24-05-2026

4015CMD30302126G1N3 MD

PHYSICS

1) If a dielectric substance is introduced between the plates of an isolated charged air-gap capacitor,
the energy of capacitor will :-

(1) Decrease
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase
(4) First decreases & then increases

2) Find equivalent capacitance between A and B :-

(1) 6C
(2) 5C
(3) 3C
(4) 2C

3) A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1µF and each one of which get punctured if a
potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied, are provided. Then an arrangement suitable
for giving a capacitor of 2 µF across which 3000 volt may be applied requires at least :-

(1) 18 component capacitors

(2) 36 component capacitors
(3) 72 component capacitors
(4) 144 component capacitors

4) Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field 'E' between
the plates with distance 'd' as measured from plate P is correctly shown by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A charged parallel plate capacitor of distance (d) has U0 energy. A slab of dielectric constant (K)
and thickness (d) is then introduced between the plates of the capacitor after removing cell.. The
new energy of the system is given by:-

(1) KU0
2
(2) K U0

(3)

(4)

6) Find equivalent capacitance between A and B:

(1) 1µF
(2) 2µF
(3) 0.5µF
(4) 11µF

7) In the above figure, equivalent capacitance between A and B will

be

(1) 2 µF
(2) 9 µF
(3) 8 µF
(4) 3 µF

8)

Find equivalent capacitance between A and B:

(1) 6µF
(2) 1µF
(3) 0.5µF
(4) 11µF

9) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distance d from one another as shown in
figure. The area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and

B-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The equivalent capacitance between the terminals X and Y in the figure shown will be–

(1) 100 pF
(2) 200 pF
(3) 300 pF
(4) 400 pF

11) If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor are not equal in area, then quantity of charge :-

(1) On the plates will be same but nature of charge will differ
(2) On the plates as well as nature of charge will be different
(3) On the plates will be different but nature of charge will be same
(4) As well as nature of charge will be same

12) Two capacitors of value C1 and C2 are charged to potentials V1 and V2 respectively. On
connecting them in parallel, there will not be any exchange of energy, provided :–

(1) C1 = C2
(2) C1 V1 = C2 V2
(3) V1 = V2

(4)

13) The value of equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure between the points P and

Q is :

(1) 3 C
(2) 2 C
(3) C

(4)

14) A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are

connected to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1m F are connected as in

adjoining figure. Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is

(1) 1μF
(2) 2μF
(3) 1/2 μF
(4) ∞

16) Figure shows two capacitors connected in series and joined to a battery. The graph shows the
variation in potential as one moves from left to right along the branch containing the capacitors.

Then:

(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2
(4) The information is not sufficient to decide the relation between C1 and C2

17) There is an air filled 1pF parallel plate capacitor. When the plate separation is doubled and the
space is filled with wax, the capacitance increases to 2pF. The dielectric constant of wax is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

18) A large sphere P of radius R is charged positively. It is momentarily connected to a small sphere
Q of radius r. The two spheres now have same

(1) charge
(2) electric field
(3) energy
(4) potential

19) When a particle is dropped from a tower of height 'H' what will be time taken to reach the
ground:-

(1)

(2) gH

(3)

(4)

20) Ten capacitors, each of capacitance 1μF, are connected in parallel to a source of 100 V. The total
energy stored in the system is equal to:
(1) 10–2 J
(2) 10–3 J
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 J
(4) 5.0 × 10–2 J

21) Minimum number of 8 μF and 250 V capacitors required to make a combination of 16 μF and
1000 V are :

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 4

22)

The charge flowing through the cell on closing the key k is equal to :

(1)

(2) 4CV

(3)
CV

(4)
CV

23) The equivalent capacitance between points A and B of the circuit shown will be:

(1)
μF

(2)
μF

(3)
μF

(4)
μF

24)
In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and a potential of + 2000 V is given to point
A, then potential at B is :

(1) 1500 V
(2) 1000 V
(3) 500 V
(4) 400 V

25) The energy density in a parallel plate capacitor is given as 2.1 × 10–9 J/m3. The value of the
electric field in the region between the plates is :

(1) 2.1 NC–1

(2) 21.6 NC–1
(3) 72 NC–1
(4) 8.4 NC–1

26) The capacity of parallel plate condenser depends on :

(1) the type of metal used

(2) the thickness of plates
(3) the potential difference applied across the plates
(4) the separation between the plates

27)

An uncharged capacitor is connected to a battery. On charging the capacitor :-

(1) all the energy supplied is stored in the capacitor.

(2) half the energy supplied is stored in the capacitor.
(3) the energy stored depends upon the capacity of the capacitor only.
(4) the energy stored depends upon the time for which the capacitor is charged.

28)

The potential to which a conductor is raised, depends on :-

(1) the amount of charge

(2) the geometry and size of the conductor
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

29) If the maximum circumference of a sphere is 2 m, then its capacitance in water would be :-
(Dielectric constant of water = 81)

(1) 27.65 pF
(2) 2385 pF
(3) 236.5 pF
(4) 2865 pF

30)

The capacitance C of a capacitor is :-

(1) independent of the charge and potential of the capacitor.

