26-04-2026

1015CMD303001260001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1) ex (cos x + sin x)

(2) ex (cos x – sin x)
(3) ex (sin x – cos x)
(4) None

2) If y = x3 + x2 + x + 1, then =?

(1) 3x2 + 2x + 1
(2) 6x + 2
(3) 6
(4) 6x2 + 2x2

3) If y = 2x3 + 3x2 – 12x + 1 find maximum value of y =

(1) 6
(2) 21
(3) 16
(4) –21

4) If y = 2 – sinx, then find maximum and minimum value of y :

(1) 3, 0
(2) 3, 1
(3) 1, –1
(4) 1, 0

5) Minimum value of will be :-

(1) 2
(2) −2
(3)
(4)

6) then is:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

tan (1853°) = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

cos215° – sin215° = .......... ?

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

9) Find

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 15/2

10) is
(1)

(2) ln(3x + 2) + C
(3) 3 ln(3x + 2) + C
(4) 2 1n(3x + 2) + C

11)

If sinθ = then tanθ = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

(1)

(2) 0
(3) 1/2
(4) –1

13) The value of sin(– 30°) + cos(120°).

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) None

14) For above graph find =

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None

15)

Integrate the following function w.r.t. x -

(1) 4cosx + 2logex + C

(2) –4cosx + 2logex + C
(3) –4cosx – 2logex + C
(4) 4cosx – 2logex + C

16)

In the shown graph with the increase of x, find correct statement :-

(A) Slope is increasing.

(B) Magnitude of slope is first decreasing and then increasing.
(1) Both statements are wrong.
(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Statement (A) is correct and (B) is wrong.
(4) Statement (B) is correct and (A) is wrong.

17) Find distance between A(1,2,3) & B(2, 3, 4) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Convert 315° into radian :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) The equation of a curve is given as y = x2 + 2 – 3x. The curve intersects the x-axis at

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (2, 0)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) No where

20)

(1) –21x–8 – x–2 + c

(2)

(3) –21x–6 – x–2 + c

(4) None

21) Find value of a if distance between the points (–2, a) cm and (10,3) cm is 13 cm

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 6
(3) –2 and 8
(4) 2 and 8

22) The slope of graph in figure at point A,B and C is mA, mB and mC respectively, then:

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA < mB < mC
(3) mA = mB = mC
(4) mA = mB < mC

23) Position of a particle is given by x = (6t2 + 3t + 4)m where t is in seconds then velocity of
particle at t = 2 second is :-

(1) 15 m/sec
(2) 27 m/sec
(3) 24 m/sec
(4) 12 m/sec
24)

Which of the following is false statement :-

(1) unit vectors are used to represent direction

(2) unit vectors do not have any magnitude
(3) and are mutually perpendicular vectors
(4) None

25)

If a unit vector is represented by , then the value of ‘c’ is

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Vector sum of two forces of 10 N and 5 N can be :

(1) 4N
(2) 18N
(3) 12N
(4) 2N

27) There are two force vectors, one of 4N and other of 3N. At what angle the two vectors be added
to get resultant vector of 7 N, 1 N and 5 N respectively :-

(1) 0°, 180° and 90°

(2) 0°, 90° and 180°
(3) 0°, 90° and 90°
(4) 180°, 0° and 90°

28) Two forces 3N and 2N are at an angle θ such that the resultant is R. The first force is now
increased to 6N and the resultant become 2R. The value of θ is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

29) In the shown figure what amount of force and in which direction we should apply so that net
force only acts along x-axis only :-

(1) 3N along –ve of y-axis

(2) 3N along +ve of y-axis
(3) 2N along –ve of x-axis
(4) 2N along +ve of x-axis

30) Which of the following group of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium (R = 0)?
A B C
(1) 10 20 40
(2) 3 5 1
(3) 20 20 20
(4) 40 30 5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Two vectors and are added. The magnitude of the sum of these vectors is:-

(1) 36
(2) 100
(3)
(4) 136

32) If angle between unit vectors and is 60°, then value of is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

33)

The resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) and are shown in figure. Then diagram of – is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors,
the angle between these vectors is

0
(1) 45
0
(2) 180
0
(3) 0
0
(4) 90

36)

For the given quadrilateral, which equation is correct:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) If and the magnitudes of and are 5, 4 and 3 units, then the angle between
and is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :-

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

39) If the system is in equilibrium then calculate F1 and F2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Angle of vector from Y-axis is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 90°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°
41) ,

(1) 18
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) – 12

42) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is :-

(1) –1

(2)

(3)
–
(4) 1

43) Component of vector along will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Find the angle between the vectors and :–

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

45) and are vectors each having a unit magnitude. If = , then

will be :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

CHEMISTRY
1) The approximate radius of the nucleus of 28Ni64 is :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 4 × 10–15 m
(3) 5 × 10–15 m
(4) 2 × 10–15 m

2) What is the energy content per photon (J) for light of frequency 4.2 × 1014 ?

(1) 2.8 × 10–21

(2) 2.5 × 1019
(3) 2.8 × 10–19
(4) 2.5 × 10–18

3) The energy of a radiation whose wavelength is 2000 Å will be:-

(1) 5.8 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 7.2 eV
(4) 6.2 eV

4)

An element has 18 electrons when its charge is and it also has 20 neutron. What is its mass
number ?

(1) 38
(2) 39
(3) 40
(4) 36

5) Mass of proton is ____ times mass of electron:-

(1) 10
(2) 1840
(3) 1837
(4) None of these

6)

According to bohr theory angular momentum of an electron in M-shell is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7)

Radius ratio of first orbit of H and He+ is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

8) Radius of second shell of He+ is :-

(1) 1.06 × 10–10 m

(2) 1.06 × 10–8 m
(3) 0.529 × 10–10 m
(4) 0.529 × 10–8 m

9) The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength to that of 4000Å is :

(1) 1/4
(2) 4
(3) 1/2
(4) 2

10) If number of protons in X2+ is 26 then number of electrons in X2– is :

(1) 26
(2) 24
(3) 28
(4) 22

11) In an atom 15P31 number of electron is (a) proton is (b) and neutron is (c). Hence ratio will be :
[In order a : b : c]

(1) 15 : 16 : 15
(2) 16 : 15 : 15
(3) 15 : 15 : 16
(4) 15 : 16 : 16

12)

Atomic weight of element Y is 10.2 element Y is the mixture of 10Y & 12Y, relative abundance of
heavier isotope is :
(1) 30
(2) 90
(3) 10
(4) 20

13) 5B11 and 6C13 are related to each other as :

(1) Isotone
(2) Isoelectronic
(3) Isodiaphers
(4) Isosters

14) Calculate frequency of a photon having an energy of 6.626 kJ :

(1) 1034 sec–1

(2) 1031 sec–1
(3) 1036 sec–1
(4) 1037 sec–1

15) If the table of atomic masses were established with the oxygen atom and assigned value of 100,
then the mass of sulphur atom would be :-

(1) 150
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 300

16)

A photon in X Region is more energetic than in the visible region, X is

(1) IR Rays
(2) UV Rays
(3) Microwaves
(4) Radiowaves

17)

If the mass of neutron is doubled and mass of electron and proton is halved then find out the percent
by which mass is increased in 16S32 :-

(1) 0
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
18) When α-particles strike a thin gold foil then :-

(1) Most of the α-particles do not pass through the gold foil.
(2) Most of the α-particles get deflected back.
(3) Most of the α-particles get deflected through small angles.
(4) Most of the α-particles pass through without any deviation.

