23-05-2026

7101CIC404341260002 PI

PHYSICS

1) What is the work done by a motor of 200 W power rating in 30 s ?

(1) 6 kJ
(2) 2 kJ
(3) 3.5 kJ
(4) 5.5 kJ

2) A block of mass 2 kg is allowed to slide freely on a fixed frictionless ramp as shown. If g =

10m/s2 downward then what is the speed of the block at bottom of the ramp.

(1)

(2)

(3) 10 m/s

(4)

3) The graph between kinetic energy possessed by the object of mass m with the speed (v) of the
object is.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) Work done in moving a 50 kg block through a horizontal distance of 10 m by applying a force of

100 N which makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal is

(1) 200 Joule

(2) 425 Joule
(3) 500 Joule
(4) 575 Joule

5) A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled road. The

work done against the gravitational force will be

(1)
(2) 6 J
(3) 0.6 J
(4) Zero

6) Work done is said to be zero if the applied force is ........... to the direction of displacement.

(1) Parallel
(2) At 45°
(3) At 60°
(4) At 90°

7) It takes 20 sec for a person A of mass 50 kg to climb up the stairs, while another person B of same
mass does same in 15 sec, the ratio of work done is :

(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 10 : 3

8) Work done by centripetal force :

(1) Is always zero

(2) Can never be zero
(3) Is always negative
(4) Data insufficient

9) If momentum of a body is doubled, it’s kinetic energy becomes :

(1) Double
(2) Three times
(3) Four times
(4) Remain same

10) A pump is used to lift 500 kg of water from a depth of 80 m in 10 sec. Power of pump is : (take g
= 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 kw
(2) 40 kw
(3) 60 kw
(4) 80 kw

11) Four students represented the variation in kinetic energy (K), potential energy (V) and total
energy with the height (h) above the ground for the motion of an object under gravity. Select the
correct option.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) A light body A and a heavy body B have the same momentum.
Choose a correct statement from the given options.

(1) kinetic energy of body A and body B will be the same.

(2) kinetic energy of body A is greater than kinetic energy of body B.
(3) kinetic energy of body B is greater than kinetic energy of body A.
(4) unless we know the velocity, we cannot find which body has greatest kinetic energy.

13) Which of the following graphs best represents the graphical relationship between kinetic energy
(KE) and momentum (P) of an object in motion?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) If the magnitude of momentum of a certain body be increased by 50%, then its kinetic energy
will increase by

(1) 25%
(2) 150%
(3) 125%
(4) 62.5%

15) Two bodies of equal weight are kept at heights 'h' and '3h' respectively. The ratio of their PE is

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 9 : 1

16) If a force 50 N displace a body by 10 m while acting at an angle of 60° with the direction of
displacement. Work done by the force is :

(1) 250 J
(2) 500 J
(3) 5 J
(4) 10 J

17) The speed of a body of mass 5 kg changes from 10 m/s to 20 m/s while moving on a levelled
surface due to a force exerted F. Work done by force F is :

(1) 400 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 750 J
(4) 1000 J

18) The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases continuously. What happens to the loss
of potential energy ?

(1) It is continuously converted into sound energy

(2) It is continuously converted into kinetic energy
(3) It is continuously destroyed
(4) None of these

19) 1 kWh equals

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Two particle of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their momentum is

(1) m1 : m2
(2) m2 : m1
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?

(1) N
(2) O
(3) F
(4) C

2) Arrange in increasing order of electronegativity:

(1) C < N < O < F

(2) F < O < N < C
(3) O < N < C < F
(4) N < C < O < F

3) Which has the highest metallic character?

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) K
(4) Ca

4) Which element has the least electron affinity?

(1) Cl
(2) Br
(3) F
(4) Ne

5) Which pair shows incorrect trend?

(1) Ionisation enthalpy increases across a period

(2) Atomic size decreases across a period
(3) Electron affinity decreases across a period
(4) Electronegativity increases across a period

6) Which trend is correct down a group?