(2) dependent on the charge and independent of potential.
(3) independent of the geometrical configuration of the capacitor.
(4) independent of the dielectric medium between the two conducting surfaces of the capacitor.

31) For angles of projection of a projectile (45° – θ) and (45° + θ), the horizontal ranges described
by the projectile are in the ratio of:
(Initial speedis same)

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

32) A conductor is charged to 50 μC then its potential becomes 10 V. Calculate the capacitance of
the conductor :

(1) 15 μF
(2) 10 μF
(3) 5 μF
(4) 20 μF

33) The effective capacity of the network between terminals A and B in

(1) C

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) A spherical drop of capacitor 1 μF is broken into eight drops of equal radius. The capacitance of
each small drop is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is placed between the plates then compare electric

fields E1, E2 & E3

(1) E1 = E2 = E3
(2) E1 = E3 > E2
(3) E1 < E2 < E3
(4) E1 = E3 < E2

36) Two charges are placed as shown in figure. Where should a third charge be placed so that it

remains at rest ?

(1) 30 cm from 9e
(2) 40 cm from 16e
(3) 40 cm from 9e
(4) (1) or (2)

37) A sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed inside a concentric imaginary sphere of radius 2R.
The flux associated with the imaginary sphere is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
38) Assertion : Electric potential energy of any positive charge is always positive.
Reason : Potential energy is a vector quantity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

39) Assertion (A):- If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform electric field they
experience accelerations of different magnitudes. Reason (R):- Electric force on a charge is
dependent on its mass.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

40) In case of a projectile fired at an angle equally inclined to the horizontal and vertical with
velocity u, the horizontal range is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A boy is running on a levelled road with velocity (v) with a long hollow tube in his hand. Water is
falling vertically downwards with velocity (u). At what angle to the vertical, should he incline the
tube so that the water drops enters without touching its side :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) s-t graph of two particles A and B are shown in fig. Find the ratio of velocity of A to velocity of B.
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 9

43) A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the
ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is :
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 300 m
(2) 360 m
(3) 340 m
(4) 320 m

44) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A particle is moving with initial velocity 1 m/s and acceleration a = (4t + 3) m/s2. Find velocity of
particle at t = 2 sec.

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 14 m/s
(4) 16 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following element is not an Alkaline Earth metal ?

(1) Ca
(2) Mg
(3) Be
(4) All of these

2) CH ≡ CH (A) (B) (C)

Product (C) is :-

(1) Butane
(2) Hexane
(3) Octane
(4) Heptane

3) Which is anti-aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) and (3) both

4) Major product (?)

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–CH3

(3)

(4) CH3–C≡C–CH3

5) Which of the following species will have largest and smallest size.
Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+

(1) Al, Mg2+

(2) Mg, Al3+
(3) Mg2+, Al3+
(4) Mg, Al
6) Major product (?)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following reagent is used to distinguish propene and propyne?

(1) Br2, CCl4

Θ
(2) Dil. KMnO4 / OH
(3) Conc. H2SO4
(4) AgNO3 in NH4OH

8) Correct order of reactivity of EAR is :

(I) (II) Ph – CH = CH2

(III) CH2 = CH – CH3 (IV) CH2=CH–NO2

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) III > I > II > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) I > II > III > IV

9) What is the major product of the following reaction?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) (A) ; Product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Successive ionisation energies of an element 'X' are given below (in K. Cal)
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of the element 'X' is:-

(1) 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s2 3p2

(2) 1s2 , 2s1
(3) 1s2 , 2s22p2
(4) 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s2

13) Which can show +M effect :-

(1) –NO2
(2) –OH
(3) –CH=O

(4)

14) Polarity of a bond can be explained by :–

(1) Electron affinity

(2) Ionisation potential
(3) Electronegativity
(4) All of the above

15) Which among the following is least basic ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16)
How many total number of products are possible (including stereoisomers)?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

17) The first ionisation potential of Be & B respectively are :

(1) 8.29 eV, 9.32 eV

(2) 9.32 eV, 9.32 eV
(3) 9.32 eV, 8.29 eV
(4) 8.29 eV, 8.29 eV

18) Which of the following has maximum boiling point :-

(1) Isopentane
(2) Isobutane
(3) n–pentane
(4) Neopentane

19) Which of the following halogen is most reactive towards halogenation of alkane ?

(1) F2
(2) Cl2
(3) Br2
(4) I2

20)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

21) Which of the following alkane will be formed in high yield by wurtz reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Resonance is not observed in:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

The group number of element with atomic number '43' :-

(1) Seventh group

(2) Eight group
(3) Tweifth group
(4) Zero group

24) Which of the following will give only formaldehyde on ozonolysis ?

(1) H2C=CH2
(2) CH3—CH=CH2
(3) CH3—CH=CH—CH3

(4)

25) Major product is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

26)

How many compound can be obtained in good yield by wurtz reaction.

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

27) Which alkene is most stable ?