19) The nucleus of tritium contains :-

(1) 1 proton + 1 neutron

(2) 1 proton + 3 neutron
(3) 1 proton + 0 neutron
(4) 1 proton + 2 neutron

20) Which one of the following pairs is not isoelectronic ?

(1) Ar and Cl–

(2) Na+ and Ne
(3) Na+ and Mg2+
(4) Mg+ and Ne

21) Which statement(s) is/are correct according to Dalton's atomic theory :-

(1) Atom is an ultimate particle of matter.

(2) Atom is a sphere
(3) Atoms participate in chemical reactions to form molecules.
(4) Both (1) & (3)

22)

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment
?

(1)
1/3
(2) Rn = R0(A)

(3)

(4) All of these

23) The total number of neutrons present in 54 mL H2O(l) are :

(1) 3 NA
(2) 30 NA
(3) 24 NA
(4) 6 NA
24) 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 6 litres of volume at STP the gas is

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

25) Number of moles present in 6 g of C-12

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.1
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.05

26) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

27)

Calculate the number of Atoms of chlorine in 2.08 g of BaCl2 (Atomic weight of Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5)

–1
(1) 2 × 10 NA
(2) 2 NA
–2
(3) 2 × 10 NA
–3
(4) 2 × 10 NA

28) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 2:3. Their molecular masses are in the ratio
of

(1) 3:2
(2) 6:1
(3) 2:3
(4) 1:6

29) Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are :-

(1) 3 NA
(2) 20 NA
(3) 24 NA
(4) 6 NA
30) An organic compound contains 4% sulphur. Its minimum molecular weight is :

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 800
(4) 1600

31) Which of the following pair of gases contains the same number of molecules?

(1) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2

(2) 8g of O2 and 22g of CO2
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2
(4) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2

32) If the density of gas at STP is 0.2 g/L. Then find out molecular weight of gas.

(1) 2.24
(2) 10
(3) 4.48
(4) 1

33) What amount of CaO will be produced by 2 moles of Ca.

2Ca + O2 → 2CaO

(1) 5.6g
(2) 56g
(3) 112g
(4) 224g

34) How many litres of air are required to burn 4 L CH4, if air contains 20% oxygen by volume ?
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(1) 20 L
(2) 10 L
(3) 40 L
(4) 80 L

35) A mixture of gases contain CH4 and O2 in the ratio 1 : 2 by mass. What is the ratio of number of
molecules ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

36) Equal mass of O2, H2 and CH4 are taken in a container in identical conditions. What is the ratio of
their moles :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

37) Which of the following has maximum number of atoms :-

(1) 16g O2
(2) 1.7g NH3
(3) 10g H2
(4) 88g CO2

38)

2.7 g Al will react with 4Al + 3O2 → 2 Al2O3

(1) 8 g O2
(2) 2.4 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

39) The weight of one atom of Uranium is 238 amu. Its actual weight is .... g.

(1) 1.43 × 1026

(2) 3.94 × 10–22
(3) 6.99 × 10–23
(4) None of these

40)

The volume of O2 at STP required for the complete combustion of 4g CH4 is

(1) 5.6 litre

(2) 2.88 litre
(3) 22.4 liter
(4) 11.2 litre

41)

The atomic weights of two element A and B are 80 and 40 respectively. If x g of A contains y atoms,
how many atoms are present in 2x g of B :-

(1) y

(2)
(3) 4y

(4)

42)

6 × 1020 molecules of CO2 are removed from 220 milligram of CO2. What are the remaining moles of
CO2?

(1) 4 × 10–3 mole

(2) 5 × 10–3 mole
(3) 2 × 10–3 mole
(4) 6 × 10–3 mole

43)

Which of the following will have highest mass?

(1) 1 mole H2
(2) 1 mole N2
(3) 1 mole O2
(4) 1 mole CO2

44)

The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 × 1010 and 9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula is:

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO2
(3) Cr2O4
(4) CrO5

45) 1 amu is equal to :-

(1) Mass of one oxygen atom

(2) Mass of one C–12 atom

(3)
of mass of one C–12 atom
(4) 1.67 × 10–24 kg

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following tissue is not originated from Mesoderm ?

(1) Epithelium
(2) Muscular
(3) Nervous
(4) Connective

2) Assertion : Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits
division of labour.
Reason : Division of labour helps an organism to efficiently integrate distinct cellular activities thus
increases the chances of survival of an organism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

3) Which of the following junction is helpful in the transfer of ions ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Adhering junction
(4) Interdigitation

4) Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

5) Which of the following is a/are function of epithelial tissue?

(1) Covering
(2) Lining
(3) Protection
(4) All of the above

6) Basement membrane is composed of :-

(1) Hyaluronic Acid + glycoproteins

(2) Only mucopolysacharides
(3) Endodermal cells
(4) Epidermal cells

7) Basement membrane is secreted by :-

(1) Epithelial cells only

(2) Underlying CT only
(3) Both epithelium and CT
(4) Schwann cells

8) See the following figure and identify the following simple epithelial tissues :-

A B C D

Pseudostratified
(1) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar squamous
(ciliated)

Pseudostratified Ciliated
(2) Cuboidal Columnar
squamous columnar

Ciliated
(3) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar
columnar

Ciliated
(4) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar
columnar
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Match list (A) with list (B) and find the correct option –

List-[A]
List-[B]
(Epithelial
(Location)
Tissue)

Inner lining of
A. Ciliated i.
blood vessel

Inner lining of
B. Columnar ii.
Fallopian tube

Inner surface of
C. Cuboidal iii.
Gall bladder
 Distal
D. Squamous iv. convulated
tubule
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv

10) Which of the following statement is true for epithelial tissue ?

