
Chordates
(1) annelida Platyhelminthes
hemichordates
mollusca
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, Chordates,
(2)
Annelida mollusca hemichordates
Chordates, Mollusca,
(3) Annelida
hemichordates platyhelminthes
Annelida,
arthropoda,
(4) mollusca, Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
echinodermata,
chordates
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Which of the following is correctly matched with its characters?

Animal Phylum Character

(1) Planaria Platyhelminthes Parasite
(2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Bioluminiscence
(3) Adamsia Annelida Choanocyte
(4) Pheretima Aschelminthes Pseudocoelom
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the related explanation and select the right option

for the two together :-

Symmetry Explanation

Any plane that passes through the centre does not

(1) Asymmetrical
divide them equal halves

The body can be divided into identical left and right

(2) Radial
halves in only one plane

Any plane pass through the central axis of the

(3) Bilateral
body divides the organism into two identical halves
 The body can be divided into identical left and right
(4) Bilateral
halves in only one plane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Statement-I : The body cavity which is lined by endoderm is called coelom
Statement-II : Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomate.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

88) Statement-I :- Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod like structure. Statement-II :-

Notochord is found in chordata and hemichordata.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

89) Read the following statements (A–D)

(A) Ctenophores are commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies.
(B) Ctenophores are mostly marine.
(C) Ctenophores have comb plates which help in excretion.
(D) In Ctenophores - fertilisation is external with indirect development
How many of the above statement are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

90) Select the correct statements :-

A. Platyhelminthes have dorso-ventrally flattened body.
B. Ctenophore have bilateral symmetry
C. In tapeworm fertilization is internal development is indirect.
D. Cetophores reproduce sexually with indirect development
E. In sponges, digestion is extracellular.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A and E only
(4) B and D only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

given x = t2
differentiation [Link] t

y = mx(by comparing)

3)

–2ax sin (ax2 + b)

4)

At x = 0, y = 2

5)

6)

m = -ve, c = +ve
7) = area of y-x graph.

8) Explain Question:
The problem asks for the time t at which a ball reaches its maximum height, given its position-
time equation: h = 20t – 10t2.

Concept:
At the maximum height, the vertical velocity of the ball becomes zero. Since velocity is the rate

of change of height with respect to time we find the time by setting the derivative
of the height equation to zero.

Calculation:

• Equation: h = 20t – 10t2

• Differentiate with respect to = 20(1) – 10(2t) = 20 – 20t

• Set velocity to zero: 20 – 20t = 0
• Solve for t: 20t = 20 → t = 1s

Final Answer: option (4)

9) Explain Question:
Calculate the straight-line distance between two points in three-dimensional space.

Concept:
Distance formula in 3D Cartesian coordinates.

Solution:
(Step-by-step)
Point A (x1, y1, z1) = (1, 2, 3)
Point B (x2, y2, z2) = (4, 5, 2)

Distance d =

d=

Final answer: Option (4)

10) Explain the question : In this question, we have to find the sum of the first 20 terms of
the series of natural numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ..... 20
Concept : This question is based on arithmetic progression (A.P.)
Solution : Sum of first 'n' natural numbers

⇒ n = number of terms = 20
∴
Final answer : 3

11)

Explain Question:
Identify the correct graphical representation for a decreasing exponential function.

Concept:
Characteristics of the exponential decay function y = Ae–kx.

Solution:
(Step-by-step)
Given equation y = 5e–x
0
At = 0: y = 5e = 5.1 = 5
The graph must start at (0, 5) on the y-axis.
As x increases toward infinity:
y = 5e–x = 5/ex = > As x ,y 0
This represents an exponential curve that approaches the x-axis asymptotically but never
crosses it.
Graph 1 correctly shows this behavior.

Final answer: Option (1)

12)

13)

we know that ⇒

=
14) Area required = are PQRS

Area required =

y = x2

square unit

15)
= 12x2 + 6x – 7

16) ------(1)

------(2)

17)
=

=1– (0.01)
= 1.005

18)

2ωcos(ωx + ϕ)

19) ∵ y = 4x2

slope
at x = 2
slope = 8 × 2 = 16

20) A = πr2

= 1 cm2/s

21) when θ is very small; sin θ θ ∴ sin 2° =

22) Explain Question:

The question asks to match the columns with correct Affirmations.