(1) CH3–CH=CH2
(2) CH2=CH2

(3)

(4)

28) Major product of the reaction is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

Compare heat of hydrogenation of the following :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) i > ii > iii
(2) iii > ii > i
(3) ii > i > iii
(4) ii > iii > i

31) Arrange the following alkenes in order of stability :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > C > A > D
(3) D > C > A > B
(4) D > C > B > A
32)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Rearrangement is not possible in carbocation:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) Which of the following alkyl groups has maximum +I effect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) In which of the following reaction Saytzeff alkene is major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) + Br2 Major product (?)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) The element which has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy is -

(1) F
(2) O
(3) N
(4) Cl

38) Major product (?)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) ?​​

(1) CH4
(2) CH3 – CH3
(3) CH2 = CH2
(4) None

40)
Product (P) :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Correct order of stability of carbocation is -

(1) C > B > A

(2) A > B > C
(3) B > C > A
(4) C > A > B

42) Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species :-

(1) Cl > Cl– > Cl+

(2) Cl+ > Cl– > Cl
(3) Cl > Cl+ > Cl–
(4) Cl– > Cl > Cl+

43) Which will decolourise layer's reagent as well as bromine water ?

(1) CH2=CH2

(2)

(3) HC≡CH
(4) All of these
44) The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii
increase ?

(1) Ca2+ < Ar < K+

(2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar
(3) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
(4) Ar < K+ < Ca2+

45) Statement - I : 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in the presence of peroxide produces 1-
bromobutane
Statement - II : It involves the free redical subsitutation mechanism.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

BIOLOGY

1) One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell & fuses with it, the process is known as -

(1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization
(4) Autogamy

2) Monoecious plants with unisexual flowers will prevent :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

3) Regarding to viability of pollen grains select out the odd one :-

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Solanaceae

4) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

5) How many microspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 microspores in
Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80

6) During an experiment, vegetative nucleus was destroyed inside the pollen tube. Immediately
afterwards it was observed that the growth of pollen tube was stopped and pollen tube could not
reach up to ovule, because-

(1) Male gametes were not developed

(2) Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus secretes chemicals
(4) All of the above

7) Which type of flowers can produce seeds even in the absence of pollinators ?

(1) Chasmogamous flower

(2) Unisexual flower
(3) Cleistogamous flowers
(4) Bisexual flower

8) What is common to Viola, Oxalis and Commelina plants ?

(1) All are xerophytes

(2) All are aquatic plants
(3) All are polyploids
(4) All of them produce two types of flowers chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.

9) Among situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

(1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

(2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(4) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers

10) Hydrilla is pollinated by :

(1) Insect
(2) Water
(3) Air
(4) Bird

11) How many meiotic division are required to produce 24 male gametes?

(1) 24 meiotic
(2) 3 meiotic
(3) 12 meiotic
(4) 4 meiotic

12) In Citrus and mango polyembryony is due to :-

(1) Production of additional embryos by nucellus

(2) Production of additional embryos by synergids
(3) Presence of two eggs in embryo sac
(4) Splitting of the proembryo

13) If hybrids are made into apomicts, then :-

(1) Characters may be segregate in the hybrid progeny.

(2) Hybrid will show inferior characters only.
(3) There is no segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny.
(4) Hybrid seeds will not develop into hybrid plants.

14) Some species of __(A)___ and __(B)___ have evolved a special mechanism to produce seed without
fertilization called __(C)___. What are A, B and C respectively ?

A - Asteraceae : B - Grasses ;
(1)
C - Apomixis
A - Asteraceae : B - Legume ;
(2)
C - Apomixis
A - Asteraceae : B - Grasses ;
(3)
C - Parthenocarpy
A - Asteraceae : B - Legume ;
(4)
C - Parthenogenesis

15) Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as :-

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Amphimixis
(4) Polyembryony

16) Recently excavated seed from arctic region germinated after 10000 year is :-

(1) Lupine
(2) Lilium
(3) Datepalm
(4) Phoenix dactylifera

17) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B] :-

(1) [A] Embryo , [B] Scutellum

(2) [A] Scutellum , [B] Embryo
(3) [A] Endosperm, [B] Scutellum
(4) [A] Scutellum , [B] Endosperm

18) Milky fluid of green coconut is :-

(1) Liquid embryo

(2) Liquid nucellus
(3) Liquid chalaza
(4) Liquid endosperm

19) Which one of the following is the final product of sexual reproduction?

(1) Embryosac
(2) Ovary
(3) Seed
(4) Ovule

20) Which of the following event is not included under post pollination events ?