(1) They lack apical specialization

(2) They have weak adhesion between cells
(3) They may be derived from any of the embryonic germ layers.
(4) They are incapable of performing absorptive functions

11) Which is most abundant and widely distributed tissue ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscle tissue
(4) Neural tissue

12) Which of the following tissue help to generate and conduct impulses in the body ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Neural Tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Muscular Tissue

13) Match the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scavanger
(i) Fibroblast (a) Serotonin (1)
cells

Largest
(ii) Adipocyte (b) (2) White fat
cell

Fat
(iii) Mast cell (c) (3) Vasoconstrictor
storing

2nd Matrix
(iv) Macrophages (d) maximum (4) producing
in number cells
(1) (i)-b-4, (ii)-c-2, (iii)-a-3, (iv)-d-1
(2) (i)-b-4, (ii)-a-3, (iii)-c-2, (iv)-d-1
(3) (i)-a-2, (ii)-b-1, (iii)-d-4, (iv)-c-3
(4) (i)-a-2, (ii)-c-3, (iii)-d-4, (iv)-b-1

14) Read the given characters :-

(A) Linking and supporting other tissues
(B) Widely distributed in the body
(C) Ectodermal in origin
(D) Contraction and conduction of impulse
How many above statements are associated with connective tissue ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

15)

Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding connective tissues?
(i) Range from soft CT to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone, adipose & blood.
(ii) They connect and support other tissues.
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as tendons, ligaments and loose connective tissues.
(iv) They form the internal and external lining of many organs.

(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.
(1) (iv) only
(2) (v) only
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (v)

16) Read the following five statements [A–E] :-

(A) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli of lungs
(B) It forms the lining of wet surface like buccal cavity and oesophagus
(C) It occurs in outer surface of skin
(D) It forms the lining of stomach and trachea
(E) It is a loose connective tissue
Which of the above are associated with simple epithelial tissue ?

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and A
(4) D and E

17)

Match the column I, II, III and choose the correct combination from the given options :

Column I Column II Column III

 Tall & Cuboidal
A I K Bronchioles
slender cells epithelium

Flattened cells
Columnar Tubular part
B with irregular II L
epithelium of nephron
boundaries

Cilia on Squamous Lining of

C III M
free surface Epithelium intestine

Cube Ciliated Wall of

D IV N
like cells epithelium blood vessels
(1) A-II-M, B-III-N, C-IV-K, D-I- L
(2) A-II-K, B-I-L, C-IV-M, D-III-N
(3) A-IV-M, B-III-L, C-I-K, D-I-N
(4) A-II-M, B-III-N, C-IV-L, D-I-K

18) Following are the four diagrams given, choose correct option indicating the example belonging.

A B C D

Paneth Salivary
(1) Ligament Skin
Cell gland

Goblet Salivary
(2) Skin Ligament
Cell gland

Salivary Goblet
(3) Skin Ligament
gland cell

Salivary Goblet
(4) Ligament Skin
Gland cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Find out the correct match from the column I. II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 Hard and
(i) Bones Osteocytes pliable ground
substance

Loose connective
(ii) Areolar tissue Fibroblast cells
tissue

(iii) Cartilage Chondrocytes Resists compression

(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) ii and iii
(4) i, ii and iii

20) When two or more organ perform a common function by their physical and chemical interaction
they form :-

(1) Body system

(2) Organ system
(3) Tissue system
(4) Cellular system

21) Identify the given below tissue with its type and select the right option for the two together

Tissue Type

Specialised
(1) Cartilage
connective tissue

Dense irregular
(2) Tendon
connective tissue

Dense regular
(3) Ligament
connective tissue

Specialised
(4) Bone
connective tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Semifluid ground substance is most abundant in ?

(1) Dense regular connective tissue.
(2) Areolar connective tissue.
(3) All specialised connective tissue.
(4) Simple columnar epithelium.

23) Which of the following tissue is involved in making inner lining of Bowman's capsule ?

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

24) Which of the following has both exocrine and endocrine mode of secretion ?

(1) Pancreas
(2) Sweat gland
(3) Mammary gland
(4) Sebaceous gland

25) Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option.

White fibres : Collagen :: Yellow fibres :.......

(1) Globulin
(2) Heparin
(3) Mucous
(4) Elastin

26) Which of the following epithelial tissue get specialised for secretion and are included under
glandular epithelium?

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) Goblet cells are the examples of :-

(1) Unicellular glands

(2) Multicellular glands
(3) Endocrine glands
(4) Both (2) and (3)

28) Where is the excess unused nutrition stored in our body?

(1) Aerolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) WFCT
(4) Blood

29) Identify A to D given in the figure.

A–Collagen fibres, B–Macrophage,

(1)
C–Mast cell, D–Fibroblast
A–Macrophage, B–Fibroblast,
(2)
C–Mast cell, D–Collagen fibres
A–Mast cell, B–Collagen fobres,
(3)
C–Macrophage, D–Fibroblast
A–Fibroblast, B–Mast cell,
(4)
C–Collagen fibres, D–Macrophage

30) Which of the following contains transitional epithelium as their lining?

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Uterus
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Epidermis

31) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium can be found in

(1) Distal convoluted tubule

(2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Henle’s loop
(4) Collecting duct

32) Kidney shaped nucleus cell is present in :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

33)

Which cell also called scavanger cell ?

(1) Lymphocyte
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Histeocyte
(4) Mesenchymal cell

34)

Matrix of cartilage is ..... :-

(1) Solid
(2) Pliable
(3) Resist compression
(4) All of the above

35)

Match the following:-

i. Liver a. Monocyte

ii. Blood b. Microglial cells

iii. Lungs c. Kupffer cells

iv. Brain d. Dust cells

Options:
(1) i (c), ii (a), iii (b), iv (d)
(2) i (c), ii (a), iii (d), iv (b)
(3) i (a), ii (c), iii (b), iv (d)
(4) i (a), ii (b), iii (c), iv (d)

36)

Ligament is :

(1) Modified white fibrous tissue

(2) Solid white fibrous tissue
(3) Modified elastic connective tissue
(4) Cartilage

37) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion(A) : Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Reason (R) : Compound epithelium is multilayered and it's main function is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stress.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

38) Identify the tissue :-

(1) Dense regular connective tissue

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Compound epithelium

39) Match the following simple epithelial tissues in column I with their occurrence in column II and
choose the correct combination from the options given

(1) A – 5, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1, E – 3
(2) A – 4, B – 5, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2, E – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2

40) How many statement's are true regarding "Epithelial tissue" ?

