27-05-2026

9610WMD801490250052 MD

PHYSICS

1) A car of mass 1250 kg is moving at 30m/s. Its engine delivers 30 kW while resistive force due to
surface is 750N. What max acceleration can be given in the car

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A uniform chain has a mass m and length ℓ. It is held on a frictionless table with of its length
hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A ball collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

4) A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through its
centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now the platform is given an angular velocity
ω0. When the tortoise move along a diametre of the platform with a constant velocity (with respect to
the platform) the angular velocity of the platform ω(t) will vary with time t as :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If the block shown in the figure is in equilibrium, under the action of an external force. Then

choose the correct free body diagram of the block :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) The particles of mass m and 2m are moving in circular path under mutual gravitational force of
attraction about their centre of mass separated by distance 9r. Then velocity of lighter particle is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius R under a centripetal force equal to

– (A = constant). The total energy of the particle is :- (Potential energy at very large distance is
zero)

(1)

(2)
–

(3)

(4)
–

8) Two different rods A and B are kept as shown in figure. The variation of temperature of different

cross sections is plotted in a graph shown in figure.

The ratio of thermal conductivities of A and B is :

(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 1
(4) 2/3

9) A given mass m of a solid is supplied with heat continuously at a constant rate and the graph
shown in the figure is plotted. If Lf and Lv are latent heat of fusion and latent heat of vaporization
and Sℓ and Ss are specific heats of liquid and solid respectively, then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

0 0

10) One mole of a diatomic gas undergoes a process where P , V are constants.
The translational kinetic energy of the gas when V = V0 is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A transverse wave described by equation y = 0.02 sin (x + 30t) (where x and t are in metres and
seconds, respectively) is travelling along a wire of area of cross-section 1mm2 and density 8000
kg/m3. What is the tension in the string ?

(1) 20 N
(2) 7.2 N
(3) 30. N
(4) 1.4 N

12) A current 'I' flows through a thin wire as shown in the figure. If there exists an external
magnetic field B in the same plane of the wire, the torque acting on the coil is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

13) Electric and magnetic field are directed as and , a particle of mass m and charge +q is
released from position (0, 2, 0) from rest. The velocity of that particle at (x, 5, 0) is the
value of x will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Match the following :

Current r.m.s. values

(a) x0 sin ω t (i) xo

(b) x0 sin ω t cos ωt (ii)

(c) x0 sin ωt + x0 cos ωt (iii)

(1) a.(i), b.(ii), c.(iii)

(2) a.(ii), b.(iii), c.(i)
(3) a.(i), b.(iii), c.(ii)
(4) None of these

15) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A
16) If one face of a prism of prism angle 30° and µ = is silvered, the incident ray retraces its
initial path. The angle of incidence is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

17) The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and an output C. The voltage wave
forms of A, B and C are as given, then logic circuit will be equivalent to :-

(1) AND gate

(2) NAND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) NOR gate

18)

A zener diode having breakdown voltage equal to 10V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in
figure. The current flowing through the diode is :

(1) 10 mA
(2) 5 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

19) If NA is number density of acceptor atoms added and ND is number density of donor atoms added
in a single semiconductor, ne and nh are the number density of electrons and holes in it, then

(1) ne = ND, nh = NA
(2) ne = NA, nh = ND
(3) ne + ND = nh + NA
(4) ne + NA = nh + ND

20) From the statements given below :

(A)The angular momentum of an electron in nth orbit is an integral multiple of .

(B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent.
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge independent.
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to the value of packing fraction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

21) A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 200 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to
the gas in the process is :

(1) 850 J
(2) 800 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 700 J

22) Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only if the wavelength of incident light is less than

660 nm. The band gap of photodiode is found to be . The value of X is :

(Given, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19C)

(1) 15
(2) 11
(3) 13
(4) 21

23) A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s then the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of player will be (in
SI unit) :

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 25
(4) 30

24) Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B is
moving towards south with speed 108 km/h. Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity of
ground with respect to B are (in ms–1) :

(1) –30 and 50

(2) –50 and –30
(3) –50 and 30
(4) 50 and –30

25) Match List - I with List - II.

 List - II
List - I
(Significant
(Number)
figure)

(A) 1001 (I) 3

(B) 010.1 (II) 4

(C) 100.100 (III) 5

(D) 0.0010010 (IV) 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

26) A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces and . The

acceleration acting on the body is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) A mass m is suspended from a spring of negligible mass and the system oscillates with a
frequency f1. The frequency of oscillations if a mass 9 m is suspended from the same spring is f2. The

value of is ______.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and each turn has an area of 2.0 cm2. The magnetic
field produced by the magnet is 0.01 T and the deflection in the coil is 0.05 radian when a current of
10 mA is passed through it. The torsional constant of the suspension wire is x × 10–5 N-m/rad. The
value of x is_____.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) One end of a metal wire is fixed to a ceiling and a load of 2 kg hangs from the other end. A
similar wire is attached to the bottom of the load and another load of 1 kg hangs from this lower
wire. Then the ratio of longitudinal strain of upper wire to that of the lower wire will be___.
[Area of cross section of wire = 0.005 cm2, Y = 2 × l011 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) A coil of 200 turns and area 0.20 m2 is rotated at half a revolution per second and is placed in
uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T perpendicular to axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage

generated in the coil is volt. The value of β is______.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

31) 10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier
scale. If each division on the main scale is of 5 units, the least count of the instrument is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A simple pendulum of length 1 m has a wooden bob of mass 1 kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass
10–2 kg moving with a speed of 2 × 102 ms–1. The bullet gets embedded into the bob. The height to
which the bob rises before swinging back is. (use g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.30 m
(2) 0.20 m
(3) 0.35 m
(4) 0.40 m

33) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction depends on the area of contact and independent
of materials.
Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact and
depends on materials.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

34) The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Given below are two statements : one is labelled a Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface
is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

36) A wooden block, initially at rest on the ground, is pushed by a force which increases linearly with
time t. Which of the following curve best describes acceleration of the block with time :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If a rubber ball falls from a height h and rebounds upto the height of h/2. The percentage loss of
total energy of the initial system as well as velocity ball before it strikes the ground, respectively, are
:

(1)
50%,
50%,
(2)

(3) 40%,

(4) 50%,

38) Two wires A and B are made up of the same material and have the same mass. Wire A has radius
of 2.0 mm and wire B has radius of 4.0 mm. The resistance of wire B is 2Ω. The resistance of wire A
is _____Ω.

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 48
(4) 128

39) Match List I with List II

List–I List–II

A. Purely capacitive circuit I.

B. Purely inductive circuit II.

C. LCR series at resonance III.

D. LCR series circuit IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
40) An electric bulb rated 50 W – 200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The power dissipation of
the bulb is :

(1) 12.5 W
(2) 25 W
(3) 50 W
(4) 100 W

41) Two adjacent side of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors
and . The area of parallelogram is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two

points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is : (Take SI units)

(1) 3 × 105
(2) 1 × 105
(3) 0.5 × 105
(4) zero

43) An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron
and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the

electron at that instant.

(1) 4 × 10–20 N
(2) 8π × 10–20 N
(3) 4π × 10–20 N
(4) 8 × 10–20 N

44) In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle
30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is
observed at an angle of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence

where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are :-

(1) α, β–, β+
(2) α, β+, β–
(3) β+, α, β–
(4) β–, α, β+

CHEMISTRY

1) For a reaction, graph plotted between lnk vs has a slope of –2 × 104 then activation energy is-
[in kJ/mol] (R = 8.3 J × K–1 × mol–1)

(1) 83
(2) 166
(3) 249
(4) 332

2)

For the reaction, 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr

completes in several steps:

Step I : NO + Br2 NOBr2 (Fast)

Step II : NOBr2 + NO 2NOBr (Slow)

Find rate law.
(1)
r= [NO]2 [Br2]1

(2)
r= [NO]1[Br2]2
(3) r = k3[NO][NOBr2]

(4)
r= [NO]2 [Br2]1

3) What will be the molar conductance (in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1) at infinite dilution for NH4OH, if at
infinite dilution the molar conductances of Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are 523.28, 280.0 and 129.8
ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 respectively.

(1) 502.88
(2) 373.08
(3) 251.44
(4) 226.96

4) Assertion (A) :- For mercury cell, the cell potential is approximately 1.35 V and remains constant
during its life.
Reason (R) :- The overall cell reaction of mercury cell does not involve any ion in solution whose
concentration can change during its life time.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

5) At 27°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid P is 70 torr. The vapour pressure of the solution of
liquids P and Q is 84 torr and mole fraction of Q is 0.2. The vapour pressure of pure liquid Q is :-

(1) 14 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 56 torr
(4) 70 torr

6) A gas X is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure. Its mole fraction is 0.02 in solution. The mole
fraction of water when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same temperature is :

(1) 0.96
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.98

7) A 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water has freezing point of 270 K. Calculate the freezing
point of 5% cane sugar in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K?
(1) 272 K
(2) 271.5 K
(3) 274.5 K
(4) 280 K

8) Which of following contains maximum number of atoms

(1) 1 gm of C4H10
(2) 1 gm of N2
(3) 1 gm Ag
(4) 1 gm of H2O

9) A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3 has partial pressure 2 atm, 1 atm and 3 atm
respectively at 725 K. If the value of KP for the reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4.28 × 10–5 atm–2 at 725
K, in which direction the net reaction will go :

(1) Forward
(2) Backward
(3) No net reaction
(4) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted

10) For the reaction :

A(g) + B(s) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g)
ΔU = 5.0 kcal and ΔS = 50 cal K–1 at 400 K. Hence ΔG for the reaction is :

(1) – 15 kcal
(2) – 14.4 kcal
(3) – 12.4 kcal
(4) – 13.4 kcal

11) The Ionic product of water at 50°C is 4 × 10–14. The pH and nature of water is :

(1) 6.7 and acidic

(2) 7 and neutral
(3) 6.7 and neutral
(4) 7.3 and basic

12) The ratio of velocity of electron in second orbit of He+ to third orbit of B+4 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) Which of the following can act as reducing agent ?

(1) HNO3
(2) KMnO4
(3) H2SO4
(4) (COOH)2

14) What is the shortest wavelength in the Pfund series of He+ ion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Calculate the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.10 M NaOH. The solubility product of Ni(OH)2 is 2
× 10–15.

(1) 2 × 10–13 M
(2) 3.2 × 10–8 M
(3) 5 × 10–5 M
(4) 3 × 10–17 M

16) Which of the following structure is similar to graphite ?