(1) Triple fusion

(2) Development of endosperm
(3) Transformation of ovary into fruit
(4) Formation of embryo sac

21) Select the mismatch from followings :-

(1) Chlorophyceae - Chlorophyll a & b, β-carotene

(2) Phaeophyceae - Chlorophyll a & c, β-carotene
(3) Rhodophyceae - Chlorophyll a & d, fucoxanthin
(4) Cyanophyceae - Chlorophyll - a

22) Choose the correct option of members of Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Fucus
(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

23) Read the following statements (a – e) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

24) Agar-agar, a complex carbohydrate, is extracted from :

(1) Blue green algae - Nostoc

(2) Red Algae - Polysiphonia
(3) Red Algae - Gelidium
(4) Green Algae - Chlorella

25) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Algin and carrageen are products of algae

(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chlorella and Spirullina are used space travellers as a food
(4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

26) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Antherozoids of mosses require water for fertilisation

(2) Porphyra is an edible algae
(3) Main plant body in bryophytes is sporophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is gametophytic
(4) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

27) Stored food of red algae is similar to :

(1) Chitin
(2) Pyrenoid
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Glycogen and chitin
28) Identify the algae and label the structure ‘‘A’’ correctly:-

(1) Laminaria ; Hold fast

(2) Fucus ; Air bladder
(3) Laminaria ; Air bladder
(4) Dictyota ; Stipe

29)
Identify the plants given in the figure. (a) & (b)

(1) Selaginella and Pteris

(2) Equisetum and Salvinia
(3) Selaginella and Equisetum
(4) Salvinia and Azolla

30) Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from :-

(1) Cell to cell

(2) Zygote to cells
(3) Parent to progeny
(4) Husband to wife

31) An organisms genetic constitution is called its :-

(1) Phenotype
(2) Gene
(3) Allele
(4) Genotype

32) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on

(1) only sex chromosomes
(2) two homologous chromosomes
(3) two non-homologous chromosomes
(4) same chromosome

33) Alleles are :

(1) true breeding homozygotes

(2) different forms of a gene
(3) heterozygotes
(4) different phenotype

34) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

35) How many cells of nucellus in Angiosperms are responsible to form megaspore mother cell ?

(1) Many
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

36)

Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological marvels and the site of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anthers are attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species.
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

37) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure
38) Which of the following structure is not present in germ pore ?

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Pectocellulose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Protein

39) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called.

(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

40) Parthenium was introduced in India as contaminant with:

(1) Rice
(2) Mango
(3) Wheat
(4) Sugarcane

41) Which of the following is not nutritive generally?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Integument
(4) Nucellus

42) Assertion : Exine of pollen is hard and resistant material.

Reason : Exine is made up of sporopollenin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

43) Diameter of pollen grains are generally ?

(1) 25-50 micrometers

(2) 50-100 micrometers
(3) 100-1000 micrometers
(4) 100-500 micrometers

44)

Which is not true about agar ?

(1) It is obtained from red algae
(2) It is used to grow microbes
(3) It is used to make ice-cream and Jellies
(4) It is used as food supplement even by space travellers.

45) The number of mitotic nuclear divisions required to form a mature embryo sac from functional
megaspore in most of the flowering plants is

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

46) Match the following with reference to frog.

1. Sensory papillae → A. Hearing
2. Nasal epithelium → B. Vision
3. Tympanum with internal ear → C. Smell
4. Eye (simple) → D. Touch

(1) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
(2) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – A
(3) 1 – C, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – B
(4) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D

47) Why luteal phase is also called secretory phase in mestrual cycle ?

(1) Secretory & adhesive nature developed in endometrium in luteal phase.

(2) Because of secretion of estrogen & progesterone hormone.
(3) Secretory gland corpus luteum occured.
(4) Level of FSH & LH increase in this phase.

48) Observe the schematic representation of menstrual cycle carefully and identify W,X,Y and Z

correctly from the given options :-

 W X Y Z

(1) Estrogen Progesterone L.H. F.S.H.

(2) F.S.H. L.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(3) L.H. F.S.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(4) Estrogen Progesterone F.S.H. L.H.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49)

Which of the statement is wrong about frog ?

(1) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence of mucus

(2) The colour of dorsal side of body is pale yellow and ventral side is olive green
(3) The colour dorsal side of body is olive green and ventral side is pale yellow
(4) The most common species of frog in India is Rana tigrina

50) Which of the following cells is diploid during oogenesis ?

(1) Second polar body

(2) First polar body
(3) Spermatid
(4) Oogonia

51) Second polar body is released during oogenesis

(1) At the time of fertilization

(2) After completion of meiosis–II
(3) At the time of formation of haploid ovum
(4) All of the above

52) Assertion : Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.

Reason : Male frog can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs which is
absent in female frogs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

53) Assertion : Ovulation process is completed on 14th day of menstrual cycle.

Reason : It is induced by only FSH hormone.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

54) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function of
A B
A B
Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated
(1) Trophoblast
mass endometrium as embryo
Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the
(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium
Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the
(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium
Attach to the Differentiated
(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
endometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is :-

(1) Spermatid → Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocytes → Spermatozoa.

Spermatogonia → Primary Spermatocyte → Secondary Spermatocytes → Spermatid →
(2)
Spermatozoa.
Primary Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Secondary Spermatocytes → Spermatozoa →
(3)
Spermatid
Spermatogonia → Secondary Spermatocyte → Primary Spermatocyte → Spermatid →
(4)
Spermatozoa.