(a) Epithelial cells are closely packed with each other so there is very little intercellular space.
(b) During embryonic development epithelium originates after connective tissue.
(c) It has high regeneration power.
(d) For the nutrients it depends on underlaying connective tissue.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

41) A student observes a tissue slide under the microscope. The tissue is composed of many layers of
cells; the basal cells are cuboidal, but as the cells progress upward, they become flattened. In the
surface layer, nuclei are absent and the cells are filled with keratin. This tissue is most likely found
in:

(1) Inner lining of the cheek

(2) Epidermis of the skin
(3) Lining of the urinary bladder
(4) Intestinal mucosa

42) The trachea and oviducts are lined by an epithelium whose free surface is provided with hair-like
projections that continuously move to clear mucus or transport gametes. Although the cells are
columnar, they may appear slightly disorganized in arrangement.
This functional adaptation is seen in:

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Pseudostratified squamous epithelium
(4) Keratinized stratified epithelium

43) Out of following in which structures stratified cuboidal epithelium present ?

Alveoli of lungs, Acini of pancreas, Liver, Secretory duct of salivary gland, ureter, PCT, Female
urethra, Larynx.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

44) Consider the following statements:

a) In dense connective tissues, fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed.
b) In dense regular connective tissues, collagen fibers are arranged in parallel rows.
Select the correct option

(1) a is true, b is false

(2) a is false, b is true
(3) Both a and b are false
(4) Both a and b are true

45) Statement-1 : A group of similar cells, along with intercellular substances performing a specific
function is called tissue.
Statement-2 : The human body is composed of billions of tissue but no organs.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Both statement incorrect
(4) Statement 1 incorrect and statement 2 correct

46) Mitochondria help in :-

(1) Aerobic respiration

(2) Generation of ATP
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Digestion

47) Each chromosome essentially has :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Centrosome
(3) Centromere
(4) Centrosphere

48) Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin,
but during different stages of cell division, (m-phase) as a :-

(1) Chromosome
(2) Nucleosome
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Nucleoplasm

49) Which one of the following cell organelle is not the part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Vacuole
(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgibody
(4) Peroxisome

50) Cell wall materials of carbohydrate nature are synthesized in.....

(1) Dictyosome
(2) Golgibodies and peroxisomes
(3) Golgibodies
(4) Golgibodies and sphaerosomes

51) Unicellular organisms are capable of :-

(1) Independent existence

(2) Performing essential functions of life
(3) Cell division
(4) All of the above

52) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesize :-

(1) Steroidal hormone

(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Proteins
(4) All of the above

53) Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic or digestive enzymes that have digestive action are
called of :-

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Microsomes
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Mesosomes

54) The fluid mosaic model to explain the structure of plasma membrance was proposed by :-

(1) Singer and Nicolson

(2) Danielli and Davson
(3) Robertson
(4) Robert Brown

55) Middle lamella is mainly composed of :-

(1) Hemicellulose
(2) Calcium pectate
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Phosphoglycerides

56) Which of the following is mis-matched ?

(1) Amyloplasts – Store protein granules

(2) Elaioplasts – Store oils or fats
(3) Chloroplasts – Contain chlorophyll pigments
(4) Chromoplasts – Contain coloured pigments like carotene and xanthophyll

57) Nuclear pores are formed by the fusion of both the membranes of nuclear envelope and these
pores are the passages through which movements of :-

(1) Histone and DNA takes place between nucleus and cytoplasm.
(2) DNA and ribosomes takes place between nucleus and nucleolus.
(3) RNA and proteins takes place between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
(4) RNA and DNA takes place between chromatin and nucleolus.

58) An elaborate network of filamentous......structure present in the cytoplasm is collectively

referred to as the........ :-

(1) Cytoskeleton, Proteinaceous

(2) Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton
(3) Lipoidal, Mitochondria
(4) Lipoidal, Plasma membrane

59) Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

 Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(1)
(70s)
(2) Lysosomes-optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
(3) Thylakoids-flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
(4) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis

60) How many of the following are membrane bound cell organelles ?
Ribosomes, Chloroplast, Vacuole, Centriole

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

61) Which of the following ion is required for binding ribosomal subunits?

(1) Ca+2
(2) Mg+2
(3) Zn+2
(4) S

62) Name the densely stained reticular structure (Near the nucleus) having many parallely stacked
flat disc-shaped cisternae of 0.5 μm to 1.0 μm diameter is -

(1) Golgi body

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosome
(4) Microfilament

63) Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane.

(1) Lipid make up 40 to 50% of the erythrocyte cell membrane.

(2) Na+ and K+ ion move across cell membrane by passive transport.
(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
(4) Neutral solutes (non polar) may move across the membrane by simple diffusion.

64) Which of the following is correct regarding the structure of a section of cilia/flagella ?

Peripheral Central
Radical Central
Microtubules Microtubules
Spokes Sheath
(Doublets) (Singlets)
(1) 9+0 2 8 1
(2) 9+2 9+0 9 1
(3) 9 2 9 1
(4) 3 6 9 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Which cell wall is capable of growth and gradually diminishes as cell matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Tertiary cell wall
(4) Primary and secondary cell wall

66) Choose the correct option for A, B, C or D in given diagram.

(1) A - Place of light reaction of photosynthesis

(2) B - place of dark reaction of photosynthesis
(3) C - between two grana
(4) D - Less permeable

67) Plastid contain :-

(1) Fat soluble pigments anthocyanin and chlorophyll

(2) Water soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophylls
(3) Water soluble pigments chlorophylls and anthocyanin
(4) Fat soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophylls

68) Convex surface of cisternae is towards the A and is known as B .

(1) A-Plasma membrane, B-Cis-face

(2) A-Nucleus, B-Forming face
(3) A-Plasma membrane, B-Transface
(4) A-Nucleus, B-Maturing face

69) In the given figure what is A, B, C & D :-

A-Nucleolus, B-Nucleoplasm,
(1)
C-Nuclear pore, D-Nuclear membrane
 A-Nucleoplasm, B-Nucleolus,
(2)
C-Nuclear pore, D-Nuclear membrane
A-Nuclear membrane, B-Nucleoplasm,
(3)
C-Nucleolus, D-Nuclear pore
A-Nuclear pore, B-Nucleoplasm,
(4)
C-Nucleolus, D-Nuclear membrane

70) Select the false statement about ribosome :-

(1) It is the smallest cell organelle

(2) It is organelle within organelle
(3) Sedimentation rate indirectly is a measure of density and shape
(4) It is the protein factory of the cell

71) Match column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column- II
(I) Histon protein (A) Lightly stained
(II) Euchromatin (B) Membrane less
(III) Heterochromatin (C) Basic amino acid
Transcriptionally
(IV) Nucleolus (D)
less active
(1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(2) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
(4) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

72) A structure that connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells, and another which holds or glues
the different neighbouring cell together. These are:

(1) Cell wall and middle lamella, respectively

(2) Plasmodesmata and middle lamella, respectively
(3) Middle lamella and desmosomes, respectively
(4) Middle lamella and plasmodesmata, respectively

73) Which of the following is not the character of vacuole-

(1) it can occupy up to 90% of cellular volume in animal cells

(2) its membrane is known as tonoplast
(3) it is membrane bound structure
(4) its stores mainly water, minerals and waste bodies.