(1) B2H6
(2) BN
(3) B
(4) B4C

17) XeF2 is isostructural with :-

(1) BaCl2
(2) TeF2
–
(3) ICl2
(4) SbCl3

18) Dipole induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :-

(1) SiF4 and He atoms

(2) H2O and alcohol
(3) Cl2 and CCl4
(4) HCl and He atoms
19) Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) NO+
(2) CO
–
(3) O2
(4) CN–

20) Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order :-

(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te

(2) H2Se < H2S < H2Te
(3) H2Te < H2S < H2Se
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2S

21) In acidic medium, H2O2 changes to CrO5 which has two (–O–O) bonds. Oxidation state of
Cr in CrO5 is :-

(1) +5
(2) +3
(3) +6
(4) –10

22) Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy
(CFSE) is :-

3+
(1) [Mn(H2O)6]
3+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]
3+
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

23) Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following
will not give test of chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25ºC ?

(1) CoCl3·4NH3
(2) CoCl3·5NH3
(3) CoCl3·6NH3
(4) CoCl3·3NH3

24) The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3– is :-

(1) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion

(2) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(3) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion
(4) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
25) Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It's atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct
electronic configuration of gadolinium ?

(1) [Xe] 4f75d16s2

(2) [Xe] 4f65d26s2
(3) [Xe] 4f86d2
(4) [Xe] 4f95s1

26) For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is :-

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne

(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

27) Identify the wrongly matched pair.

Molecule Shape or geometry of molecule

(1) PCl5 Trigonal planar

(2) SF6 Octahedral

(3) BeCl2 Linear

(4) NH3 Trigonal pyramidal

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) The molar ionic conductances of the octahedral comlexes

(I) PtCl4.5NH3
(II) PtCl4.4NH3
(III) PtCl4.3NH3
(IV) PtCl4.2NH3
Follow the order -

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) III < IV < II < I
(4) IV < III < I < II

29) IP values are given, then element will be :-

(IP)1 (IP)2 (IP)3 (IP)4
7.1 ev 10.3 ev 36.2 ev 39.1 ev

(1) Mg
(2) Si
(3) Na
(4) P

30) The maximum and minimum melting point of first and second transition series elements
respectively are obtained with -

(1) Cr and Zn
(2) Cr and Hg
(3) Zn and Mo
(4) Cr and Cd

31) IUPAC name of the Compound is :-

(1) 5-Chloro-2-ethyl-1-methyl cyclohexane

(2) 1-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl cyclohexane
(3) 1–Ethyl–2–methy–4–chloro cyclohexane
(4) 4–Chloro-1–ethyl–2–methyl cyclohexane

32) How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for CH3CHBrCHOHCHOHCHBrCH3 ?

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

33)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Homologous
(3) Position isomer
(4) None

34) How many of the following are aromatic ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which of the following reactions is not feasible ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) CH ≡ CH A B C D E, E is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Number of chiral C in

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

38) Which gives maximum yield of C2H5Cl

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) Which of the following reactions is the best choice for preparing methyl cyclohexyl ether ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following is most reactive toward the acid-catalyst dehydration ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41)
Incorrect about the Y is

(1) Compound 'Y' is but-2-enal

(2) Compound 'Y' is -unsaturated carbonyl compound.
(3) IUPAC name of Y is 4-methyl pent-3-en-2-one
(4) Double bond equivalent of compound Y is 2

42) CH3–CH2–COOH A B
Correct statement about B is -

(1) It does not evolve CO2 on heating

(2) It gives positive iodoform test
(3) It is vicinal dicarboxylic acid
(4) It evolve CO2 with NaHCO3

43) The numbers of chiral centers present in glucopyranose and fructofuranose respectively are :

(1) 4 and 3
(2) 5 and 4
(3) 4 in each
(4) 5 in each

44)

Match List I and List II

List II
List I
(Functional group /
(Test)
Class of Compound)

(A) Lucas test (I) Alkene

(B) Bayer's test (II) 3° alcohol

(C) Carbylamine Test (III) Primary amine

(D) Schiff's Test (IV) Aldehyde

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – III, (D) – IV
(2) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) –I, (D) – II
(3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) – IV
(4) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) –II, (D) – I

45) Statement-1 : Acetaldehyde and acetone are distinguished by Fehling test.

Statement-2 : Benzaldehyde and Acetaldehyde are distinguished by Fehling test.

(1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.

(2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is correct and Statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect and Statement-2 is correct.

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements (i-iii) and mark the correct option :
(i) Forelimbs of mammals are examples of homology
(ii) The similarity in the eyes of octopus and human is the result of convergent evolution
(iii) Potato and sweet potato are the examples of analogy

(1) Only (i) and (ii) correct

(2) Only (ii) and (iii) correct
(3) Only (i) and (iii) correct
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii) correct

2) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which statement about oogenesis in human female is false?

(1) Oogenesis begins at puberty

(2) In oogenesis unequal cytokinesis results in one single large cell, which goes on to form the egg.
(3) At birth, an ovary already contains follicular cells it will ever have that will develop further.
The process of oogenesis is completed, when the egg cell (secondary oocyte) is penetrated by
(4)
sperm

4) How many of the following statement is/are correct with respect to menstrual cycle ?
(A)The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause.
(B) Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised.
(C) During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
(D) In mammals, menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

6) Statement-I : Government of India ligalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid
misuse.
Statement-II : MTP is considered safe up to Eighteen weeks of pregnancy.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being associated with drugs and alcohol.
Statement II : With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body
decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

8) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

(C) Pneumonia (iii) Stool with mucous & blood clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

9) Arrange the different stages of meiosis (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) in sequence :

(1) (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii)

(2) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(4) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)

10) Identify the correct set of statements out of followings :-

(a) Inulin is a linear polymer of fructose unit.
(b) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
(c) Tertiary structure of protein may or may not be soluble in water
(d) Maximum proteins present in protoplasm show tertiary structure
Choose the correct answer from the given options below :-

(1) a, b and d only

(2) only a and b
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d all

11) Read the given statements :-

I. Amino acids are linked by peptide bond
II. Polysaccharides are linked by glycosidic bond
III. Only DNA work as a genetic material
IV. Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world
Which of the given statement are correct

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) I, & III
(3) I, II & III
(4) I, II & IV

12) A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :-

(1) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

(2) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(3) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
(4) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.

13) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Negatively Charged DNA 1 Moves toward anode in electric field

B Sieving Effect 2 Smaller DNA fragments travel farther

C Elution 3 Extracting DNA fragments from gel

D Anode 4 Positive terminal in gel electrophoresis

(1) A→2, B→4, C→1, D→3
(2) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1
(3) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(4) A→3, B→1, C→4, D→2

14) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Method) (Description)
 Increases efficiency of DNA uptake by increasing
A Calcium Treatment 1
permeability of bacterial membrane.

Brief exposure of cells to high temperature to

B Heat Shock 2
facilitate DNA uptake.

Direct injection of DNA into the nucleus of an animal

C Microinjection 3
cell.

Bombarding plant cells with micro-particles coated

D Gene Gun 4
with DNA.
(1) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(2) A→2, B→1, C→4, D→3
(3) A→3, B→4, C→1, D→2
(4) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1

15) Identify correct set of statements.

(a) In nearly all animal tissues specialised junction provide both structural and functional links
between its individual cells.
(b) Gap junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(c) Tight junctions perform connecting the cytoplasm to keep neighbouring cells together.
(d) Epithelium tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

16) Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Gout (i) Decreased levels of estrogen.

(b) Osteoporosis (ii) Low Ca++ ions in the blood.

(c) Tetany (iii) Accumulation of uric acid crystals.

(d) Muscular dystrophy (iv) Auto immune dystrophy disorder.

(v) Genetic disorder

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(iv), .(b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

17) In a ___A___ state, the edge of thin filaments on either side of thick filaments ___B___ overlap the
free ends of ___C___ filaments leaving the central part of thick filaments. This central part of thick
filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called ___D___ zone.
Choose the correct options to fill the graps A, B, C and D, so as to complete the given statement :
(1) A–resting, B–partially, C–thick, D–H
(2) A–resting, B–partially, C–thick, D–A
(3) A–resting, B–partially, C–thick, D–I
(4) A–resting, B–partially, C–thick, D–M

18) Which of the following option in given table is correct

identification of the structures labelled as A,B,C and D and their corresponding function in the
above figure :-

(1) (A) Hypothalamus Produces Prolactin hormone

(2) (B) Posterior pituitary Release FSH and LH

Supply blood from hypothalamus

(3) (C) Portal circulation
to posterior pituitary

(4) (D) Posterior pituitary Release oxytocin and vasopressin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Match the columns regarding frog morphology:

Column I Column II

A. Cloaca (i) Male frog (grip)

B. Nuptial pad (ii) Swimming

C. Vocal sacs (iii) Male frog (sound)

D. Webbed feet (iv) Common chamber in frog

(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

20) Study the following flowchart representing the Endomembrane System and identify the
correct labels for A, B and D.
A → Transition Vesicle → B → Cisternae → D → Secretory Vesicle → Plasma Membrane
Which of the following is correct regarding the components?

(1) A is the Smooth ER; D is the maturing face of the Golgi.

(2) B is the concave face; D is the convex face of the Golgi.
(3) B is the forming face; D is the maturing face of the Golgi.
(4) A synthesizes steroidal hormones; D is where glycosylation begins.

21) Match the specialized structures in Column I with their specific protein composition or feature
in Column II.

Column I Column II
(p) Axoneme (i) 9 + 0 arrangement of triplets
(q) Centriole (ii) 9 + 2 arrangement of doublets
(r) F0-F1 Particles (iii) Contains Hydrolytic enzymes
(s) Lysosome (iv) Found on the Cristae
(1) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii)
(2) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iv), s-(iii)
(3) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iii), s-(iv)
(4) p-(iv), q-(i), r-(ii), s-(iii)

22) Read the following five statements regarding cell organelles and identify how many are
incorrect.
1. The outer membrane of the nucleus usually remains continuous with the ER and also bears
ribosomes on it.
2. The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is the major site for the synthesis of proteins.
3. The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium pectate which holds the different neighbouring
cells together.
4. Both Cilium and Flagellum emerge from centriole-like structures called basal bodies.
5. Gas vacuoles are found in all eukaryotic cells to provide buoyancy.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

23)

How many of the following statements are correct regarding Meiosis I:

I. Synapsis occurs during Zygotene.
II. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process involving Recombinase.
III. Homologous chromosomes separate during Anaphase I while sister chromatids remain
associated.
IV. The bivalents align on the equatorial plate during Metaphase II.

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One

24) Analyze these statements regarding the Regulation of Cell Cycle:

I. Cells in the G0​ stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate.
II. The transition from G1​ to S phase is a major checkpoint.
III. Heart cells in adult animals do not appear to exhibit division.
IV. G2​ phase is characterized by the synthesis of proteins like tubulin for spindle formation.