56) Parturition is the process of giving birth to a baby. It is controlled by

(1) Neural mechanism only

(2) Endocrine mechanism only
(3) Physical mechanism only
(4) Neuro-endocrine mechanism

57) In human adult female oxytocin :

(1) Stimulates pituitary to secrete GnRH

(2) Cause strong uterine contraction during parturition
(3) It secreted by adenohypophysis
(4) All of the above

58) Cell of testes which provide nutrition to the germ cells (sperm) are called :-

(1) Leyding cells

(2) Male germ cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Folicular cells

59) Simple squamous epithelium present in–

(1) Endothelium
(2) Covering of coelom
(3) Trachea
(4) Both (1) and (2)

60) Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of :

(1) Sound producing vocal sacs

(2) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs
(3) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs
(4) Both (1) and (2)

61)

Which of the following hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy :-
(a) hPL (b) Progesterone
(c) Androgen (d) FSH
(e) hCG (f) LH

(1) a,e
(2) b and e
(3) c,d,e,f
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f

62) Layer of uterine wall shows cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.

(1) Endometrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Perimetrium
(4) Epimetrium

63) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Tight junctions :- help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(2) Adhering junctions :- perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
 Gap junctions :- Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
(3)
cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(4) Gap Junction :- Found in epithelium of air sac.

64)

Match the column I to column II correctly :-

Column-I Column-II
Intermixing of
(i) Syngamy (a)
cytoplasm
Union of male
(ii) Plasmogamy (b) and female
gametes
Intermingling of
(iii) Karyogamy (c)
chromosomes
Fusion of pronuclei
(iv) Amphimixis (d)
of sperm and ovum

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(2) (b) (a) (c) (d)
(3) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Match column I with column II and select the correct option :

Column I Column II

(a) Ovary (i) Fertilization

(b) Vagina (ii) Secretion of estrogen

(c) Fallopian tube (iii) Capacitation

(d) Uterus (iv) Implantation

a b c d

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle (human) in sequence :-

(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation
(V) Sudden increase in level of LH.
(VI) Formation of corpus albicans

(1) III → I → IV → II → VI → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II → VI
(3) I → IV → III → V → II → VI
(4) II → I → III → IV → VI → V

67) Inside the testis some immunologically competent cells are present. Exact location of these cells
is :-

(1) Inside the seminiferous tubules

(2) Region outside the seminiferous tubules
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Both (2) & (3)

68) According to following diagram choose the correct option :

A B C D

(1) Urino genital duct Fat body Kidney Cloaca

(2) Ureter Fat body Testes Vasa effrentia

(3) Urino genital duct Testes Urinary bladder Vasa effrentia

(4) Fat body Kidney Urinary bladder Cloaca

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Following diagram Shows human foetus within the uterus with certain labelled parts A, B, C, D.

Find out the correct labelling.

(1) A - Yolk sac, B - Umbilical sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix
(2) A - Umbilical cord, B - Yolk sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix
(3) A - Embryo, B - Yolk sac, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cercix
(4) A - Umbilical cord, B - Embryo, C - Placental villi, D - Plug of mucus in cervix

70) Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

Tissue Location

1 Transitional epithelium Tip of Nose

2 Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach

3 Elastic cartilage Epiglottis

4 Areolar tissue Tendon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) If the menstrual cycle of female is of 40 days then ovulation takes place on

(1) 20th day

(2) 16th day
(3) 26th day
(4) 14th day

72) In the given figure identify the parts labelling as A,B,C and D and select correct option :-
 A B C D

(1) Cervix Infundibulum Isthmus Fundus

(2) Ovary Ampulla Isthmus Fimbriae

(3) Ovary Infundibulum Ampulla Fundus

(4) Cervix Isthmus Ampulla Fimbriae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Which gland is responsible for coagulated the semen so motality of sperm is reduced and energy
is conserved ?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowper's gland
(4) Rectal gland

74) Statement-1: Glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes.
Statement-2: Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla.

(1) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Both statements are correct.

75) A. Implantation
B. Development of foetal heart
C. Fertilization
D. Formation of foetal limbs
E. First movement of foetus
Which of the following is correct sequence of various events.

(1) D – C – B – A – E
(2) C – B – A – D – E
(3) A – C – D – B – E
(4) C – A – B – D – E
76) The human male ejaculates about 200-300 million sperms during a coitus out of which, at least
60% sperms must have normal shapes and sizes to ensure fertility. The abnormality in structures of
these sperms is indicated by the term.

(1) Azoospermia
(2) Teratozoospermia
(3) Oilgospermia
(4) Asthenozoospermia

77) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms
are produced
(b) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
(c) The regions outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels,
Leydig cells, and some immunologically competent cells.
(d) The scrotum help in maintaining the low temperature of the testes, necessary for
spermatogenesis

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

78) Outer layer of blastocyst is called :

(1) Inner cell mass

(2) Trophoblast
(3) Blastomere
(4) Amnion

79) Assertion (A) : Leydig cells of testis are also called interstitial cells.
Reason (R) : Leydig cells are present in interstitial space outside the seminiferous tubule.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

80) When spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process that is called.

(1) Spermiation
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Spermatogenesis
(4) Gametogenesis

81) If there is no fertilization then corpus luteum start degeneration on 9th day of its formation.
Reason for start of degeneration is :-

(1) Increase in amount of LH

(2) Increase in amount of GnRH
(3) Decrease in level of progesterone
(4) Decrease in level of LH

82) Assertion : Calcified cartilage is formed by the calcification of hyaline cartilage.

