25-05-2026

9610WMD801490250050 MD

PHYSICS

1) In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m (see
figure). The magnitude of the average velocity is

(1) 3.14 m/s

(2) 2.0 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) Zero

2) Two disks are mounted on low-friction bearings on a common shaft. The first disc has rotational
inertia I and is spinning with angular velocity ω. The second disc has rotational inertia 2I and is
spinning in the same direction as the first disc with angular velocity 2ω as shown. The two disks are
slowly forced toward each other along the shaft until they couple and have a final common angular

velocity of :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3ω

3)

A particle is projected from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s. After 2 second, it just clears a wall
5 m height. Then angle of projection with respect to horizontal of particle is [g = 10 m/s2] :-
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

4) The velocity u (in cms–1) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec.) by the relation u = at +

; the dimensions of a, b and c are :

(1) a = L2, b = T, c = LT2

(2) a = TL2, b = LT, c = L
(3) a= LT–2, b = L, c = T
(4) a = L, b = LT, c = T2

5) 10 kg block is placed 5m from rear end of a trolley and coefficient of friction between block &
trolley is 0.2 starting from rest, trolley is provided 3 m/s2 constant acceleration. After what distance

moved by trolley block will start falling ? (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 10 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 25 m

6) Each of the four particles move along x axis. Their coordinates (in metres) as function of time (in
seconds) are given by
Particle 1 : x(t) = 3.5 – 2.7t3
Particle 2 : x(t) = 3.5 + 2.7t3
Particle 3 : x(t) = 3.5 + 2.7t2
Particle 4 : x(t) = 3.5 – 3.4t – 2.7t2
which of these particles is speeding up for t > 0 ?

(1) All four

(2) only 1
(3) only 1, 2 and 3
(4) only 2, 3 and 4

7) The potential energy of a body is given by :

U = 40 + 6x2 – 7xy + 8y2 + 32z
where U is in joule and x, y, z in metre. Deduce the x, y and z components of the force
(in newton) on the body when it is in position (–2, 0, +5)

(1) Fx = –32; Fy = –14; Fz = 24

(2) Fx = –14; Fy = –32; Fz = 24
(3) Fx = 24; Fy = –32; Fz = –14
(4) Fx = 24; Fy = –14; Fz = –32

8) A bomb of mass 9kg initially at rest explodes into two piece of masses 3 kg and 6 kg. The kinetic
energy of the 3 kg mass is 216 J. The kinetic energy of the 6kg mass will be :-

(1) 213 J
(2) 108 J
(3) 432 J
(4) 54 J

9) Two blocks of same mass but different density ρ1 & ρ2 are floating in water. Block–2 has higher
fraction of its volume submerged in water. If buoyant force on them are B1 & B2 :-

(1) B1 > B2, ρ1 > ρ2

(2) B1 < B2, ρ1 < ρ2
(3) B1 = B2, ρ1 > ρ2
(4) B1 = B2, ρ1 < ρ2

10) A stone is tied to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the
string at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u.
The magnitude of the change in its velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two sheets of thickness d and 2 d and same area are touching each other on their
[Link] TA, TB, TC shown are in geometric progression with common ratio r = 2. Then ratio

of thermal conductivity of thinner and thicker sheet are :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) A wire of length 2L and radius r is stretched between A and B without the application of any
tension. If Y is the Young's modulus of the wire and it is stretched like ACB, then the tension in the

wire will be (d << L) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The position of the image formed by the combination of lenses is :

(1) 30 cm (right of third lens)

(2) 15 cm (left of second lens)
(3) 30 cm (left of third lens)
(4) 15 cm (right of second lens)

14) The linear density of a non-uniform rod of length 2m is given by where a and
b are constants and . The centre of mass of the rod will be at, X =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) At a point P on the screen at distance D from the slits in standard YDSE experiment, 3rd maxima
is observed at t = 0. Now screen is slowly moved with constant speed away from the slits in such a
way that the centre of slits and centre of screen always lie on same line and at t = 1 sec, the

intensity at point P is observed to be of maximum intensity in between 2nd and 3rd maxima.
The speed of screen can be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A student measures the resistance R1 = 10 ± 1Ω and R2 = 20 ± 0.5 Ω. What is the range of value
of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 30 ± 1.5 Ω
30 ±
(4)

17) A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched so that its length increased to thrice of its original length.
Find new resistance :

(1) 12 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 36 Ω
(4) 1 Ω

18) In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive

index √2 is:

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these
19) When light enters from vacuum to a material of refractive index n, which of the following is true?

(1) Its wavelength increases and its frequency decreases

(2) Its wavelength decreases, but its frequency doesn’t change
(3) Its wavelength decreases and its frequency increases
(4) Its wavelength increases and its frequency increases

20)

The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total
energy density of the electromagnetic wave is :-

(1) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3

(2) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
(3) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3
(4) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3

21) If Gravitational constant is decreasing with time, what will remain unchanged in case of a
satellite orbiting around earth :-

(1) Time period

(2) Orbiting radius
(3) Tangential velocity
(4) Angular velocity

22) A magnet of magnetic moment A-m2 is placed along the x-axis in a magnetic field
T. The torque acting on the magnet is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) The time period of a thin bar magnet in earth's magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into two
equal parts perpendicular to its length, the time period of each part in the same field will be :-

(1) T/2
(2) T
(3)
(4) 2T

24) Two tuning forks A and B have frequency 256 Hz and 262 Hz respectively. Tuning fork A
produces some beats per second with an unknown tuning fork. Same unknown tuning fork produces
double beats per second with tuning fork B, then the frequency of unknown tuning fork is :-

(1) 262
(2) 260
(3) 250
(4) 300

25) The equation of a wave on a string of linear density 0.04 kg m–1 is given by

.
The tension in the string is :

(1) 6.25 N
(2) 4.0 N
(3) 12.5 N
(4) 0.5 N

26) A transverse wave travel along z-axis. The particles of the medium moves -

(1) along z-axis

(2) along x-axis
(3) along y-axis
(4) in x-y plane

27) A body of mass 6 kg is acted upon by a force which causes a displacement in it given by x = m
where t is the time in second. The work done by the force in 2 second is :-

(1) 12 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 3 J

28) A semi-infinite charged wire with charge density +λ1 is placed along the axis of a uniformly
charged ring of charged density +λ2. The force exerted on the wire due to the ring. The radius of

ring is R.

(1) (kλ1λ2) 2πR

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these
29) A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown. Area of plate is A metre2 and
the separation is t metre. The dielectric constants are k1 and k2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad

will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A 100μF capacitor is charged to 200 volt. It is discharged through a 2 ohm resistance. The
amount of heat generated will be :-

(1) 2 Joule
(2) 4 Joule
(3) 0.2 Joule
(4) 0.4 Joule

31) The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20Ω. It requires 0.01A current for full scale
deflection. Calculate the value of resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-

(1) 1980 Ω
(2) 2000 Ω
(3) 1880 Ω
(4) 1500 Ω

32) 2000 calorie of heat is given to a thermodynamic system by which the system does 3350 J work
and the internal energy increases by 5039 J. In the process the mechamical equivalent of heat will
be:-

(1) 4.19 cal/Joule

(2) 4.19 Joule/cal
(3) 4.19 erg/cal
(4) 4.19 cal/erg

33) One mole of monoatomic gas is brought from state A to state B such that temperature at A is T0.
Find the heat absorbed along the path ACB

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal is υ. When light of frequency 4υ is incident on
the metal, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is :-

(1) 4hυ
(2) 3hυ
(3) 5hυ

(4)

35) Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The
net charge on the sphere is then :

(1) negative and distributed uniformly over its surface.

(2) negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
(3) negative and distributed non-uniformly over its entire surface of the sphere
(4) zero

36) Truth table for the given circuit figure is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In the given circuit, the voltage across the load is maintained at 12 V. The current in the Zener
diode varies from 0-50 mA. What is the maximum wattage of the diode?

(1) 12 W
(2) 6 W
(3) 0.6 W
(4) 1.2 W

38) In the circuit shown, the current through the ideal diode is :-

(1) 75 mA
(2) 20 mA
(3) 100 mA
(4) 25 mA

39)
In a series LR-circuit XL = 3R. Now a capacitor XC = 2R is added in series. Ratio of the new to the old
power factor is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1

40) One main scale division of a vernier callipers is ‘a’ cm and nth division of the vernier scale
coincide with (n – 1)th division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers in mm is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A prism (µ = 1.5) is dipped in water (n = 4/3). A light ray incident on surface AB perpendicularly.

After total internal reflection on AC, it will reach on BC if.

(1) sinθ > 8/9

(2) 2/3 < sinθ < 8/9
(3) sinθ < 2/3
(4) None of these

42) Assertion : A body in equilibrium must be at rest.

Reason : In equilibrium, net force on the body is zero.

(1) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True, Reason is True : Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True, Reason is False
(4) Assertion is False, Reason is True.

43) Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason: The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

44)

Acceleration v/s time graph for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The
particle is initially at rest. Find the time instant(s) in seconds, when the particle is at rest.

(1) t = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) t = 0, 2, 4
(3) t = 1, 3
(4) None of these

45) Which of the field patterns given below is valid for electric field as well as for magnetic field?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 CHEMISTRY

1) The energy of an electron of Li+2 in first excited state is XJ then find minimum energy of an
electron present in Be+3.