Concept:
Mixed Differentiation + integration.

Solution:

(P)
y = 2x + 3
At x = 0 ⇒ y = 3

(Q)
y = 3 cosx + 4 sinx

(R)

(S)

y=1

Final Answer: option(3)

23)

y = x ln x

= 1 + lnx

24)

tan 75° = tan (45° + 30°)

25)

Explain Question : The equation of a circle is given as

x2 + y2 = 25
We need to find the circumference (C) of this circle.
Concept :
(1) The equation of a circle.
(2) The circumference of a circle.
Formula :
(1) x2 + y2 = a2
(2) C = 2πa
Solution :
The given equation of the circle -
x2 + y2 = 25
x2 + y2 = (5)2 ........ (i)
The equation of a circle , whose centre is at origin (0, 0) & radius is 'a' units-
x2 + y2 = a2 ........ (ii)
On comparing equations (i) & (ii), we get-
Radius ⇒ a = 5 units
Circumference ⇒ C = 2πa = 2π(5) = 10π units
Final answer : 1

26)
(1 + 0.01)5 = 1 + 5(0.01)
= 1.05

27) Slope = ⇒m= =

28)

Theory based
29)

y = 2x2 – 8x + 5

= 4x – 8 = 0 ⇒ x = 2

So x = 2 y is min
ymin = 2(2)2 – 8 (2) + 5
= –3

30)

Explain the Question : In this question we have to find the value of

Concept : This question is based on definite integration.

Solution :

∴ (∵ GMm is constant)

= GMm

= GMm
Final answer : 1

31)

32)

33)

cos(-240) = cos240 = cos(180+60) = -cos60 =

34)

35)
36)

37)

from R2 = A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ
OP2 = 4P2 + 2P2 + 2.2P. Pcosθ
cosθ = 1/ = cos45°
θ = 45°

38)

Theory based

39)

Theory Based

40)

10 - 5 < R < 10 + 5
⇒ 5 < R < 15

41)

122 + 52 + 2 x 12 x 5cosθ = 132

cosθ = 0
θ = 90°

42)

Theory based

43)

R = 2 x 10 x cos(120/2) = 10

44)
OAB = 180° - 30° = 150°

45) If
 then angle between and is 120° 'or' radian.

CHEMISTRY

46) Theory based

47) Concept

48)

Question Explanation: Use (n + ℓ) rule to compare energies of orbitals.

Concept: Higher (n + ℓ) → higher energy; if equal, higher n → higher energy

Solution:

4d → n = 4, ℓ = 2 → (n + ℓ) = 6
5p → n = 5, ℓ = 1 → (n + ℓ) = 6
5f → n = 5, ℓ = 3 → (n + ℓ) = 8
6p → n = 6, ℓ = 1 → (n + ℓ) = 7

Order (increasing energy): 4d < 5p < 6p < 5f

So decreasing energy: 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

Final Answer: Option (2)

49) For nobles gas EA = 0 whereas ΔHEG is positive

50) L → R Acidic character ↑ (for oxides)

51)

a → s-block element
b → d-block element
c → p-block element (more non-metallic nature)
d → d-block element

52)

5s² 4d4
Group number = (n – 1)de¯ + (ns)e¯ (for d-block)
= 4 + 2 = 6th group ⇒ (VI - B)

53) Successive electron gain enthalpies is always positive.

O– has higher positive value of electron gain enthalpy than S–m because more energy required
to overcome the electronic repulsion between small sized O– ion and the incoming electron.

54) Polarity ∝ |ΔEN|

(a)
(b) EN of carbon atom in CH2F2 > CH4 due to more positive charge on carbon atom in CH2F2.