(1) All statements are correct.

(2) Only I and III are correct.
(3) Statements I, II, and III are correct.
(4) Only IV is incorrect.

25)

Read the following statements:

(a) It is obtained by the acetylation of morphine.
(b) The raw material is extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
(c) It is a potent depressant that slows down body functions.
(d) It is generally taken by snorting or injection.
The drug described in the statements above is:

(1) Cannabinoids
(2) Heroin
(3) Cocaine
(4) Crack

26) Which of the following observations by Karl Ernst von Baer led to the rejection of Ernst
Haeckel's "Biogenetic Law"?

The presence of pharyngeal gill slits in the human embryo signifies a functional fish stage in
(1)
human development.
(2) Embryos of different vertebrates never pass through the adult stages of other vertebrates.
(3) The human embryo possesses a tail that is functionally identical to a monkey's tail.
Development of an individual always mirrors the complete adult evolutionary history of its
(4)
ancestors.

27)

Which of the following options represents the correct sequence of steps in somatic hybridization?

Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Production of
(1)
somatic hybrids → Digestion of cell wall.
Isolation of plant cells → Digestion of cell wall → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant
(2)
varieties → Production of somatic hybrids.
Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Digestion of cell
(3)
wall → Production of somatic hybrids.
Isolation of plant cells → Fusion of protoplasts from different plant varieties → Production of
(4)
somatic hybrids.
28)
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the
following strategies will be chosen to recombinant colonies?

(1) Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing medium plate.

(2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

29) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of
recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are
found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

30) Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton.
(A) The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
(C) The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
(D) The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the
insect.
(E) The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.

(1) E → C → B → A → D
(2) B → C → A → E → D
(3) A → E → B → D → C
(4) B → E → C → A → D

31) Statement-I : The Indian Government, has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding
the validity of GM research.
Statement-II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

32) Statement-I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
Statement-II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by
the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

33) Match respiratory volumes with their approximate values.

Column A Column B
i. TV (Tidal Volume) A. 1100–1200 mL
ii. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) B. 2500–3000 mL
iii. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) C. 1000–1100 mL
iv. RV (Residual Volume) D. 500 mL
(1) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
(2) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
(3) i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A
(4) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, iv-A

34) Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Three-chambered heart (i) Fishes

B. Four-chambered heart (ii) Amphibia & Reptilia (except crocodile)

C. Two-chambered heart (iii) Aves & Mammalia

D. Stomochord (iv) Hemichordata

(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

35) Identify the correct statements regarding Frog respiration:

I. Frogs respire on land mainly through lungs, buccal cavity, and skin.
II. Cutaneous respiration does not occur in water.
III. Lungs are a pair of elongated, pinkish, sac-like structures present in the thorax.
IV. During hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place entirely through the skin.
Which are correct?
(1) I, II, III
(2) I, III, IV
(3) II, III, IV
(4) All of these

36) In a forest, two types of beetles—green and brown—exist. Birds can easily spot green beetles,
while brown beetles are camouflaged. Over time, brown beetles become more common.
Which principle of Darwinian evolution does this example illustrate?

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Natural selection due to survival advantage
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Mutation

37) Consider the following statements regarding Vasectomy and choose the correct one:

(1) It suppresses the secretion of testosterone, thereby reducing the male libido.
(2) It involves the surgical ligation or removal of a small part of the fallopian tubes.
(3) It blocks the transport of gametes, preventing them from reaching the ejaculate.
(4) It is a non-surgical, highly reversible method of contraception.

38) A cell has 2C amount of DNA and 2n chromosomes during G1. If this cell completes Meiosis I but
fails to undergo Cytokinesis I, the resulting single cell (coenocyte) will have:

(1) 4C DNA and 2n chromosomes.

(2) 2C DNA and 2n chromosomes.
(3) 4C DNA and 4n chromosomes.
(4) 2C DNA and n chromosomes.

39) In a competitive inhibition experiment, the Vmax of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction was found to be
100 mu mol/min. If the concentration of the competitive inhibitor is increased ten-fold, what will
happen to the Vmax?

(1) It will decrease to 10 mu mol/min.

(2) It will decrease to 50 mu mol/min.
(3) It will remain at 100 mu mol/min.
(4) It will increase to 200 mu mol/min.

40) Which of the following statements regarding the structure of B-DNA is incorrect?

(1) The pitch of the helix is 34 Å.

(2) The distance between two adjacent base pairs is 3.4 Å.
(3) The two strands run in a parallel orientation with a 5' → 3' directionality.
(4) The backbone is formed by alternating sugar and phosphate groups.

41) When comparing Cellulose, Glycogen, and Amylose, which chemical feature is unique to
Glycogen?

(1) It is a polymer of β-D-glucose.

(2) It contains only α-1,4 glycosidic linkages.
(3) It is a highly branched polymer containing both α-1,4 and α-1,6 glycosidic linkages.
(4) It forms a helical secondary structure that can hold I2 molecules.

42) Which of the following option is correct ?

(1) Fertilization is internal and development is indirect — Euspongia, Ctenoplana

(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and alimentary canal present —Planaria, Taenia
(3) Body is segmented and performs locomotion with the help of parapodia — Nereis, Hirudinaria
(4) Body is covered by mantle layer and gills are present — Pinctada, Pila

43) Which one of the following group of three animals, each is correctly matched with their one
characteristic feature.

Animal Feature
(1) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach Dorsal, hollow CNS
(2) Pleurobrachia, Locust, Taenia Metameric segmentation
(3) Liver fluke, Aplysia, Bombyx Bilateral symmetry
(4) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin Jointed appendages
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1) Scoliodon

(B) (2) Pristis

(C) (3) Catla

(D) (4) Petromyzon

Option:
(1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(3) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

45) How many statements is/are correct for below animal :- 1. Triploblastic
animal
2. Digestive tract absent
3. Both mouth and anus present
4. Unisexual animal
5. Pseudocoelomate animal
6. Metamerically segmented body
7. Suckers and hooks are present
8. It belongs to phylum Aschelminthes

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

46)

Consider the following statements.

+
(A) At rest, the axoplasm inside the axon contain low concentration of K ions.
(B) The concentration gradient across axonal membrane is generated due to the different
concentration of Na+ and K+ ions across it.
Select the correct option.

(1) A is true, B is false.

(2) Both A and B are false.
(3) A is false, B is true.
(4) Both A and B are true.

47) Consider the following statements regarding hormones and their functions/origin:
A. ADH deficiency causes excessive urination and a condition called diabetes insipidus.
B. ACTH is secreted by the pituitary gland and stimulates adrenal cortex activity.
C. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid involved in sodium and water balance.
D. Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus due to increased blood glucose level.
E. Adrenaline causes vasodilation in blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles during emergency
conditions.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) Only A, B and C are correct
(2) Only A, C, D and E are correct
(3) All statements A, B, C, D and E are correct
(4) Only B, C and D are correct

48)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Eradication of the pests is undesirable as without them the beneficial predatory and parasitic
(1)
insects which depend upon them as food or hosts would not be able to survive.
An important part of the biological farming approach is to become familiar with the various life
(2) form that inhabit the field, predators as well as pests, and also their life cycles, patterns of
feeding and the habitats that they prefer.
(3) The very familiar beetle with red and black markings is the Ladybird.
Bt spores are mixed with water and sprayed onto valuable plants such as brassicas and fruit
(4)
trees, where these are eaten by the insect adults.

49) Which of the following statement is wrong?

(1) In settling tank, the sedimented bacterial flocs are called activated sludge.
A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the anaerobic sludge digester to serve
(2)
as the inoculum.
In anaerobic sludge digesters, other kinds of bacteria which grow anaerobically, digest the
(3)
bacteria and the fungi in the sludge.
(4) The biogas can be used as source of energy as it is inflammable.

50) Which of the following is the correct match with respect to function of human nephron?

(1) Afferent arteriole — carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
Podocytes — create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s
(2)
capsule
(3) Henle's loop — reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
Distal convoluted tubule — reabsorption of K⁺ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
(4)
Correct Answer:

51) Assertion (A): In a typical monohybrid cross, the proportion of plants that are dwarf is 1/4th of
the F2 plants while 3/4th of the plants are tall. Reason (R): The segregation of alleles is a random
process, meaning there is a 50 per cent chance of a gamete containing either allele, leading to the
3:1 phenotypic ratio upon random fertilisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
52) Statement I: In co-dominance, the F1 generation resembles both parents, as seen in the ABO
blood grouping in human beings.
Statement II: Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene, and the starch grains
produced in heterozygotes (Bb) are of intermediate size, demonstrating that dominance is an
autonomous feature of a gene.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

53) Read the following statements regarding genetic disorders and identify how many of them are
correct.
A. Sickle-cell anaemia is controlled by a single pair of alleles, HbA and HbS, and only homozygous
individuals for HbS show the diseased phenotype.
B. alpha Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome 11 of each parent.
C. Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
D. Turner's syndrome is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of the X-chromosome.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

54) Match List-I with List-II regarding the enzymes of transcription and their functions in eukaryotes
:

List I List II

A. RNA polymerase I I. Transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNAs

B. RNA polymerase II II. Joins discontinuously synthesised fragments

C. RNA polymerase III III. Transcribes precursor of mRNA (hnRNA)

D. DNA ligase IV. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

55) If a double-stranded DNA molecule has 20 per cent of cytosine, calculate the per cent of adenine
in the DNA.

(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 40%
(4) 60%
56) Read the following statements regarding the molecular basis of inheritance.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred
(1)
Hershey and Martha Chase.
The 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA makes it labile, reactive, and easily
(2)
degradable.
Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive proteins but not
(3)
radioactive DNA.
RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst around which essential life processes
(4)
evolved.

57) Assertion (A): All the taxonomic categories or ranks together constitute a ecological hierarchy.
Reason (R): An organism represents or occupies a place or position in the system of classification,
which is assigned based on resemblances and distinct differences.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true

58) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is incorrect?

(1) Lichens are symbiotic, mutually useful associations between algae and fungi.
(2) The algal component is known as the phycobiont and is autotrophic.
(3) The fungal component is known as the mycobiont and is heterotrophic.
(4) Fungi prepare food for algae, while algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients.

59) Statement I: Natural classification is based on natural affinities among organisms.

Statement II: Phylogenetic classification system is based on evolutionary relationships.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

60) Match the Kingdom in Column I with its Cell Type in Column II based on the Five Kingdom
Classification:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monera (1) Eukaryotic

(B) Protista (2) Prokaryotic

(C) Fungi
(1) A-2, B-1, C-1
(2) A-1, B-2, C-1
(3) A-2, B-2, C-1
(4) A-1, B-1, C-2

61) How many of the following are common members of red algae (Rhodophyceae)?
Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria, Gelidium, Fucus, Dictyota

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

62) Which of the following statements about brown algae (Phaeophyceae) is incorrect?