(1)

(2)

(3) X

(4)

2) Atomic weight of X in molecule (X2) whose 3 moles weigh 150 g.

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 100
(4) 75

3) Assign the sign of work done in the following chemical reactions -

(a) N2(g)+ 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(b) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)

(c) C2H6(g)+ O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

(1) +, –, –
(2) –, +, –
(3) +, –, –
(4) +, –, +

4) The standard Enthalpy of neutralization is –13.7 kcal/geq. as H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
The change in enthalpy during neutralization of 0.75 mol H2SO4 by 1.5 mol NaOH.

(1) –20.55 kcal

(2) 27.2 kcal
(3) –6.7 kcal
(4) –54.8 kcal

5) Find the temperature of the given reaction at equilibrium if = 3.

(1) 0.27 K
(2) 36.59 K
(3) 0.36 K
(4) 27.3 K
6) If a graph is plotted between ℓnk v/s for a chemical reaction then value of slope will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.2 M solution of urea are placed on two sides of the
Semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that -

(1) Urea will flow towards glucose solution

(2) There will be no net movement across the membrane
(3) Water will flow from glucose solution to urea.
(4) Glucose will flow towards urea solution.

8) Time required to decompose half of the substance for nth order reaction is inversely proportional
to-

(1) an+1
(2) an–1
(3) an–2
(4) an

9) Correct order of boiling point of given aqueous solution is –

(A) 10% glucose

(B) 10% urea

(C) 10% Na2SO4

(D) 10% sucrose

(1) C < B < A < D

(2) D < A < B < C
(3) D < A < C < B
(4) A < D < B < C

10) Species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction

C2H6(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O (ℓ) ;

= –z kJ mol–1
C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ;
= –x kJ mol–1.

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ) ;

= –y kJ mol–1.
On the basis of above data, calculate ΔfHo of C2H6(g) (in kJ mol–1) :-

(1) z – 2x – 3y
(2) z – x – y
(3) 2x + 3y – z
(4) 2x + 3y + z

12) Given below are two statements

Statement-I :- For a given shell, total number of allowed orbitals is given by n.
Statement-II :- For any subshell, maximum number of electrons which can be filled is given by 2ℓ
+ 1.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

13)
In the above diagram, the standard electrode potential are given in volts, then value of is -

(1) 0.3 V
(2) 1.3 V
(3) –0.066 V
(4) –0.3 V

14) 10–3 M aqueous solution of ethylamine has pH = 9 then its ionisation constant is -

(1) 10–15
(2) 10–7
(3) 10–10
(4) 10–5

15) How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 20 g of Ca from molten CaCl2 -
(1) 2F
(2) 1F
(3) 0.5 F
(4) 4F

16) The product obtained by the hydrolysis of Al4C3, Mg2C3 and CaC2 respectively.

(1) Acetylene, Methane, Propyne

(2) Methane, Propyne, Acetylene
(3) Propyne, Methane, Acetylene
(4) Methane, Acetylene, Propyne

17)

Among the given elements Be, B, Al, Si, P, S which is largest and having highest metallic character
respectively -

(1) S and Be
(2) S and Al
(3) Al only
(4) Be and Al

18) Hypervalent compounds (e– rich) is/are :

(i) PCl5 (ii) SF6
(iii) BF3 (iv) ClF3
Correct option is :

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) All of these

19)

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Orthonitrophenol has intramolecular hydrogen bonding

(2) Hydrogen bonding is maximum in solid state and minimum in gaseous state
(3) Water molecules shows intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(4) Hydrogen bonding is seen between two least electronegative elements.

20) Which of the following does not follow EAN rule ?

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) [Mn(CO)5]

21) CFT configuration of potassium ferricyanide is :-

3 2
(1) t2g eg
5 0
(2) t2g eg
3 2
(3) eg t2g
4 1
(4) eg t2g

22) Select the correct matching -

List-I List-II

A. XeF5¯ (a) Pyramidal

B. ICl2¯ (b) Square Pyramidal

C. H3O+ (c) Linear

D. XeOF4 (d) Pentagonal planar

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (c) (b) (d) (a)

(2) (d) (c) (a) (b)

(3) (d) (a) (c) (b)

(4) (b) (d) (c) (a)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Assertion :- N2+ is more stable than N2–

Reason :- N2+ has more electrons in antibonding orbitals.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of :

(1) Ist group

(2) IInd group
(3) IIIrd group
(4) IVth group
25) Which ligand is used for removing excess of copper and iron ?

(1) EDTA and DMG

(2) Cyanoamine and Naphthol
(3) D-pencillamine and desferrioxime B
(4) Ph3P and NH3

26) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(Property) (Metal)

An element which can show

i a Mn
+8 oxidation state

3d series element that can show

ii b Cr
upto +7 oxidation state

3d series element with highest

iii c Os
melting point

d Fe
(1) i–c, ii–a, iii–b
(2) i–a, ii–b, iii–c
(3) i–a, ii–d, iii–d
(4) i–c, ii–b, iii–a

27) Which carbide of lanthanoid is not form when lanthanoid react with carbon at high temperature
?

(1) Ln4C3
(2) Ln2C3
(3) LnC2
(4) Ln3C

28) In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by:

(1) Principal quantum number (n)

(2) None of the factors because their size is the same
(3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(4) Nuclear charge (z)

29) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

30) Among the following oxide of p - block elements, number of oxides having amphoteric nature is
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, SnO2

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 10

31) In the reaction

2-Butene
(B) is :-

(1) Butane
(2) 1-Butene
(3) Butyraldehyde
(4) Butanone

32) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) In the chemical reaction

What is the structure of B :-

(1) CH3–NH2
(2) CH3–NH–CH3

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

34) The reaction of chloroform with [Link] and p-toluidine(p-Aminotoluene) forms.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)
(P) is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Which of the following reagents can distinguish 4-oxopentanoic acid from 2-oxopentanoic acid ?

(1) NaHCO3
(2) 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
(3) AgNO3, aq. NH3
(4) I2, NaOH

37) Most reactive towards HCN is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38)
X & Y respectively is -

(1) CH3MgX and C2H5OH

(2) SnCl2 + HCl and CH3MgX
(3) CH3MgX and SnCl2 + HCl
(4) SnCl2 + HCl and Na + C2H5OH

39) Which of the following intermediate is more stable:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are equally stable

40) In the reaction sequence :-

A, B and C are given by the set :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO,CHI3
(2) CH3COCH3, CH3I
(3) CH3COCH3, CHI3
(4) CH3CH2CHO, CH3I

41) For which of the following order is incorrect? F⊝ < Cl⊝ < Br⊝ < I⊝

(1) Leaving group ability

(2) Nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent
(3) Nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvent
(4) Both (2) and (3)

42) Which of the following is incorrect order for leaving group ability in Nucleophilic
substitution reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent

Methyl Alcohol
(1) I2 + Base
and Ethyl Alcohol

Fehling
(2) and Solution
CH3CHO

Phenol and
(3) NaHCO3
Carboxylic Acid

Propane-1-Amine Hinsberg
(4)
and propane-2-Amine reagent
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) In carius method 0.099 gm organic compound gave 0.287 gm AgCl. The percentage of chlorine
in the compound will be ?
(At. Wt. Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)

(1) 28.6
(2) 35.5
(3) 71.7
(4) 64.2

45) Structure of glycogen is similar to :-

(1) Amylose
(2) Amylopectin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Glucose

BIOLOGY

1) Match column I with column II

Column I Column II

(a) Glycogen (i) Inhibitor

(b) Collagen (ii) Toxin

 (c) Ricin (iii) Intercellular ground substance

(d) Malonate (iv) Lectin

(v) Substrate

(vi) Storage form of energy

(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (vi), (c) - (iv), (d) - (v)
(3) (a) - (vi), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (vi), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

2) Assertion :- Trichoderma is a biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens.

Reason :- Nucleopolyhedro virus are good biocontrol agents for insects.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3) Select the Incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes :

(a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

4) Match the column-I with the column-II and find out the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Spongocoel (i) Arthropoda

(B) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (ii) Cnidaria

(C) Coelenteron cavity (iii) Porifera

(D) Chitinous exoskeleton (iv) Platyhelminthes

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

5) Select the true statement regarding frog (Rana tigrina) from following :-
(1) Frog is a homeothermal animal
(2) Frog drinks about 5 litres water per day
(3) Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.
(4) A very long tail is present in posterior part of frog's body.

6) The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air accomodated in the lungs at the end of a
forced inspiration. This includes :

(1) RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity); EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV

(2) RV; ERV; IC and EC
(3) RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
RV (Residual Volume); ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume); TV (Tidal Volume); and IRV
(4)
(Inspiratory Reserve Volume)

7) Match the following parts of a nephron with their function:

Descending limb Reabsorption of

(a) (i)
of Henle's loop salts only

Proximal Convoluted Reabsorption of

(b) (ii)
tubule water only

Conditional
Ascending limb reabsorption of
(c) (iii)
of Henle's loop sodium ion and
water

Reabsorption of
Distal convoluted
(d) (iv) ion, water and
tubule
organic nutrients.
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii)

8) Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system

(b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex

(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iii) Retina of Eye

(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i). (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

9) Find out incorrect labelling in following diagram

(1) Axonal transport and Anterior pituitary

(2) Portal circulation and Posterior pituitary
(3) Anterior pituitary and Posterior pituitary
(4) Portal circulation and Axonal transport

10) Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :

Type of joint Example

(1) Cartilaginous joint between frontal and parietal skull bone

(2) Pivot joint between third and fourth cervical vertebrae

(3) Hinge joint between humerus and pectoral girdle

(4) Gliding joint between carpals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match the column-A with column-B.

