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Extremities

The document is a licensure examination for Radiologic Technology in the Philippines, consisting of multiple-choice questions related to radiographic procedures and techniques. It covers various topics such as positioning, anatomy, and imaging techniques relevant to radiologic technology. Candidates are instructed to select the correct answer without making any erasures, using only pencil no. 2.

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Jimby Gavilo
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views9 pages

Extremities

The document is a licensure examination for Radiologic Technology in the Philippines, consisting of multiple-choice questions related to radiographic procedures and techniques. It covers various topics such as positioning, anatomy, and imaging techniques relevant to radiologic technology. Candidates are instructed to select the correct answer without making any erasures, using only pencil no. 2.

Uploaded by

Jimby Gavilo
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Seat No: _____

Republic of the Philippines


PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGY

RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGY Licensure Examination

RADIOGRAPHIC PROCEDURES AND TECHNIQUES

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Multiple Choice:

1. When radiographing the forearm in the anteroposterior position, the hand is placed in:
A. Flexion C. Pronation
B. Supination D. Semi-pronation

2. The Twining position demonstrates the:


A. Sella turcica C. Altas and axis
B. Petrous ridges D. Cervicothoracic region

3. Which of the following are the part of the bony thorax?


1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. scapulae
3. 24 ribs
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

4. An anteroposterior radiograph of the [Link] and fibula will demonstrate the relationship of the:
A. Lateral and posterior C. Lateral and anterior
B. Medial and posterior D. Medial and anterior

5. All of the following statesments regarding a PA projection of the skull, with the central ray perpendicular to
the film, are true EXCEPT
A. The orbitomeatal line is pependicular to the film
B. The petrous pyramids fill the orbits
C. The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film
D. The central ray exits the nasion

6. Involuntary motion can be caused by


1. peristalsis
2. severe pain
3. heart muscle contraction
A. 1 only C. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

7. Which of the following terms is not used to describe anatomical landmarks of the lower extremities?
A. Lesser trochanter C. Medial malleolus
B. Greater tuberosity D. Lateral condyle

8. The position in which the articular facets of the lumbar vertebrae are best demonstrated is the:
A. Standing lateral C. Oblique
B. Lateral flexion D. Posteroanterior

1
9. The position in which a fracture of the axillary portion of the ribs is best demonstrated is the:
A. Oblique C. Lateral
B. Posteroanterior D. Anteroposterior

10. The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into right and left primary bronchi is the
A. Root C. Carina
B. Hilus D. Epiglottis

11. In the oblique anteroposterior projection of the cervical vertebrae, the intervertebral foramina
demonstrated are:
A. Equidistant to the film C. Remote from the film
B. Closest to the film D. None of the above

12. A true lateral projection of the foot is obtained:


A. In the mediolateral position C. With the C. R. directed 10o caudad
B. In the lateromedial position D. With the C. R. directed 150 caudad

13. In the anteroposterior projection of the knee joint the central ray is directed:
A. Perpendicularly C. 100 cephalad
B. 50 cephalad D. 250 cephalad

14. Which of the following articulates with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

15. The posteroanterior projection of the wrist in ulnar flexion demonstrates the:
A. Greater multangular free of superimposition
B. Pisiform free of superimposition
C. Navicular not foreshortened
D. Interspaces between the carpals on the medial side of the wrist

16. Which of the following projections will demonstrate the pisiform separated from the adjacent carpal
bones?
A. Oblique semipronation C. Posterior anterior
B. Lateral D. Oblique semisupination

17. The Gaynor-Hart position is taken with the central ray directed 250 to 300 to the:
A. Long axis of the foot C. Long axis of the femur
B. Long axis of the hand D. Ankie joint

18. The best way to control voluntary motion is:


A. Immobilization of the part C. Short exposure time
B. Careful explanation of the procedure D. Physical restraint

19. In the posteroanterior projection of the hand, the thumb is in the:


A. Oblique position C. Flexed position
B. Extended position D. None of the above

20. AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 inch of the iliac
crest, are performed to demonstrate:
A. Spondylolisthesis C. Sublaxation
B. Scoliosis D. Arthritis

21. To localize foreign bodies of the hand, the lateral projection should be made with the hand in:
A. Extension C. Normal flexion
[Link] D. Hyperextension

2
22. To demonstrate forward or backward displacement in fractures of the metacarpals, the lateral projection
should be made with the hand in:
A. Extension C. Normal flexion
B. Flexion D. Hyperflexion