74) Read the statements carefully -

(I) The __(A)__ is the main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.
(II) __(B)__ not only gives shape to the cell and protects the cell from mechanical damage and
infection.
(III) __(C)__ is the important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
Choose the correct option which correctly fills a, B & C and complete the statement.

(1) A—SER, B—Cytoplasm, C—Cell wall

(2) A—Cytoplasm, B—Cell wall, C—SER
(3) A—Cytoplasm, B—Cell wall, C—Golgi apparatus
(4) A—Mitochondria, B—Cytoplasm, C—SER

75) In animal cells. How many of the following can have ribosomes?
cytoplasm, centrosome, endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, Golgi body, mitochondria.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

76) Find out incorrect match regarding following :-

(1) a → Matrix → Enzyme of respiration

(2) b → Cristae → ETS
(3) c → Outer membrane → More permeable
(4) c → Folded membrane → Produce ATP

77) What does A, B and C represent in the given figure of a chromosome. Choose the correct match?

A B C
Primary
(1) Centriole Satellite
constriction
Secondary
(2) Centriole Satellite
constriction
Secondary
(3) Centromere Satellite
constriction
Primary
(4) Centromere Satellite
constriction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Assertion : Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Reason : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) Read both statements :

Statement-I :- Nonpolar tail of saturated hydrocarbon is protected from aqueous environment.
Statement-II :- In cell membrane phospholipids are present.
Select the correct options :-

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are not correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is correct.

80) Assertion : Core of cilium or flagellum is called axoneme.

Reason : Cilium or flagellum is covered with plasma membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

81) Plant cell and animal cells different in how many given options :-
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Plastid
(C) Centriole
(D) Large central vacuole
(E) Cell wall

(1) Only 1
(2) Only 4
(3) Only 3
(4) All

82) Statement- I : Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of the centromeres are called
kinetochores.
Statement - II : Kinetochores serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the chromosomes
that are moved into position at the centre of the cell.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

83)

Which of the following is true regarding microbodies?

(1) They are membrane bound vesicle

(2) They are present only in plant cells
(3) Ribosomes and peroxisomes are microbodies
(4) All of the above

84) Read the following statements carefully :

(A) Cholesterol is present in cell membrane
(B) Polar molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane, therefore they do not
require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport.
(C) Secondary wall is capable of growth and it is formed on the outer side of the cell.
(D) Quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall lipid bilayer of
plasma membrane
(E) Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring plant cells together.
How many statements are incorrect ?

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

85) Choose the incorrect option for A, B, C or D in given

diagram :-

(1) A-cell to cell recogination

(2) B-form by only saturated lipids
(3) C-cholesterol
(4) D-peripheral protein

86) (a) Spherical structure

(b) Present in the nucleoplasm
(c) Membraneless
(d) Site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
Above given statements are true for which cell structure ?

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Centriole
(4) Centromere

87) During different stages of cell division, cell show ______ in place of the nucleus. A single human
cell has approximately ________ meter long thread of DNA distributed among its _______
chromosomes :

(1) Chromatin, 46, 5

(2) Chromosomes, 5, 46
(3) Chromosomes, 2, 46
(4) Nucleolus, 2, 23

88) How many features are common in mitochondria and chloroplast ?

Thylakoids, binary fission, circular DNA, cristae, endosymbiotic origin, protein synthesis

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

89) Which of the following statements is correct regarding plasma membrane?

(1) It is fluid mosaic but impermeable

(2) It is permeable but does not show fluid mosaic pattern
(3) It is fluid mosaic and selectively permeable
(4) It is semipermeable, but does not show fluid mosaic pattern

90) Cell wall forms an outer covering of fungi and plants. Cell wall :-
(i) gives shape to the cell
(ii) helps in cell to cell interaction
(iii) provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(iv) protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection
Choose the correct option from the following :-

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 1 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 3 1 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 1 4 4 1 2 4 1 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
= cosx ex + ex (–sinx)
= ex(cosx – sinx)

2)

y = x3 + x 2 + x + 1

= 3x2 +2x + 1

= 6x + 2

3)

Using concept of maxima-minima

= 6x2 + 6x – 12

at x = 1, x = –2

Now ⇒ for x = –2 ; < 0

that means maxima is at x = –2

4)

y = 2 – sinx
ymax = 2 – (–1) y = 2 – (1)
=2+1=3 ymin = 1

5)
a = 1,

= –2

6)
7)

tan (1853°)
= tan(53°)

8) cos215° – sin215°
cos2θ = cos2θ – sin2θ
∴ cos215° – sin215°
= cos30°
=

9)

= 15

10)

11)
P = 1, H = 3
12)

13)

sin(–30) + cos120°
= –sin30° + cos120°

= –1

14)
= 30

15)
= –4cosx – 2logex + C

16)

θ increasing, so slope increasing.

17)

18)

315° =

19)

Curve intersect x-axis, then y = 0

y = x2 + 2 – 3x
2
0 = x + 2 –3x
x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
x2 – 2x – x + 2 = 0
x(x –2) –1(x –2) = 0
(x –2)(x –1) = 0
x = 2, 1

20)

21) a = – 2, 8

22)

From A to C
θ increasing so slope increasing.

23) x = 6t2 + 3t + 4

v = 12t + 3
at t = 2 sec
v = 12(2) + 3
v = 27 m/s

24)

Unit vector has one magnitude.

25)

26) Question Explanation : In this question, we are asked which of the given values can be
the resultant (vector sum) of two forces of magnitudes 10N and 5N.

Concept : Resultant of two vectors

Solution : Resultant of two forces :

Maximum when = 0°; minimum when = 180°.
Rmax = 10 + 5 = 15 N
Rmin = | 10 – 5 | = 5 N
Hence the resultant lie in the range 5 ≤ R ≤ 15
Therefore, from the given options only 12 lies in the range.

Final answer : Option (3)

27) When q = 0° → R = 4 + 3 = 7
q = 180° → R = 4 – 3 = 1
q = 90° → R = =5

28)

R2 = 32 + 22 + 12 cos θ ______(1)
4R2 = 36 + 4 + 24 cos θ ______(2)

cos θ = ⇒ θ = 120°

29)

to get the resultant along x-axis only a force of 3N along –ive y-axis should be added.