(c)

(d)

55) Be(OH)2 is an amphoteric hydroxide rest all are basic hydroxides

56)

Explanation of the question – In this ques I.P Zeff, shelter is asked

Concept – different parametric are used

Calculation – P is affected by of e– toadies i.e. Zeff
Zeff is always lens than Z = Zeff = Z- σ

57)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Mg2+, Na+ and F– are isoelectronic ions (having two filled shells), therefore, their sizes increase
in the order: Mg2+ < Na+ < F–. Al belongs to the 3rd period and also does not carry any charge.
Therefore, it has the largest size. Thus, the overall sizes increase in the order: Mg2+ < Na+ < F–
< Al
Final Answer : (1)

58) Br < Se < As

59) EN order (Pauling scale value)

Si < C < N < O < F
1.8 < 2.5 < 3.0 < 3.5 < 4

60)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
[P] Ionisation energy → [iii] HF > Zr [I.E.]
 [Q] Radii → [i] Ne > Na+
[R] Electronegativity → [iv] O > N
[S] Electron gain enthalpy → [ii] S > O
↓
[More space]
Final Answer : (4)

61)

Longest grooup → 3rd → number of element → 32

shortest period → 1st → number of element → 2

62)

Bond polarity ∝ ΔEN

∴ H-F is most polar bond

63) Explanation :- The question asks to match elements with their classifications: natural
transuranic, d-block, diagonally related, and typical elements, tasting table knowledge.
Concept- :-
• Natural transuranic elements (A) like Neptunium (Np) and Plutonium (Pu) match with (S).
• d-block elements (B) such as lron (Fe) and Cobalt (Co) correspond to (R).
• Diagonally related elements (C) like Beryllium (Be) and Aluminium (Al) match with (Q).
• Typical elements (D) such as sodium (Na) and Magnesium (Mg) correspond to (P).
• Therefore, the correct match is A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P, which corresponds to option (2)
Answer Option (2)

64)

(58–71) ⇒ 6th period ⇒ 4f

65)

Explain the Question : Identify the alkali metal with the smallest atomic number from the
graph.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy Trends.
Solution : The graph plots ionization energy versus atomic number. Alkali metals have the
lowest ionization energies in their periods, corresponding to the troughs (S and Q). S has a
lower atomic number.
Final answer : 3

66)

The electronic configuration of B is in excited state.

67) Question Explanation: To select correct period, group and block for atomic number 34.
 Concept: Identification of group, block and period.
Solution:
Atomic number 34 is se.
se = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10,4s2, 4p2
Period No. = 4, P-block (last electron enters in p-subshell)
Group ⇒ for p-block element = nth shell electron + 10 group No = 6 + 10 = 16
Final Answer: Option (2)

68) Question Explanation: Identify which element is not in the s-block or p-block.
Concept: Representative Elements
Solution: Representative elements belong to the s and p-blocks except noble gases. Tantalum
(Ta) is a d-block element, also known as a transition metal, while the others are p-block
elements.
Final Answer: Option (2)

69)

Explain the Question : Identify the correct order of ionization energy among the choices.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy.
Solution : K+ has the highest ionization energy because it requires breaking a very stable
noble gas configuration. Cations have higher IE than their neutral atoms, and Cu has a higher
IE than K.
Other corrected orders :-
(1) Zn > Cu > Ga ⇒ I.E.
(2) Be+2 > Li+ > He ⇒ I.E.
(3) F > N > O
Final answer : 4

70)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the given
options regarding ionization potential, electron affinity, and electronegativity trends.
Concept: Electron Affinity, lonization Potential, Electronegativity, s-character, Hybridization
Solution:

A. Statement 1 & 3: lonization potential of Cl– and S– is higher than F– and O– because Cl and S
have higher electron affinities than F and O (due to less inter-electronic repulsion in 3p
orbitals).
B. Statement 2: Correct. Cl has a higher electron affinity than F.
C. Statement 4: Incorrect. Electronegativity increases with % s-character.
A. sp (50% s) > sp2 (33.3% s) > sp3 (25% s).
B. Therefore, sp carbon is more electronegative than sp3 carbon.

Final Answer: Option (4)

71) Fact

72)
Explanation the Question : Calculate elements in the 4th period if each orbital holds 3
electrons.
Concept: This question is based on electron Orbitals
Solution: The 4th period fills the 4s, 3d, and 4p subshells, which have a total of 1, 5, and 3
orbitals, respectively (9 orbitals total). If each orbital holds 3 electrons, the period would
contain 9 × 3 = 27 elements.
Final Answer: 4

73)

Question Explanation: Find the correct statement comparing ionization potentials of different
species.