Reason : It is strongest cartilage of body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

83) Read the following statements and choose option having correct statements :-
(a) By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
(b) By the end of 24th week the body is covered with fine hair.
(c) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound through the
stethoscope.

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c

84) Identify correct match of column I, II and III

Column - I Column - II Column - III

(A) Sertoli cells (a) H.C.G. (i) Promote Spermatogenesis

(B) Leydig cells (b) Some factors (ii) Maintenance of the endometrium

(C) Trophoblast (c) Testosterone (iii) Help in the process of spermiogenesis

(D) Ovary (d) Progesterone (iv) Maintain the corpus luteum

(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-a-iv, D-d-ii
(2) A-c-ii, B-b-i, C-d-iii, D-c-iv
(3) A-a-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-c-iii
(4) A-d-iv, B-c-iii, C-b-ii, D-a-i

85) Identify the correct match.

Column-I Column-II

1. Prolactin Milk ejection

2. Oxytocin Maintains Pregnancy

 3. Relaxin Acts on Pubic symphysis

4. Progesterone Milk synthesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Match the items in column-I with those in column-II and find out the correct answer ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Leydig cells (i) Fructose

(B) Sertoli cells (ii) Present only in male mammal

(C) Seminal vesicle (iii) Nutrition to germ cells

(D) Cowper's gland (iv) Androgens

E Prostate gland (v) Lubrication of penis

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)

87)

Match the following column :

Column-I Column-II

Unicellular
(A) (i) Goblet cell
Gland

For rapid transfer

Tight
(B) (ii) of ions and
Junction
small molecules

Perform cementing
Gap to keep
(C) (iii)
Junction neighbouring cells
together

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
(D) (iv)
junction leaking across
tissue
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
88) Which hormone is involved in initiating milk production postpartum?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin

89)

Statement-1 : The digits of forelimbs of a frog possess web

Statement-2 : The web found in the digits of forelimb help in swimming

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect

(2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct

90) At about which day, corpus luteum starts degenerating in menstrual cycle of total 28 days?

(1) 15th day

(2) 22nd day
(3) 23rd day
(4) 28th day
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 4 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 4 1 3 4 1 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

U= , dielectric is inserted then

C↑ U↓

2)

All capacitor lying in left side of line XY are short circuit so circuit can be reduced as follows

CAB = 2C

3)

n = 12
Total = 12 × 6 = 72

4) Emedium =

5) Q-same

U' ∝
C' = KC

U' = =

6) Option (1)
7)
Ceq = 3µF

8) Option (1)

9)

10)

⇒
solving by parallel series combinations,

⇒
⇒

⇒
Ceq = 200 pF

11) Charge on the plates will be same in magnitude but different in nature.

12) There is no exchange of energy

So potential is same V1 = V2

13) Ceq = 2C + C = 3C

14) q4 = 4 CV ... (1)

= + + =

q2 = CeqV = V ... (2)

15) C = 1μF

Ceq. = C +

= = = 2C = 2 μF
It is Geometric progression
sum of as terms

16) C1 & C2 in series

q = CV = const.
∵ V1 > V2 from graph
∴ C1 < C2

17) and
∴K=4

18) Theory

19)

∴H=0–

20) 5.0 × 10–2 J

21)

EPE of combination = n × EPE of each capacitor

× 16 × 10–6 × (1000)2 = n × × 8 × 10–6 × (250)2

n = 32 capacitors

22)

When Key is opened

Ceq = ; Qeq =
After Key is closed
Ceq = C; Qeq = CV
Charge flowing through the cell = CV/4

23)
Redraw the ckt. CAB = μF

24) Explain question: Find VB in given circuit diagram.

Concept: This question is based on combination of capacitor.

Solution:

Q same ⇒ V∝

VAB = × 2000 = 1500V

VA – VB = 1500
VB = VA – 1500
= 2000 – 1500 = 500 V

Final Answer: Option 3 is correct.

25)

Use U =

⇒ 2.1 × 10–9 =

⇒ E2 =
E2 = 470 ⇒ E = 21.6 N/C

26) Explain question: Choose correct option for capacitance.

Concept: This question is based on parallel plate capacitor.

Solution:

C=

Final Answer: Option 4 is correct.

27) Explain question: Fraction of energy stored in the form of P.E. in capacitor.

Concept: This question is based on charging of capacitor.

Solution:
 V= ⇒ W = Vq ... (1)

energy stored ... (2)

So, half energy is stored.

Final Answer: Option 2 is correct.

28)

V=

29)

0
C = 4πε Rεr

C=
C ≈ 2800 pF

30)

Question Explanation : We need to comment on what factors capacitance does not depend.

Concept : Concept of capacity and capacitance.

Solution :

Q = CV
If Q becomes n times, then V also becomes n times, C remains independent of charge and potential.
C depends on geometrical configuration and on dielectric medium filled.