23. In the posteroanterior projection of the wrist the hand is:


A. Placed palmar surface down C. Obliqued slightly lateral
B. Arched slightly D. Obliqued slightly medial

24. The position in which the carpal interspaces are best demonstrated is the:
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Anteroanterior D. Lateral

25. Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral joints
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

26. The Stecher position demonstrates which carpal bone?


A. Pisiform C. Capitate
B. Navicular D. Hamate

27. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
A. Scapular Y C. Medial oblique elbow
B. AP scapula D. Lateral oblique elbow

28. The projection used to demonstrate the stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot is:
A. Dorsoplantar C. Lateral weight-bearing
B. Oblique dorsoplantar D. Axial

29. Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels?
1. Dorsal decubitus
2. Lateral decubitus
3. AP Trendelenberg
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

30. The pillar projection primarily demonstrates the:


A. Cervical vertebrae C. Lumbar vertebrae
B. Thoracic vertebrae D. Sacrum and coccyx

31. To demonstrate the sesamoid bones of the foot free of superimposition, one should take.
A. A lateral projection C. An axial projection
B. A dorsoplantar projection D. An oblique dorsoplantar projection

32. To obtain a semiaxial projection of the calcaneus, the number of the degrees the central ray is directed
cephalad to the long axis of the foot is:
A. Thirty C. Fifty
B. Forty D. twenty-five

33. An anteroposterior projection of the femur is taken:


A. With a long target-to-film distance C. With the foot everted 150
0
B. With the foot inverted 15 D. With the central ray angled 150 cephalad

34. The projection in which films of the patella are taken for greater detail sharpness is the:
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Posteroanterior D. Lateral

3
35. In the medial and lateral dorsoplantar oblique projections of the foot, the sole of the foot forms an angle to
the plane of the film of:
A. 300 C. 450
B.400 D. 600

36. To obtain a composite dorsoplantar, weight-bearing, axial view of the entire foot, two exposures are made
with the central ray angled:
A. 150 posterior angulation and 150 anterior angulation
B. 250 posterior angulation and 150 anterior angulation
C. 150 posterior angulation and 250 anterior angulation
D. 250 posterior angulation and 250 anterior angulation

37. To BEST visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made:
A. On normal inspiration C. On expiration
B. On inspiration, second breath D. During shallow breathing

38. On which view of the elbow is the coronoid process of the ulna projected free of super-imposition:
A. Partial flexion C. Lateral
B. Anteroposterior [Link]

39. To obtain a clear view of the knee joint in the lateral position angle the central ray:
A. Cephalad C. Medially
B. Caudad D. Laterally

40. Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. Diaphragm positioned low
3. Large bowel high and peripheral
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

41. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is seen in profile with the arm in:
A. External rotation C. Internal rotation
B. Abduction D. Neutral rotation

42. To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, it is necessary to:


A. Angle the central ray 250 cephalad C. Angle the central ray 250 caudad
B. Rotate the body 450 D. Rotate the body 300

43. All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations EXCEPT:
A. Weight-bearing C. LAO
B. RAO D. PA

44. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disc spaces
2. C3-7 cevical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

45. Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:
1. Trachea
2. Apex of the heart
3. Esophagus

A. Trachea, esophagus, apex of the heart


B. Esophagus, trachea, apex of the heart
C. Apex of the heart, trachea, esophagus
D. Apex of the heart, esophagus, trachea

46. When taking a posteroanterior projection of the chest, the shoulders are rolled forward to:

4
A. Bring the heart closer to the film C. Remove the scapulae from the lung field
B. Elevate the scapulae D. Elevate the clavicles

47. For wrist examination, when the distal ulna is the point of interest, place the hand in:
A. Supination C. The lordotic position
B. Pronation [Link]

48. Which of the following fracture classifications BEST describes one fracture composed of several fragments?
A. Avulsion fracture C. Comminuted fracture
B. Torus fracture D. Compound fracture

49. For the anteroposterior projection of the elbow, if the patient is unable to fully extend the elbow, it will be
necessary to:
A. Angle the central ray 100 caudad C. Direct the central ray perpendicular to the film
0
B. Angle the central ray 10 cephalad D. Make two anteroposterior projections

50. A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate:


1. Fracture
2. Foreign body
3. Soft tissue

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only


B. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

51. To demonstrate a ligamentous tear at the ankle joint, which of the following procedures is employed?
A. both oblique views
B. Routine ankle views
C. Stress views
D. Angle the central ray 100 cephalad for the routine ankle views