Concept: Ionization Potential

Solution: K⁺ and Cl⁻ are isoelectronic, meaning they have the same number of electrons. For
isoelectronic species, the one with the higher nuclear charge (more protons) has the higher
ionization potential. K⁺ (19 protons) holds its electrons tighter than Cl⁻ (17 protons).

Final Answer: Option (3)

74) It will be 1s22s22p63s23p3 so atomic number 15

75)
Zeff EN

76)

Explain the Question : Identify the incorrect ionization potential order among the given
options.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Potential.
Solution Li+ has a very stable, compact 1s2 (Helium-like) configuration. Removing an electron
from this shell is extremely difficult, making its ionization potential much higher than that of
O+.
Final answer : 3

77) UUe is 119

78) Fact

79)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks us to identify which of the given statements about
electron configurations, electronegativity, ionization energy, and electron affinity are correct.

Underlying Concept: The question involves understanding electron configurations in

elements (specifically for Thorium, Th), comparing electronegativities of elements, and the
relationship between ionization energy (IE) and electron affinity (EA). Electron configuration
dictates how electrons fill atomic orbitals. Electronegativity measures an atom's ability to
attract electrons, and ionization energy and electron affinity are energetic properties
describing electron removal or addition.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on understanding how f-block elements are classified rather than just
looking at the last orbital the electron enters. Use periodic trends to compare electronegativity
(S comes after C in the period). Know the typical energetic trends: ionization energy> electron
affinity.

Common Mistakes: Assuming that the last electron's orbital necessarily defines the block of
the element (Th is f-block despite last electron filling d). Confusing ionization energy and
electron affinity magnitudes.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Statement 3 is incorrect because ionization energy is
always greater in magnitude than electron affinity for an element. Therefore, it is not possible
for ionization energy to be lower than electron affinity.

80)

Explain Question:
Check in correct electronic configuration from given option.

Concept:
Electronic configuration

Solution:
General electronic configuration of blocks is as follows ;
s-block : (n – 1) s2p6 ns1–2
p-block : (n – 1) s2p6 ns2 np1–6
Representative elements : ns1–2 np0–5
(excluding inert gas group)
d-block : (n–1) d1–10 ns0–2
f-block : (n–2) f1–14 (n –1)d0–1 ns2

Final Answer : option (4). (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d1–10 ns2 = d-Block elements

81)

82)

Be+2 → Be+3 + e
83)

Explain the Question : Arrange given electronic configurations by increasing electron

affinity order.
Concept : This question is based on Electron Affinity.
Solution : Nitrogen (II) has the lowest affinity due to its stable half-filled p-orbital. Sodium
(IV) is next. Chlorine (I) has a higher affinity than Fluorine (III) due to less electron repulsion.
(i) 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P5 = Cl
(ii) 1S2, 2S2, 2P3 = N
(iii) 1S2, 2S2, 2P5 = F
(iv) 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S1 = Na
Correct order - N < Na < F < Cl
Final answer : 1

84)
So, σ = 0.35 ; zeff = 0.65

85)

Zeff Size

86) Explain the Question :

Identify the reaction from the options that releases heat (exothermic).
Concept : This question is based on electron gain enthalpy.
Solution :
Adding the first electron to a neutral oxygen atoms releases energy because oxygen has a
strong tendency to accept an electron to achieve a more stable configuration.
Final Answer : 3

87) ns1,2 np0–5 : normal elements

88)

11 gaseous element
(H2, N2, O2, F2, Cl2, He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn)

89) Answer - Option(4 )

Explanation - To determine the correct element based on the given first four ionization
energies (19, 190, 230, and 260 eV/atom), let's analyze the ionization energy trends and
understand the behavior of elements.
Concept- Given that the first ionization energy is 19 eV and the subsequent ionization
energies rise moderately, the element most likely matches Sodium (Na), because sodium has a
relatively low first ionization energy, and a big jump is observed after removing the second
electron.
Conclusion:
 The element is Sodium (Na).

90)

Explanation -

The question asks for the correct arrangement of the given ions and atoms (Cl–, Cl, Na+, Br–,
Li+) in order of their size (radius).