Final answer : Option (1)

31) 1. Question Explanation

We are given two angles of projection for a projectile (45∘ - θ) and (45∘ + θ) We need to find the
ratio of the horizontal ranges of the projectile when launched at these angles.
2. Concept Based
The horizontal range R of a projectile launched with initial velocity u at an angle θ with the

horizontal is given by the formula: Where:

A. u = initial velocity of the projectile

B. θ = angle of projection
C. g = acceleration due to gravity
3. Formula Used: The horizontal range of the projectile is: For two angles (45° - θ)
and (45° + θ), the ranges are given by:

A. For θ1 = 45° - θ, the range is:

A. For θ2 = 45° + θ, the range is:

[Link]

1. Range for 45° - θ: Simplifying the angle

Using the identity sin(90° - x) = cos(x): 2. Range for 45°-θ

Simplifying the angle Using the identity sin(90° -

x) = cos(x): 3. Ratio of the two ranges: Since both R1 and R2 are equal to

, the ratio of the ranges is:

32)

q = CV

C=

C=
C = 5μF

33) Equivalent circuit diagram

34) Also

35)

Question Explanation : Asking about the electric field between the plates of capacitor having
dielectric.
 Concept : This question is based on effect of dielectric in capacitor.

Solution : As we know that,

for air capacitor

& Emedium = for capacitor having dielectric.

E1 = E3 = E0

E1 = E3 > E2
Final Answer : option (2)

36) Explain Question:

We have to calculate distance of from and at which it remain in

equilibrium

Concept:
Electrostatic from.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

37)

38) Solution
1. Question Explanation :
We are asked to evaluate the correctness of two statements: whether the electric potential
energy of a positive charge is always positive. and whether potential energy is a vector
quantity.
2. Concept-Based:
Electric potential energy depends on the charge and electric potential at a point. It is a scalar
quantity.
3. Formula Used:
• Electric potential energy: U=qV
where U is the electric potential energy, q is the charge, and V is the electric potential.
 • Potential energy is a scalar quantity, not a vector.
4. Calculation:
• Assertion: For a positive charge in a typical electric field, the potential energy U = qV
may be positive or negative according to the nature of potential at that point.
• Reason: Potential energy is a scalar, not a vector, making the reason false.
Final Answer:
Both assertion & reason are false.

39)

Question Explanation: Check the truth of the assertion and reason about proton/electron
acceleration in the electric field.

Concept:
In a uniform electric field:

A. Force depends on charge and electric field only

B. Acceleration depends on force divided by mass

C. Proton and electron have equal charge magnitude but different masses

Formula:

F = qE

Calculation:
Electric force on proton: Fp = eE
Electric force on electron

Fp = eE

So magnitudes of force are same.

Fe = eE

Acceleration:

Since:

mp ≠ me

Therefore:

ap ≠ a e

Reason says:
"Electric force depends on mass"
This is false because:

F = qE

contains no mass term.

Final Answer : Option (3)

40) θ = 45° ;

41) Explain the Question :

We need to find the angle at which he should incline the tube for the water to enter the false
without touching its inside.
Concept : This question is based on rain-man problem.
Solution :

The angle θ w.r.t. rain is

Final Answer : 1

42)

Explain the question : "Position-Time (s-t)" graphs for two particles A & B are shown below.

Concept : This question is based on graphical analysis of "s–t" graph.

Formula :
Velocity = slope of "position-time" graph
 Solution :
Final Answer : 3

43) v2 = u2 + 2gh
∴ 802 = 202 + 2 × 10h ⇒

44) Time taken by stone to go down

Time taken by sound to come up

∴ T = t 1 + t2 =

45)

v – 1 = 14
v = 15 m/s

CHEMISTRY

46) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba are alkaline earth metals except Beryllium

47)

Butane

48)
49) E2 reaction .

50) NCERT page. 84 prob 3.5

51)

52)

AgNO3 in NH4OH

53)

I > II > III > IV

54)

55)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking about the product (A)

Concept :- This Question is based wurtz reaction
Solution :- wurtz reaction is best method for preparation of symmetrical alkane

Final Answer :- (2)

56) The order of stability of free radicals is as follows: Tertiary > secondary > primary [Due to
H-effect]

57) Number of valence electron = 2

58)
Option (2) is correct

59)

Bond polarity ∝ ΔEN

60) is least basic because lone pair involved in resonance.

61) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the total number of monochlorinated products formed when isopentane
undergoes free radical chlorination in the presence of light, counting all possible
stereoisomers.

Concept: This question is based on the Free Radical Halogenation reaction of alkane .

Solution : Isopentane (2-methylbutane) has four different types of hydrogen atoms.

Total product = 6

Final answer: Option (3)

62) I.P. of Be > IP of B

63)

n–pentane

64)

The order of reactivity of halogens towards halogenation of alkane is

65)

It is clemmensen's reduction
66) Symmetrical alkane will be formed in high yield through wurtz reaction.

67) conjugated system is not present.