Column A Column B
A Mons pubis i Fleshy folds of tissue
B Labia majora ii Paired folds of tissue
C Labia minora iii Finger-like structure
D Clitoris iv Cushion of fatty tissue
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

12) In following structure, identify A & B and their respective functions.

 Function of
A B
A B
(1) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(2) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(3) Mesoderm Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) What happens after vasectomy?

(1) Absence of formation of semen

(2) Formed Sperms are dead or inactive
(3) Sperms immediately disappear in semen
(4) Sperms gradually disappear in semen

14) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

(A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan

(B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella

(C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes

(D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

15)

Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and
use.
(a)

(b)

Molecule Source Use

(1) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations

(2) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

(3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine

(4) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ?
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) II, III, IV, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, III, II, IV

17) The figure below shows three steps (A,B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the
option giving correct identification together with what it represents?
(1) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
(2) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
(3) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
(4) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C

18) Which of the following is true for Golden rice ?

(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil

(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice

19) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macrophage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell

(2) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cell

(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
20) Match List - I with List -II.

List -I List - II

Selection of resistant varieties due

(a) Adaptive radiation (i) to excessive use of herbicides and
pesticides

Bones of fore limbs in Man and

(b) Convergent evolution (ii)
Whale

(c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

2 (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

3 (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

4 (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Electroporation procedure involves :

Fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric
(1)
stimulation.
(2) Opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light
(3) Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
(4) Purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system.

22) Propionibacterium sharmanii is used in the ripening of which cheese ?

(1) Camembert cheese

(2) Swiss cheese
(3) Roquefort cheese
(4) Limburger cheese

23) Apoenzyme is :-

(1) Organic part of conjugated enzyme

(2) Inorganic part of conjugated enzyme
(3) Protein part of conjugated enzyme
(4) Tightly attatched organic part of conjugated enzyme
24) Assertion (A) :- Currently large number of biofertilizers are available commercially in the
market and farmers use these biofertilizers in their field to replenish soil nutrients.
Reason (R) :- Use of biofertilizers can reduce dependence on chemical fertilizers and so as
enviornmental pollution.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

25) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by ______which closely resemble the substrate ________in
structure.

(1) Succinate, Malonate

(2) Oxalate, Succinate
(3) Malonate, Succinate
(4) Succinate, Oxalate

26) A schematic representation of a chordate's embryo is shown in the above figure.

The structures maked A, B, C and D are respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Intestine and gill slits

(2) Post anal part, Gill slits, Nerve cord and Notochord
(3) Post anal part, nerve cord, Notochord and Gill
(4) Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits.

27) How many organism are releated with Echinodermata phylum?

Star fish, Sea-urchin, Sea-lily, Sea-mouse, Sea-hare, Sea-cucumber, Brittle star, Sea-potato, Sea-
squirt, Sea-fan, Sea-pen

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

28) Which character is not associated with red muscle fibres?

(1) High quantity of myoglobin is present

(2) Amount of mitochondria are more
(3) Amount of sacroplasmic reticulum is high
(4) Contraction is slow and for long duration
29) Ist Heart sound is :-

(1) ‘LUBB’ at end of systole

(2) ‘DUBB’ at end of systole
(3) ‘LUBB’ at begining of Ventricular systole
(4) ‘DUP’ at begining of Ventricular systole

30) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its
own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

31) Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing ?

(1) Preservation
(2) Gene expression
(3) Separation
(4) Purification

32) The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :

(1) Recognition site

(2) Selectable marker
(3) Ori site
(4) Palindromic sequence

33) Process involving silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule is
called :

(1) Transcription
(2) RNA interference
(3) DNA interference
(4) None of these

34) Toxin present in Bacillus thuringiensis does not kill the bacterium because it is inactive form
what makes it active inside the insect?

(1) The alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilises the crystals

(2) The acid pH of the gut
(3) The neutral pH of the gut
(4) All of the above

35) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

36) Match List I with List II.

List I List II

A. Vasectomy I. Oral contraceptive

B. Coitus interruptus II. Barrier method

C. Cervical caps III. Surgical method

D. Saheli IV. Natural method

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

37) Genetic drift operates in

(1) Non-reproductive population

(2) Slow reproductive population
(3) Small isolated population
(4) Large isolated population

38) Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the endocrine system ?

(1) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
(2) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
(3)
hormones.
Non-nutrient chemicals produced by endocrine glands in trace amount that act as intercellular
(4)
messengers are known as hormones.

39) Read the following four statements about sense organs of Rana tigrina :–
(1) Frog has simple eyes possessing only one unit
(2) External ear is present in frog
(3) External ear is absent in frog and only tympanum can be seen externally
(4) Eyes and internal ear are well organised structures and the rest are cellular aggregation
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

40) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before
they are used on human.
Reason (R) : Transgenic mice are not used to test the safety of polio vaccine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

41) A contraceptive pill developed by the scientists of CDRI, Lucknow is :

(1) 'Mala-D'
(2) 'Mala-N'
(3) 'Saheli'
(4) ‘i-pill’

42) Haploid cells which undergo mitosis are -

(1) Worker bee

(2) Queen bee
(3) Male honey bee
(4) All of the above

43) Box ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively represents -

(1) A - Immigration; B - Mortality
(2) A - Emigration; B - Natality
(3) A - Immigration; B - Emigration
(4) A - Immigration; B - Migration

44) Find the incorrect match from the columns :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Puccinia belongs to class basidiomycetes Club fungi

(2) Agaricus dikaryophase Mushroom

(3) Trichoderma belongs to class deuteromytetes Perfect fungi

(4) Penicillium sexual cycle is found Sac fungi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) In the diagram given above, some of the algae have been
labelled as "A", "B" and "C". These algae are respectively correctly identified as:-

(1) Fucus, Dictyota, Porphyra

(2) Volvox, Porphyra, Chara
(3) Volvox, Polysiphonia, Laminaria
(4) Chlamydomanas, Laminaria, Porphyra

46) Statement-I : Heterophylly is an example of plasticity.

Statement-II : In Buttercup, heterophyllous development is due to environment.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

47) Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut fruits:

(1) Both fruits are parthenocarpic

(2) Endocarp is edible in both
(3) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy
(4) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary inferior ovary

48) The map the genes if, distance between A and B is 3 units, between B and C is 10 units and
between C and A is 7 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map constructed on the above data
would perhaps be:

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, B
(3) B, C, A
(4) B, A, C

49) In the process of transcription, the strand of DNA with polarity ________ acts as a ________ strand.

(1) 5′ → 5′, Coding strand

(2) 3′ → 5′, Template strand
(3) 3′ → 3′, Coding strand
(4) 5′ → 3′, Template strand

50) How many statements are incorrect ?

(A) The size of a population for any species is a static parameter.
(B) Developing country have higher birth rate than developed country.
(C) Asymptote in a exponential growth curve is obtained when N is near the carrying capacity of the
habitat.
(D) A sigmoid growth curve represents exponential growth.

(1) A & D
(2) C, B & D
(3) A, C & D
(4) A, B & D

51) If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the
population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 0.1
(4) 10

52) Assertion: Fig tree and wasp are example of Mutualism.

Reason: Fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp species and wasp uses the fruit as an
oviposition site and developing seeds with in the fruit for nourishing its larvae.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

53)

Standing crop is :-
(i) Biomass in a unit area.
(ii) Living organism in unit area.
(iii) Amount of nutrient such as carbon, nitrogen, calcium, in unit area.

(iv) Amount of detritus in unit area.

(1) Only (i) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

54) What does B represent in the following diagram of invertebrate's global biodiversity ?

(1) Crustaceans
(2) Mollusca
(3) Other animals groups
(4) Insects

55) Select the odd one out with respect to functions of endomembrane system.

(1) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

(2) Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids
(3) Active rRNA synthesis
(4) Synthesis of lipids and steroids

56) Arrange the following cells in descending order of their size and choose the correct option.

Bacteria, Ostrich egg, Mycoplasma, Human RBC

(1) Ostrich egg > Bacteria > Human RBC > Mycoplasma
(2) Ostrich egg > Human RBC > Bacteria > Mycoplasma
(3) Ostrich egg < Human RBC < Bacteria < Mycoplasma
(4) Mycoplasma < Bacteria > Human RBC < Ostrich egg

57) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Plasmodesmata (a) Nuclear matrix

(ii) Kinetochores (b) Thick and tough glycocalyx

(iii) Nucleoplasm (c) Disc shaped structure on centromere

(iv) Capsule (d) Cytoplasmic connections

(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii)- (c) , (iv) - (b)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d) , (iv) - (b)
(3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(4) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)

58)
Above diagram shows the parallel line technique which is used :-

(1) To ensure the germination of seeds.