Solution -

Br– is largest (more shells, anion). Cl– is next (anion). Cl is smaller than Cl–. Na+ is smaller
than Na (not listed). Li+ is smallest (fewest electrons, high nuclear charge). Order: Br– > Cl–
> Cl > Na+ > Li+.

Final Answer - Option (4)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Based

92)

NCERT Based

93) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 128, 129

94) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 18, (I Para)

95)

Question Explanation: Question asks about how many kingdoms contain prokaryotic
organisms in Carl Woese's classification.

Concept: Carl Woese's Classification

Solution: Woese's separated prokaryotes into two groups (Archaebacteria & Eubacteria),
prokaryotes occur in two kingdoms.

Final Answer: option (1)

96) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about A and B parts labeling is asked in Nostoc.

Solution :
A → Heterocyst
B → Mucilagenous sheath
The correct answer is option (1)

Final Answer :
Option (1)

97) Question Explanation: Question is asking: Match the bacterial shapes in Column-I with
their correct names in Column-II.
Concept: Morphology of bacteria
Solution:
Cocci → spherical (Fig. 1)

Bacilli → rod-shaped (Fig. 2)

Spirilla → spiral-shaped (Fig. 3)

Vibrio → comma-shaped (Fig. 4)

1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

Final answer: 4

98)

NCERT Based

99) Explain Question : The question is asking about assertion and reason
Concept : This question is based on Monera
Solution : Cell envelope of bacteria made up of 3 layered (glycocalyx, cell wall and cell
membrane) but they perform function of protection in a unity form.
Final answer : Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

100)

NCERT Based

101)

NCERT Based

102)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 20

103) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129

104)

NCERT Based

105) NCERT XIth Pg # 129

106)

NCERT Based

107)

NCERT Based

108)

NCERT Based

109)

NCERT Based

110)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the specific type of microorganisms
responsible for producing methane gas in the digestive system (gut) of ruminant animals.

Concept : This question is based on Archaebacteria.

Solution : "Methanogens are a group of archaebacteria which produce methane in the guts of
ruminant animals."

Final Answer : option (4)

111)

NCERT Based

112) NCERT, Pg. # 13

113) NCERT XIth Pg # 20

114)

NCERT Based
115)

NCERT Based

116)

NCERT Based

117)

NCERT Based

118)

NCERT Based

119) NCERT-XIth Pg # 20, Fig. 2.3

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 18

121) Explaining the Question:

The question presents an Assertion and Reason.

Concept:
Reproduction in bacteria.

Solution:
Assertion - True
Bacteria primarily reproduce through binary fission.

Reason - True
Certain bacteria from spores specially endospores to survive adverse environment

The Reason not correctly explain Assertion. Because both statement independent.

Correct Answer:
Option (2)

122)

Explaining the Question :- Question asks about chemoautotrophic bacteria in nitrogen

metabolism.

Concept:- This question is based on Nutrition in bacteria

Solution :- Nitrifying bacteria are chemoautotrophs

Nitrosomonas oxidizes
Nitrobacter oxidized
Mycobacterium (pathogen) Rhodospirillum (photosynthetic) clostridium (anaerobic N2 fixer)
are not chemoautotrophic nitrifiers.
Final Answer :- 2

123)

NCERT Based

124) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 19, Para-2.1.1

125)

NCERT Based

126)

NCERT Based

127)

Explanation :- The question provides two statements and whether each is true or false.
Concept :- King Moner (Bacteria)
Solution :- Statement -1 True :- because many bacteria can endospores to survive in
unfavorable conditions.
Statement -2 -false :- chlorella is not a disease at all.
Answer :- (3)

128)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. In no kingdom

Acellular organisms like viruses and viroids, and lichens (a symbiotic association between
fungi and algae) do not fit into any of the five kingdoms in Whittaker's system. Therefore, they
are placed outside the kingdoms

129)

NCERT XI Pg. # 21,32

130)

Question Explanation: Question is asking about determining the accuracy of statements

concerning historical classification systems (Aristotle, Linnaeus) and the characteristics of
Archaebacteria.