(1) They possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.

(2) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by non-motile spores.
The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the outside by a gelatinous coating
(3)
of algin.
(4) The plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast.

63) Assertion (A): In bryophytes, the sporophyte is not free-living.

Reason (R): The sporophyte is attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives
nourishment from it.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

64) Consider the following statements:

I. Natality increases population size.
II. Mortality decreases population size.
III. Immigration decreases population size.
IV. Emigration decreases population size.

(1) I, II and IV
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

65) Assertion (A): Population density need not necessarily be measured in numbers only.
Reason (R): Population density reflects the number of individuals per unit area.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation.

(2) Both true, but R not explanation.
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

66) Match the Columns -

 Column I Column II
A. Mutualism 1. Both species are harmed
B. Commensalism 2. One species benefits, other species unaffected
C. Parasitism 3. One species benefits, other species harmed
D. Competition 4. Both species are benefited
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

67) In an aquatic ecosystem, pyramid of biomass is inverted because:

(1) Producers have short lifespan

(2) Producers have low biomass but high turnover
(3) Consumers have higher reproduction
(4) Energy flow is reversed

68) Consider the following statements:

I. Decomposition involves fragmentation, leaching, catabolism.
II. Humification leads to formation of humus.
III. Mineralization releases inorganic nutrients.
IV. Decomposition occurs faster in low temperature.
Choose correct statements :

(1) I, II and III

(2) I and IV only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

69) Consider the following statements:

I. Species richness increases with area, but only upto a limit.
II. Species-area relationship is linear on log-log scale.
III. Value of slope (Z) is generally between 0.1–0.2.
IV. Z value is always greater than 1 for a small r̥egion.
Choose the correct statements :

(1) I, II and III

(2) I and IV only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

70) Assertion: The ovary is half-inferior in flowers of plum, rose, and peach.
Reason: In perigynous flowers, the margin of thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary
completely and getting fused with it.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

71)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) In Calotropis, aestivation is valvate.

(2) In pea, the stamens are diadelphous.
(3) In silk cotton, leaves are pinnatelycompound.
(4) In ginger, the underground stem is a rhizome.

72) Match the following columns:

Column I Column II
A. Underground stem i. Euphorbia
B. Stem tendril ii. Potato
C. Fleshy cylindrical stem iii. Cucumber
D. Flattened stem iv. Opuntia
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

73) Statement I: In the dicot stem, the cells of the pericycle are present on the inner side of the
endodermis and above the phloem in the form of semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma.
Statement II: In the monocot stem, vascular bundles are conjoint, open, and have a water-
containing cavity.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

74) Identify the correct statement regarding the anatomy of a monocotyledonous root:

(1) Pith is small and inconspicuous

(2) Vascular bundles are usually 2 to 4.
(3) Secondary growth is highly prominent
(4) There are usually more than six xylem bundles (polyarch).

75) How many total ATP molecules are generated (gross) by a C4 plant to fix 6 molecules of CO2?

(1) 18 ATP
(2) 30 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 24 ATP

76) Identify the correct sequence of electron flow:

(1) PS II → Pheophytin → ETS → PS I → Ferredoxin → NADP+

(2) PS I → ETS → PS II → NADP+
(3) NADP+ → PS II → ETS → PS I
(4) PS II → PS I → ETS → NADP+

77) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The stroma lamellae membranes lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
(2) In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO but lack PEPcase.
(3) The C4 acid OAA is formed in the bundle sheath cells.
(4) Water splitting complex is associated with the PS II.

78) What is the correct chronological sequence of the following stages in the Citric Acid Cycle?
(A) Formation of α-ketoglutaric acid.
(B) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA.
(C) Formation of Succinyl-CoA.
(D) Formation of Malic acid.

(1) B → A → C → D
(2) A → B → C → D
(3) B → C → A → D
(4) D → B → A → C

79) How many NADH + H+ molecules are produced during the complete oxidation of one molecule of
Acetyl CoA in the TCA cycle?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Select the correct statement concerning plant respiration:

(1) In fermentation, there is a net gain of 7 ATP for each molecule of glucose.
Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial
(2)
membrane.
(3) The energy released by oxidation in respiration is directly used for cell metabolism.
(4) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.

81) Calculate the growth rate (Arithmetic) if a root elongates from 5 cm to 15 cm in 5 hours.

(1) 10 cm/hr
(2) 5 cm/hr
(3) 2 cm/hr
(4) 3 cm/hr

82) Which of the following is the correct function of Gibberellic Acid (GA3)?

(1) To delay senescence in fruits like apple.

(2) To induce dormancy in seeds.
(3) To promote fruit ripening in tomatoes.
(4) To induce stomatal closure under stress.

83) Among the terms listed choose below, those that are not technically correct names for a floral
whorl :
(i) Androecium
(ii) Carpel
(iii) Corolla
(iv) Sepal

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)

84) Following four statements are given here select incorrect statement ?

(1) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoceium is found in Michelia

(2) Apple and strawberry are example of false fruits
(3) Perispermic seeds are found in Piper nigrum
(4) Castor and barley are examples of non-endospermic seeds.

85) Statement-I : The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
Statement-II : Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

86) Assertion : Pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason : When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat at each step.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) Match list-I with list-II :

 List-I List-II

(A) Monoadelphous condition (I) Citrus

(B) Diadelphous condition (II) Lily

(C) Polyadelphous condition (III) Chinarose

(D) Epiphyllous condition (IV) Pea

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

88) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems.
Statement-II : Leaves are arranged in acropetal order.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

89) If the modified allele produce normal enzyme then which statement is not true :-

(1) It will produce phenotype similar to unmodified allele

(2) It will be responsible for transformation of substrate into product
(3) Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified allele
(4) Modified allele is equivalent to unmodified allele

90) A DNA sequence is polymorphic if -

(1) The carrier frequency is less than 2 percent

(2) If can be cut with a restriction enzyme
(3) A variation in sequence occurs in more than 1 percent of the population
(4) Variation is present in more than 100 organisms
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain Question: A car of mass 1250 kg is moving at 30m/s. Its engine delivers 30 kW
while resistive force due to surface is 750N. What max acceleration can be given in the car.
Concept: Arrehenius Equation.
Solution: Force produced by the engine

=103N
Acceleration =

=
Final Answer: (3)

2) Question Explanation: Calculate the work required to pull the hanging portion of a
uniform chain back onto a smooth horizontal table.
Concept Involved: Work done corresponds directly to the gain in gravitational potential
energy .
Solution:

Weight of overhanging part of the chain

The weight acts at the centre of gravity of the overhanging part, i.e., below the surface of
the table.

Gain in potential energy ∴ Work done = gain in potential energy = .

Final Answer : (1)

3) Question Explanation : A ball hits a surface with velocity vv at a 45° angle and rebounds

with velocity v′ at an angle θ. Given the coefficient of restitution e = find the rebound
angle after the collision.

Concept: Oblique collision - Coefficient of restitution

Solution:

During collision between ball and surface velocity in horizontal direction remain same.
v sin 45° = v' sin ...(1)
ev sin 45° = v' cos ...(2)

Equation (1) Equation (2)

∴ θ = 60º

Final answer: Option (2)

4) Explain the question :

If the tortoise moves along A ⊂ B on this rotating circular platform. Then what effect will be
there on the angular speed of the platform with time.
Concept : This question is based on conservation of angular momentum.
Formula : L = Iω = constant
Solution :
For the motion of tortoise from point A to C →
Isystem ↓ ⇒ ωsystem ↑
For the motion of tortoise from point C to B →
Isystem ↑ ⇒ ωsystem ↓
So, we can say that angular velocity of the disc first increases, then becomes maximum & then
decreases.
So, out of all the "ω vs t" graphs given in the options, the best suited graph will be -

Final answer : Option(3)

5) Question Explanation: Select the correct free body diagram showing the contact normal
force location for a block in equilibrium facing tipping.
Concept Involved: Rotational equilibrium criteria and the shifting of normal reaction forces.
Solution:
Normal shfit towards point of rotation.
Final Answer: Option (2)

6) Question Explanation: Find the circular orbital velocity of the lighter particle in a two-

body system containing masses and separated by distance .

Concept Involved: Mutual gravitational attraction acting as the centripetal force around the
common center of mass.
Solution:

Orbital radius of particle m:

Final Answer: Option (2)

7) Explain question:
A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius R under an attractive inverse-square central
force. We must find its total energy.

Concept:
Central inverse-square force and energy of circular motion

Solution:
Given force:

Potential energy:

Integrating and using = 0.

Centripetal condition for circular motion:

Kinetic energy:

Total energy:

Final answer: Option 4

8) Question Explanation: Find the ratio of thermal conductivities of two connected bars
given their steady-state temperature profile versus position.
Concept Involved: Equality of heat transfer rates for conductors arranged in series

configurations .
Solution:

⇒
Final Answer: Option (2)

9) Question Explanation: Deduce specific heat and latent heat characteristics based on a
material phase transition curve graph.
Concept Involved: Phase changes require heat energy Q = mL, while specific heat capacity

links inversely with temperature profile slope .

Solution:
For latent heats,
Q = mL ⇒ Q , L
For specific heat,

slope =
Final Answer: Option (3)

10) Question Explanation: Calculate the translational kinetic energy for 1 mole of diatomic

0
gas expanding according to at volume V = V .

Concept Involved: Ideal gas translational kinetic energy expression .

0
Solution: At V = V , the pressure resolves to .

Final Answer: Option (2)

11) Question Explanation: Find the tension within a string of density and area
2
1mm passing a wave mode .
Concept Involved: Transverse mechanical wave speed equation along standard flexible

strings .
Solution:
y = 0.02 sin (x + 30t)

For the given wave ; v = = –30

(x + 30 t = constant)

We have v = ⇒ T = µv2 = A.ρV2

= (10–6 m2)
⇒ T = 7.2 N
Final Answer: Option (2)

12) Question Explanation: Compute the mechanical torque acting on a geometric current
loop exposed to a uniform magnetic field in the loop plane.
Concept Involved: Vector formulation of magnetic torque acting on planar loop dipoles

.
Solution:

=
Final Answer: Option (1)

13) Question Explanation: Determine the displacement coordinate x for a particle +q

starting from rest and achieving velocity vector in combined crossed fields.
Concept Involved: The work-energy theorem highlighting that stable magnetic lines cannot
contribute network to kinetic variations.
Solution:
By work-energy theorem;

0
qE . x =

Final Answer: Option (4)

14) Question Explanation: Match specific alternating current functional expressions with
their absolute effective root-mean-square (r.m.s.) properties.
Concept Involved: Theoretical integration definitions for tracking root-mean-square outputs
over standard cycles.
Solution:
(a) y = x0 sinωt

yrms =
(b) y = x0 sinωt cosωt

= .2sinωt cosωt

= sin2ωt

yrms =
(c) y = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt

peak =
 yrms =
Final Answer: Option (2)

15) Question Explanation: Find the minimum angle of deviation for a refractive prism
containing an inner apex angle A and index profile .
Concept Involved: General optical prism index definitions linked with minimum deviation
parameters (δm).
Solution:

μ=
∵ μ = cot (A/2)

∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A
Final Answer: Option (1)

16) Question Explanation: For a prism with one silvered face, a light ray retraces its path
only if it hits the silvered surface normally. We need to find the incidence angle i that makes
this happen.

