15-03-2025

6001CMD3030032403R MD

PHYSICS

1) A person brings a mass of 1kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at rest it moves at
a speed of 2m/sec. as it reaches A. The work done by person on mass is –3J. The potential at A is ?

(1) –3 J/Kg
(2) –2 J/Kg
(3) –5 J/Kg
(4) None

2) Particle is excuting SHM with frequency f and equation y = Asinωt. Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

Frequency with which kinetic

(a) (i) f
energy of particle oscillates

(b) Frequency of y = Asin3ωt (ii) 2f

Frequency with which velocity of

(c) (iii) 3f
particle oscillates

Frequency with which total

(d) mechanical energy of particle (iv) 0
oscillates
(1) (a)→(ii), (b)→(iii), (c)→(i), (d)→(iv)
(2) (a)→(iii), (b)→(ii), (c)→(i), (d)→(iv)
(3) (a)→(iv), (b)→(ii), (c)→(i), (d)→(iii)
(4) (a)→(iv), (b)→(iii), (c)→(ii), (d)→(i)

3) Assertion (A) : Kepler's law of areas is equivalent to the law of conservation of angular
momentum.

Reason (R) : For planetary motion = constant (Where L is angular momentum about sun.)

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

4)

A particle falls on earth :

(i) From infinity

(ii) From a height 10 times the radius of earth. The ratio of speed gained on reaching at the earth’s
surface is :-
(1)
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 5
(4) 6 : 7

5) Which of the following statements are true about acceleration due to gravity?
(a) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre if r > R
(b) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre if r < R
(c) 'g' is zero at the centre of earth
(d) 'g' decreases if earth stops rotating on its axis

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (a), (b) (c) & (d)

6) The gravitational field in a region is given by . The change in the

gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass 2 kg when it is taken from the origin to a point
(7m, -3m) is

(1) 71J
(2) 13 J
(3) -71J
(4) 2J

7) Match the column

Column I Column II

A body which regains its

A. original shape after the P. Elasticity
removal of external forces

A body which does not regain

B. its original shape after the Q. Elastic body
removal of external forces

A body which does not show

C. any deformation on applying R. Plastic body
external forces

The property of the body to

regain its original
D. S. Rigid body
configuration when the
deforming forces are removed

(1) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q

(2) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(3) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R

8) The Earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit as shown in the fig. The ratio . The

ratio of the speed of the Earth at B and at A, is nearly :-

(1) 1/x
(2) x2
(3)
(4) x

9) A planet revolves is an elliptical orbit around the sun. The semi–major and semi–minor axes are a
and b, then the time period is given by :-

(1) T2 ∝ b3

(2)
T2 ∝
(3) T2 ∝ a3

(4)
T2 ∝

10) A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. If νp and νa are the velocities of the planet
at the perigee and apogee respectively, then the eccentricity of elliptical orbit is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the satellite is launched at angle of with the
vertical, then escape velocity will be

(1) 11 km/s
(2) km/s

(3)
km/s
(4) 33 km/s

12) Kepler’s third law can be stated that T2 = kR3. The value of k (const) is not same for
(1) Planet Mars and planet Venus
(2) Planet Neptune and planet Earth
(3) Planet Earth and its moon
(4) The two moons of Mars

13) The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shwon figure. P, Q and R are the

elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that:-

(1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum

(2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum
(3) Elasticity of wire R is maximum
(4) None of the above is true

14) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulli of steel and brass wires in the figure are, a, b

and c respectively. Then the corresponding ratio of increase in their length would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A river 10m deep is flowing at 5 m/sec. The shearing stress between horizontal layers of the
river is (η = 10–3 S.I. units) :-

(1) 10–3 N/m2

(2) 0.8 × 10–3 N/m2
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 N/m2
(4) 1 N/m2

16) Select the correct statement on the basis of the given graph :-
(1) Young's modulus of A is greater but it is less ductile.
(2) Young's modulus of A is greater and it is more ductile
(3) Young's modulus of A is less and it is less ductile
(4) Young's modulus of A is less but is more ductile.

17) The poisson's ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a
decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is :-

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 4%

18) The length of a rubber cord is ℓ1 metre (when the tension is 4 N) and ℓ2 metre (when the tension
is 6 N) respectively. The length ℓ3 (When the tension is 9 N) is :-

(1) (2.5 ℓ2 – 1.5 ℓ1) m

(2) (6 ℓ2 – 1.5 ℓ1) m
(3) (3 ℓ1 – 2 ℓ2) m
(4) (3.5 ℓ2 – 2.5 ℓ1) m

19) The density of a metal at normal pressure is ρ. Its density when it is subjected to an excess

pressure P is ρ'. If B is the bulk modulus of the metal, the ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the following figure. Then
velocity ν of the fluid is

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

21) Iceberg floats in sea water with a part of its submerged. The percentage fraction of the iceberg
floating outside is nearly

(Density of ice = 0.9 g cm–3, density of sea water

(1) 18 %
(2) 12 %
(3) 10 %
(4) 8 %

22) An object of specific gravity ρ is hung from a massless string. The tension in the string is T. The
object is immersed in water so that one half of its volume is submersed. The new tension in the
string is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Thickness of liquid is 0.02 cm and surface area of block is 104 cm2. When mass 10 gm is released
then block moves towards right with constant velocity 2 cm/sec. Then find out viscosity coefficient of
the liquid. [g = 1000 cm/sec2]

(1) 0.1 poise

(2) 0.01 poise
(3) 0.001 poise
(4) 1 poise

24) For the given figure ratio of pressure at A and B will be (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) [p0 = 105 pa]

=?