(2) To detect the zone of elongation.
(3) To measure the growth rate
(4) To measure the length of a plant

59) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Plant Part) (Anatomical Feature)
 A. Dicot root i. Trichomes

B. Dicot stem ii. Casparian strip

C. Monocot leaf iii. Palisade parenchyma

D. Dicot leaf iv. Bulliform cells

A B C D

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) i ii iv iii

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Dark reactions of photosynthesis :-

(1) Occur in darkness

(2) Are not light dependent
(3) Are not directly light driven but are dependent on product of light reaction
(4) Are not directly light driven but are dependent on AMP and NADH + H+

61) Respiration differs from combustion in :-

(1) Liberating more energy as compared to combustion

(2) Liberating of all the energy at once in contrast to combustion
(3) Liberation of energy gradually in steps in contrast to combustion
(4) Carbohydrates take part as the combustion substance

62) In Lactic acid Fermentation :-

(1) There is no Glycolysis

(2) There is no reduction
(3) There is no decarboxylation
(4) There is no regeneration of NAD+

63) Carefully observe the given diagram and choose incorrect statement regarding this diagram.
(1) Thalamus grows upward and enclosing the ovary completely
(2) Ovary is said to be superior
(3) Ovary is said to be inferior
(4) It is found in guava and cucumber

64) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Ulothrix – Starch

(2) Porphyra – Floridian Starch
(3) Polysiphonia – Mannitol
(4) Ectocarpus – Laminarin

65) Find the incorrect statement about fungi :-

(1) They show a great diversity in morphology and habitats.

(2) Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and as parasites also.
(3) They prefer to grow in cold and dry places.
(4) With the exception of yeasts, fungi are filamentous.

66) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) The distal end of the stamen, filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of flower.
(b) Pollen grains of some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae lose viability within
30 minutes of their release.
(c) The anther is a tetragonal structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two
in each lobe.
(d) Parthenium or carrot grass that came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat has
become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
Options :-

(1) Statements (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (a), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

67) Seeds may be produced without fertilisation in some species of :

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Brassicaceae
(4) Both (1) and (2)

68) A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting phenotypes were in the ratio of:

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

(2) 1 : 3 : 1 : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous: Dwarf
(3) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall

69)

Pick out the correct statements:

(A) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(B) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(C) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(D) Sickle cell anaemia is X-linked recessive gene disorder.

(1) A and D are correct

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A, C and D are correct
(4) A, B and C are correct

70) In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:

(1) The two genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes.

(2) Chromatids failed to segregate during meiosis.
(3) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
(4) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

71) According to Tilman, how species rich biological community shows more stability ?

(1) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(3) Provide resistance to invasions by alien species
(4) All of these

72) Assertion : Sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds while secondary consumer when
it eats insects.
Reason : A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem at same time.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) Read the following statements with respect to power house of the cell.
(A) They are easily visible under the microscope
(B) Sites of aerobic respiration
(C) Their number per cell remains the same
(D) Ability to divide by fission
(E) They possess a single, linear DNA molecule
(F) They have membrane infoldings called cristae
How many of the above statements are true?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Which of the following is not characteristics of zygotene ?

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Appearance of Bivalent
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(4) Crossing over

75) Identify the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II
(i) Ethephon (a) Nutrient mobilisation
(ii) ABA (b) Hastens fruit ripening
(iii) Cytokinin (c) Bolting
(iv) Gibberellin (d) Dormin
(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

76) Assertion: Monoadelphous stamens are found in China rose.

Reason: In chinarose, the filaments of stamens are united to form one bundles.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct.

(2) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(3) Assertion only correct.
(4) Reason only correct.

77) Identify the (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the given figures and select the correct option :-
 (A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Guard cells Conjoint closed Conjoint open Radial condition

(2) Subsidiary cells Conjoint closed Conjoint open Conjoint condition

(3) Guard cells Radial condition Conjoint closed Conjoint Bicollateral

(4) Guard cells Radial condition Conjoint closed Conjoint open

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a electron pump, a proton gradient and GTP.
(2) Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a electron pump, an electron gradient and ATP synthase.
(3) Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATP synthase.
(4) Chemiosmosis requires a membrane and proton pump only.

79) Which one of the following is correct sequence in Krebs cycle ?

(1) α – ketoglutaric acid→ Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid → Succinic acid

(2) Oxalosuccinic acid → Isocitric acid → α – ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid
(3) Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid → α – ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid
(4) Isocitric acid → α – ketoglutaric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid → Succinic acid

80) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) The male and female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree (pinus).
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
(4) In cycas the male cone and megasporophylls are borne on same tree.

81) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about class basidiomycetes?
(i) They are commonly known as imperfect fungi because only the asexual or vegetative phases of
these fungi are known.
(ii) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites, e.g., rusts and
smuts.
(iii) The mycelium is branched and septate.
(iv) Some common members are Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

82) Assertion: Endosperm development occurs before embryo development.

Reason: Cells of endosperm are filled with reserve food material and act as source of nutrition for
developing embryo.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

83) Statement I: Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

Statement II : Polymorphism arises due to mutation.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

84) Match the following and select the correct answer :

(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria

(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids

(d) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
85) With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope takes place

(2) Chromosomes are highly condensed
(3) Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere
(4) Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell

86) Which one of the following statements is not correct for the vacuoles ?

(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in excretion.

(2) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles.
(3) Sap vacuole is bound by tonoplast.
(4) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into cytoplasm.

87) Thick–thread stage is :–

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

88) Assertion (A): Binomial nomenclature consists of two words – genus and specific epithet.
Reason (R): This system was given by Ernst Mayr.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

89) Which of the following is a correct example of genus and specific epithet ?

(1) Mangifera – indica

(2) indica – Mangifera
(3) Triticum – aestivum
(4) Both (1) and (3)

90) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Organisms) (Mode of Nutrition)

A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic

B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic

C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic

D. Plasmodium IV. Switching between photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 3 3 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 1 4 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation:
The problem asks for the magnitude of the average velocity of a particle that travels along a
semicircular path of radius in a time interval of . The particle starts at point A and
ends at point B.
Concept:
Average velocity is defined as the total displacement divided by the total time taken.
Displacement is the shortest straight-line distance between the initial and final positions.

Solution:
Find the Displacement :
In a semicircular path, the particle moves from one end of the diameter to the other.
The straight-line distance (displacement) is equal to the diameter of the circle.

Identify the Time :

The time given for the motion is .
Calculate Magnitude of Average Velocity:

Note: If the question asked for average speed, we would use the arc length , but for
velocity, only the straight-line displacement matters.
Final Answer:
Option (2)

2) Explanation: Find the final common angular velocity of two coupled rotating discs mounted
on a common shaft.
Concept Involved: Conservation of Angular Momentum (COAM) applies when no external
torque acts on the system.
Solution :
From COAM

Iω + (2I) (2ω) = (3I)ω' ω' =

3) Question Explanation: Find the angle of projection for a particle that just clears a 5
m high wall after 2 seconds.
Concept Involved: Equations of motion under constant gravitational acceleration for
projectile motion.
Solution :
uy = u sin θ

y = uy t – gt2 or
 5 = (25 sinθ) × 2 – × 10 × 22

∴ sinθ = or θ = 30°

4) Question Explanation: Determine the dimensions of the constants a, b, and c in the given
velocity-time equation.
Concept Involved: Principle of Homogeneity states that terms added or equated must have
identical dimensions.
Solution :

Final Answer: Option (3)

5) Question Explanation: Find the distance moved by a trolley before a block placed on it
falls off due to pseudo-force and friction.
Concept Involved: Relative motion analysis combined with Newton’s second law using a non-
inertial frame of reference.
Solution:

Srelative = arelative t2

t= = sec strolley =

6) Question Explanation: Identify which of the four given particle coordinate equations
describe a particle that is speeding up for t > 0.
Concept Involved: A particle speeds up when its velocity and acceleration share the same
sign.
Solution :
At t = 0

= 0 for particles 1, 2 and 3 and > 0 for t > 0

and = –3.4 m/s for particle 4 and is negative for t > 0

Therefore t > 0 ; is increasing in all.

7) Question Explanation: Deduce the components of the force acting on a body at a specific
coordinate given its potential energy function.
Concept Involved: Conservative force components are calculated using negative partial

derivatives of potential energy ( , etc.).

Solution:
Fx = = –12x + 7y = –12x(–2) + 7×0
Fx = 24N

Fy = = +7x – 16y = 7(–2)–16×0

Fy = –14N

Fz = = –32 N

8) Question Explanation: Determine the kinetic energy of a 6kg piece after an initially
stationary 9kg bomb explodes into two parts.
Concept Involved: Conservation of linear momentum during internal explosions shows that
fragments have equal and opposite momentum magnitudes.
Solution:
p2 = 2m1k1
p2 = 2m2k2
⇒ m1k1 = m2k2

k2 =

k2 = = 108 J
Final Answer : (2)

9) Question Explanation: Compare the buoyant forces and densities of two blocks floating in
water with different fractions of submerged volumes.
Concept Involved: Archimedes’ principle stating that for a floating body, the buoyant force
balances its weight.
Solution:
B = mg ⇒ B1 = B2
ρ1V1g = B = ρwvLDg

⇒ ρ2 > ρ1
Final Answer : (4)

10) Question Explanation: Calculate the change in velocity of a stone whirled in a vertical
circle as it moves from its lowest position to the horizontal position.
Concept Involved: Principle of conservation of mechanical energy combined with vector
subtraction for velocity updates.
Solution:
Final Answer : (4)

11) Question Explanation: Find the ratio of thermal conductivities of two touching sheets
whose boundary temperatures form a geometric progression.
Concept Involved: Under steady-state heat conduction, the heat current flowing through both
sheets must be identical.
Solution:
TA= T
TB = 2T
TC = 4T

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

12) Question Explanation: Find the internal tension generated in a wire when it is pulled
perpendicular to its midpoint layout.
Concept Involved: Hooke’s law relating elongation to mechanical stress via Young’s Modulus.
Solution:

T=
Increase in length of one segment of wire

l=

So, T =
Final Answer : (2)

13) Question Explanation: Find the final image position formed by a combination of three
coaxial lenses.