52. When doing a lateral projection of the knee, the joint is flexed approximately:
A. 200 to 300 C. 900
0 0
B. 40 to 45 D. The degree of flexion does not matter

53. The hip joint may be localized by using which of the following bony landmarks?
A. Anterior superior iliac spine and greater trochanter
B. Anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis
C. Iliac crest and anterior superior iliac spine
D. Iliac crest and symphysis pubis

54. To overcome the anterversion of the femoral necks, in vies of the hip and pelvis:
A. Invert the feet approximately 150 C. Evert the feet pointing directly upward
B. Have the feet pointing directly upward D. Angle the central ray 450 cephalad

55. The greater trochanter lies at the same level as which other palpable bony landmark?
A. Obturator Foramen C. Lesser trochanter
B. Ischial tuberosity D. Symphysis pubis

56. Which of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient for a lateral projection of the
chest?
1. The patient should be examined upright.
2. The shoulders should be depressed.
3. The shoulders should be rolled forward.

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only


B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

57. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?
A. Lateral abdomen C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
B. AP abdomen D. Ventral decubitus abdomen

5
58. What is the position of the gallbladder in a hypersthenic patient?
A. Superior and medial C. Inferior and medial
B. Superior and Lateral D. Inferior and lateral

59. For the superoinferior lateral projection of the femoral neck the cassette is placed in contact with:
A. The posterior surface of the affected side
B. The lateral surface of the affected side
C. The anterior surface of the affected side
D. The medial surface of the affected side

60. For the anteroposterior projection of the pelvis, the cassette is centered on:
A. The anterior superior iliac spine C. The top of the greater trochanter
B. The crest of the illium D. The symphysis pubis

61. For the posteroanterior projection of the pubic and ischial bones, the central ray is directed:
A. At a 250cephalad angle C. At a 250medial angle
0
B. At a 25 caudad angle D. Perpendicular to the film

62. For the axial projection, Lilienfeld position of the anterior pelvic bones, the patient is positioned in the:
A. Anteroposterior position C. Oblique position
B. Posteroanterior position D. Lateral position

63. To obtain an unobstructed view of the iliac wing, the affected ilium is:
A. Placed parallel with the plane of the file C. Elevated 400 to the plane of the film
B. Placed perpendicular to the plane of the film D. Placed 450 to the plane of the film

64. For the posterior oblique projection of the ilium, the position the patient is placed in is the:
A. Supine C. Recumbent
B. Erect D. Prone

65. The oblique projections of the cervical vertebrae are taken primarily to demonstrate the:
A. Intervertebral spaces C. Spinous processes
B. Intervertebral foramina D. Transverse processes

66. To obtain an anteroposterior projection of the atlas and axis free of superimposition:
A. Direct the central ray 150 cephalad C. Use the open-mouth projection
B. Use the “wagging jaw” projection D. Direct the central ray 150 caudad

67. To demonstrate the occipito-cervical articulation:


A. Direct the central ray 150 cephalad
C. Direct the central ray 150 caudad
B. Use the open-mouth projection
D. Direct the central ray perpendicular to the plane of the film

68. To demonstrate the intervertebral disc spaces when radiographing the cervical spine in the anteroposterior
position:
A. Direct the central ray perpendicular to the plane of the film
B. Direct the central ray 150 to 200 cephalad
C. Direct the central ray 150 to 200 caudad
D. Take fexion-extension views

69. If a functional study of the cervical vertebrae were requested, you would take:
A. Vertebral arch projections C. Routine cervical projections
B. Flexion and extension projection D. None of the above

70. To place the cervical intervertebral foramen parallel with the plane of the film
A. Rotate the body 450 C. Angle the central ray 100 cephalad
0
B. A. Rotate the body 70 D. Angle the central ray 100 caudad

71. To demonstrate the cervical intervertebral foramina in the posteroanterior oblique position besides
rotating the patient, it is necessary to:

6
A. Direct the central ray 300 to 350 caudad C. Direct the central ray 150 to 200 cephalad
B. Direct the central ray 300 to 350 ephalad D. Direct the central ray 150 to 200 caudad

72. To obtain an oblique anteroposterior projection of the cervical vertebrae on a severely injured patient:
A. Direct the central ray 150 to 200 cephalad
B. Direct the central ray 450 towards the midsagittal plane
C. Rotate the body 450
D. Direct the central ray 450 caudad