(1) Atomic size decreases

(2) Ionisation enthalpy increases
(3) Electron affinity increases
(4) Metallic character increases

7) Which atom has maximum electron affinity?

(1) F
(2) Cl
(3) Br
(4) I

8) Which has the highest electronegativity?

(1) Cl
(2) F
(3) O
(4) N

9) Which of the following orders of electron affinity is correct?

(1) Cl > F > Br > I

(2) F > Cl > Br > I
(3) I > Br > Cl > F
(4) Br > Cl > F > I

10) Which element shows both high electronegativity and high ionisation enthalpy?

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) F
(4) Cl

11) Which of the following has highest melting point?

(1) CO₂
(2) CH₄
(3) NaCl
(4) H₂O
12) Which substance is insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents?

(1) NaCl
(2) KNO₃
(3) CH₄
(4) CaCl₂

13) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state

(2) Covalent compounds have low melting points
(3) Ionic compounds are soluble in organic solvents
(4) Covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons

14) Which of the following will not conduct electricity in any state?

(1) NaCl
(2) KNO₃
(3) CCl₄
(4) CaCl₂

15) Which species contains only covalent bonds but behaves as an electrolyte in water?

(1) CO₂
(2) HCl
(3) CH₄
(4) O₂

16) For an ionic compound to be soluble in water:

(1) lattice energy > hydration energy

(2) Lattice energy < hydration energy
(3) Lattice energy = hydration energy
(4) None of above

17) Which has the highest bond polarity?

(1) H–Cl
(2) H–Br
(3) H–F
(4) H–I

18) Which of the following is non-polar covalent?

(1) HCl
(2) NH₃
(3) Cl₂
(4) H₂O

19) Which among the following will not ionise upon being added to water?

(1) HCl
(2) KCl
(3) NaCl
(4) O₂

20) Which molecule does not obey the octet rule?

(1) NH3
(2) CH4
(3) H2O
(4) BF3

BIOLOGY

1) Johannson (1909) gave the term "genes" to Mendel's factors. What properties correctly describe
genes?

(1) Large, fluid, unstable bodies carrying characters

(2) Physical, discrete, definite, stable bodies carrying characters from parents to offspring
(3) Chemical, fluid, temporary bodies that mutate every generation
(4) Visible structures located outside chromosomes

2) Which of the following correctly lists Mendel's 7 pairs of allelic characters with their dominant
forms?

(1) Height-Dwarf, Seed colour-Green, Pod colour-Yellow

(2) Height-Tall, Seed colour-Yellow, Flower colour-White
(3) Height-Tall, Seed colour-Yellow, Flower colour-Purple
(4) Shape of seed-Wrinkled, Position of flower-Terminal, Pod colour-Green

3) The Law of Segregation is also called the Law of Purity of Gametes because:

(1) Each gamete carries two alleles for every character

(2) Each gamete carries only one allele of a pair, keeping it pure and unmixed
(3) Gametes are formed only by pure breeding plants
(4) Alleles mix together during gamete formation but separate after fertilisation

4) X-linked inheritance refers to traits that are:

(1) Found only on the Y chromosome of males

(2) Present on autosomes and expressed only in females
(3) Controlled by genes located exclusively on the X chromosome
(4) Inherited from father to son directly

5) Which of the following statements about homozygous and heterozygous individuals is/are
CORRECT?
(i) TT and tt are both homozygous
(ii) Tt is heterozygous
(iii) Phenotypically dominant individuals are always homozygous
(iv) Recessive plants are always homozygous

(1) Only (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(3) All four statements
(4) Only (iii) and (iv)

6) Which of the following statements about sex-linked inheritance is/are INCORRECT?