Concept Involved: Sequential application of the thin lens formula ( ) across a series
of lenses.
Solution:
For lens 1 : f1 = 10, u = –30, v = ?

v= = 15
For lens 2 : f1 = –10, u = 10, v = ?

v= =∞
For lens 3 : f = 30, u = –∞, v = ?
So v will be 30.
Final Answer : (1)

14) Question Explanation: Locate the center of mass position of a non-uniform rod with a
position-dependent linear mass density function.
Concept Involved: Evaluation of center of mass coordinates using continuous integration

formulas .
Solution:

Final Answer : (3)

15) Question Explanation: Find the valid speed of an moving screen in a Young’s Double Slit
Experiment given intensity transitions over a timeframe.
Concept Involved: Fringe width updates and wave intensity dependencies on optical path
configurations in standard interference scenarios.
Solution:

Δϕ = &

y1 =
Now for y2

Imaxcos2 ⇒ Δϕ =

& this can be or

⇒ y2 =

∵ y1 = y2

finally & D2 =

v=
Final Answer : (1)

16)

Question Explanation: Find the range of the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected
in parallel.
Concept: Error propagation in parallel resistance

Solution: The equivalent resistance of two resistors in parallel is The error in

the equivalent resistance is given by differentiating the reciprocal formula:
 Calculation :

R=

dR =
Final Answer: The range of value of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel is

17)

Explain Question : When a wire is stretched, its length increases and cross-sectional area
decreases, assuming constant volume. Resistance depends on length and area.
Concept : This question is based on

Resistance : R =

For constant volume : A1L1 = A2L2 ⇒ A2 =

New resistance :

Formula :
Solution :
L2 = 3L1 , R1 = 4Ω
R2 = 4 × 32 = 4 × 9 = 36 Ω
Final answer : 3

18) Question Explanation: Track the angle made by a light ray inside a specific multi-layered
interface layout.
Concept Involved: Application of Snell’s Law across multi-layered parallel medium interfaces
.
Solution:

n1sin 45° = n3 sinq ⇒ (1) = sinθ

⇒ sinθ = ⇒ θ = 30°
Final Answer : (1)

19) Question Explanation: Describe the changes in wavelength and frequency when light
travels from a vacuum into a medium of refractive index n.
Concept Involved: The frequency of a wave is determined solely by its source and does not
change across media, while speed and wavelength adjust based on the medium’s refractive
index.
Solution: When passing into a denser medium (n > 1), velocity drops (v = c/n), causing the
wavelength to decrease (λn = λ0/n) while the frequency remains completely unchanged.
Final Answer: (2)

20) Question Explanation: Find the average total energy density of an electromagnetic wave
given the root-mean-square value of its electric field.
Concept Involved: The average total energy density of an electromagnetic wave depends on
the square of its rms electric field intensity.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

21) Question Explanation: Identify which orbital parameter of a satellite remains constant if
the gravitational constant decreases over time.
Concept Involved: Angular momentum conservation under a central force field maintains
fixed tangential parameter traces under clean radial variation limits.
Solution:

T2 = r3. If G is variable then time period, angular velocity and orbital radius also
changes accordingly.
Final Answer: Option (3)

22) Question Explanation: Calculate the vector torque acting on a magnet aligned along the
x-axis inside a specified magnetic field vector.
Concept Involved: The vector torque on a magnetic dipole in an external field is given by the
cross product .
Solution:

=
Final Answer: Option (2)

23) Question Explanation: Find the new oscillation time period of a bar magnet when it is
cut cleanly into two equal halves perpendicular to its length.
Concept Involved: The time period of a bar magnet oscillating in a magnetic field depends on

its moment of inertia and magnetic dipole moment ( ).

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

24) Question Explanation: Determine the unknown frequency of a tuning fork that produces
specific beat patterns with two known tuning forks.
Concept Involved: The beat frequency between two sound sources is equal to the absolute
difference between their individual frequencies (fbeat = |f1 – f2|).
Solution:
Check by alternate
A to x beats and B to 2x beats
or
256 – n = x ...(i)
262 – n = 2x ...(ii)
n = 250 Hz
Final Answer: Option (3)

25) Question Explanation: Find the tension in a string given its linear mass density and the
wave equation of a progressive wave traveling along it.
Concept Involved: The wave speed along a stretched string depends on its tension and linear

mass density .
Solution:

v= ⇒

∴ T= × 0.5 = 6.25 N
Final Answer: Option (1)

26) Question Explanation: Determine the plane of oscillation for particles in a medium
carrying a transverse wave along the z-axis.
Concept Involved: In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular
to the direction of wave propagation.
Solution: Since the wave propagates along the z-axis, the medium’s particles must oscillate
anywhere within the perpendicular plane, which is the x-y plane.
Final Answer: Option (4)

27) Question Explanation: Calculate the work done in 2 seconds by a force acting on a 6
kg body with a given time-dependent displacement function.
Concept Involved: The Work-Energy Theorem states that the work done by a net force equals
the body’s change in kinetic energy.
Solution:

x=

v=

v= = 1 m/s

w = mv2 = · 6 · 12 = 3J
Final Answer: Option (4)
 28) Question Explanation: Find the net electrostatic force exerted on a semi-infinite charged
wire positioned along the axis of a uniformly charged ring.
Concept Involved: Integration of the axial electric field of a ring acting across a continuous
linear charge distribution.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

29) Explain Question: Asking about the effective capacitance for the given arrangement of
dielectric.

Concept: Effective capacitance with dielectric.

Solution: The effective capacitance will be of parallel combination

Ceq = C1 + C2

Ceq =

Final answer: option (2)

30) Question Explanation: Calculate the total heat generated when a charged 100
µF capacitor is completely discharged through a resistor.
Concept Involved: When a capacitor discharges completely, all of its stored electrostatic
potential energy is converted into thermal energy (heat).
Solution:
C = 100μf V = 200V

Heat generated =

Final Answer: Option (1)

 31)

Question Explanation : a moving coil galvanometer with an internal resistance Rg = 20 Ω is

given. It requires a current Ig = 0.01 A for a full-scale deflection. calculate the value of the
resistance required to convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter with a new range of V = 20
V.

Concept : Galvanometer → voltmeter.

Formula : Vrange​ = Ig​(Rg ​+ Rs​)

Solution:

V = i (R + S)
20 = (0.01) (20 + S)
S = 1980 Ω

Final answer : Option (1)

32) Question Explanation:

Finding the conversion factor between heat and work. Concept:
First Law of Thermodynamics. Solution:
The total energy in Joules (work + internal energy) is compared to the heat supplied in
calories to find the mechanical equivalent of heat. Total Energy (J): .

Heat (Q): . Equivalent (J): . Final Answer:

Option (2)

33) Question Explanation: Find the total heat absorbed by one mole of a monoatomic gas as
it is taken along the path ACB.
Concept Involved: The first law of thermodynamics states that the total heat absorbed is the
sum of the change in internal energy and the work done (dQ = dU + dW).
Solution:
dQ = dU + dW

0 0 0 0
= 1 × R × (4T – T ) + 1 × P × V

0 0 0
= RT + RT = RT
Final Answer: Option (1)

34) Question Explanation: Find the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons when
light with a frequency four times the threshold frequency hits a metal surface.
Concept Involved: Einstein’s photoelectric equation relates the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons to the incident photon energy and the metal’s work function ( ).
Solution:
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is given by
Kmax = hυ – ϕ0 = h(4υ) – h(υ) = 3hυ
Final Answer: Option (2)
35) Question Explanation: Determine the net charge on a neutral conducting sphere when a
positive point charge is placed near it.
Concept Involved: The principle of conservation of charge ensures that the net charge of an
isolated system remains constant unless charge is transferred to or from it.
Solution:
Net charge will remain same because no connection is made
Final Answer: Option (4)

36) Question Explanation: Determine the correct truth table for the given combination of
logic gates.
Concept Involved: Analyzing a Boolean logic circuit by tracking the output of its constituent
NOT, AND, and OR gates.
Solution: The circuit logic can be expressed as:

Evaluating the inputs confirms that the output E perfectly tracks input B.
Final Answer: Option (3)

37) Question Explanation: Find the maximum wattage rating of a Zener diode used in a
voltage regulator circuit where the diode current varies up to 50mA.
Concept Involved: The power dissipation (wattage) of a Zener diode is given by the product
of its operating voltage and the current flowing through it ( ).
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (3)

38)

Question Explanation: Calculate the current flowing through an ideal diode in a circuit with
parallel branches.
Concept: Ideal diode forward and reverse bias.
Solution: The diode is forward-biased, acting as a short circuit that bypasses the parallel
20Ω resistor.
Rtotal = 80Ω + 0Ω = 80Ω

Final Answer : Option (4)

39) Explain Question:

Find the ratio of new to old power factor when a capacitor Xc = 2R is added to a series LR
circuit with XL =3R.
​
Concept:
AC circuits impedance and power factor; series LCR; phasor-based reactance combination.