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3

25) The spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block m suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg when
a beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The two balances are now so arranged that the
hanging mass is inside the liquid in the beaker as shown in figure. In this situation :-

(1) the balance A will read more than 2 kg

(2) the balance B will read less than 5 kg
(3) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read more than 5 kg
(4) the balance A and B will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively

26) The pressure of water at bottom in a lake is times that at half depth where the water
barometer reads 10m. The depth of the lake is (Patm = 105 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 15 m
(2) Infinite
(3) 20 m
(4) 10 m

27) A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. If one-fourth of the tank is emptied in t1
seconds and the remaining three fourths of the tank is emptied in t2 seconds, then ratio (t1/t2) is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure of water
is P at a point where flows speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow speed is 2v, is
(Take density of water as ρ)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P – rυ2

29) An open vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a in the horizontal direction.
Then the free surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an angle θ given by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A mass of 4 kg is suspended from a steel wire of length 5 meter to form a pendulum
arrangement. If the mass is moved to one side and released from the horizontal position of wire then

find the maximum extension in the length of the wire. (Given Ysteel = 2 × 1011
N/m2 and area of cross-section of wire = 2 mm2, g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.2 mm
(2) 0.8 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 0.9 mm

31) If two soap bubbles of radius 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce under isothermal condition then the radius
of the new bubble is :

(1) 3.42
(2) 6.84
(3) 10
(4) 14

32) When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises at height h in the tube. The free liquid
surface inside the tube is hemispherical in shape. The tube is now pushed down so that the height of
the tube outside the liquid is less than h :

(1) The liquid will comeout of the tube

(2) The liquid will come out of the tube like a small fountain
(3) The liquid will not rise at all
(4) The liquid will rise upto the top of the tube but it will not come out

33) An aquarium is in the shape of a cube with sides of length 60 cm. To what height should we pour
water in it so that the force on the side is one sixth of that at the bottom. Atmospheric pressure is
not taken into account.

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

34) Sixty four spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal
velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalesce to form a big spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big
drop is:

(1) 8 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

35) Water enters a house through a pipe with 2.0 cm inside diameter, at an absolute pressure of
4×105 Pa. The pipe leading to the second floor bathroom 5m above is 1.0cm in diameter. When the
flow velocity at the inlet pipe is 4ms–1, find the flow velocity and pressure in the bathroom in ms–1 and
Pa respectively

(1) 16, 2.3×105

(2) 16, 3.2×105
(3) 132, 2.3×105
(4) 32, 2.3×105

36) An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total wing area of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some height.
The difference in pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of its wings in kilopascals is
(g=10m/s2 )

(1) 2.5
(2) 5.0
(3) 10.0
(4) 12.5

37) Two identical springs are connected in series and parallel as shown in the figure. If and are

frequencies of series and parallel arrangements, what is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Velocity at mean position of a particle executing S.H.M. is v, then velocity of the particle at a
distance equal to half of the amplitude :-

(1) 4v
(2) 2v

(3)

(4)

39) Values of the acceleration of a particle moving in simple harmonic motion as a function of its
displacement x are given in the table below.

a (mm/s2) 16 8 0 –8 –16

x (mm) –4 –2 0 2 4
The period of the motion is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) π s

40) The figure shows a graph between velocity and displacement (from mean position) of a particle

performing SHM. Which of the following is incorrect-

(1) The time period of the particle is 1.57s

(2) the maximum acceleration will be 40cm/s2
(3) the velocity of particle is cm/s when it is at a distance 1 cm from the mean position.
(4) none of these

41) In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position

(1) Kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is maximum

(2) Both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
(3) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum
(4) Both kinetic and potential energies are minimum

42)

A particle moves along a circle of radius 5 cm with a period of 6 sec in the clockwise direction. At t =
0 the particle is at position A as shown in the fig. The expression for the SHM of the x-projection of
the radius vector of the particle is:

x = 5cos
(1)
(2)
x = – 5 sin

(3)
x = 5 sin

(4)

43)

The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm, is
The period of oscillation is

(1) 0.01 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 0.1 s
(4) 100 s

44)

x1 = 5 sin(ωt + 37°).
x2 = –4 sin ωt

Find out the resultant amplitude of the SHM x = x1 + x2

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 0
(4) 1

45) Select the correct statement(s) from the following

(I) Motion of a satellite and a planet is periodic as well as SHM.
(II) Mass suspended by a spring executes SHM.
(III) Motion of a simple pendulum is always SHM.

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and II
(4) I, II and III

CHEMISTRY

1) The in the process of melting of ice at -15°C and 1 atm, is

(1) Less than zero.