Concept: Retracing occurs when the refracted ray hits the mirror surface at 90°.

Formula: Condition for retracing: r2 = 0° which implies r1 = A

Snell's Law:

Solution:
Brief Calculation
Identify Values:
Refraction Angle: Since the ray hits the second face normally to retrace, r2 = 0 so r1 = A = 30°.
Snell's Law at face 1:

Solve for
Final Answer: Option (3)

17) Question Explanation: Decipher the operational equivalent logic gate from the provided
digital timing binary graph traces of inputs A, B and output C.
Concept Involved: Logical mapping of boolean operations directly from voltage time traces.
Solution:
Corresponding binary numbers of given waveforms.

Final Answer: (3)

18) Question Explanation: Find the regulation current routing through a 10V breakdown
Zener diode placed inside the diagrammed circuit network.
Concept Involved: Current distribution laws inside regulated shunt Zener architectures.
Solution:
vin > vz hence diode is at B/D

i = 5/200 = 0.025A
iL 10/103 = 10mA iZ = i–iL = 25–10 = 15mA
Final Answer: (3)

19)

1. Explain Question:
This question examines the charge neutrality relation between electrons (ne), holes (nh),
acceptor concentration (Na), and donor concentration (ND) in a doped semiconductor.
2. Concept:
In equilibrium, total positive charge equals total negative charge.
3. Formula (minimum steps):
Total negative charge = Total positive charge
⇒ ne + Na = nh + Nb
4. Calculation:
Electrons (ne ) and ionized acceptors (Na) contribute negative charge.
Holes (nh) and ionized donors (ND) contribute positive charge.
Thus, charge neutrality condition becomes:
ne + Na = nh + ND
Correct Option: 4

20)

Question Explanation: Choose the correct group of statement choices exploring orbit
descriptions, force traits, and packing fractions.
Concept Involved: Structural characteristics and physical descriptions of core strong nuclear
forces.
Solution:
Part of theory
Final Answer: (3)

21) Question Explanation: Find the total thermal heat absorbed by a diatomic gas model
while doing 200 J of physical work at a constant pressure.
Concept Involved: First Law thermodynamics properties scaled for constant pressure

processes .
Solution:

γ = 1 + = 1.4
⇒f=5
W = n R ΔT = 200J

= 700 J
Final Answer: (4)

22) Question Explanation: Find parameter X if the energy band gap threshold value for a

photodiode starting conduction at 660 nm is given as eV.

Concept Involved: Direct relationship connecting specific electronic band gaps with cut-off

radiation wavelengths .
Solution:

So x = 15
Final Answer: Option (1)

23) Question Explanation: Calculate the impact force matching a 120 g cricket ball arriving
at 25 m/s brought to rest over a 0.1 s timeframe.
Concept Involved: Momentum-impulse definition stating average force links directly with

rate of momentum change .

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (4)

24) Question Explanation: Calculate the relative velocity vectors matching two parallel
trains and reference ground shifts.
Concept Involved: Relative vector operations in single dimension constraints (vB/A = vB – vA).
Solution:

VA = 20 m/s
VB = –30 m/s
Velocity of B w.r.t. A
VB/A = – 50 m/s
Velocity of ground w.r.t. B
VG/B = 30 m/s
Final Answer: Option (3)

25)

Question Explanation: Correctly match lists containing values with their precise significant
figure counts.
Concept Involved: Standard criteria rules for verifying significant digit limits.
Solution:
(A) 1001 ⇒ 4 digits (II)
(B) 010.1 ⇒ 3 digits (I)
(C) 100.100 ⇒ 6 digits (IV)
(D) 0.0010010 ⇒ 5 digits (III)
Final Answer: Option (3)

26) Question Explanation: Find the vector acceleration resulting from two concurrent force
paths acting on a 4 kg mass.

Concept Involved: Newton’s second law translated into vector form .

Solution:
Net force =

Final Answer: Option (3)

27) Question Explanation: Evaluate the shift ratio of natural vibration frequencies when load
mass steps up from m to 9m.
Concept Involved: Inverse square root dependence of inertia on spring system frequencies
 .
Solution:

=3
Final Answer: Option (3)

28)

Question Explanation: Find the suspension wire torsional spring constant for a moving-coil
galvanometer given its dimensions and current excitation properties.
Concept Involved: Mechanical torque balancing configuration inside galvanometer networks
(NIAB = Cθ).
Solution:
τ = BINAsinϕ
Cθ = BINAsin90°

= 4 × 10–5 N-m/rad.
x=4
Final Answer: Option (4)

29) Question Explanation: Calculate the ratio of mechanical longitudinal strains generated
inside a linked multi-tier suspension string apparatus.
Concept Involved: Elastic definition stating standard longitudinal strain links directly with

internal string tension .

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (3)

30)

Question Explanation: Find parameter β for an alternator winding producing peak

electromotive forces modeled by .
Concept Involved: Maximum induced electromotive force generated via rotating magnetic
configurations ( ).
Solution:
ϕ = NAB cos(ωt)

= NABωsin(ωt)
εmax = NABω
= 200 × 0.2 × 0.01 × π

Final Answer: Option (4)

31) Question Explanation: Determine the instrument least count if 10 main scale increments
match 11 divisions on the Vernier grid with each scale unit measuring 5.
Concept Involved: Universal structural rule defining Vernier instrument least count
(LC=1MSD-1VSD).
Solution:
10 MSD = 11 VSD

1 VSD = MSD
LC = 1MSD – 1VSD

= 1 MSD MSD

= units
Final Answer: Option (4)

32) Question Explanation: Calculate the upward height traveled by a pendulum target after
sustaining an embedding impact from a fast-moving bullet.
Concept Involved: Conservation of linear momentum during inelastic collision followed by
conservation of mechanical energy.
Solution:

mu = (M + m)V
10–2 × 2 × 102 ≅ 1 × V
V ≅ 2m/s

h= = 0.2 m
Final Answer: Option (2)

33) Question Explanation: Identify the correct descriptions explaining boundary area
dependencies for static and kinetic limiting friction parameters.
Concept Involved: Laws of friction stating limits are independent of macroscopic contact
area but rely closely on material pairings.
Solution:
Co-efficient of friction depends on surface in contact So, depends on material of object.
Final Answer: Option (2)

34) Question Explanation: Find the threshold frequency bounding an extraction work
function barrier equivalent to 6.63 eV.
Concept Involved: Einstein photoelectric definition relating entry threshold frequencies with
extraction thresholds .
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

35) Question Explanation: Evaluate if zero network along equipotential traces occurs
because electrical field lines consistently cross them orthogonally.
Concept Involved: Mathematical definition of work performed inside conservative field tracks
.
Solution:
Electric line of force are always perpendicular to equipotential surface so angle between farce
and displacement will always be 90°. So work done equal to 0.
Final Answer: Option (4)

36) Question Explanation: Pick the accurate profile trace representing the acceleration of a
body pushed along a flat plane by a linearly increasing force.
Concept Involved: Application of Newton’s second law where acceleration tracks directly

with net applied force changes .

Solution:

a vs t will be straight line passing through origin.

Final Answer: Option (2)
37) Question Explanation: Find total potential energy loss percentage and baseline entry
impact velocity for an object dropping from height h and returning to h/2.
Concept Involved: Free fall kinematics equations combined with gravitational potential
energy proportions.
Solution:
Velocity just before collision =

Velocity just after collision =

∴ % loss in energy

=
Final Answer: Option (4)

38) Question Explanation: Find the electrical resistance of wire A given wire B registers
2Ω when both elements share mass and material properties but have different radii.
Concept Involved: Geometric resistance dependence stated in terms of mass limits and cross-

sectional values .
Solution:

⇒ RA = 32 Ω.
Final Answer: Option (1)

39) Question Explanation: Correctly align specific AC reactive loop structures with their
corresponding current-voltage phase properties.
Concept Involved: Phasor analysis capturing reactive phase offsets across inductive,
capacitive, and resonant combinations.
Solution:
A – V lags by 90° from I hence option (I) is correct.
B – V lead by 90° from I hence option (IV) is correct
C – In LCR resonance XL = XC. Hence circuit is purely resistive so option (II) is correct
D – In LCR series V is at some angle from I hence (III) is correct
Hence option (4) is correct.
Final Answer: Option (4)

40) Question Explanation: Find the total operational power consumption for a 50W - 200V
electrical lamp connected across an under-rated 100V power feed.
Concept Involved: Standard resistance calculations combined with voltage power laws

.
Solution:
Rated power & voltage gives resistance

R = 800

P = 12.5 watt
Final Answer: Option (1)

41) Question Explanation: Calculate the area enclosing a geometric parallelogram

configured via two explicit vector boundary paths.
Concept Involved: Vector cross products applied to calculate spatial area metrics

.
Solution:
Area of parallelogram =

=
Final Answer: Option (4)

42) Question Explanation: Determine the potential difference separating an internal center
point from an outer boundary surface point on a thin charged shell.
Concept Involved: Electrostatic characteristics of hollow spherical conductors showing a
uniform internal potential distribution.
Solution:
Shell is equipotential surface
So, Vp = Vc
∴ Potential Difference = 0
Final Answer: Option (4)

43) Question Explanation: Calculate the Lorentz magnetic force felt by a single electron
moving parallel to an infinitely long wire conducting 5 A.
Concept Involved: Long straight wire field equations matched with the magnetic force law
.
Solution:
 F = 8 × 10–20 Newton
Final Answer: Option (4)

44) Question Explanation: Find the angular position highlighting the first secondary peak
inside a single slit diffraction system that produces its first minimum at 30°.
Concept Involved: Boundary criteria governing single-slit Fraunhofer diffraction minima and
secondary maxima positions.
Solution:

For first minima,

First secondary maxima will be at

Final Answer: Option (4)

45) Question Explanation: Track down the precise sequence of decay emission products
moving through a multi-stage radioactive transition series.
Concept Involved: Standard balancing criteria for nuclear decay tracking atomic number
shifts .
Solution:

β+ decreases atomic number by 1

α decreases atomic number by 2
β– increases atomic number by 1
Final Answer: Option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : For a reaction, graph plotted between lnk vs has a slope of –2 × 104 then
activation energy is- [in kJ/mol] (R = 8.3 J × K–1 × mol–1)
Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius Equation
Solution :
Ea = (2 × 104) (8.314 × 10–3)
Ea = 166 kJ/mol
Final Answer : (2)

47) Explaining : Find rate law.