(i) Colour blindness and haemophilia are due to recessive genes on the X chromosome
(ii) Women can never be carriers of colour blindness
(iii) A male with only one defective X chromosome will show colour blindness
(iv) The Y chromosome carries genes that can mask X-linked recessive conditions

(1) (i) and (iii) only

(2) (ii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) only
(4) All four

7) Assertion: In F₁ generation of monohybrid cross (TT × tt), only tall plants were produced.
Reason: In heterozygous condition, only the dominant factor expresses itself; the recessive factor
remains unexpressed.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation
(2) Both are true, but Reason is NOT the correct explanation
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true

8) Assertion: The dwarfness which was not visible in F₁ generation reappeared in F₂ generation in
25% individuals.
Reason: During gamete formation, the paired factors segregate and move to different gametes
independently.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation
(2) Both are true, but Reason is NOT the correct explanation
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true

9) Assertion: A colour-blind male (XᶜY) married to a normal female (XX) will produce colour-blind
daughters.
Reason: All daughters of this colour-blind father will receive his Xᶜ chromosome and become
carriers.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation
(2) Both are true, but Reason is NOT the correct explanation
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true

10) The morphological or external expression of an organism for a particular character is called:

(1) Genotype
(2) Karyotype
(3) Phenotype
(4) Allele

11) In a monohybrid cross, two hybrid tall plants (Tt × Tt) are crossed. What will be the phenotypic
and genotypic ratios in F₂?

(1) Phenotypic 1:2:1 ; Genotypic 3:1

(2) Phenotypic 3:1 ; Genotypic 1:2:1
(3) Phenotypic 1:1 ; Genotypic 1:1
(4) Phenotypic 3:1 ; Genotypic 3:1

12) In Mendel's dihybrid cross (RRYY × rryy), the F₂ generation produces 16 combinations. How
many of these will be wrinkled yellow in phenotype?

(1) 1/16
(2) 3/16
(3) 9/16
(4) 6/16

13) Genetic counselling is needed primarily because:

(1) It helps parents choose the gender of their child

(2) It helps individuals understand the risk of passing hereditary disorders to their children
(3) It is used to clone individuals with good genetic traits
(4) It allows doctors to change a person's genetic makeup before birth

14) Down's syndrome occurs due to the failure of proper separation of chromosomes during gamete
formation. This is a violation of which principle, and involves which chromosome?

(1) Law of Dominance; sex chromosome (23rd pair)

(2) Law of Independent Assortment; 21st chromosome
(3) Law of Segregation; 21st chromosome
(4) Law of Purity of Gametes; 22nd chromosome
15) A test cross is performed on a tall plant of unknown genotype. The offspring produced are 50%
tall and 50% dwarf. What does this reveal about the tall plant?

(1) It is homozygous dominant (TT)

(2) It is homozygous recessive (tt)
(3) It is heterozygous (Tt)
(4) It is a pure breeding tall plant

16) Which of the following is the correct definition of an allele?

(1) A chromosome that carries all the genes of an organism

(2) Alternative forms of a gene that occupy the same locus on homologous chromosomes
(3) A segment of DNA that codes for a protein only in dominant condition
(4) Two identical genes present on the same chromosome

17) A woman with normal vision whose father was colour-blind marries a man with normal vision.
What is the probability that their son will be colour-blind?

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

18) Linkage between two genes on the same chromosome can be broken by:

(1) Mutation in both genes simultaneously

(2) Independent assortment during meiosis
(3) Crossing over, which forms new combinations called cross-overs
(4) Replication errors during mitosis

19) In criss-cross inheritance, a colour-blind father passes the defective gene to:

(1) All his sons directly

(2) All his daughters, who may then pass it to their sons
(3) Both sons and daughters equally
(4) Only his affected daughters

20) Which of the following best explains why the 9:3:3:1 ratio is obtained in F₂ of dihybrid cross
rather than the expected 3:1 ratio?