(2) Greater than zero.
(3) Equal to zero.
(4) None of these
2) Which of following is incorrect about reversible process?

(1) System always remains in thermodynamic equilibrium.

(2) The process is extremely slow.
The process may be reversed at any stage only by making infinitesimally small change in
(3)
opposite direction.
(4) Reversible processes may be performed in finite time.

3) Which of the following is not a Doeberiner triad -

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Mg, Ca, Sr
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) S, Se, Te

4) In a given process on an ideal gas. dw = 0 and dq < 0. Then for the gas,

(1) The temperature will decrease.

(2) The volume will increase.
(3) The pressure will remain constant.
(4) The temperature will increase.

5) Five moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from an initial pressure of 100 atm
to a final pressure of 1 atm at 27°C. The work done by the gas is

(1)
(2)
(3) 0
(4)

6) The entropy change of universe in reversible adiabatic expansion and reversible isothermal
expansion is respectively

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero, zero

7) Find the enthalpy of combustion of propane gas from the following data. Bond energy (kJ/mol)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
8) Which of the following reaction is spontaneous at all temperature?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) The value of is for the reaction

is The value of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) The standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 is equal to

(1) Zero
(2) The standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon.
(3) The sum of standard molar enthalpies of formation of CO and O2.
(4) The standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon (graphite).

11) Given that

The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) An intensive property is that property which depends upon

(1) The nature of the substance.

(2) The amount of the substance.
(3) Both the amount and nature of the substance.
(4) Neither the nature nor the amount of the substance.

13) 1 mole of an ideal gas at 24°C is expanded against vacuum, from 1L to 10L calculate work done
by the systems

(1) 0

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

14) Assertion (A): The difference between not significant for systems consisting of
only solids or liquids.
Reason (R): Solids and liquids do not suffer any significant volume changes upon heating.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) The Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

15) Assertion (A): The bond energy of all the four C—H bonds in CH4 molecule is not equal.
Reason (R): After breaking of C—H bonds one by one. the electronic environments changes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) The Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

16) The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and H2 are

respectively and The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) For the reaction; H25°C = 68.3 kCal, what

will be the value (in kCal) of at 100°C :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) The Gibbs free energy change of a reaction at 27°C is and its entropy change is
Cals/K. for the reaction is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Internal energy change is zero for isothermal process involving ideal gas.
(2) Enthalpy is a state function.
Work done (magnitude only) in isothermal reversible expansion is always higher than the work
(3)
done in isothermal irreversible expansion.
Work done (only magnitude) in reversible expansion is higher than the work done in reversible
(4)
contraction.

20) The work done in ergs for a reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10
L to 20 L at 25°C is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21)

What is the atomic number of last member of the seventh period of the extended form of periodic
table?

(1) 116
(2) 118
(3) 120
(4) 122

22) An element 'X' with atomic number 114 has recently been discovered. Its IUPAC name is:

(1) Eka - lead

(2) Ununfortium
(3) Ununquadium
(4) Bohrium

23) The process requiring absorption of energy is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) In the following the element with the highest ionisation energy is:

(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p1

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
25) The set representing the correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

(1) K > Na > Li

(2) Be > Mg > Ca
(3) B > C > N
(4) Ge > Si > C

26) The correct order of atomic radii is:

(1) Na < Be < B

(2)
(3) Na < Li < K
(4)

27) In going from left to right in a period:

(1) The basic nature of the oxides increases

(2) Acidic nature decreases of oxides
(3) The basic nature of the oxides decreases
(4) No gradation in the nature of oxides is observed

28) The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is-

(1) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > SiO2

(2) SiO2 > Al2O3 > MgO > Na2O
(3) Al2O3 > SiO2 > MgO > Na2O
(4) SiO2 > MgO > Na2O > Al2O3

29) Increasing order of negative electron gain enthalpy is:

(1) N < O < Cl < Al

(2) O < N < Al < Cl
(3) N < Al < O < Cl
(4) Cl < N < O < Al

30) Among the isoelectronic species, K+, S2-, Cl- and Ca2+ the radii of the ions decrease as:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) If the bond energies of H—H, Br—Br and H—Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, ΔH°
for the reaction is

(1) –261 kJ
(2) +103 kJ
(3) +261 kJ
(4) –103 kJ

32) Which of the following orders regarding ionization energy is correct?

(1) N > O > F

(2) N < O < F
(3) N > O < F
(4) N < O > F

33) The electron gain enthalpy values of elements A, B, C and D are respectively
. The outer electronic configuration of B is:

(1) 3s23p5
(2) 3s23p4
(3) 3s23p3
(4) 3s23p2

34) The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Assertion (A): Helium and beryllium have similar outer electronic configuration ns2.
Reason (R): Both are chemically inert.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

36) Assertion (A): F atom has a less electron affinity than chlorine.
Reason (R): Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

37) Assertion (A): The ionic size of Mg2+ is larger than Al3+.
Reason (R): In isoelectronic species, greater the nuclear charge, less is the size.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

38) Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Na, the correct order of their non-metallic character is:

(1) B > C > Na > N > F

(2) Na > C > B > N > F
(3) F > N > C > B > Na
(4) F > N > C > Na > B

39) Amongt the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below) the one having
highest metallic nature is:

(1) [Ne] 3s23p4

(2) [Ne] 3s23p3
(3) [Ne] 3s23p5
(4) [Ar] 3d10 4s2

40) The first ionization potential of Mg, Al, P and S follows the order

(1) Mg < Al < P < S

(2) Al < Mg < P < S
(3) Al < Mg < S < P
(4) Mg < Al < S < P

41) Which are correct match:-

(a) Eka silicon - Be
(b) Eka aluminium - Ga
(c) Eka manganese - Tc
(d) Eka scandium - B

(1) b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, d
(4) All

42) Screening effect is not observed in:-

(1) He+
(2) Li+2
(3) H
(4) All of these

43) Assertion (A): Helium atom has highest ionisation energy among all the elements.
Reason (R): Helium is smallest atom among all the elements.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If assertion is false but the reason is true

44) Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in

the figure. AB Isothermal expansion

AC Adiabatic expansion
Which of the following options is not correct?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Golgi body principally performs the functions of:-

(1) Secretion
(2) Packaging of materials.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Protein formation

2) Which stage of Meiosis-I last for months or year in some vertebrate oocytes?

(1) Diakinesis
(2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Zygotene

3) The S-phase of animal cell is marked by-

(1) DNA replication

(2) Centriole duplication
(3) Cell growth and protein synthesis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

4) How many of the following statements are not wrong:-

i) Concentration of some ions inside the vacuole is significantly higher as compared to cytoplasm
ii) In amoeba, contractile vacuole helps in osmoregulation & excretion.
iii) In Protistans, food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particle.

(1) Only two

(2) Only one
(3) All three
(4) None

5) Cytoskeleton in a cell is involved in functions like

(1) Mechanical supports

(2) Motility
(3) Maintenance of the shape of cell
(4) All of the above

6) Most dramatic period of cell cycle is-

(1) Gap 1 only

(2) M-Phase
(3) S-Phase only
(4) Interphase

7) Spindle fibers attach on to

(1) Kinetosome of the chromosome

(2) Telomere of the chromosome
(3) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(4) Centromere of the chromosome

8) Identify correct sequence of prophase-I.

(1) Leptotene, Zygotene, Diplotene,

(2) Zygotene, Pachytene, Leptotene
(3) Diplotene, Zygotene, Pachytene
(4) None of these

9) In the beginning of Meiosis- II, a cell N contain four chromatid. What number of chromatid is
expected to be in each daughter cell at end of telophase - II

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 16

10) Cell plate represent -

(1) Primary lamella

(2) Middle lamella
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Formation of plate by lysosome

11) Choose the correct statement with respect to G0 phase

(1) Start after G2 phase

(2) Cell of this stage remain inactive and no longer proliferation
Cell of this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferation unless called to do so
(3)
depending on the requirement of organism
(4) Cell of this stage remain active and proliferation till death without any condition

12) Which of the following structure translate the mRNA into proteins in a bacterial cell:-

(1) Inclusions of cytoplasm

(2) Ribosomes of E.R
(3) Ribosomes of Polysome.
(4) Ribosomes of nucleus
13) Read the following statements and identify them as true (T) or false (F) and accordingly choose
correct option.
A. Splitting of centromere takes place during anaphase of mitosis.
B. During metaphase of mitosis each chromatid of a chromosome remain connected to pole of its
side by spindle fibre.
C. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform during end of prophase.
D. In animal cells, cytokinesis is carried out by furrow formation.

A B C D

(1) T T F F

(2) T T F T

(3) F T T T

(4) T F F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in____

(1) S-phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) G1 -phase
(4) M-phase

15) Living cell was firstly seen and described by :-

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(3) Robert Koch
(4) Robert Brown

16) Match the columns and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) G1 phase (i) Quiescent stage of the cell cycle.

(b) G2 phase (ii) DNA denoted as 2C, increases to 4C

Proteins are synthesized in preparation for

(c) Synthesis phase (iii)
mitosis

(d) G0 phase (iv) Cell contain initial amount of DNA i.e., 2C

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

17) Statement-I: Plant cells differs from animals cells.

Statement-II: The plant cell posses cell walls, plastids & a large vacuole which is absent in animal
cell.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement -I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement -I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

18) How many of the following statements are not true:-

i) All cells have membrane bound nuclei and nucleolus.
ii) Nucleus contains the chromatin fibres
iii) DNA is the Genetic material.
iv) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in plant and animal cells.

(1) Only (ii), (iii), & (iv)

(2) Only (ii) & (iv)
(3) Only (i) & (iii)
(4) Only (i)

19) Secondary cell wall is formed

(1) Outer to primary cell wall.

(2) Inner to cell membrane
(3) Inner to plasmodesmata.
(4) Inner to primary cell wall.

20) Assertion (A): Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are semiautonomous organelles.

Reason (R): They are formed by division of pre-existing organelles as well as contain DNA but lack
protein synthesizing machinery

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

21) Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to
form ATP?