30)

For equilibrium
a+b<C<a–b

31)

32) Explain Question: Find the the magnitude of when both are unit vectors and the
angle the between them is 60°.

Concept: Subtraction of vectors.

Solution:
Given here.
Final answer: option (2)

33)
If

θ = cos–1

34)

35)

Let the two vectors be and .

Then, magnitude of sum of ,

and magnitude of difference of ,

(given)
or

36)

For given diagram

37)

cosθ =

θ = cos–1

38)

39)

Explain Question:
Calculate the magnitudes of forces for a system in static equilibrium.

Concept:
Equilibrium of concurrent forces and

Solution:

Final answer: Option (3)

40)
41)
= – 12

42) Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero because they perpendicular.
∴ ⇒ 8α = – 4
⇒ α = –1/2

43)

Question Explanation:
Calculate the vector component of in the direction of .

Concept:

Vector projection formula =

Solution:
=
=
= (2 × 1) + (1 × – 1) + (1 × 0) = 1
| | = (1)2 + (– 1)2 = 2
2

Component vector = =

Final answer: Option (2)

44)
⇒ θ = 90°

45)

Question Explanation : For three unit vectors and , if to find

Concept : This question is based on Dot product.

Solution :
 ∵
and

(1) (1) cos 120° + (1) (1) cos 120°+(1) (1) cos 120°

=
= – 3/2
Final Answer : Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation :
We are asked to calculate the approximate radius of the nucleus of using the nuclear
radius formulas.
Concept :
Nuclear radius is calculated using the formula R = R0 × A1/3 where R0 ≈ 1.2 × 10–15 m.
Solution :
Given A = 64
R = 1.2 × 10–15 × (64)1/3
(64)1/3 = 4
R = 1.2 × 4 × 10–15
R = 4.8 × 10–15 m ≈ 5 × 10–15 m

Final Answer :
5 × 10–15 m

47)

Explain Question :
We need energy of a photon with frequency = 4.2×1014 Hz.
Concept : This question is based on Photon energy formula: E=
Solution :
E=
E=(6.626×10−34)×(4.2×1014)
E=2.78292×10−19J ≈ 2.8×10−19 J.
Final Answer : option (3)

48)
49)

Explain Question : We need to find the mass number of an element with 18 electrons in its –2
state and 20 neutrons.

Concept : Mass number (A) = Protons + Neutrons.

Solution :
For –2 charge → Protons = Electrons – 2 = 18 – 2 = 16.
Mass number A = Protons + Neutrons = 16 + 20 = 36.

Final Answer : Option (4)

50)

Question Explanation: Stating the ratio of the mass of a proton to the mass of an electron.

Concept: Mass Ratio of Proton and Electron

Solution:

≈ 1837

Final Answer: Option (3)

51)
For M-shell

52)

Question Explanation: We compare the radii of the first Bohr orbit of H and He⁺.

Concept: According to Bohr’s model: Radius of nᵗʰ orbit ∝ n² / Z

For first orbit, n = 1 ⇒ r₁ ∝ 1 / Z

Solution:
For H (Z = 1):
r₁(H) ∝ 1 / 1 = 1

For He⁺ (Z = 2):

r₁(He⁺) ∝ 1 / 2

Ratio:
r₁(H) : r₁(He⁺) = 1 : 1/2 = 2 : 1
Final Answer: Option 1

53) Question Explanation

Asked radius of 2nd shell (n = 2) of He+.
Concept

Bohr’s radius formula: Å

Solution
Given Data
a0 = 0.529 × 10–10 m
n = 2, Z = 2
r = 0.529 × 10–10 × (22/2)
= 0.529 × 10–10 × 2
= 1.058 × 10–10 m ≈ 1.06 × 10–10 m
Final Answer: Option (1)

54)

55) Question Explanation: We are given that the number of protons in X2+ is 26. We need to
find the number of electrons in X2- assuming its the same element X in a different state.

concept: representation of element

Solution :
Given:
• Protons in X2+ =26
• Proton number = Atomic number = 26 → Element is Iron (Fe)
• We need to find electrons in X2-
• The number atom protons defines the element
• In a neutral atom electron = protons = 26
• A2+ charge means the atom lost 2 electrons → in X+2 = 24
• A2– charge means the atom gained 2 electrons → electrons in X2– = 26 +2 = 28
Electrons in X2– = 26 (protons) + 2 = 28

Final Answer : Option (3)

56)
P → 15
n → 16
e– → 15
 10 12
57) Y Y
Atomic weight → 10 12
% Nature → x 100 – x

Avg. Atomic wt. =

1020 = 10x + 1200 – 12x

x = 90%

58)

Question Explanation :

We must classify the relationship between nuclei ₅¹¹B and ₆¹³C among isotone, isoelectronic,
isodiapher, isoster.

Concept :

Isodiapher → same (N − Z).

Isotone → same N.

Isotope → same Z.

Isoelectronic → same electrons.

Solution :

A. ₅¹¹B → Z = 5, A = 11 → neutrons = 11 − 5 = 6.

B. ₆¹³C → Z = 6, A = 13 → neutrons = 13 − 6 = 7.

→ Neutron numbers differ (6 vs 7) → not isotones.

→ Electron numbers differ (5 vs 6) → not isoelectronic.
→ N − Z for B = 6 − 5 = 1; for C = 7 − 6 = 1 → same → isodiaphers.
Final Answer: Option (3)

59)

E = hν

60)

For
16 amu → 100
For
32 amu → 200

61)

Energy order : UV > Visible > IR > Micro > Radio of waves

62)

Initial Mass No. → P → 16 n → 16

P + n = 32

After P → n → 16 × 2 = 32
P + n = 32 + 8 = 40

%Change →
= 25% increase

63) Most of the part of atom is empty hence, most of the α-particles pass through without any
deviation.

64) Question Explanation

Find the nuclear composition of tritium.
Concept
Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen, meaning it has 1 proton. The number of neutrons is the
mass number minus the atomic number.
Solution
1. Protons: Hydrogen's atomic number is 1 , so tritium has 1 proton.
2. Neutrons: N = M - Z = 3 - 1 = 2.
3. Composition: The nucleus contains 1 proton and 2 neutrons.