(1) Dominance relationship changes in dihybrid cross

(2) Alleles of different gene pairs assort independently into gametes during formation
(3) Both gene pairs are located on the same chromosome
(4) Recombination occurs between alleles of the same gene

MATHEMATICS
1) 5th term of GP 3, 6, 12, ........ is

(1) 15
(2) 48
(3) 2
(4) 3

2) If a = 3, r = 2, then the nth term of GP is

(1) 2.3n–1
(2) 3.2n
(3) 3.2n+1
(4) 3.2n–1

3) If the common ratio of a geometric sequence a, b, c, .... is R, the common ratio of another

geometric sequence ..... is

(1) R
(2) R2

(3)

(4)

4) The nth term of a G.P. is 128 and the sum of its n terms is 255. If its common ratio is 2, then its
first term is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) None of these

5) Find the fifth term from the end of the series 243, 81, 27, 9, ....

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Find the sum of the first 7 terms of the geometric series 0.25 + 0.75 + 2.25 + .....
(1) 91
(2) 182.25
(3) 273.25
(4) 546.25

7) If t8 and t3 of a geometric progression are and respectively, then find t12 of the geometric
progression.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Dravid opened a recurring deposit account in a bank for 2 years at 6% p.a. If he gets 1200 as
interest at the time of maturity then the monthly installment is(in )

(1) 800
(2) 900
(3) 1200
(4) 1500

9) Saanvi has 3 year recurring deposit account in a bank and deposits Rs. 1800 per month. If she
gets Rs. 71793 at the time of maturity, then the rate of interest is _______.

(1) 6%
(2) 9%
(3) 7%
(4) 8%

10) Recurring deposit account is also known as

(1) Fixed deposit account

(2) Current account
(3) Saving account
(4) Cumulative deposit Account

11) Formula to calculate maturity value of recurring deposite account is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) Solutions set of inequality 4x + 3 ≤ 5x + 7 is ______

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Solve for x : ≥0

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14)

Find the solution set of

(1) {1, 3}
(2) {1, 2, 3}
(3) {1, 2}
(4) {1}

15) Given that x, y and a are real numbers and x<y, a>0 then ______

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
17) Rudhra obtained 70 and 75 marks in the first two unit test. Find the minimum marks he should
get in the third test to have an average of atleast 60 marks.

(1) 60
(2) 45
(3) 35
(4) 65

18) Value of 'x' satisfying,

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) If then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

MENTAL ABILITY

1) To each of the question below are given some statements follwed by few conclusions. You have to
take the given statemetns to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusion logically followed from the
given statements. [Q61 - Q70]

Statements :
All cars are balls.
All balls are tables.
Conclusions :
I. Some tables are balls.
II. Some tables are cars

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows

2) Statements : Some rats are cats

All cats are bats.
Conclusion : I. No rats are cats
II. Some rats are bats.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follws
(4) Either I or II follows

3) Statements : Some school are factories.

All factories are shops.
Conclusion : I. All shope are factories.
II. Some shops are school.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows.

4) Statements : All writers are lawyers.

All readers are lawyers.
Conclusion : I. Some lawyers are readers.
II. Some readers are writers.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only Ii follows.
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows.

5) Statements : All stars are planets

All planets are galaxies.

Conclusion : I. All galaxies are planets.

II. All stars are galaxies.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows.
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows.

6) Statements: All players are doctors.

Some doctors are actors.
Conclusion : I. Some doctros are players as well as actors.
II. All actors are doctors.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows

7) Statement : Some exams are tests.

No exam is questions.

Conclusion : I. No question is test

II. Some tests are exams.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follow

8) Statements : Some pins are clips

Some clips are pens.

Conclusion : I. Some pins are pens.

II. Some clips are pens.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows

9) Statements : All books are pens

All copies are pens.

Conclusions : I. All books are copies

II. Some books are copies
III. All copies are books
IV. Some pens are copies.

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only I and II follows
(3) Only IV follows
(4) ONly III and IV follows

10) Statements : Some Earth is moon

 No moon is stars.

Conclusion : I. Some stars are earth.