(1) Ribosome
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Lysosome
22) The microtubules in the cilia and flagella:-

(1) Runs parallel to the long axis

(2) Forms the axoneme and outer membrane
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Arranged arrangement is 9+1

23) How many of following structures are observed when cells are viewed under the microscope at
end of prophase.

Golgi body, ER, Nucleolus, Nuclear envelop, centrosome

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) All of these

24) Which one is odd w.r.t. significance of meiosis?

(1) Increase genetic variability in organisms

(2) Cell repair
(3) Produce haploid cells
(4) Leads to evolution

25) Amyloplast contains

(1) Proteins and fats

(2) Fats and starch
(3) Fats and oils
(4) Starch only

26) The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Flat membranous tubules connecting the thylakoids in chloroplast is known as:-

(1) Granal thylakoid

(2) Grana
(3) Stroma thylakoid / lamellae
(4) All of the above

28) Which of the following is membrane less bodies other than Ribosomes.
(1) Golgi bodies
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chromatophores

29) Identify stage-

(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Interphase
(4) Metaphase

30) Meiosis ensure the production of .........phase in life cycle of sexually reproduction organisms
whereas fertilization restore ........phase.

(1) Haploid & haploid respectively

(2) Haploid & diploid respectively
(3) Diploid & diploid respectively
(4) Diploid & haploid respectively

31) Assertion (A) : Mitotic division is an equational division.

Reason (R): Meiosis is a reductional division

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

32) Which of the following help the bacteria attach to rocks in streams:-

(1) Inclusion
(2) Mesosome
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Pili

33) Cristae of mitochondria is/are

(1) Infoldings of inner membrane

(2) Outer aqueous compartment of mitochondria
(3) Space present between inner and outer membrane of Mitochondria
(4) Infoldings of outer membrane

34) Synaptonemal complex starts dissolving during-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

35) What type of ribosome are found in Eukaryotic cell

(1) 70s’ type only

(2) 80s’ type only
(3) Both 70s’ and 80s’ type
(4) 70s’; 80s’ & 60s’ type

36) The extra luminal & luminal compartment of ER represents:-

(1) Cytoplasm & inside ER

(2) Inside ER & cytoplasm
(3) Outside thylakoid &cytoplasm
(4) Cytoplasm & outside thylakoid

37) What is not true about the nucleolus:-

(1) Spherical structure present in the nucleoplasm

(2) Membrane less structure.
(3) Also known as Ribosomal factory of the cell.
(4) None of the above

38) What ensures that the non-polar tail is protected from aqueous environment?

(1) Polar head Outside, non-polar tails Inner side.

(2) Non-polar head Outside, Polar tail Inner side
(3) Polar tail Outside, non-polar head Inner side
(4) Polar tail Inner side, non-polar head Outer side

39) Few of the mature cells in plants have no nucleus:-

(1) Their function are not specific

(2) Are dead cells with cytoplasm
(3) Their function are controlled by some another cells.
(4) All of the above

40) Metaphase chromosome is made up of-

(1) Two non - sister chromatid which are held together by centromere
(2) Four sister chromatid which are held together by centromere
(3) Two sister chromatid which are held together by centromere
(4) Four non-sister chromatid which are held together by centromere

41) How many of the following functions the cell membrane can perform:-

Active transport; Osmosis; Passive transport.

(1) Only one
(2) Only two
(3) All three
(4) None

42) Chromosome having centromere slightly away from the middle is:-

(1) Metacentric
(2) Sub - metacentric
(3) Telocentric
(4) Acrocentric

43) Longest phase of meiosis is :

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-II

44) Dyads of cells are formed in -

(1) Telophase -I
(2) Telophase -II
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

45) Crossing over takes place in which stage?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

46) Match the followings correctly.

Animals Respiratory Organs

A. Earthworms I. Lungs
 B. Most aquatic arthropods II. Trachea

C. Fishes III. Gills

D. Birds/Reptiles IV. Moist cuticle

E. Insects
(1) A-IV, B and C-III, D-I, E-II
(2) A- IV, B - III, C and D -I, E - III
(3) A-II, B and C - III, D - I, E - IV
(4) A-III, B and C-I, D-II, E-IV

47) Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at ______ thoracic vertebra.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 9

48) Respiration involves the following steps

I) Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane
II) Transport of gases by blood
III) Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2
IV) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out
V) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
The correct sequence of steps is –

(1) I→ II→III→ IV→V

(2) V→ IV→III→ II→I
(3) IV→ I→II→ V→III
(4) III→II→ V→I→ IV

49) Study the given diagram and identify A, B, C and D.