73. For the anteroposterior projection of the thoracic vertebrae the central rat is directed to the level of:
A. T-1 C.T-6
B. T-3 D.T-12

74. All of the following bones are associated with condyles EXCEPT the:
A. Femur C. Fibula
B. Tibia D. Mandible

75. In order to obliterate the rib shadows and vascular markings when examining the thoracic vertebrae
A. Use a short focal-film distance C. Use long focal-film distance
B. Utilize the breathing method D. Use the angulation method

76. The routine lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae does not demonstrate:
A. T1 to T4 C. T11 to T12
B. T6 to T7 D. The intervertebral spaces

77. Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial
projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Anterior clinoid processes
3. Dorsum sella

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only


B. 2 only D 2 and 3 only

78. The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the thoracic vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect oblique

79. To demonstrate the apophyseal joint of the thoracic vertebrae:


A. Rotate the body 200 from the lateral position
B. Rotate the body 450 from the lateral position
C. Angle the central ray 200 cephalad
D. Rotate the body 700 from the lateral position

80. The apophyseal joints are well demonstrated in which projection of the cervical vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect oblique

81. With the patient in the posteroanterior, postion for frontal projections of the lumbar spine, which side of
the lordotic curve faces the x-ray tube?
A. Concave C. Biconcave
B. Convex D. Biconvex

82. To reduce limbar lordois, with the patient in the anteroposterior position, for frontal projections of the
lumbar spine, it is necessary to:
A. Angle the central ray 150 cephalad C. Flex the hips and knees
B. Angle the central ray 150 caudad D. Extend the hips and knees

83. For the frontal projection of the lumbar spine, center the film at the level of:
A. The iliac crest
B. The symphysis pubis

7
C. The anterior superior iliac spine
D. A point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis

84. In the lateral projection of the foot, the:


1. Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the film
2. Metatarsals are superimposed
3. Talofibular joint should be visualized

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only


B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

85. The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the “scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned
oblique lumbar spine?
A. Eye C. Body
B. Front foot D. Neck

86. The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the lumbar vertebrae?
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Lateral D. Erect anteroposterior

87. For the lateral projection of the lumbar spine, center the film at the level of:
A. The symphysis pubis
B. The iliac crest
C. The anterior superior iliac spine
D. A point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis

88. Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral spaces
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3
B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

89. In the lateral lumbar position, if the spine is not adjusted in the horizontal position, it will be necessary to:
A. Flex the hips and knees
B. Direct the central ray 50 to 80 caudally
C. Direct the central ray 50 to 80 cranially
D. Direct the central ray to the angulation of the lumbar column

90. Which of the following is used to evaluate the shoulder in its anatomic position?
A. External rotation position C. Neutral rotation position
B. Internal rotation position D. Inferosuperior axial position

91. The position in which apophyseal joint of the lumbar vertebrae are best demonstrated is the:
A. Anteroposterior C. Oblique
B. Posteroanterior D. Lateral

92. The pedicle is represented by what part of the “scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar
spine?
A. Eye C. Body
B. Front foot D. Neck

93. In the posteroanterior oblique position of the lumbar vertebrae, the apophyseal joints demonstrated are
those:
A. Farthest from the film C. Below the crest
B. Nearest the film D. Above the crest

94. In the lateral projection of the knee, the


1. Femoral condyles are superimposed
2. Patellofemoral joint is visualized
3. Knee is flexed about 20 to 30o

8
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

95. What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and film in the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese
method) of the optic canal?
A. 90o C. 53o
o
B. 37 D. 45o

96. For the oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints, the body is rotated:
A. 100 to 200 C. 400 to 450
0 0
B. 25 to 30 D. 700 to 750

97. Frontal projections of the sacroiliac joints are best obtained:


A. With the patient in the posteroanterior position
B. With the patient in the anteroposterior position
C. With the central ray directed 350 cephalad
D. With the central ray directed 350 caudad

98. For the oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint, direct the central ray to:
A. The iliac crest
B. A point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis
C. A point midway between the iliac crest and anterior superior iliac spine
D. The anterior superior iliac spine

99. In the anteroposterior oblique position, the sacroiliac joint demonstrated is the one:
A. Nearest the film C. Adjacent to t he film
B. Farthest from the film D. Parallel to the film

100. For the anteroposterior projection of the sacrum, the central ray is directed:
A. 150 caudad C. 350 caudad
B. 150 cephalad D. 350 cephalad

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