II. Some moon are Earth

(1) Only I follows

(2) ONly II follows
(3) Both follows
(4) Either I or II follows

11) If day before yesterday was saturday, then what day of the week will it be on day after
tomorrow?

(1) Friday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Tuesday

12) Today is Monday, it will be ....... after 61 days.

(1) Wednesday
(2) Saturday
(3) Tuesday
(4) Thursday

13) Which of the following is leap year?

(1) 2800
(2) 1800
(3) 2600
(4) 3000

14) How many leap years are threre in first 400 years.

(1) 24
(2) 25
(3) 97
(4) 72

15) It was Friday on 15th August 2005, then what day was on 29th April 2005.

(1) Thursday
(2) Monday
(3) Friday
(4) Tuesday

16) The calender of the year 2024 can be used again in the year?
(1) 2030
(2) 2052
(3) 2048
(4) 2036

17) It was Sunday on 1st January 2006. Then which day held on 1st January 2010?

(1) Sunday
(2) Saturday
(3) Friday
(4) Wednesday

18) If 30 April 2004 was a Saturday, what day of the week was on 25th January 2004?

(1) Monday
(2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday
(4) Thrusday

19) How many leap years are there in the second century?

(1) 72
(2) 48
(3) 24
(4) 25

20) If today is thursday then what was the day before 22 days?

(1) Wednesday
(2) Thursday
(3) Monday
(4) Tuesday

SOCIAL SCIENCE

1) How are the speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha elected?

(1) By the people during general elections

(2) By the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst the members
(3) By the members of the Rajya Sabha
(4) By the members of the State Legislature

2) The Residuary Powers; in India are vested with:

(1) The State Governments

(2) The Union Parliament
(3) The Supreme Court
(4) The President only

3) Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term?

(1) The Speaker

(2) The Vice-President
(3) The President on the advice of the Prime Minister
(4) The Chief Justice

4) When both houses meet in a Joint Sitting, who presides over it?

(1) The President

(2) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(3) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(4) The Prime Minister

5) An Adjournment Motion is moved to:

(1) End the session for the year

(2) Draw attention to a matter of urgent public importance
(3) Ask for a holiday
(4) Close the House for lunch

6) A Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and sent to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha returns
the Bill within 14 days with several recommended amendments. The Lok Sabha decides to reject all
of these recommendations. What is the constitutional status of the Bill?

(1) A Joint Sitting of both Houses must be summoned by the President to resolve the disagreement.
The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was originally
(2)
passed by the Lok Sabha, regardless of the Rajya Sabha's recommendations.
The Bill lapses immediately because the two Houses have failed to reach a consensus on
(3)
financial matters.
The Bill must be sent back to the Rajya Sabha for a second review; if they disagree again, the
(4)
Bill is referred to the Supreme Court.

7) If the Rajya Sabha disagrees with an Ordinary Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and a deadlock
persists for six months, how is it resolved?

(1) The Bill is automatically scrapped.

(2) The President exercises a Veto.
(3) The President calls for a Joint Sitting of both Houses.
(4) The Supreme Court decides the validity of the Bill.

8) A Member of Parliament (MP) wins an election as an Independent candidate but joins a political
party three months later. What is the likely consequence?
(1) He is promoted to a Minister.
(2) Nothing happens; he keeps his seat.
(3) He is disqualified from the House under the Anti-Defection Law.
(4) He must pay a fine to the Election Commission.

9) In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason

(R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill
those seats.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) R is correct and A is incorrect

10) What is the maximum period for which the Lok Sabha can be extended during a Proclamation of
Emergency?

(1) Six months at a time

(2) One year at a time
(3) Two years at a time
(4) Indefinitely until the emergency ends

11) How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President for their expertise in
Art, Literature, Science, and Social Service?

(1) 2 members
(2) 10 members
(3) 12 members
(4) 15 members

12) Which of these is a unique power of the Rajya Sabha regarding the State List?

(1) It can dissolve a State Assembly.