(1) A- Epiglottis, B-Alveoli, C-Bronchus, D- Diaphragm

(2) A- Epiglottis, B -Alveoli, C - Bronchioles, D - Diaphragm
(3) A- Sound box, B -Alveoli, C - Bronchus, D - Diaphragm
(4) A-Sound box, B-Alveoli, C- Bronchioles, D – Diaphragm

50) Match the following –

Column A Column B

1. Tidal Volume A. 2500-3000 mL of air

2. Inspiratory reserve volume B. 1000 mL of air

3. Expiratory reserve volume C. 500 mL of air

4. Residual volume D. 3400-4800 mL of air

5. Vital Capacity E. 1200 mL of air

(1) 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A, 5 - E
(2) 1 - C, 2 -A, 3 - B, 4 - E, 5 - D
(3) 1 - C, 2 -A, 3 - D, 4 - E, 5 - B
(4) 1 - E, 2 -A, 3 - B, 4 - E, 5 – D

51) A section of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary indicates the presence of ______major layers
constituting diffusion membrane

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 10

52) Name the blood vessels A to D-

A B C D

Pulmonary Systemic
(1) Systemic vein Pulmonary vein
artery artery

Pulmonary
(2) Systemic artery Pulmonary vein Systemic vein
artery
 Pulmonary Systemic
(3) Systemic vein Pulmonary vein
artery artery

Pulmonary Systemic
(4) Systemic vein Pulmonary vein
artery artery
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) In comparison to solubility of O2 in blood the solubility of CO2 is

(1) 20 - 25 times lesser

(2) Slightly higher
(3) Slightly greater
(4) 20 - 25 times higher

54) The barrier between the air in alveolus and blood in pulmonary capillary consists of 3 layers and
its total thickness is

(1) 1 mm
(2) More than 1 mm
(3) Much less than 1 mm
(4) 2 mm

55) Besides pO2 , the other factor(s) affecting the binding of O2 with haemoglobin is/are

(1) pCO2
(2) H+ conc.
(3) Temperature
(4) All

56) Which of the following equation is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

57) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognise changes in ______ and
____ conc. and send necessary signal to _______ for remedial action

(1) O2, CO2, Pneumothorax

+
(2) CO2, H , rhythm centre
 +
(3) CO2, H , apneustic centre
+
(4) O2, H , Pneumothorax

58) Emphysema is characterised by

Permanent enlargement and destruction of alveolar area leading to reduction in respiratory

(1)
surface
(2) Inhibition of respiratory centre
(3) Accumulation of fluid in lungs
(4) Spasm of muscles of trachea

59) Which of the following use water from their environment as circulating fluid?

(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Fishes

60) Match List I with List II and select the correct option.

List I (Plasma protein) List II (Functions)

I. Fibrinogen A. Defense mechanism

II. Globulins B. Osmotic balance

III. Albumins C. Coagulation of blood

(1) I-C, II -A, III- B
(2) I-A, II - C, III- B
(3) I-C, II - B, III -A
(4) l-B, II-A, III-C

61) Match the following –

Column I Column II

I. Basophils A. Phagocytes

Secrete histamine, serotonin , heparin and

II. Neutrophils B.
involved in inflammatory response

Resist infections and are also involved in

III. Monocytes C.
allergic reaction

IV. Eosinophils D. Immunity

V. Lympho cytes
(1) I - B, II and III -A, IV - C, V - D
(2) I - B, II and III - C, IV -A, V - D
(3) I - C, II and III -A, IV - B, V - D
(4) I - D, II and III -C, IV -A, V – B

62) Four chambered heart is found in

(1) Humans only

(2) Mammals only
(3) All vertebrates
(4) Some reptiles, birds and mammals

63) Which of the following statements is correct?

I. Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid/interstitial fluid and drains it back to the major veins
II. Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have almost similar composition
III. Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger proteins and RBC
IV. Exchange of nutrients and gases, etc. between the blood and cells always occurs through tissue
fluid
V. Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma
VI. Lymph can be defined as blood minus RBC but has specialized lymphocytes

(1) All
(2) Only III and IV
(3) V and VI
(4) I, III, V

64) Bicuspid valve / mitral valve is found between -

(1) Left atrium and left ventricle

(2) Right atrium and right ventricle
(3) Right atrium and left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and right ventricle

65) Origin of heart beat and its conduction is represented by -

(1) SA-node → Purkinje fibres → AV-node→ Bundle of His

(2) AV-node→ Bundle of His→ SA-node→ Purkinje fibres
(3) Purkinje fibres→ AV-node→ SA-node→ Bundle of His
(4) SA-node→ AV-node→Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibres

66) During cardiac cycle about% of ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial contraction about _____ %
of ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction –

(1) 50, 50 respectively

(2) 70, 30 respectively
(3) 30, 70 respectively
(4) 10, 90 respectively

67) During cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out about 70 ml of blood which is called -
(1) Stroke volume
(2) Cardiac output
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Residual volume

68) QRS complex represents the

(1) Depolarization of ventricles

(2) Repolarization of ventricles
(3) Repolarization of atria
(4) Depolarization of atria

69) Identify X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

(1) Vein Artery Capillary

(2) Capillary Artery Vein

(3) Artery Capillary Vein

(4) Artery Vein Capillary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) A special neural centre in medulla oblongata can moderate. the cardiac functions through

(1) Somatic neural system

(2) Parasympathetic nervous system only
(3) Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
(4) Sympathetic nervous system only

71) Match the Column I with Column II

Column I Column II

Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an

A. Heart failure I.
inadequate blood supply
 Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching
B. Cardiac arrest II.
the heart muscles

C. Heart Attack III. Atherosclerosis

Coronary Artery Heart not pumping blood effectively

D. IV.
disease (CAD) enough to meet the needs of the body

E. Angina pectoris V. Heart stops beating

A B C D E

(1) IV V III I II

(2) IV V I III II

(3) IV V III I III

(4) V IV II III I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Which of the following group of animals is uricotelic?