Concept : This question is based on Rate law for complex reaction
Solution :
From slow step r = k3[NOBr2] [NO]
from reversible step,

Final Answer : (1)

48) Explaining : What will be the molar conductance (in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1) at infinite dilution
for NH4OH, if at infinite dilution the molar conductances of Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are
523.28, 280.0 and 129.8 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 respectively.
Concept : This question is based on kohlrausch's law
Solution :

= 2 × 129.8 + 523.28 - 280

= 502.88
= 251.44 Scm2 mol-1
Final Answer : (3)

49)

Question Explanation : We need to determine the correct relationship between Assertion

and Reason regarding the constant potential of the mercury cell.

Concept : This question is based on mercury cell working and concentration independence of
emf.

Solution :
In a mercury cell,
Anode: Zn(Hg) → Zn2+ + 2e–
Cathode: HgO + H2O + 2e– → Hg + 2OH–
Overall reaction: Zn + HgO → ZnO + Hg

No ion in solution changes its concentration, so the emf remains constant (≈1.35 V). Hence,
both Assertion and Reason are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) → Option
(4)
50) Explaining : At 27°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid P is 70 torr. The vapour pressure
of the solution of liquids P and Q is 84 torr and mole fraction of Q is 0.2. The vapour pressure
of pure liquid Q is:-
Concept : This question is based on Raoult's Law
Solution :
= 70 torr, XP = 1 – XQ = 0.8

84 = 70 × 0.8 +
⇒
Final Answer : (2)

51) Explaining : A gas X is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure. Its mole fraction is 0.02 in
solution. The mole fraction of water when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same
temperature is :
Concept : This question is based on Henry's law
Solution :
Henry's law– Pgas = KH·Xgas
2 = KH × 0.02 .....(i)
4 = KH × Xgas .....(ii)

=
Xgas = 0.04
∴
Final Answer : (1)

52) Explaining : A 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water has freezing point of 270 K.
Calculate the freezing point of 5% cane sugar in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15
K?
Concept : This question is based on Depression in freezing point
Solution :
For aqueous solution of glucose
ΔTf = kf m
Tf° – Tf = kf m

273.15 – 270 = kf × ...(1)

For aqueous solution of cane sugar
ΔTf = kfm

273.15 – Tf = kf × ...(2)
(1) ÷ (2) (Dividing)
We get, Tf = 271.5 K (F.P. of cane sugar solution)
Final Answer : (2)

53) Explaining : Which of following contains maximum number of atoms

Concept : This question is based on Number of atoms
Solution :
No. of atoms = moles × NA × atomicity
1g C4H10

No. of atoms = × NA × 14
1g N2

No. of atoms = × NA × 2
1g Ag

No. of atoms = × NA
1g H2O

No. of atoms = × NA × 3
Final Answer : (1)

54) Explaining : A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3 has partial pressure 2 atm, 1
atm and 3 atm respectively at 725 K. If the value of KP for the reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is
–5 –2
4.28 × 10 atm at 725 K, in which direction the net reaction will go :
Concept : This question is based on Reaction Quotient
Solution :

Since Qp > Kp ; reaction goes in the backward direction

Final Answer : (3)

55) Explaining : For the reaction :

A(g) + B(s) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g)
ΔU = 5.0 kcal and ΔS = 50 cal K–1 at 400 K. Hence ΔG for the reaction is :
Concept : This question is based on Relative between ΔH and ΔU
Solution :
ΔH = ΔU + (Δng)RT

= 5 kcal + 2 × × 400
= 6.6 kcal
ΔG = ΔH – T ΔS

=
= (6.6 – 20) kcal
= – 13.4 kcal
Final Answer : (4)

56) Explaining : The Ionic product of water at 50°C is 4 × 10–14. The pH and nature of water is
:
Concept : This question is based on Effect of temperature on pH.

Solution :
Nature of water is neutral with pH 6.7.
Final Answer : (3)
57) Explaining : The ratio of velocity of electron in second orbit of He+ to third orbit of B+4 is
:-
Concept : This question is based on velocity

Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

58) Explaining : Which of the following can act as reducing agent ?

Concept : This question is based on Application of oxidation no.
Solution : Reducing agent is a substance that can be oxidized,
i.e. it contains and element that is not already in its highest possible oxidation state.
HNO3 → +5
KMnO4 → +7
H2SO4 → +6
(COOH)2 → +3
Since C can be oxidized to +4, oxalic acid (COOH)2 can acts as a reducing agent.
Final Answer : (4)

59) Explain the Question : We are asked to find the shortest wavelength in the Pfund series
of the He+ ion.
Concept : This question is based on hydrogen-like atomic spectra.
Solution :
Pfund series : transitions ending at n1 = 5
Shortest wavelength → highest energy → n2 = ∞
For He+, Z = 2

Final Answer : (4)

60) Explaining : Calculate the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.10 M NaOH. The solubility
product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15.
Concept : This question is based on Ksp and solubility in presence of common ion
Solution : NaOH → Na+ + OH–
0.10 M
2+ –
Ni(OH)2 Ni + 2OH
s' 2s' + 0.1 0.1
2+ – 2
Ksp = [Ni ] [OH ]
2 × 10–15 = s' × (0.1)2

Final Answer : (1)

61) Explaining : Which of the following structure is similar to graphite
Concept : This question is based on Graphite
Solution : BN structure is similar to graphite
Final Answer : (2)

62) Explaining : XeF2 is isostructural with

Concept : This question is based on Shape
Solution :

Linear
Final Answer : (3)

63) Explaining : Dipole induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs
:-
Concept : This question is based on Vander wall forces
Solution :
Dipole - induced dipole occurs between polar & Non-polar molecule
HCl He
Polar Non-polar
μ≠0 μ=0
Final Answer : (4)

64) Explaining : Which of the following is paramagnetic

Concept : This question is based on MOT
Solution :
O2– → 17 e– contains one unpaired e– in ABMO.
σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2
2

Final Answer : (3)

65) Explaining : Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order
Concept : This question is based on Acidic strength
Solution :
On moving down the group bond length increases so liberation tendency of H will be more.
Final Answer : (1)

66) Explaining : In acidic medium, H2O2 changes to CrO5 which has two (–O–O) bonds.
Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is :-
Concept : This question is based on O.S.
Solution : CrO5 has 2 peroxy linkage.
Final Answer : (3)

67) Explaining : Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field
stabilization energy (CFSE) is :-
Concept : This question is based on CFSE
Solution : Due to d5 configuration and H2O is a weak ligand.
Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia.
Which of the following will not give test of chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25ºC ?
Concept : This question is based on werner theory
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

69) Explaining : The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3– is :-

Concept : This question is based on Nomenclature
Solution :
[Fe(CN)6]–3
Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
Final Answer : (2)

70) Explaining : Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It's atomic number is 64. Which of the
following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium ?
Concept : This question is based on E.C of d-Block element
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

71) Explaining : For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first
ionisation enthalpy is :-
Concept : This question is based on IE
Solution :
For same shell
[s1 < p1 < s2 < p2 < p4 < p3 < p5 < p6]
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Final Answer : (2)

72) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on shape
Solution :
PCl5 - Trigonal bipyramidal.

Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : The molar ionic conductances of the octahedral complexes

Concept : This question is based on Werner theory
Solution :
Molar conductivity ∝ No. of ions
(i) (Pt(Cl) (NH3)5)Cl3
(ii) (Pt(NH3)4Cl2)Cl2
(iii) (Pt(NH3)3Cl3)Cl
(iv) (Pt(NH3)2Cl4)
Final Answer : (2)

74) Explaining : IP values are given, then element will be :-

Concept : This question is based on Valence element
Solution :
2 valence eΘ → Mg
Final Answer : (1)

75) Explaining : The maximum and minimum melting point of first and second transition
series elements respectively are obtained with -
Concept : This question is based on Melting point
Solution :
3d series Max M.P = Cr
4d series Min M.P = Cd
Final Answer : (4)

76)

Explaining : IUPAC Name of given compound.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC Name.
Solution :

4–chloro–1–ethyl–2–methylcyclohexane
Final Answer : (4)

77)
Explaining : How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for
CH3CHBrCHOHCHOHCHBrCH3 ?
Concept : This question is based on calculation of stereoisomer.
Solution :

n=4
A = 2n–1 = 24–1 = 23 = 8
Final Answer : (3)

78)

Explain the Question : Identify the isomeric relationship between HC ≡ C–CH2–CH(CH3)–CH3

and CH3–C ≡ C–CH(CH3)–CH3.
Concept : This question is based on position isomerism.
Solution : Both compounds are alkynes with the same carbon skeleton (pentynes). The
difference is the position of the triple bond:
Compound 1: terminal alkyne (pent‑1‑yne derivative)
Compound 2: internal alkyne (pent‑2‑yne derivative)

Thus, they are position isomers.

Final answer : 3

79) Explaining : How many of the following are aromatic ?

Concept : This question is based on Aromaticity.
Solution :
a,c are aromatic
d → [10] Annulene
non aromatic
b → Anti aromatic
Final Answer : (2)

80) Explaining : Which of the following reactions is not feasible ?

Concept : This question is based on feasibility of reaction.

Solution :
Reaction always proceeds from S.A. to W.A., not from W.A. to S.A. Final Answer : (3)

81)

Explaining : Final product E is

Concept : This question is based on preparation and reaction of benzene.
Solution :

CH ≡ CH
(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the number of chiral carbon in given structure of a-D glucose
Concept:-
sp3 carbon attached to four different atoms / group of atoms is called as chiral carbon

Solution :-

It has 5 chiral carbon

Final Answer :- (4)

83) Explaining : Which gives maximum yield of C2H5Cl

Concept : This question is based on FRSR of Alkane.

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

84)

Explaining : Best method for preparation of ether.

Concept : This question is based on Williamson synthesis.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

85) Explaining : Which of the following is most reactive toward the acid-catalyst dehydration
?
Concept : This question is based on acid catalyst dehydration.
Solution :

Rate of de-hydration ∝ stability of

Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : Final product Y is.