Concept: This question is based on Historical Classification & Kingdom Monera.

Solution:

A. (i) Aristotle used morphological characters to classify plants.

A. True. Aristotle classified plants into three groups (trees, shrubs, and herbs)
based on simple external morphological characteristics like stem structure and
size.

B. (ii) Two kingdom classification was proposed by Linnaeus.

A. True. Carolus Linnaeus formally established the Two Kingdom Classification,

dividing all life into Plantae and Animalia.

C. (iii) Whittaker used Habitat information in his five kingdom classification.

A. False. Whittaker's system was based on five criteria: Cell Structure, Body
Organization, Mode of Nutrition (primary distinction), Reproduction, and
Phylogenetic Relationships. While organisms adapted to different habitats, habitat
itself was not a primary criterion.

D. (iv) Archaebacteria can live under extreme conditions.

A. True. Archaebacteria (now Domain Archaea) are known for being extremophiles,
thriving in harsh conditions like extreme salinity (halophiles), high temperatures
(thermoacidophiles), and marshy areas (methanogens).

The correct true statements are (i), (ii), and (iv).

Final Answer: Option (3)

131)

NCERT Based

132)

NCERT Based
 133)

Solution :
The correct answer is
4. They play an important role in movement.
Pili are involved in conjugation and attachment, not in movement. Flagella are responsible for
bacterial movement.

134)

NCERT Based

135) NCERT-Pg. # 19, 2.1.1

136) Question Explanation: Type and location of fertilization in sponges.

Concept: Porifera Reproduction.
Solution: Sponges are mostly hermaphrodites, but fertilization is internal (inside the body)
and involves sperm from another individual (cross-fertilization).
Final Answer: 2

137) Question Explanation: Germ layer terminology

Concept: Number of germinal layers
Solution: Diploblastic and triploblastic describe the number of germinal layers (two or three)
present during embryonic development in animals.
Final Answer: The number of germinal layers during embryonic development

138) Explain Question : Metagenesis means

Concept : This question is based on metagenesis
Explanation : In Obelia and other cnidarians, polyps reproduce asexually to form medusae,
while medusae reproduce sexually to form polyps.
Final answer : 1: Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually

139)

Question Explanation: Identify the animal groups that show true (metameric) segmentation.

Concept: The question is based on body segmentation

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

Metameric segmentation means the body is divided into repeated segments externally and
internally.

A. Annelida (e.g., earthworm): show clear metameric segmentation.

B. Arthropoda (e.g., insects): segmentation is present, though often modified.
C. Chordata (e.g., vertebrates): show internal metamerism (e.g., vertebrae, muscles).

Mollusca and Echinodermata do not show true metameric segmentation.

Final answer: Option 4

140) Question Explanation: Phylum with first tissue organization.

Concept: Levels of body organization
Solution: The phylum Porifera (sponges) exhibits a cellular level of organization, where
cells are arranged as loose aggregates without forming true tissues. The next step in
complexity is the tissue level of organization, where cells performing the same function are
arranged into tissues. This is seen for the first time in the phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria),
which includes organisms like jellyfish and corals.
Final Answer: 2

141) Explain Question:Which cells line the spongocoel and the canals?

Concept :This question is based on Porifera.

Solution :The inner surface of spongocoel and canals is lined by collar cells (choanocytes),
which help in creating water current and food capture.

Final answer : 3

142)

Question Explanation: Identifying a phylum based on characteristics.

Concept: Phylum Characteristics.
Solution: The description provided—triploblastic, pseudosegmented, acoelomate, bilateral
symmetry, and both asexual and sexual reproduction with parasitic forms—uniquely describes
the phylum Platyhelminthes. Annelida has a true coelom and true segmentation. Ctenophora
and Cnidaria are diploblastic and radially symmetrical.
Final Answer: Platyhelminthes

143)

Theory based

144)

Question Explanation: Identify which statements correctly describe phylum Coelenterata

(Cnidaria).
Concept: Phylum – Coelenterata
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. (A) Aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or free-swimming, radially symmetrical - True for
cnidarians like Hydra, Aurelia, Obelia.

B. (B) Central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome - Correct
characteristics.
 C. (C) Digestion is both extracellular (in GVC) and intracellular - True for Cnidaria.