Solution:

Power factor cosϕ =

So

Final Answer: Option (3)

40) Question Explanation: Calculate the least count of a vernier caliper in millimeters given
its scale division relationships.
Concept Involved: The least count of a vernier caliper is equal to the value of one main scale
division minus one vernier scale division (LC = 1MSD – 1VSD).
Solution:
(n – 1)a = n(a')

a' =
∴ L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
= (a – a')cm

=a–

= = cm

= mm
Final Answer: Option (4)

41) Question Explanation: Find the condition on θ for a light ray to emerge from surface BC
after undergoing total internal reflection at surface AC.
Concept Involved: Total Internal Reflection (TIR) occurs when the angle of incidence inside a

denser medium exceeds the critical angle ( ).

Solution: For the ray to undergo total internal reflection at the prism-water boundary on

surface AC:
Final Answer: Option (1)

42) Question Explanation: Assess whether a body in equilibrium must be at rest, and
evaluate the relationship with the net force acting on it.
Concept Involved: Dynamic equilibrium allows a body to move at a constant velocity even
when the net force acting on it is zero.
Solution: The assertion is false because a body in equilibrium can be moving with a constant
 velocity (unaccelerated motion). The reason is true because the defining condition for
translational equilibrium is that the net force equals zero.
Final Answer: Option (4)

43) Question Explanation: Evaluate why the magnetic poles of a magnet cannot be
separated by breaking it, and check how its magnetic moment changes.
Concept Involved: Magnetic monopoles do not exist in nature; breaking a magnet always
creates new pairs of north and south poles.
Solution:
The magnetic dipole moment will be reduced to half when broken into two equal pieces and
every atom behaves like a dipole so the dipole of a magnet cannot be separated.
Final Answer: Option (2)

44)

Explanation Question:
Given acceleration-time graph, find times when particle velocity is zero, starting from rest.
Concept:
This question is based on Velocity = area under acceleration-time curve; zero velocity when
net area = 0
Solution:
Particle is initially at rest. Velocity at any time t is integral of acceleration:

From the a-t graph, particle returns to rest when total area under curve sums to zero.
Observing the graph, this occurs a t = 0, 2, 4 seconds.
​Final Answer: (2)

45) Question Explanation: Identify which field line pattern is physically valid for both
electric fields and magnetic fields.
Concept Involved: Magnetic field lines and induced electric field lines always form
continuous, closed loops.
Solution:
Magnetic field lines and induced electric field lines always form closed loop.
Final Answer: Option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : The energy of an electron of Li+2 in first excited state is XJ then find minimum
energy of an electron present in Be+3.
Concept : This question is based on Energy.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

47) Explaining : Atomic weight of X in molecule (X2) whose 3 moles weigh 150 g.
Concept : This question is based on GAM.
Solution :

= 25 g/mol
Final Answer : (2)

48) Explaining : Assign the sign of work done in the following chemical reactions -
Concept : This question is based on work done.
Solution :
Compression → work done → ⊕
Expansion → work done → ⊝
Final Answer : (4)

49) Explaining : The standard Enthalpy of neutralization is –13.7 kcal/geq. as H2SO4 +

2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O The change in enthalpy during neutralization of 0.75 mol H2SO4 by
1.5 mol NaOH. Concept : This question is based on Heat of neutralisation.
Solution :

= –20.55 kcal
Final Answer : (1)

50) Explaining : Find the temperature of the given reaction at equilibrium if = 3.

Concept : This question is based on Kp = Kc(RT)Δn Solution :

g

Kp = Kc (RT)Δng

3=R×T

Final Answer : (2)

51) Explaining : If a graph is plotted between ℓnk v/s for a chemical reaction then value of
slope will be-
Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius equation.
Solution :

y = mx + c
Slope = –Ea/R
Final Answer : (2)

52) Explaining : If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.2 M solution of urea are placed on two
sides of the Semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that -
Concept : This question is based on osmotic pressure.
Solution :
Osmotic pressure π = iCRT
for glucose:- π1 = (1)(0.1)RT
for urea:-
π2 = (1)(0.2)RT
π2 > π1
So, water will flow from glucose solution to urea solution.
Final Answer : (3)

53) Explaining : Time required to decompose half of the substance for nth order reaction is
inversely proportional to-
Concept : This question is based on Half-life

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

54) Explaining : Correct order of boiling point of given aqueous solution is –

Concept : This question is based on Van't Hoff factor.
Solution :
urea, glucose, sucrose
(i = 1)

i=3
Na2SO4 will have maximum boiling point
→ Lower molar mass → more moles → greater Boiling point
Sucrose = 342
Glucose = 180
urea = 60
Sucrose < Glucose < urea
D<A<B<C
Final Answer : (2)

55) Explaining : Species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is -

Concept : This question is based on disproportionation reaction.
Solution :

Oxidation number of Cl = +7
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : On the basis of above data, calculate ΔfHo of C2H6(g) (in kJ mol–1) :-
Concept : This question is based on Heat of formation.
Solution :

2(–x) + 3(–y) – (–z)

→ –2x – 3y + z
(z – 2x – 3y)
Final Answer : (1)

57) Explaining : Correct option.

Concept : This question is based on quantum number.
Solution :
S-1 for a given shell, total number of allowed orbitals is given by n2
S-2 for any subshell, maximum number of electrons which can be filled is given by 2(2ℓ+1)
Final Answer : (4)

58) Explaining :

In the above diagram, the standard electrode potential are given in volts, then value of
is -
Concept : This question is based on electrode potential.
Solution :
...(1)
...(2)
...(3)

Final Answer : (3)

59) Explaining : 10–3 M aqueous solution of ethylamine has pH = 9 then its ionisation
constant is -
Concept : This question is based on Kb for weak base.
Solution :
pH = 9 ; pOH = 5 ⇒ [OH–] = 10–5 M

C = 10–3 M - -
C(1–α) Cα Cα
[OH–] = Cα = 10–5

= 10–7
Final Answer : (2)
60) Explaining : How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 20 g of Ca
from molten CaCl2 -
Concept : This question is based on Faraday law.
Solution :
Ca+2 + 2e– → Ca
1 mole e– = 1 Faraday (F)
it takes 2F to produce 1 mole of calcium

= 0.5 moles
Total Faraday = moles of Ca × 2 F/mol
= 0.5 × 2
=1F
Final Answer : (2)

61) Explaining : The product obtained by the hydrolysis of Al4C3, Mg2C3 and CaC2
respectively.
Concept : This question is based on Hydrolysis.
Solution :
Al4C3 CH4
Mg2C3 CH3–C≡CH, CaC2 C2H2.
Final Answer : (2)

62) Explaining : Among the given elements Be, B, Al, Si, P, S which is largest and having
highest metallic character respectively -
Concept : This question is based on metallic character.
Solution :

Reactivity of metal ∝
Final Answer : (3)

63) Explain Question:

This question asking about hypervalent compounds exceed the octet.
Concept:
Hypervalent compounds
Solution:
PCl5, SF6, ClF3 → more than 8 electrons
BF3 → less than 8 electrons → not hypervalent
Final answer: Option (3)

64)

Explain Question : Identify incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on H-bonding
Solution : Hydrogen bonding occurs between highly electronegative. atoms (F, O, N) not
between least electronegative elements.
Final Answer : option (4)
65) Explaining : Which of the following does not follow EAN rule ?
Concept : This question is based on EAN.
Solution :
Mn(CO)5
EAN = 25 – 0 + (2 × 5) = 35
Final Answer : (4)

66) Explanation Question: CFT Configuration of potassium ferricyanide K3[Fe(CN)6].

Concept: CFT.
Solution:
K3[Fe(CN)6]
0
O.S of Fe = +3 Fe+3 = 4s 3d5
CN– is strong field ligand hence CFSE would be high and pairing would take place.

Final answer : Option (2)

67) Explaining : Match the column-

Concept : This question is based on shape of compound.
Solution :
(A) XeF5¯ → (5σ + 3LP) ⇒ sp3d3 ⇒ Pentagonal planner
(B) ICl2¯ → (2σ + 3LP) ⇒ sp3d ⇒ Linear
(C) H3F+ → (3σ + 1LP) ⇒ sp3 ⇒ Pyramidal
(D) XeOF4 → (5σ + 1LP) ⇒ sp3d2 ⇒ Pentagonal planner
Final Answer : (2)

68)

Question Explanation: Compare stability of N2+ and N2– using bond order.
Concept: This question is based on Molecular orbital theory
Solution:
Both N2+ and N2– have the same bond order (2.5), but N2+ has fewer electrons in antibonding
orbitals than N2–, hence higher bond order and greater stability.
N2+ (13 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz1
0
N2– (15 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz2 , π∗2px1= ​π∗2py
Final Answer: Option (3)

69) Question Explanation: Question is asking that Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of
which group
Concept: This question is based on Group reagent
Solution: Dil. HCl + H2O is the group reagent of IIndgroup
Final Answer : (2)

70) Explaining : Which ligand is used for removing excess of copper and iron ?
Concept : This question is based on use of coordination compound.
Solution : D-pencillamine and desferrioxime B
Final Answer : (3)

71) Explaining : Match the column-I with column-II

Concept : This question is based on oxidation state & properties of d-block element.
Solution : i–c, ii–a, iii–b
Final Answer : (1)

72) Explaining : Which carbide of lanthanoid is not form when lanthanoid react with carbon
at high temperature ?
Concept : This question is based on reaction of lanthanoids.
Solution : Ln4C3 does not form directly at high temperature.
Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by:
Concept : This question is based on size of isoelectronic species.
Solution :
In F–, Ne, Na+ all have 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 configuration. They have different size due to the difference
in nuclear charge.
Final Answer : (4)

74) Explaining : A & R given for boiling point.