Concept : This question is based on Aldol condensation.
Solution :

X→

Y→
(Aldol condensation product)
Final Answer : (1)

87) Explaining : Final product B is-

Concept : This question is based on HVZ reaction.
Solution :
CH3–CH2–COOH

(A) (B)
Final Answer : (4)

88) Explaining : The numbers of chiral centers present in glucopyranose and fructofuranose
respectively are :
Concept : This question is based on Biomolecules.
Solution :
 from C1 to C5 carbon, total (5) carbon are chiral in Glucopyranose.

from C2 to C5 carbon, total (4) are chiral.

Final Answer : (2)

89) Explaining : Match the column-

Concept : This question is based on different test.
Solution :

(A) Lucas test 3° Alcohol

(B) Baeyer test Alkene

(C) Carbylamine test Primary amine

(D) Schiff's Test Aldehyde

Final Answer : (3)

90) Explaining : Statement based question.

Concept : This question is based on Fehling test.
Solution :
Fehling's test distinguishes compounds based on the presence of an aliphatic aldehyde group.
It detects aldehydes that reduce Cu2+ to Cu+, forming a brick-red Cu2O precipitate. However,
ketones and aromatic aldehydes generally do not [Link]-1: Acetaldehyde and acetone
are distinguished by Fehling [Link]-2: Benzaldehyde and Acetaldehyde are
distinguished by Fehling [Link] both statements comparison of aldehyde with ketone or
aromatic aldehyde is given thus both are correct.
Final Answer : (1)

BIOLOGY

91)

Since all three statements are biologically accurate:

The correct option is: All statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.

92)
Component Identification Function
A Trophoblast Attachment to the Endometrium
B Inner Cell Mass Differentiation into the Embryo

93)

Oogenesis begins at intra uterine life.

94) Solution:
(A) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menopause. (Incorrect); it is called
menarche
(B) Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised. (correct)
(C) During pregenancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
(correct)
(D) In mammals, menstrual cycles cease around 50 years of age. (correct)
Final Answer: (2)

95) Question Explanation: Determining which event will not occur after a tubectomy.
Concept: Tubectomy (Female Sterilization).
Solution:
(1) Menstruation cycle: Menstruation will continue after tubectomy because the ovaries still
function and release eggs, but they cannot travel to the uterus.
(2) Ovulation: Ovulation still occurs after tubectomy, as the ovaries continue to release eggs.
(4) Formation of Graafian follicle: The formation of Graafian follicles still occurs in the ovaries
as part of the regular menstrual cycle.
However, (3) Fusion of sperm and ovum will not occur because the fallopian tubes are blocked
or cut during tubectomy, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg. Final Answer: (3)

96) MTP is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.

97) Statement I : Correct. Addiction is indeed a psychological attachment to the effects such
as euphoria and a temporary feeling of well-being that drugs and alcohol provide.
Statement II : Incorrect. With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors
present in our body actually increases, not decreases, which can lead to the need for higher
doses to achieve the same effect.

98) Explain Question: Match each disease with its correct causative agent or characteristic
symptom.
Concept: This Question is based on Protozoan diseases, Viral Diseases, Bacterial Diseases
Explanation :
Common cold (A) → Rhino virus (iv)
Typhoid (B) → Salmonella typhi (v)
Pneumonia (C) → Haemophilus influenzae (ii)
Malaria (D) → Haemozoin (vi)
Ringworm (E) → Dry & Scaly lesions (i)
Amoebiasis (F) → Stool with mucous & blood clots (iii)
This matches with : A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
Final answer: (1)

99) Question Explanation - The question is asking to arrange the stages of meiosis shown in
diagrams (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) in correct chronological order.
Concept – Based on meiosis progression.
Solution : (iii) Early stage ( Prophase-I ), (iv) Later stage ( Metaphase-I)
(ii) Metaphase-ll and (i) Final stage (Anaphase- II).
Final answer: (2) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)

100) Solution:
(a) Inulin is a polysaccharide composed of fructose unit linked linear (β-2, 1-linkage).
(b) Sucrose is a made of glucose and fructose linked in such a way (no free aldehyde or ketone
group) that it does not reduce Fehling's or Benedict's reagent.
(c) Many globular proteins (Tertiary structures) are soluble in water, e.g., enzymes,
hemoglobin.
(d) Most functional proteins in cells are in tertiary form, like enzymes and transport proteins.
Final Answer (4)

101)

Since RNA also functions as genetic material in some viruses, Statement III is incorrect.

102)

Domestic sewage in rivers increases organic matter, leading to a surge in microbial activity.
These microbes consume dissolved oxygen for decomposition, depleting the water of oxygen.
This oxygen deficiency results in the death of fish and other aquatic organisms.

103)

Negatively Charged DNA - Moves toward anode in electric field.

Sieving Effect - Smaller DNA fragments travel farther.
Elution - Extracting DNA fragments from gel.
Anode - Positive terminal in gel electrophoresis.

104) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4

105) a. In nearly all animal tissues, specialized junctions provide both structural and
functional links between its individual cells.
This statement is correct. Specialized junctions like tight junctions, gap junctions, and
desmosomes play crucial roles in maintaining cell adhesion, communication, and barrier
function.
b. Gap junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
This statement is incorrect. Gap junctions actually facilitate the passage of ions and small
molecules between cells, allowing for rapid communication and coordination.
c. Tight junctions perform connecting the cytoplasm to keep neighboring cells together.
This statement is incorrect. While tight junctions do connect neighboring cells, they primarily
 function to seal the space between cells, preventing leakage of substances. They do not
connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cells.
d. Epithelium tissue is most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
This statement is incorrect. Connective tissue is actually the most abundant and widely
distributed tissue type in the body of complex animals. Epithelium tissue is found in specific
locations like the lining of organs and body cavities.
Therefore, the correct set of statements is (a) only.
So the correct answer is Option 3.

106)

Gout → Accumulation of uric acid crystals

Osteoporosis → Decrease in estrogen levels
Tetany → Deficiency of Ca²⁺ in the blood
Muscular dystrophy → Genetic disorder

107)

A–resting, B–partially, C–thick, D–H

• In the resting state, thin filaments partially overlap the thick filaments.
• The central part of the thick filament does not overlap with the thin filament.
• This non-overlapping region is called the H-zone.

108)

(D) → Posterior pituitary → Release oxytocin and vasopressin

109) Solution :

A. Cloaca (iv) Common chamber in frog

B. Nuptial pad (i) Male frog (grip)

C. Vocal sacs (iii) Male frog (sound)

D. Webbed feet (ii) Swimming

Final Answer : (2)

110) Solution - The Golgi apparatus has a distinct polarity. The Cis-face (B) is the "forming
face" (convex), which receives vesicles from the ER. The Trans-face (D) is the "maturing face"
(concave), from which processed vesicles exit. Steroidal hormones are synthesized in the
Smooth ER, not the RER (A).
Final Answer : (3)

111) Solution : Axoneme: The core of cilia/flagella (9+2 doublets).

Centriole: Part of the centrosome (9+0 triplets).
F0-F1 Particles: Also known as Oxysomes, found on the inner mitochondrial membrane
(Cristae).
Lysosome: Known for its acidic pH and hydrolases.
Final Answer : (1)

112) Solution :
2 - Incorrect: SER is for lipid/steroid synthesis; RER is for protein synthesis.
5 - Incorrect: Gas vacuoles are found in Prokaryotes (Blue-green, purple, and green
photosynthetic bacteria), not eukaryotes.
Final Answer : (2)

113) Solution : Bivalents (pairs of homologous chromosomes) align during Metaphase I, not
Metaphase II where individual chromosomes align.
Final Answer : (3)

114) Solution : All four statements accurately describe the quiescent stage, checkpoints,
specific tissue behaviour, and biochemical preparation in G2​.
Final Answer : (1)

115) Solution :
Heroin is produced by acetylating morphine from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
It is a potent CNS depressant and is usually snorted or injected.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Solution: Von Baer noted that while embryos of different species look similar (e.g., all
vertebrate embryos have gill slits), a human embryo resembles a fish embryo, not a fish adult.
Final Answer : (2)

117) Solution : Isolation of plant cells → Digestion of cell wall → Fusion of protoplasts from
different plant varieties → Production of somatic hybrids.
Final Answer : (2)

118) Solution : Due to insertional inactivation of β -galactosidase, the recombinant colonies

will be white.
Final Answer : (3)

119) Solution : Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

120) Solution : B → E → C → A → D
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
(E) The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.
(C) The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
(A) The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
(D) The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of
the insect.
Final Answer : (4)
 121) Solution : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by MNCs and
other organisation without proper authorisation from the concerned countries and people.
Final Answer : (1)

122) Solution : After ingestion by insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form
due to alkaline pH of the insect gut.
Final Answer : (3)

123) Solution: i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A

i. TV (Tidal Volume) D. 500 mL

ii. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) B. 2500-3000 mL

iii. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) C. 1000-1100 mL

iv. RV (Residual Volume) A. 1100-1200 mL

Final Answer : (3)

124) Explanation: A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

A. Three-chambered heart (ii) Amphibia & Reptilia (except crocodile)

B. Four-chambered heart (iii) Aves & Mammalia

C. Two-chambered heart (i) Fishes

D. Stomochord (iv) Hemichordata

Final Answer : (2)

125) Solution : Statement II is explicitly false. Cutaneous respiration is the primary mode of
respiration when the frog is in the water.
Final Answer : (2)

126) Solution: Brown beetles survive and reproduce more due to better camouflage,
illustrating natural selection.
Final Answer : (2)

127) Solution - Vasectomy involves surgically cutting or blocking the vas deferens, which
prevents sperm from being transported into the ejaculate. It does not affect testosterone
production or libido and is not reversible in all cases.
Final Answer : (3)

128) Solution : Let's track the numbers: G1 Phase: 2n, 2C.