(1) Reptiles
(2) Insects
(3) Birds and land snail
(4) All

73) Each kidney of adult human measures-

Length Width Thickness Weight

(1) 10 - 12 cm 5 - 7cm 2-3 cm 120-170g

(2) 10 - 20 cm 10 - 12 cm 6-12 cm 40-50 gm

(3) 2-6 cm 10 - 12 cm 6-12 cm 40-50 gm

(4) 10 - 12 cm 5 - 7 mm 2-3 mm 120-170 mg

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Observe the following figure.

Identify A to E structure.

A B C D E

Superior vena Inferior vena

(1) Dorsal Aorta Urethra Pelvis
cava cava

Inferior vena Superior vena

(2) Dorsal Aorta Urethra Pelvis
cava cava

Inferior vena
(3) Ureter Dorsal Aorta Urethra Pelvis
cava

Inferior vena
(3) Dorsal Aorta Urethra Cortex Pelvis
cava
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Match the column I with column II.

Column I Column II

Ascending and
A. Delivers blood to glomerulus I.
descending limb

Carries urine to pelvis, also acts in

B. II. Renal artery
water reabsorption

Collects filtrate from Bowman's

C. III. Collecting duct
capsule

D. Loop of Henle IV. PCT

(1) A- II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(2) A-I, B - III, C-II, D- IV
(3) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(4) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D – I

76) Match the column I with column II.

 Column I Column II

a PCT I. Concentrated urine formation

b DCT II. Filtration of blood

c Loop of Henle III. Reabsorption of 70 - 80% electrolytes

Counter current
d IV Ionic balance
mechanism

Maintenance of conc. gradient in

e Renal corpuscle V.
medulla

a b c d e

(1) III IV I V II

(2) III V IV II I

(3) I III II V IV

(4) III I IV V II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) On an average, _______ mL of blood is filtrated by the kidney per minute which constitute roughly
__ of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of heart in a minute.

(1) 125 ml, 1/6th

(2) 100 -125 ml, 1/6th
(3) 1100 -1200 ml, 1/5th
(4) 5 L, 1/10th

78) Sweat produced by sweat glands contain all except

(1) NaCl
(2) Urea
(3) Uric acid
(4) Lactic acid

79) Counter current mechanism include

(a) Henle's loop
(b) Vasa recta
(c) PCT
(d) DCT

(1) (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (c)

80) NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle's loop which is exchanged with -

(1) DCT
(2) PCT
(3) Ascending limb of vasa recta
(4) Descending limb of vasa recta

81) The kidneys help regulate acid-base balance by controlling the level of ____ in the blood-

(1) CO2
(2) H+
(3)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

82) Which of the following factors can activate the JG cells to release renin?

(1) A fall in glomerular blood pressure (GBP)

(2) A fall in glomerular blood flow (GBF)
(3) A fall in GFR
(4) A fall in GFR, GBP, GBF.

83) The neural mechanism causing urination is called

(1) Scarth reflex

(2) Withdrawal reflex
(3) Micturition reflex
(4) None

84) Match the column I with column II.

Column I Column II

A. Uremia I. Henle's loop

B. Ketonuria II. Ketone bodies in urine

C. Glycosuria III. Artificial kidney

D. Blood dialyser IV. Glucose in urine

E. Concentration of urine V. Accumulation of urea in blood

(1) A - V, B - II, C - IV, D – III, E - I
(2) A- III, B - II, C - IV, D - I, E - V
(3) A-I, B - II, C - IV, D - III, E - V
(4) A- I, B - II, C - IV, D - V, E – III
85) Liver (largest gland) is both secretory and excretory organ. It secretes bile. Which of the
following are major excretory products of bile?

(1) Degraded and steroid hormones

(2) Vitamins and drugs
(3) Bilirubin and Biliverdin
(4) Cholesterol

86) Following are the steps of dialysis-

A. Blood is passed into a vein.
B. Blood is mixed with heparin.
C. Blood is mixed with anti-heparin.
D. Blood is drained from convenient artery.
E. Blood is passed through a coiled and porous cellophane tube bathing in dialysis fluid.
F. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood.
The correct sequence of steps is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

87) Assertion (A) : The cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary
man.
Reason (R) : The body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate and
thereby the cardiac output.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

88) Consider the two statements:

Statement I: A muscular wall called a septum prevents the mixture of blood between the left and
right sides of the heart
Statement II: The left ventricle has a thicker musculature when compared to the musculature of
the right ventricle.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

89) Consider the given two statements:

Statement I : Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2.
Statement II: Haemoglobin is a red coloured iron containing pigment present in the RBCs

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

90) Assertion (A): An increase in pulmonary volume will cause inspiration.