(2) It can authorize Parliament to make laws on a State subject in the national interest.
(3) It can appoint the Chief Minister of a State.
(4) It can veto any law passed by a State Legislature.

13) The Union Government wants to pass a law on "Agriculture" (a State List subject) to implement
an International Treaty signed at the UN. Can the Parliament do this?

(1) No, because Agriculture is strictly a State subject.

(2) Yes, but only after getting permission from all State Governors.
(3) Yes, Parliament can legislate on any State subject to give effect to international treaties.
(4) Only if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with a simple majority.
14) Who moves the vote of No-Confidence in the Parliament?

(1) The Speaker

(2) The Ruling party in the Lok Sabha
(3) Opposition parties in the Lok Sabha
(4) The President

15) The strength of the House is 550. What would be the Quorum of the house?

(1) 45
(2) 65
(3) 75
(4) 55

16) What is Zero Hour in Parliament?

(1) The hour before the session ends

(2) The interval between Question Hour and the rest of the agenda
(3) 12:00 AM to 1:00 AM
(4) The time for voting

17) Supplementary questions can be asked after which type of question?

(1) Starred Question

(2) Unstarred Questio
(3) Private Question
(4) All of the above

18) Who gives the final assent to a bill before it becomes a law?

(1) The Prime Minister

(2) The Speaker
(3) The President
(4) The Chief Justice

19) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has resigned. To whom should they address their resignation
letter?

(1) The President of India

(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Chief Justice of India

20) Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds a position of great prestige and authority.
Reason (R): The Speaker is the second in line to succeed the President of India in case of a
vacancy.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 2

MATHEMATICS

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 1 1

MENTAL ABILITY

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 1 2 1

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
= 6000J = 6kJ

2)

3)

4)

W = 500 Joule

5) W = F5cos90

6) cos 90 = 0

7) As work done against gravity = mgh they have same mass and climb for same height so
work done is same.

8) As centripetal force acts to displacement.

= 90°
so, w = 0

9) As K α P2
So, as P is doubled
K becomes 4 times.

10)
P = 40,000 w or 40 kw

11) Question Explanation:

Graphical variation of PE, KE, and Total Energy with height.
Concept:
Energy-Height Graphs in Free Fall.
Solution:
Potential Energy (V): Since V = mg, the graph is a straight line starting from zero (at the
ground, h = 0) and increasing linearly with height.
Kinetic Energy (K): K must be maximum at the ground (h = 0) and decrease linearly to zero at
maximum height.
Total Energy (E): According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, the total energy remains
constant regardless of height, represented by a horizontal straight line.
Final Answer:
Option (3).

12) Explanation Question:

Relationship between kinetic energy and mass for same momentum.

Concept:
Kinetic energy and momentum.
Solution:

Kinetic energy
P (momentum) is same, so

This means the lighter the object the higher its kinetic energy.

Final answer: Option (2)

13)

Question Explanation: Graph between kinetic energy and momentum.

Concept: Relation between Kinetic Energy and Momentum.

Solution: Kinetic energy (KE) is related to momentum (P) by a square relationship. If we plot
P on the y-axis against KE on the x-axis, the resulting curve is a parabola that opens towards
the KE axis.

Calculation: KE =

P=

This represents a = 4ax type parabolic graph.

Final Answer: Option (4)

14)

Question Explanation: Calculating change in K.E. due to momentum increase.

Concept: Relation between Kinetic Energy and Momentum.

Solution:

Kinetic energy (K) is related to momentum (p) by the formula K = . If momentum increases
by 50%, the new momentum becomes 1.5 times the original. Since kinetic energy is
proportional to the square of momentum, the new energy increases by the square of that
factor.

Calculation:

Let initial = 100 and final = 150.

= 10,000.

= 22,500.