D. (D) Examples: Sycon, Spongilla, Euspongia - These are Porifera, not Coelenterata.

So A, B, C are correct; D is incorrect.

Final answer: Option (3)

145) Question Explanation: Identifying phyla with radial symmetry.

Concept: Radial Symmetry in Animals.
Solution: Radial symmetry is a body plan in which any plane passing through the central axis
divides the organism into two identical halves. This type of symmetry is found in Coelenterates
and adult Echinoderms. Other options like Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, and Annelids
exhibit bilateral symmetry.
Final Answer: II and V

146) Question Explanation – Asking which phylum shows a “tube within a tube” body plan.

Concept – Body plan organization in animals

Solution –
A "tube within tube" body plan is a characteristic feature of Nemathelminthes. It consists of a
digestive tract that runs through the length of the body, enclosed within a body wall.

Final Answer – Option 4

147) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 51

148) Question Explanation – The question is asking to correctly match the given animals in
List-A with their common names in List-B.

Concept – Common names and examples of Coelenterates

Solution –

Physalia → Portuguese man of war

Pennatula → Sea pen
Gorgonia → Sea fan
Meandrina → Brain coral

Hence, the correct matching is (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A.

Final Answer – Option [2]

149)

Explain Question: Identify the correct function of cnidoblast cells.

Concept: This question is based on Coelenterata
 Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Cnidoblast cells are specialized stinging cells found in Coelenterates.

B. They contain nematocysts, which help in anchorage, defense, and capturing prey by
discharging a coiled thread that can inject toxins in the target.

Final answer: 3

150) NCERT Pg # 47,49

151) NCERT Page No. # 46, 47, 48

152) [NCERT Pg. 49]

153) [NCERT Pg. 49]

154) [NCERT Pg. 51]

155)

NCERT Based

156) Question Explanation: To identify the organism in which Digestive system is absent.
Concept: Platyhelminthes
Solution: The Tapeworm is a parasitic flatworm (Platyhelminthes) and lacks a digestive
system.
Final Answer: option (1)

157) NCERT, Pg. # 41, 4.2.2

158)

Question Explanation: Determine if all triploblastic animals are coelomates and whether
coelomates always show metamerism.
Concept: Basis of classification - coelom and segmentation
Solution: The correct answer is option 4: (Both A and R false)

A. Assertion (A) → False. Not all triploblastic animals are coelomates. Some are
acoelomates (flatworms) or pseudocoelomates (roundworms).

B. Reason (R) → False. Not all coelomates show metamerism; only certain groups like
annelids, arthropods, and chordates are metameric.

Final answer: Option (4)

 159)

Question Explanation : Check correctness of assertion and reason about sponge skeleton.

Concept : The question is based on Porifera

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. Assertion: True → Skeleton of sponges is made up of spicules.

B. Reason: False → Spicules do not line the spongocoel; they are embedded in the body wall.

Final answer : option 3

160) Explain Question : This question is asking about: Digestive system of Platyhelminthes.
Concept : Animal Kingdom → Phylum Platyhelminthes.
Solution : Platyhelminthes have an incomplete digestive system with a single opening that
works as both mouth and anus. Thus, the assertion is true, and the reason correctly explains it.
Final answer : Option (1)

161) NCERT-XI Pg # 46

162) NCERT Pg # 51

163)

A - Incomplete digestive system

B - Platyhelminthes

164)

Question Explanation: Assertion–Reason for Hookworm as Pseudocoelomate.

Concept: Aschelminthes
Solution: Both the assertion that Hookworms are Pseudocoelomate organisms and the
reason regarding themesoderm as scattered pouches are true, and the reason
correctlyexplains why they are pseudocoelomates.
Final Answer: 1

165) Question Explanation: Assertion/Reason for common name and structure.

Concept: Porifera Common Name/Pores.
Solution: Both the Assertion (members are called sponges) and the Reason (they have minute
pores) are true. The porous nature of their body directly led to their common name, so the
Reason is the correct explanation.
Final Answer: 1

166) NCERT-XI Page No:- 51

 167) Question Explanation: The question asks to determine the correctness of the two
statements regarding types of circulatory systems — open and closed circulation.