Reason (R): An increase in pulmonary volume increases the intra-pulmonary pressure to more than
the atmospheric pressure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explains (A).
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True .
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 1 4 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Wall = ΔK
Wc + Wext = ΔK

(–ΔU) + (–3) =
(Ui – UF) –3 = 2
0 – Uf –3 = 2
–Uf = 5
Uf = –5 Joule/kg

2) In SHM frequency of displacement velocity and acceleration is same while frequency of KE

and PE is double of frequency of displacement.

3)

Kepler's law of areas is equivalent to the law of conservation of angular momentum and
according to it for planetary motion :

= constant

12) ⇒

⇒
M → mass of heavier body around which smaller body removes.
For option (i) & (ii)
M → mass of sun
For option (iv), M → mass of mars
Option (iii) for earth, M → mass of sun
for moon, M → mass of earth

14)

∵ Δℓ =

⇒
17) ⇒

18) Let the original unstreched length = ℓ

Now,
∴ 4(ℓ3 – l) = 9(ℓ1 – l)
or 4ℓ3 + 5l = 9ℓ1 ...(i)
Again, 6(ℓ3 – l) = 9(ℓ2 – l) or 2ℓ3 + l = 3ℓ2 ...(ii)
To obtain ℓ3, solve eqns. (i) and (ii) simultaneously ∴ ℓ3 = (2.5ℓ2 – 1.5ℓ1)m.

19)

20) Volume flowing per second in the left tube = (Volume flowing per second 1st branch tube)
+(volume flowing per second in 2nd branch tube)

23)

Fviscous = Fg (on 10gm body)

η = 0.01 poise

30)
 T = mg + 2mg

31)

32) The shape of meniscus will adjust itself i.e. it will increase it radius of curvature so it will
not come out.

34) R = n1/3r ⇒ R = (64)1/3r = 4r

vT ∝ r2 ⇒ = 16
–1
v'T = 16 × 1.5 = 24 ms

36)
= 2.5 kPa

38) V = ω
at x = 0 V = aω

at x = a/2 V' = aω = V

39) a = ω2x
∴ 16 = –ω2(–4)
ω=2

CHEMISTRY

46) Melting of ice at -15° C and 1 atm is a non-

spontaneous process and hence, = +ve.

47) A true reversible process takes infinite time.

48) Difference atomic number is not same

49)

As the system rejects heat, the temperature will decrease.

50)

51) In adiabatic reversible process, q = 0, no heat exchanged between system and surrounding

In isothermal reversible process, suppose system release q energy at temperature T

Surrounding absorb same q at same temperature T

52)

53) To be spontaneous at all temperature, should be should be +ve.

54)

55)
56)

58) W = 0, for free expansion

61)

Cyclohexene + H2 Cyclohexane

62)

63)

64) Work done in reversible expansion and contraction remains the same.

65)

66) The last member of the sixth period is radon. Its atomic number is 86. In the seventh
period energy shells 7s, 5f, 6d and 7p are completed, i.e., 2 + 14 + 10 + 6 = 32 electrons are
to be to be accommodated. Thus, in the 7th period, 32 elements will be present. So, the atomic
number of the last member will be 86 + 32 = 118.

67) Un - un - quad - ium

1 1 4

68) Second electron gain enthalpy is an endothermic process as the second electron is added
to a negatively charged particle. Energy is needed to overcome force of repulsion.
 69) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 is a symmetrical configuration. Thus, this atom has extra stability.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg-134

92) NCERT Page No-168, Paragraph No-3

93) NCERT-Page No-163, Paragraph No-5

94) NCERT Pg-134

95) NCERT Pg-136

96) NCERT Page No-164, Paragraph No-3

98) NCERT Page No-168, Paragraph No-1

99) NCERT Page No-169, Paragraph No-3

100) NCERT Page No-166, Paragraph No-3

101) NCERT Page No-164, Paragraph No-1

102) NCERT Pg-129

103) NCERT Pg. 165-166

105) NCERT Pg-125

106) NCERT-Page No-163, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4 and page No-164, paragraph No- 1 and 2

107) NCERT Pg-129

108) NCERT Pg-126

109) NCERT Pg-132

112) NCERT Pg-137

113) NCERT Pg-165, Paragraph No-1

114) NCERT Page No-167, Paragraph No-1-4, 170 paragraph 2

115) NCERT Pg-135

117) NCERT Pg-136

118) NCERT Pg-128

119) NCERT Page No-166, Figure No-10.2 (c)

120) NCERT Page No-167, Paragraph No-3

122) NCERT Pg-129

123) NCERT Pg-135

124) NCERT Page No-168, Paragraph No-2

125) NCERT Pg-136

126) NCERT Pg-133

127) NCERT Pg-138

128) NCERT Pg-131

129) NCERT Pg-138

130) NCERT-Page No-165, Paragraph No-2

131) NCERT Pg-132

132) NCERT Pg-139

133) NCERT Page No-168, Paragraph No-1

134) NCERT Page No-169, Paragraph No-2

136) NCERT PAGE NO.268

137) NCERT PAGE NO.269

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139) NCERT PAGE NO.269

140) NCERT PAGE NO.271,272

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176) NCERT PAGE NO. 298, 299