\% increase =

Final Answer: Option (3)

15)

16)

17)

18)

Conceptual

19) Conceptual
 20)

CHEMISTRY

21) C

22) C < N < O < F

23) K

24) Ne

25) Electron affinity decreases across a period

26) Metallic character increases

27) Cl

28) F

29) Cl > F > Br > I

30) F

31) NaCl

32)

CH₄

33) Ionic compounds are soluble in organic solvents

34) CCl₄
 35) HCl

36) Lattice energy < hydration energy

37) H–F

38) Cl₂

39) HCl

40) BF3

BIOLOGY

41) Physical, discrete, definite, stable bodies carrying characters from parents to offspring

42) Height-Tall, Seed colour-Yellow, Flower colour-Purple

43) Each gamete carries only one allele of a pair, keeping it pure and unmixed

44) Controlled by genes located exclusively on the X chromosome

45) Answer: B [Statement (iii) is incorrect — dominant phenotype can be TT or Tt]

46) Answer: B [Women can be carriers; Y chromosome carries nothing to mask X-linked
recessives]

47) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation

48) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation

49) Answer: D [Assertion is false — daughters will be carriers, not colour-blind; Reason is
true]

50) Answer: C [Examples: tallness, dwarfness, yellow seed colour]

51) Phenotypic 3:1 ; Genotypic 1:2:1

 52) Answer: B [rrYY + rrYy = 1 + 2 = 3/16]

53) It helps individuals understand the risk of passing hereditary disorders to their children

54) Answer: C [Chromosome 21 fails to segregate properly — non-disjunction]

55) It is heterozygous (Tt)

56) Alternative forms of a gene that occupy the same locus on homologous chromosomes

57) Answer: C [Mother is obligate carrier XᶜX; sons have 50% chance of receiving Xᶜ]

58) Crossing over, which forms new combinations called cross-overs

59) Answer: B [The trait skips a generation and crosses between sexes]

60) Alleles of different gene pairs assort independently into gametes during formation

MATHEMATICS

61)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the 5th term in a geometric progression (GP) where the first three terms
are 3, 6, and 12. We need to find the value of the 5th term using the properties of a GP.

Concept :
Geometric Progression (GP) : A sequence where each term after the first is found by
multiplying the previous term by a constant called the common ratio.

Solution :
Let the first term be a and the common ratio be r.
From the sequence 3, 6, 12, ……
we have, a = 3, r = 6/3 = 2
The nth term of a G.P. is given by Tn = arn–1
Thus the 5th term is T5 = 3 × 25–1 = 3 × 24 = 3 × 16 = 48.

Final Answer: Option (2)

62)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the sum of the first 7 terms of a geometric series: –2, 4, –8, 16, ...
You are given the first term, the common ratio, and the number of terms. You need to use
the geometric series sum formula to find the total.

Concept :
• Geometric Series : A sequence where each term is found by multiplying the previous term by
a constant ratio.
• Sum of Geometric Series : The sum of the first n terms can be calculated using a specific
formula involving the first term, common ratio, and number of terms.

Solution :
Here is a direct application of the sum-of-a-geometric-series formula.
We have first term a = –2, common ratio r = –2, and number of terms n = 7.

The sum is Substitute a = –2, n = 7:

⇒
Therefore, the sum of the first 7 terms is –86.

Final Answer: Option (3)

63)

Given: Common ratio of a geometric sequence a, b, c, .... is R

To find: Common ratio of geometric sequence .....

Concept : Common Ratio
Solution :
We have a geometric sequence with terms a, b, c,... and common ratio R.
Hence b = aR, c = aR2

Consider the new sequence

Its common ratio is .

Therefore the required common ratio is .

Final Answer: Option (4)

64)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the first term of a geometric progression (G.P.) where the nth term is
128, the sum of the first n terms is 255, and the common ratio is 2. We are to find the value of
the first term.

Concept :
• Geometric Progression : A sequence where each term is found by multiplying the previous
term by a constant ratio.
• Sum of n Terms of G.P. : The sum of the first n terms is a × (rn – 1) / (r – 1) for r ≠ 1.
• nth Term of G.P.: The nth term is given by a × rn–1, where a is the first term and r is the
common ratio.