Final Answer (4)

65)

Isoelectronic
Ar & Cl– → 18e–
Na+ & Ne → 10e–
Na+ & Mg2+ → 10e–

66)

Fact based

67)

Fact based
68) No. of moles of H2O(l) =
(d = 1.0 g/mL for H2O)
H has number neutron
∴ Number of neutrons in H2O = 3 × 8 × NA

69)

= ⇒ Molar Mass = 28

70)

71)

CxHy +
10ml 40ml 50ml
10ml of hydrocarbon give 40ml of CO2
1 mole of hydrocarbon give 4 mole of CO2
x=4
10ml of hydrocarbon of 50ml of H2O
1 mole of hydrocarbon give 5 mole of H2O

y = 10 C4H10

72)

No. of atoms =
= 2 × 10–2 NA

73)

Vapour density =
Vapour density ∝ Molecular mass

74)

No. of electrons =
= 20 NA
75)
Minimum molecular weight = 800

76) Explain Question: We must find which gas samples have the same number of molecules.
Concept: This question is based on Mole= Given mass/Molar mass
Solution:
Equal moles ⇒ equal number of molecules
1. 16 g O2: moles = 16/32 = 0.5
14 g N2: moles = 14/28 = 0.5 (equal)
2. 8 g O2: moles = 8/32 = 0.25 mol
22 g CO2: moles =22/44 = 0.5 mol (not equal)
3. 28 g N2: moles = 28/28 = 1 mol
22 g CO2: moles = 22/44 = 0.5 mol (not equal)
4. 32 g O2: moles = 32/32 = 1 mol
32 g N2: moles = 32/28 ≈ 1.14 mol (not equal)
16 g O2 and 14 g N2 have equal moles
Final Answer: Option 1

77)

M = 4.48

78) 2 mole of Ca produces 2 mole of CaO

79)

= 8 × 5 = 40 L

80)

CH4 : O2

:
1:1

81) Question Explanation : Find the ratio of moles of O2, H2 and CH4 when equal masses of
each are taken.

Concept : Number of moles n =

Solution : The mass of each gas be w.
Ratio : = = 1 : 16 : 2
Final Answer : Option (2)

82) O2 ⇒

NH3 ⇒ 0.4 NA

H2 ⇒ = 10NA

CO2 ⇒ = 6 NA

83) Explain Question: We are asked how much oxygen reacts with 2.7 g of aluminium in the
reaction: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3
Concept: This question is based on stoichiometry, mass-mass relationship
Solution: Atomic mass of Al = 27 g/mol
Moles of Al in 2.7 g = 2.7 / 27 = 0.1 mol
From equation: 4 mol Al → 3 mol O2
So, 0.1 mol Al → (3/4) × 0.1 = 0.075 mol O2
Mass of O2 = 0.075 × 32 = 2.4 g
Final Answer: Option 2

84)

Actual mass = 238 × 1.67 × 10–24 g

= 3.97 × 10–22g

85)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

1 mol CH4 required 2 mol O2 So
0.25 mol. CH4 required 0.5 mol. O2
Volume of O2 gas at STP
0.5 × 22.4 L = 11.2 L

86)

Explain Question:
Atomic weights: A = 80, B = 40. If x g of A contains y atoms, find atoms in 2x g of B.
Concept:
No. of atoms = (Given mass / Atomic mass) × Avogadro’s number (NA).
Solution:
For element A: No. of atoms in x g = (x / 80) × NA.
This is given equal to y. ⇒ y = (x / 80) × NA. …(1)
For element B (mass = 2x g): No. of atoms = (2x / 40) × NA.
Simplify: (2x / 40) × NA = (x / 20) × Nₐ. …(2)
 From (1): NA = (80y / x).
Substitute in (2):
Atoms of B = (x / 20) × (80y / x).
= (80y / 20).
= 4y.
Final Answer: (3)

87)

88) Explaining the Question :- We are asked which given substance has the highest mass
when each is taken as 1 mole.
Concept: This question is based on Mass of 1 mole of a substance = Molar mass (in grams).
Solution:
1. H2 → 2 g/mol
2. N2 → 28 g/mol
3. O2 → 32 g/mol
4. CO2 → 44 g/mol
Highest molar mass = CO2.
Final Answer: Option 4

89)

Cr : O
4.8 × 1010 : 9.6 × 1010
1 : 2
CrO2

90) 1 amu = of mass of one C–12 atom

BIOLOGY

91)

Nervous originates from Ectoderm

92)

Question explanation:
The question is asking whether the statements about division of labour in cells, tissues,
organs, and systems are correct and whether the reason explains the assertion properly.
Concept: This question is based on Structural Organisation in Animals.
Solution:
Assertion: Correct – Cells, tissues, organs, and systems divide work to ensure efficiency.
Reason: Correct – Division of labour integrates different functions and increases survival.
The reason directly explains why division of labour exists.
Final answer:
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion

93)

Old NCERT, Pg. # 102

94)

Old NCERT, Pg. # 101

95) NCERT XI Pg # 101

96)

Module (page no.80)

97)

Basement membrane is secreted by both ET & CT.

98) NCERT Eng./Hindi Figure No. 7.1

99) Page-101

100) Page-101

101) NCERT Page : 102, 7.1.2

102)

NCERT, Pg. # 105

103)

Question explanation : Match the given connective tissue cells in Column I with their
features (Column II) and functions (Column III).

Concept : Connective tissue – cell types and functions

Solution :
 A. Fibroblast: Matrix-producing cells → (b) Largest cell ,linked with (4) Matrix producing
cells.

B. Plasma cell: Derived from lymphocytes, cart-wheel nucleus → (c) Cart wheel cell, (2)
Clone of lymphocyte.

C. Mast cell: Contains histamine & serotonin, causes vasoconstriction → (a) Serotonin, (3)
Vasoconstrictor.

D. Macrophages: Kidney-shaped nucleus, scavenger cells → (d) Kidney shaped nucleus, (1)
Scavenger cells.

So , the matching is : (i) Fibroblast → (b, 4) ,(ii) Plasma cell → (c, 2), (iii) Mast cell → (a, 3) ,(iv)
Macrophages → (d, 1)

Final answer : Option 1

104)

Question explanation: Identify which features belong to connective tissue.

Concept: Tissue – Connective tissue

Solution:

A. (A) Linking and supporting other tissues → Correct (function of connective tissue)

B. (B) Widely distributed in the body → Correct (connective tissue is present throughout
the body)

C. (C) Ectodermal in origin → Incorrect (connective tissue is mesodermal in origin)

D. (D) Contraction and conduction of impulse → Incorrect (this is characteristic of muscle

and nerve tissue)

Number of correct statements: 2

Final answer: Option 1

105)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 102, 103 (E)

106) Question explanation: The question is asking about which statements describe simple
epithelial tissue, the epithelium made of a single layer of cells.