Concept : This question is based on H-Bonding.
Solution :
Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid state. That
is why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.
Final Answer : (4)

75)

Explaining : Among the following oxide of p - block elements, number of oxides having
amphoteric nature is
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, SnO2
Concept : This question is based on Nature of oxide.
Solution :
Acidic oxide: Cl2O7, SiO2, N2O5
Neutral oxide: CO, NO, N2O
Amphoteric oxide: Al2O3 , SnO2 , PbO2
Final Answer : (3)

76) Explaining : Final product B is

Concept : This question is based on HBO reaction Then oxidation.
Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

77) Explaining : What is the major product of the following reaction ?What is the major
product of the following reaction ?
Concept : This question is based on Reaction of HX with Alcohol.
Solution :
SN1 path follow, most stable carbocation

Final Answer : (1)

78)

Explaining : Final product B will be.

Concept : This question is based on alkyl halide with AgCN then reduction
Solution : CH3–Cl CH3–NC CH3–NH–CH3
Final Answer : (2)

79) Explaining : Final product will be.

Concept : This question is based on Reaction\between p-toluidine with chloroform.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

80) Explaining : Major product P is

Concept : This question is based on Reaction of Ester with Grignard Reagent.
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

81)

Explaining : Distinguish between compound.

Concept : This question is based on different test of given compound.
Solution :

NaHCO3 +Ve +Ve

DNP +Ve +Ve
AgNO3/aq NH3 –Ve –Ve
I2/NaOH +Ve –Ve
Final Answer : (4)

82) Explaining : Most reactive towards HCN is :-

Concept : This question is based on NAR Mechanism.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

83)

Explaining : X and Y reagent are-

Concept : This question is based on reaction of cyanide.
Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

84) Explaining : Which of the following intermediate is more stable:-

Concept : This question is based on SnAr mechanism.
Solution :
Carbanion form as intermediate, which is
Stabilized by EWG on ortho and para position
Final Answer : (3)

85) Explaining : A, B in given sequence.

Concept : This question is based on Reaction of Alkyne, Haloform reaction.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

86) Explaining : For which of the following order is incorrect?

Concept : This question is based on L.G. tendency and nucleophilicity
Solution :
L.G. ∝ stability of Anion ∴ F⊝ < Cl⊝ < Br⊝ < I⊝
Nucleophilicity → Polar medium → F⊝ < Cl⊝ < Br⊝ < I⊝
Polar Aprotic → F⊝ > Cl⊝ > Br⊝ > I⊝
Final Answer : (3)

87)

Explaining : Incorrect order for leaving group ability.

Concept : This question is based on Leaving group tendency.
Solution : Leaving group tendency ∝ Stability of Anion.
Final Answer : (1)

88) Explaining : Which is wrongly match

Concept : This question is based on different test.
Solution :
Propane - 1 - amine & Propane - 2- amine, both are 1o Amine. Hence Cannot be distinguished
by Hinsberg reagent.
Final Answer : (4)

89) Explaining : % of chlorine.

Concept : This question is based on carius method.
Solution :

% of chlorine =
= 71.72 Final Answer : (3)
 90) Explaining : Structure of glycogen is similar to :-
Concept : This question is based on Structure of glycogen.
Solution : Glycogen structure is similar to amylopectin which is highly branched.
Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Solution : (a) - (vi), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Column I Column II

(a) Glycogen (vi) Storage form of energy

(b) Collagen (iii) Intercellular ground substance

(c) Ricin (ii) Toxin

(d) Malonate (i) Inhibitor

Final Answer : (3)

92) Solution : Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

93) Solution : (b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.

(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
Final Answer : (3)

94) Question Explanation: Match the animal features in Column-I with their corresponding
phyla in Column-II.

Concept: The question is based on animal classification

Solution:

(A) Spongocoel → characteristic of Porifera → (iii)

(B) Dorso-ventrally flattened body → characteristic of Platyhelminthes → (iv)

(C) Coelenteron cavity → characteristic of Cnidaria → (ii)

(D) Chitinous exoskeleton → characteristic of Arthropoda → (i)

Correct matching: A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i

Final Answer: Option 3

95) Solution : Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.
Final Answer : (3)
 96) Solution : RV (Residual Volume); ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume); TV (Tidal Volume);
and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume).
Final Answer : (4)

97) Solution : (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii)

Descending limb Reabsorption of

(a) (ii)
of Henle's loop water only

Reabsorption of
Proximal Convoluted
(b) (iv) ion, water and
tubule
organic nutrients

Ascending limb Reabsorption of

(c) (i)
of Henle's loop salts only

Conditional
Distal convoluted reabsorption of
(d) (iii)
tubule sodium ion and
water
Final Answer : (2)

98) Solution : (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

List - I List - II

(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Cerebral cortex

(b) Bipolar neuron (iii) Retina of Eye

(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves

(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (i) Somatic neural system

Final Answer : (4)

99) Solution : Portal circulation and Axonal transport

Final Answer : (4)

100) Solution : Gliding joint - between carpals.

Final Answer : (4)

101) Solution:
Let's match the terms in Column A with their correct descriptions in Column B:

A. A. Mons pubis: This is the fleshy-pad df fatty tissue that covers the pubic bone. So, A matches
with iv. Cushion of fatty tissue.
B. B. Labia majora: These are the larger, outer folds of skin that protect the vulva. So, B matches
with i. Fleshy folds of tissue.
C. C. Labia minora: These are the smaller, inner folds of skin that surround the clitoris and
vaginal opening. So, C matches with ii. Paired folds of tissue.
D. D. Clitoris: This is a small, sensitive organ located at the top of the vulva. So, D matches with
iii. Finger-like structure.
Therefore, the correct matching is:

A. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

So, the correct answer is Option 1.

102) Solution : A - Trophoblast; B - Inner cell mass

Function of A - Attachment with endometrium
Function of B - Differentiation as embryo
Final Answer : (1)

103) Solution : Sperms gradually disappear in semen.

Final Answer : (4)

104) Explanation:
(A) Typhoid: Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. So, (A) matches with
(II) Salmonella.
(B) Elephantiasis: Elephantiasis (lymphatic filariasis) is caused by parasitic worms,
specifically filarial worms like Wuchereria bancrofti. These worms belong to the group
Aschelminthes (roundworms). So, (B) matches with (III) Aschelminthes.
(C) Ringworm: Ringworm is a fungal infection caused by various dermatophytes, including
the genus Microsporum. So, (C) matches with (IV) Microsporum.
(D) Malaria: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the Plasmodium genus. So, (D)
matches with (I) Protozoan.
Final Answer: 3. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

105) Solution : Molecule - (a) Morphine

Source - Papaver somniferum
Use - Sedative and pain killer
Final Answer : (2)

106) Solution : II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers
I. Formation of protobionts
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
Final Answer : (1)

107) Solution : C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.

Final Answer : (1)

108) Solution : It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil.

Final Answer : (1)

109) Solution : A - Macrophage; B - Fibroblast; C - Collagen fibres; D - Mast cell

Final Answer : (3)
 110) Solution : a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

List -I List - II

(a) Adaptive radiation (iv) Darwin Finches

(b) Convergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

(c) Divergent evolution (ii) Bones of fore limbs in Man and Whale

Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use

(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (i)
of herbicides and pesticides
Final Answer : (1)

111) Solution : Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs.
Final Answer : (3)

112) Solution : Swiss cheese

Final Answer : (2)

113) Solution : Apoenzyme is protein part of conjugated enzyme.

Final Answer : (3)

114) Solution : Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Final Answer : (1)

115) Solution : Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate which closely resemble the
substrate succinate in structure.
Final Answer : (3)

116) Solution : Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill slits.
Final Answer : (4)

117) Solution : Echinodermata - Star fish, Sea-urchin, Sea-cucumber,,Brittle sta, Sea-lilyr

Final Answer : (2)

118) Solution : Amount of sacroplasmic reticulum is low in red muscle fibres.

Final Answer : (3)

119) Solution : ‘LUBB’ at begining of Ventricular systole.

Final Answer : (3)

120) Solution : Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Final Answer : (2)
 121) Solution : Downstream processing involves (1) Separation (2) Purification (3)
Formulation (4) Packaging
Final Answer : (2)

122) Solution : The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector,
is termed ori site
Final Answer : (3)

123) Solution : Process involving silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary

dsRNA molecule is called RNA interference.
Final Answer : (2)

124) Solution : The alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilises the crystals.
Final Answer : (1)

125) Solution : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Final Answer : (1)

126) Solution : A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

List I List II

A. Vasectomy III. Surgical method

B. Coitus interruptus IV. Natural method

C. Cervical caps II. Barrier method

D. Saheli I. Oral contraceptive

Final Answer : (1)

127) Solution : Genetic drift operates in small isolated population.