Solution :
Let the first term be a, the common ratio be r = 2, and the number of terms be .
1. The nth term of the G.P. is given by Tn = a rn–1
Since Tn = 128 and r = 2, a . 2n–1 = 128.

Thus .

2. The sum of the first terms is .

With this becomes Sn = a(2n –1).
Given Sn = 255, substitute a = 28–n : 28–n (2n – 1) = 255.
Distribute: 28 –28–n = 255 ⇒ 256 – 28–n = 255.
Hence 28–n = 1 ⇒ 8 – n = 0 ⇒ n = 8.
0
3. Finally, substitute n = 8 back into a = 28–n : a8–8 = 2 = 1.

Final Answer : Option (1)

65)

66) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the sum of the first 7 terms in a geometric series where the first term is
0.25 and each term is three × the previous one. We are to use the geometric series formula to
find this sum.

Concept:
• Geometric Series: A sequence where each term is found by multiplying the previous term by
a constant ratio.
• Sum of Geometric Series: The sum of the first n terms can be calculated using a specific
formula involving the first term and the common ratio.

Solution:
Using the sum-of-a-geometric-series formula and exact fraction arithmetic:

Let the first term be a = 0.25 = ,

and the common ratio be .

The sum of the first n terms of a geometric series is .

For n = 7,
Therefore, the sum of the first seven terms is 273.25.

Final Answer: Option (3)

67)

Explain Question:
The question gives the 3rd and 8th terms of a geometric progression (GP) and asks you to find
the 12th term. You need to use the properties of GPs to find the common ratio and first term,
then use these to calculate the required term.

Concept:
• General Term of GP: The nth term of a GP is given by a × rn – 1 where a is the first term and r
is the common ratio.
• Geometric Progression: A sequence where each term is found by multiplying the previous
term by a constant ratio.

Solution:

Given and .

Now,

Substitute

Then

Final Answer: Option (1)

68) Let the monthly installment be P

n = 2× 12 = 24
r = 6%p.a.
I= 1200

P= 800

69) 71793 = (1800 × 36) + 1800 ×

71793 = 64800 + 999r
r = 7%

70) Cumulative deposit Account

71)
 72) 4x + 3 ≤ 5x + 7
x ≥ –4

73) and x = 1, –5
By wavy curve method,

74)

i.e.,
solution set {1, 2}

75) we know that if we divided an inequality with positive number the inequality remains same

76)

77) According to questions

The minimum marks he should score in the third test = 35

78)
x = 1, 2
By wavy curve method

79)

80)

MENTAL ABILITY
81)

82)

83)

84)
85)

86)

87)
88)

89)

90)

91)
 92) Number odd days = odd days
Ans. Monday + 5 = Saturday

93) 2800 is divisible by 400

94)

95)

96) 2024 (Leap year) + 28 = 2052

97) Total odd days = (2006 → 2010) = 4 + I Leap year = 5

Ans. Sunday + 5 = Friday

98)
Ans. : Saturday = –5 = Monday

99)

100) Odd days = .

Ans. Thursday – I = Wednesday

SOCIAL SCIENCE
101) By the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst the members

102) The Union Parliament

103) The President on the advice of the Prime Minister

104) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

105) Draw attention to a matter of urgent public importance

106) The Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was
originally passed by the Lok Sabha, regardless of the Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

107) The President calls for a Joint Sitting of both Houses.

108) He is disqualified from the House under the Anti-Defection Law.

109) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

110) One year at a time

111) 12 members

112) It can authorize Parliament to make laws on a State subject in the national interest.

113) Yes, Parliament can legislate on any State subject to give effect to international treaties.

114) Opposition parties in the Lok Sabha

115) 55

116) The interval between Question Hour and the rest of the agenda

117) Starred Question

118) The President

119) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

120) A is true but R is false.