S Phase: 2n, 4C (DNA doubles).
Meiosis I (Karyokinesis only): Homologous chromosomes separate into two nuclei, but
since Cytokinesis failed, both nuclei stay in one cell.
Total Content: The cell still contains all the DNA synthesized in S-phase (4C) and all the
chromosomes (2n), they are just reorganized.
Final Answer : (1)

129) Solution : In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the
active site.
If you add enough substrate, you can "out-compete" the inhibitor and still reach the original
maximum velocity.
Therefore, Vmax remains unchanged, but Km (the concentration needed to reach half Vmax)
increases.
Final Answer : (3)

130) Solution : In the Watson-Crick model of B-DNA, the two strands are antiparallel.
This means one strand runs in the 5' → 3' direction, while the complementary strand runs in
the 3' → 5' direction. This orientation is essential for the formation of hydrogen bonds between
the nitrogenous bases.
Final Answer : (3)

131) Solution :
Cellulose: Unbranched polymer of β-glucose (β-1,4 bonds).
Amylose: Unbranched polymer of α-glucose (α-1,4 bonds).
Glycogen: Highly branched polymer of α-glucose. It has α-1,4 bonds in the chain and
α-1,6 bonds at the branching points.
Glycogen is more highly branched than Amylopectin (starch).
Final Answer : (3)

132) Question Explanation: Identify the option that is completely correct without any
exception.
Concept: Animal Classification
Solution: The correct answer is option 4
Option 1 : Ctenoplana - external fertilisation
Option 2 : Taenia lacks an alimentary canal, though flame cells are present for
osmoregulation. So the statement is incorrect.
Option 3 : Nereis has parapodia for locomotion, but Hirudinaria does not have parapodia; it
moves using setae.
Option 4 : Pinctada and Pila are molluscs; both have a mantle layer covering the body and
possess gills for respiration. This statement is correct without exception.
Final Answer: (4)

133) Solution :
Liver fluke – platyhelminthes
Aplysia– Mollusca
Bombyx – Arthropoda
Final Answer : (3)

134) Solution : A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Final Answer : (1)
 135) Solution : The given animal is Taenia solium (platyhelminthes) It is bisexual, acoelomate
and true segmentation is absent.
Final Answer : (4)

136) Solution :
Statement (A): False
At resting condition, the axoplasm (inside of axon) contains high concentration of K⁺ ions
and low concentration of Na⁺ ions.
Statement (B): True
The concentration gradient across the axonal membrane is produced due to unequal
distribution of Na⁺ and K⁺ ions on the two sides of the membrane, maintained by the sodium-
potassium pump.
Hence, the correct answer is: (3) A is false, B is true

137) Solution:
ADH deficiency → Diabetes insipidus
ACTH → secreted by pituitary gland
Aldosterone → Mineralocorticoid hormone
Insulin deficiency → Diabetes mellitus
Adrenaline → increases blood flow to skeletal muscles by vasodilation
Hence, all statements are correct.

138) Explanation:

A. Bt (Bacillus thuringiensis) is a bacterium used as a biological pesticide.

B. Its spores are sprayed on plants.
C. These spores are mainly eaten by the larvae (caterpillars) of insects, not by the adult insects.
D. Inside the larval gut, Bt releases toxins that kill the larvae.

Therefore, statement (4) is incorrect because it wrongly says that the spores are eaten by insect
adults.
Why the other statements are correct:

A. Complete eradication of pests is undesirable because beneficial predators and parasites

depend on them. ✔️
B. Biological farming requires knowledge of pests, predators, their life cycles, feeding habits, and
habitats. ✔️
C. The red-and-black beetle commonly known is the ladybird (ladybug). ✔️

139) Solution :

A. In the settling tank, sedimented bacterial flocs are indeed called activated sludge. Hence
statement (1) is correct.
B. A small part of the activated sludge is actually pumped back into the aeration tank, not
into the anaerobic sludge digester. It acts as inoculum in the aeration tank. Therefore
statement (2) is wrong.
C. In anaerobic sludge digesters, anaerobic bacteria digest bacteria and fungi present in the
sludge. Hence statement (3) is correct.
D. Biogas is inflammable and therefore used as a source of energy. Hence statement (4) is
 correct.

Answer: (2)

140) (1) Incorrect → Afferent arteriole brings blood into the glomerulus. Efferent arteriole
carries blood away.
(2) Correct → Podocytes possess filtration slits (slit pores) that help in ultrafiltration into
Bowman’s capsule.
(3) Incorrect → Major reabsorption occurs in the PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubule), not
in Henle’s loop.
(4) Incorrect → DCT mainly secretes K⁺ ions rather than reabsorbing them.

141) Solution : The assertion is factually correct as Mendel observed that 1/4th of the F2
plants were dwarf and 3/4th were tall. The reason correctly explains this outcome, noting that
the segregation of alleles during gamete formation is a random process, giving a 50 per cent
chance for a gamete to contain either allele. This random fertilisation leads to the 3:1
phenotypic ratio. Final Answer : (1)

142) Solution : Statement I is correct because in co-dominance the F1 generation resembles

both parents, with ABO blood grouping being a prime example. Statement II is incorrect; while
starch synthesis heterozygotes (Bb) do produce intermediate-sized grains showing incomplete
dominance , this proves that dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene, but depends
on the gene product and the chosen phenotype.
Final Answer : (3)

143) Solution : Only statements A and C are correct. Statement B is incorrect because alpha
Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes, HBA1 and HBA2, on chromosome 16.
Statement D is incorrect because Turner's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X
chromosomes (45 with XO), not an additional copy.
Final Answer : (3)

144) Solution : In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S).
RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA, which is hnRNA. RNA polymerase III
transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs. DNA ligase is responsible for joining discontinuously
synthesised fragments during replication.
Final Answer : (2)

145) Solution : According to the rule of base pairing, in a double-stranded DNA, the amount
of cytosine equals the amount of guanine. If cytosine is 20%, then guanine is also 20%, making
a total of 40% for C-G pairs. The remaining 60% must be composed of adenine and thymine in
equal amounts. Therefore, the percentage of adenine is 30%.
Final Answer : (2)

146) Solution : Statement 3 is incorrect because Hershey and Chase demonstrated that
viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA, not
radioactive protein, since DNA contains phosphorus but protein does not. Statements 1, 2, and
4 are entirely correct factual points regarding the properties of genetic materials.
 Final Answer : (3)

147) Explanation: An organism represents/occupies a place or position in the system of

classification based on resemblances and distinct differences. There are many
categories/ranks which are generally referred to as taxonomic categories, and all the
categories constitute a taxonomic hierarchy.
Final Answer : (4)

148) Explanation: Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral
nutrients and water for its partner.
Final Answer : (4)

149) Explanation: Both statements are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

150) Explanation: According to Table 2.1, Monera has a Prokaryotic cell type, whereas both
Protista and Fungi have a Eukaryotic cell type.
Final Answer : (1)

151) Explanation: The common members of Rhodophyceae are Polysiphonia, Porphyra,

Gracilaria and Gelidium (4 examples). Fucus and Dictyota are brown algae.
Final Answer : (3)

152) Explanation: Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by biflagellate zoospores that
are pear-shaped and have two unequal laterally attached flagella, not by non-motile spores.
Final Answer : (2)

153) Explanation: They produce a multicellular body called a sporophyte, which is not free-
living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
Final Answer : (1)

154) Solution: Immigration increases, not decreases population. So III is wrong.

Final Answer : (1)

155) Solution: Population density need not necessarily be measured in numbers only, it can
be measured as precent cover, biomass and relative density.
Population density reflects the number of individuals per unit area.
Final Answer : (2)

156) Solution : A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

A. Mutualism 4. Both species are benefited

B. Commensalism 2. One species benefits, other species unaffected
C. Parasitism 3. One species benefits, other species harmed
D. Competition 1. Both species are harmed
Final Answer : (1)

157) Solution : In an aquatic ecosystem pyramid of biomass is inverted because producers

(Phytoplankton) have low biomass supports higher biomass of Zooplanktons.
Final Answer : (2)

158) Solution: Decomposition is slower in low temperature → IV false.

Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution: Z is usually 0.1–0.2, not >1 for a small r̥egion.

Final Answer : (1)

160) Solution : The assertion is true for perigynous flowers. However, the reason describes
an epigynous flower (inferior ovary), not a perigynous one.
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution : In silk cotton, the leaves are palmately compound, not pinnately compound.
Pinnately compound leaves are found in Neem.
Final Answer : (3)

162) Solution : Potato is a stem tuber. Cucumber has stem tendrils. Euphorbia has fleshy
cylindrical stems, and Opuntia has flattened stems (phylloclades).
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : Statement I is a direct quote from NCERT.

Statement II is incorrect because monocot vascular bundles are closed (no cambium).
Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : Monocot roots are polyarch (more than six bundles) and have a large, well-
developed pith. They do not undergo secondary growth.
Final Answer : (4)

165) Solution : In C4 plants, 5 ATP are required per CO2 (3 in Calvin cycle + 2 to convert
pyruvate to PEP). For 6 CO2, total ATP = 6 \times 5 = 30 ATP.
Final Answer : (2)

166) Solution : Electrons are excited in PS II, passed to an acceptor, through ETS to PS I,
then to another acceptor, and finally to NADP+.
Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : OAA (Oxaloacetic acid) is formed in the mesophyll cells via PEPcase. It is
later converted to malic acid/aspartic acid and transported to bundle sheath cells.
Final Answer : (3)

168) Solution : The cycle starts with condensation (B), then oxidative decarboxylation to α-KG
(A), followed by Succinyl-CoA (C), and finally moving toward OAA via Malic acid (D).
Final Answer : (1)

169) Solution : In one turn of the TCA cycle (one Acetyl CoA), NADH is produced at three
steps: Isocitrate → α-KG, α-KG → Succinyl-CoA, and Malate → OAA.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : Cytochrome c acts as a mobile carrier between complex III and IV.
Fermentation only nets 2 ATP. Energy is used to make ATP (not used directly). Glycolysis
occurs in the cytosol.
Final Answer : (2)

171) Solution : Arithmetic growth formula: Lt = L0 +rt. Here, 15 = 5 + r(5) → 10 = 5r → r =

2 cm/hr.
Final Answer : (3)

172) Solution : GAs are used to extend the market period by delaying senescence. They also
increase the length of grape stalks and are used in the malting process.
Final Answer : (1)

173) Solution : Carpel and sepal are the names of units of gynoecium and calyx.
Final Answer : (3)

174) Solution : Castor (Dicot) and barley (Monocot) are example of endospermic seeds.
Final Answer : (4)

175)

The correct answer is 2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

Explanation:
Statement-I: "The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight" is
correct. Biomass can be measured either as the fresh weight or dry weight of organisms.
Statement-II: "Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate" is correct.
Dry weight is preferred because it eliminates the variable of water content, giving a more
accurate and consistent measure of the actual organic material in an organism.
Thus, both statements are true.

176)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
 177)

(A) Monoadelphous condition (III) Chinarose

(B) Diadelphous condition (IV) Pea

(C) Polyadelphous condition (I) Citrus

(D) Epiphyllous condition (II) Lily

178) NCERT Pg. No. # 59 (E), 58 (H)

179)

The correct answer is:

3. Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified allele
If the modified allele produces a normal enzyme, it would function the same as the unmodified
allele. Both would result in the same enzyme activity and phenotype.
Therefore, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele, making statement 3 not
true.

180) NCERT XII Pg.# 122