Final Answer : (3)

128) Solution : Non-nutrient chemicals produced by endocrine glands in trace amount that
act as intercellular messengers are known as hormones.
Final Answer : (4)

129) Solution : Based on the anatomical features of Rana tigrina (the Indian bullfrog), 3 of
the statements provided are correct
Final Answer : (4)

130) Solution : (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Final Answer : (2)

131) Solution : A contraceptive pill developed by the scientists of CDRI, Lucknow is Saheli.
 Final Answer : (3)

132) Solution : Haploid cells which undergo mitosis are Male honey bee.
Final Answer : (3)

133) Solution : A - Immigration; B - Emigration.

Final Answer : (3)

134) Solution :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

t is a important fungi because sexual

(3) Trichoderma belongs to class deuteromytetes
reproduction is absent
Final Answer : (3)

135) Solution : Volvox, Polysiphonia, Laminaria

Final Answer : (3)

136) Solution : Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

137) Solution : Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy.

Final Answer : (3)

138) Solution : a
Final Answer : (4)

139)

Question Explanation : Template strand direction

Concept: Transcription – Template vs Coding

Solution:

A. During transcription, the template strand of DNA has a 3'→ 5' polarity, and RNA is synthesized
in the 5'→ 3' direction.
B. The coding strand has the same sequence as the RNA (except for thymine replaced by uracil in
RNA) and runs in the 5' 3' direction.

Final answer: Option (2)

140)

Statements (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect.

Therefore, there are 3 incorrect statements.

141)

To find the death rate in the population, we calculate the per capita death rate (the number of
deaths per individual per unit of time).
The formula for the death rate is:

Given:
Initial population size = 80
Number of deaths = 8
Time interval = 1 week

The death rate in the population is 0.1 individuals per Drosophila per week.

142) Solution : Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason is the
correct explanation for the Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

143)

Based on ecological definitions, standing crop refers to the total mass of living material
(biomass) or the number of living organisms present in a unit area at a specific time.
Therefore, the correct points describing standing crop are:
(i) Biomass in a unit area.
(ii) Living organism in unit area.

144)

In the standard NCERT pie chart representing the global biodiversity of invertebrates, B
represents Molluscs (Phylum Mollusca).
For complete reference, the entire pie chart is divided into the following four categories:
A: Insects (the largest group, making up over 70% of all recorded animal species)
B: Molluscs (the second-largest invertebrate group)
C: Crustaceans
D: Other animal groups

145) Active rRNA synthesis: This process occurs inside the nucleolus (a dense region within
the nucleus). While the nuclear envelope is structurally connected to the endoplasmic
reticulum, the nucleolus itself and the specific machinery for synthesizing ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) function independently of the endomembrane system's transport and packaging
pathway.

146) Ostrich egg > Human RBC > Bacteria > Mycoplasma
 147) Solution : (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)

(i) Plasmodesmata (d) Cytoplasmic connections

(ii) Kinetochores (c) Disc shaped structure on centromere

(iii) Nucleoplasm (a) Nuclear matrix

(iv) Capsule (b) Thick and tough glycocalyx

148) Explanation : The parallel line technique (also known as the root marking
experiment) is a classic botanical method used to determine which specific zone of a plant
organ (usually a root) undergoes the maximum growth and elongation.

149) Solution : A → ii, B → i, C → iv, D → iii

A. Dicot root ii. Casparian strip (Found in the endodermis)

B. Dicot stem i. Trichomes (Epidermal hairs present on the stem)
C. Monocot leaf iv. Bulliform cells (Large, empty cells in the epidermis that help in rolling/unrolling)
D. Dicot leaf iii. Palisade parenchyma (Part of the mesophyll, located on the upper side)

150)

The term "dark reaction" simply means that the enzymatic steps that fix carbon dioxide into
sugar are not directly driven by light energy, but rather rely on the chemical energy (ATP
and NADPH) generated during the light-driven phase.

151)

Respiration differs from combustion in liberation of energy gradually in steps in contrast to

combustion.

152) Solution : In Lactic acid Fermentation there is no decarboxylation.

Final Answer : (3)

153) Ovary is said to be superior: Incorrect.

Because the ovary is situated below the sepals, petals, and stamens, it is classified as an
inferior ovary. (A superior ovary is found in hypogynous flowers like mustard or china rose).

154) Explanation : In algae, the type of stored food material is a primary feature used for
classification:

1. Ulothrix – Starch: Correct. Ulothrix is a green alga (Chlorophyceae), and green algae
store their food as standard starch.

2. Porphyra – Floridean Starch: Correct. Porphyra is a red alga (Rhodophyceae), and red
algae store food in the form of floridean starch (which is structurally similar to amylopectin
and glycogen).

3. Polysiphonia – Mannitol: Incorrect. Polysiphonia is a red alga (Rhodophyceae). Its

stored food material is floridean starch, not mannitol. Mannitol (along with laminarin) is the
characteristic stored food found in brown algae (Phaeophyceae).

4. Ectocarpus – Laminarin: Correct. Ectocarpus is a brown alga (Phaeophyceae), and brown

algae store food as complex carbohydrates called laminarin or mannitol.

155)

Explain Question: Question is asking about find the incorrect statement about fungi
Concept: Kingdom -Fungi -general character
Solution:
1 They show a great diversity in morphology and habitats-correct

2 Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and as parasites also-correct

3 They prefer to grow in cold and dry places-Incorrect

Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

4 With the exception of yeasts, fungi are filamentous-correct

Final answer: (3)

156) (a) Incorrect. The filament has two ends: the proximal end is attached to the thalamus
or the petal of the flower, while the distal end is attached to the anther.
(b) Incorrect. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30
minutes of their release. However, in some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and
Solanaceae, pollen viability is maintained for months.
(c) Correct. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed, with each lobe containing two
microsporangia, making it a four-sided (tetragonal) structure with a total of four
microsporangia.
(d) Correct. Parthenium hysterophorus (carrot grass) was accidentally introduced to India
alongside imported wheat. It spread rapidly across the country and its pollen grains are a
notorious cause of respiratory allergies and asthma.

157)

Seeds may be produced without fertilization in some species of Asteraceae (the sunflower
family) and Grasses (Poaceae).
This biological process is called apomixis, which is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics
sexual reproduction to form seeds without the fusion of gametes.

158)

Since the question specifically asks for the resulting phenotypes, the correct ratio is 3 : 1
(Tall : Dwarf).
 159) Solution : Statements (A), (B), and (C) are correct., Sickle cell anemia in a autosomal
recessive disorder
Final Answer : (4)

160) Solution : The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution : Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are all key conclusions drawn from Tilman's
research on ecosystem stability, All of these is the correct answer.
Final Answer : (4)

162) Solution : Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

163) Solution : The true statements are (B), (D), and (F).
Therefore, exactly 3 of the statements are true.
Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : Crossing over: This is not a characteristic of zygotene. Genetic

recombination and crossing over (the exchange of genetic material between non-sister
chromatids) take place in the stage immediately following zygotene, which is Pachytene. This
process is mediated by an enzyme complex called the recombinase nodule.
Final Answer : (4)

165) Solution : i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

(i) Ethephon (b) Hastens fruit ripening

(ii) ABA (d) Dormin
(iii) Cytokinin (a) Nutrient mobilisation
(iv) Gibberellin (c) Bolting
Final Answer : (4)

166) Solution : Both assertion and reason are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : A = Guard cells, B = Radial condition, C = Conjoint closed, D = Conjoint open
Final Answer : (4)

168) Solution : Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and
ATP synthase
Final Answer : (3)

169) Solution : Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid → α – ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid
 Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : The male and female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree (pinus).
Final Answer : (1)

171) Solution : The correct statements are (ii), (iii), and (iv). Depending on your multiple-
choice options, look for the combination containing these three points.
Final Answer : (3)

172) Solution : Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

173) Solution : Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

174) Solution : a = iv, b = ii, c = i, d = iii

(a) Centriole (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella

(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(c) Cristae (i) Infoldings in mitochondria

(d) Ribozymes (iii) Nucleic acids

Final Answer : (1)

175) Solution : Metaphase chromosomes are made up of two sister chromatids held together
by centromere.
Final Answer : (3)

176) Explain Question : The question asks which statement about vacuoles is not correct.
Concept : This question is based on Vacuole.
Solution : The incorrect statement is the one saying that tonoplast transports ions into the
cytoplasm — it actually moves ions into the vacuole.
Final Answer : (4)

177) Solution : During Pachytene - Each Chromosome Contain two clearly visible Chromatid
so each birafent or homologous Chromosome Pair Contain 4 Chromatids so Bivalents are also
called - tetrad

A. Due to presence of clearly visible two Chromatid in each homologous chromosome. It is also
called thick thread stage.
B. Crossing over also take place between non sister chromatids of bivalents.

So Correct answer will be Pachytene.

Final Answer : (3)
178) Explanation: Binomial nomenclature was given by Linnaeus, not Ernst Mayr.
Final Answer : (3)

179) Explanation: Mangifera – indica, Triticum – aestivum

Final Answer : (4)

180) Explaining : A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Euglenoid — Switching between photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode
Dinoflagellate — Photosynthetic
Slime mould — Saprophytic
Plasmodium — Parasitic
Final Answer : (3)