Concept: Circulatory pathways

Solution:

A. Statement I: Correct — describes open circulation accurately.

B. Statement II: Correct — describes closed circulation accurately.

Final Answer: Option – 1 → Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

168)

Question Explanation: Identifying forms and life cycle of Obelia.

Concept: Alternation of generation in Obelia.
Solution: The two basic body forms of coelenterates are the polyp (sessile, cylindrical form,
represented by A) and the medusa (free-swimming, umbrella-shaped form, represented by B).
In Obelia, the polyp reproduces asexually to produce the medusa, and the medusa reproduces
sexually to form the polyp, a phenomenon known as alternation of generation.
Final Answer: (A) produce (B) asexually and (B) produce (A) sexually

169) Explain Question: Function of cnidarian structure shown (cnidoblast/cnidocyte).

Concept: This question is based on coelenterata.

Explanation: Cnidarian (like Hydra, jellyfish) passess specialized celll called cnidocytes
containing nematocysts (the structure shown). These help in capturing prey, defense, and
anchorage-but not in reproduction.

Final Answer: (3)

170) Question Explanation: Matching body plan to phylum.

Concept: Symmetry and Germ Layers.
Solution: Figure (A) represents a radially symmetrical, diploblastic animal, typical of
Coelenterata. Figure (B) shows a bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic animal. The cross-
section has three distinct germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm), characteristic of
more complex phyla like Platyhelminthes.
Final Answer: B Bilateral, Triploblastic, Platyhelminthes

171) NCERT XIth (E) Pg.#48

172) NCERT XI Pg # 47, Fig.-4.2, Pg no.-47

 173) NCERT XI, Page # 46

174) NCERT XI Page # 48

175) Question Explanation: The question asks which animal is correctly matched with its
phylum and character.
Concept: The question is based on Animal Kingdom
Solution:

A. (1) Planaria – Platyhelminthes – Parasite → Incorrect match. Planaria is a free‑living flatworm,

not parasitic.
B. (2) Pleurobrachia – Ctenophora – Bioluminescence → Correct match. Pleurobrachia (sea
walnut) is a ctenophore, and ctenophores show bioluminescence.
C. (3) Adamsia – Annelida – Choanocyte → Incorrect match. Adamsia is a cnidarian (sea
anemone), not annelid, and choanocytes are found in sponges.
D. (4) Pheretima – Aschelminthes – Pseudocoelom → Incorrect match. Pheretima (earthworm)
belongs to Annelida, not Aschelminthes.

Final Answer: Option 2

176) Question Explanation: Identifying animal symmetry type.

Concept: Bilateral Symmetry
Solution: The diagram shows a crab, which has a body that can be divided into two mirrored
halves (a left side and a right side) along only one central plane. This type of symmetry is
called bilateral symmetry. The provided explanation correctly defines this type of symmetry.
Final Answer: Option 4

177) Question Explanation:

This question is asking to evaluate the correctness of statements related to body cavity and
types of coelom.

Concept:
Animal classification – Body cavity (coelom) types.

Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect because a true coelom is lined by mesoderm, not endoderm.
Statement-II is incorrect because Platyhelminthes are acoelomate, not pseudocoelomate.

Final Answer: Option 2

178) Explain Question : This question is asking about: Origin and position of notochord in
chordates.
Concept : Animal Kingdom → Phylum Chordata → General characters.
Explanation : Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure → Statement I is correct.
It develops on the dorsal side, not ventral side, during embryonic development → Statement II
is incorrect.
Final answer : Option 2 (Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect).
179)

Question explanation: Identify the correct statements about Ctenophores.

Concept: Phylum - Ctenophora
Solution: The correct answer is option 4: (Three)

A. (A) → Correct. Ctenophores are commonly called sea walnuts or comb jellies.

B. (B) → Correct. They are mostly marine organisms.

C. (C) → Incorrect. Comb plates are used for locomotion, not excretion.

D. (D) → Correct. Fertilisation is mostly external and development can be indirect with a
ciliated larval stage.

Therefore, three statements are correct.

Final answer : Option (4)

180) NCERT Pg.# 49, 51