Concept: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Solution:
Simple squamous epithelium lines alveoli, so statement A is correct.
Simple cuboidal epithelium lines ducts of glands like salivary and sweat glands, so statement D
is correct.
The other statements describe stratified epithelium or connective tissue.
Final answer: Option 1

107)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

108)

NCERT, Pg. # 102 & 103

109) Explain Question: Find the correct matches among connective tissues, cells, and
functions.
Concept: This question is based on Connective Tissue – Types, Cells & Functions
Solution:
• (i) Bones: Ground substance is hard and non-pliable, so given description is incorrect.
• (ii) Areolar tissue: Has fibroblast cells and is a loose connective tissue → correct.
• (iii) Cartilage: Contains chondrocytes and resists compression → correct. Thus, only ii and iii
are correctly matched.
Final answer: Option 3

110)

NCERT, Pg. # 100

111) Concept :
Bone

Formula : Solution/Explanation :
Factual NCERT Figure

112)

NCERT, Pg. # 103

113)

Podocytes lines inner living of Bowman's capsule.

114)

Pancreas has both parts exocrine & endocrine.

115)

Yellow fibres : Elastin

116)

NCERT, Pg. # 102

117)

NCERT, Pg. # 102

118)

NCERT, Pg. # 103

119)

NCERT, Pg. # 103

120)

Transitional epithelium present is :

1. Renal pelvis
2. Ureter
3. Urinary bladder
4. Proximal part of male urether

121)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

122)

Kidney shaped nucleus is present in Macrophage.

123)

Macrophage / Histeocyte are scavangers

124)

NCERT, Pg. # 104

125)
Liver - Kupffer cells
Blood - Monocytes
Lungs - Dust cells
Brain - Microglial cells

126)

NCERT, Pg. # 103

127)

NCERT, Pg. # 102

128)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the type of connective tissue based on
its structural characteristics.

Concept: Types of connective tissue

Solution: Since the given tissue has irregularly arranged collagen fibers, it is dense irregular
connective tissue. Dense irregular connective tissue is a type of connective tissue in which
collagen fibers and cells are closely packed, and arranged irregularly. This provides strength
in multiple directions, unlike dense regular tissue, which is aligned in one direction.

Final answer: Option 2

129)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

130)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

131)

NCERT, Pg. # 102

132)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

133)

Secretory duct of salivary gland & female urether.

134) NCERT Page No. 103

135)

NCERT, Pg. # 100

136) NCERT Pg # 140E

137) NCERT Pg # 139E

138) NCERT XI Pg # 139

139)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 95

140) Explaining the Question – Question asking about the function of golgi body
Concept – This Question is based on Golgi complex
Solution – Synthesis of some cell wall materials and Cell plate formation during cytokinesis by
golgi complex
Final Answer - 3

141)

NCERT Pg.# 125

142) NCERT Pg. # 133

143) NCERT Pg. # 134

144) NCERT Pg. # 132

145) Explanation: The middle lamella is primarily composed of calcium pectate, which is a
calcium salt of pectin. It acts as a cementing material that holds adjacent plant cells together.

Final Answer : option (2). Calcium pectate

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97
147) NCERT Pg. # 100

148) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136, Para–5

149)

NCERT, Pg. # 136

150) [Link]. : 126/8.3

151)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which ion among the given options is necessary
for the process of binding ribosomal subunits together in molecular biology.

Underlying Concept: Ribosomes are cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis, and
they consist of two subunits that must come together or bind to function properly. Metal ions
like magnesium (Mg^{+2}) help stabilize this binding by neutralizing the negative charges on
the ribosomal RNA and proteins, facilitating their correct assembly.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that magnesium ions (Mg^{+2}) are often involved in stabilizing
structures like ribosomes and enzymes that interact with RNA and DNA.

Common Mistakes: Confusing calcium (Ca^{+2}) or zinc (Zn^{+2}) ions with magnesium.
While these ions have biological roles, they are not primarily involved in ribosomal subunit
binding.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ca^{+2} is important in signaling pathways, Zn^{+2}
is often involved in enzyme structure and function, and sulfur (S) is a non-metal element not
acting as an ion here; none of these directly mediate ribosomal subunit binding like Mg^{+2}
does.

152) NCERT XI Pg. # 95

153) NCERT XI Pg. # 93,94

154) NCERT Pg. # 137

155) NCERT Pg. # 132

156)
 Explanation: C-refers to the Stroma lamellae, Between two grana
-Stroma lamellae are flat, membranous tubules that connect the thylakoid stacks in
chloroplasts. They are also known as stroma thylakoids or intergranal thylakoids.
The correct answer is: 3.
C-Between two grana

157) NCERT Pg. # 135, Para # 8.5.5

158) NCERT Pg.#133

159) NCERT Pg. # 138

160) Module # 01 Pg. # 185

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

163) NCERT-XI, Pg. #134

164)

Correct Answer: 3 — A: Cytoplasm, B: Cell wall, C: Golgi apparatus

Explanation:

A. (I) A — Cytoplasm: It is the main site of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells.

B. (II) B — Cell wall: Provides shape, protection from mechanical damage and infection (in plant
cells).

C. (III) C — Golgi apparatus: Involved in the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

So, the correct match is:

A — Cytoplasm, B — Cell wall, C — Golgi apparatus → Option 3.

165)

Explaining Question:
Question asking about the animal cell. According to the given list of cell organelles in question,
how many cell organelles contain ribosomes.
Concept: This question is based on Ribosomes
Solution: cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria have ribosomes in animal cells.
Final answer : (3)

166) NCERT Pg. # 135, Fig.-8.7

167)

Explanation: Centromere (A): The central part of the chromosome responsible for spindle
attachment during cell division. Satellite (B): This is a small, knob-like structure located at the
end of a chromosome arm, beyond a secondary constriction Secondary constriction (C): This is
a narrower constricted region on a chromosome .other than the centromere. These regions are
often associated with nucleolus organization
The correct answer is
Option (3): A-Centromere, B-Satellite, C- Secondary constriction.

168) NCERT Pg. # 125

169) NCERT, Pg. # 93

170) NCERT Pg#137

171) NCERT XI Pg. # 91,92

172) NCERT XI Pg. 123

173) NCERT-XI, Page No. 140

174)

NCERT XI Pg. # 131, 132

C and D are incorrect

175) XI NCERT Page # 131

176)

NCERT-XI Pg#100

177)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 101

178) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135/136

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

180) The correct answer is: 3. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
The cell wall performs all of the following functions:
(i) It gives shape to the cell by providing structural support.
(ii) It helps in cell-to-cell interaction, especially in plants where plasmodesmata connect cells.
(iii) It provides a barrier to undesirable macromolecules by regulating what enters and exits
the cell.
(iv) It protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection, acting as a physical shield.