Question Explanation: Identifying where resonance is not observed.
Concept: Resonance
Solution: Resonance requires a conjugated system. The compound in option B, with a
saturated carbon, is not fully conjugated and therefore does not show resonance. Calculation:
N/A Final Answer: 2

68) 18 + given atomic number

atomic number of next nobel gas
18 + 43 – 54
= 61 – 54 = 07th group

69)

Explain the Question : Identify which will give only from aldehyde on ozonolysis.
Concept : This question is based on reductive ozonolysis.
Solution :

(1) CH2 = CH2 HCHO + HCHO

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2 CH3 – CHO + HCHO

(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 CH3 – CHO + CH3 – CHO

(4)
Ethene give only form aldehyde on ozonolysis.
Final answer : 1

70)

71)

Option (2) is correct

 72)
is most stable due to maximum number of α-H.

73)

Explain the Question : Identify the major product in the given reaction.
Concept : Dehydrohalogenation proceed by E2 mechanism.
Solution :

Final answer: option (3)

74)

75)

Explain the Question : Compare the heat of hydrogenation of (i) cyclohexene, (ii)
Methylenecyclohexane, and (iii) 1‑methylcyclohexene, using α‑H count and resonance to
determine stability.
Concept : This question is based on Heat of hydrogenation, Hyperconjugation, Resonance, I
Effect
Solution : Heat of hydrogenation is inversely proportional to stability; fewer α‑H and less +H
stabilization → less stable → higher heat.

Compound α-H Stability assessment Relative HOH

(i) Cyclohexene 7 More stable Lowest

(ii) Methylenecyclohexane 4 Moderate stability Intermediate

(iii) 1‑Methylcyclohexene 3 Least stable Highest

The decreasing order of stability (increasing heat of hydrogenation) is: (iii) > (ii) > (i).
Final answer : option (2)

76)

D>C>A>B
77) Explain Question:
Identify the major product formed when methylcyclohexene undergoes
hydroboration–oxidation.

Concept:
Hydroboration–oxidation adds water across a double bond in an anti-Markovnikov and syn
fashion.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

78)

Ans.

79) Question Explanation: Identifying the alkyl group with the maximum +I effect.
Concept: Inductive effect (+I effect)
Solution: The +I effect is the electron-donating effect. The strength of the +I effect increases
with the number of alkyl groups attached to the carbon. The compound in option C, a tertiary
alkyl group, has the maximum +I effect. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 3

80)

In the presence of , – F and bulky Base

Reaction possible via E1cb mechanism

81) Free radical substitution reaction.

82) Correct Answer (4)

83) Carbocation rearrangement

84)

Question Explanation:
Question asks to find the product of sodalime decarboxylation (NaOH + CaO) of ethanoic acid
(CH3COOH).

Concept :
This question is based on Decarboxylation, Sodalime decarboxylation of Carboxylic acid .

Solution:

Sodalime decarboxylation reaction:

Final Answer: Option (1)

85)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the product P formed by the reaction between Phenylmagnesium
bromide (PhMgBr) and isopropanol.

Concept:
Grignard Reagents, Basicity of Grignard Reagents, Active Hydrogen Compounds.

Solution:
Main Rule: Grignard reagents (RMgX) are strong bases and react instantly with compounds
containing active hydrogen (like the OH group in isopropanol) to form an alkane (R – H).
1. Role: PhMgBr acts as a strong base (Ph–), and isopropanol acts as an acid (source of H+).
 2. Reaction: The Phenylanion (Ph–) abstracts the acidic proton form the alcohol's OH group,
forming the stable alkane, Benzene.

Reaction:

The final product is Benzene.

Final Answer: Option (1)

86)

C>B>A

87)

Size order ⇒ Anion > neutral > cation

Cl– > Cl > Cl+

88)

All of these

89) Answer : 2
concept : lsoelectronic species share the same electronic configuration (same number of
electrons).
Their radii are influenced by the effective nuclear charge (Zeff)
• Higher nuclear charge → stronger attraction →smaller radius.
• Lower nuclear charge →weaker attraction →larger radius.
• Neutral atom of Inert gases max. Radius in period .
expalnation
For K+, one electron is removed (config: [Ar]).
For Ca2+, two electrons are removed (config: [Ar]).
Since Ca2+ loses more electrons and has a greater effective nuclear
charge, Ca2+ is smaller than K+.

90) In presence of peroxide HBr gives 1-bromobutane by Antimarkonikov rule.

BIOLOGY

91) Question Explanation: The question asks the name of the process in which one male
gamete moves towards the egg cell and fuses with [Link]: FertilizationSolution:
 A. Syngamy → fusion of male gamete with egg cell
B. Triple fusion → fusion of male gamete with two polar nuclei
C. Double fertilization → syngamy + triple fusion (in angiosperms)
D. Autogamy → self-pollination

92)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 15

93) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Pg. # 8
Viability of pollen grains of poaceace is 30 min whereas viability of pollen grains of rosaceae,
solanaceae & Leguminoseae is for several months.
Final Answer : (2)

94) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Ploidy of :
(i) nucellus = 2n
(ii) megaspore mother cell = 2n
(iii) functional megaspore = n
(iv) embryo sac = n
Final Answer : (3)

95) Question Explanation: The question is asking a question about the process of
microsporogenesis in Angiosperms.
Concept: This question based on Pre-Fertilization structure and events - microsporogenesis in
Angiosperms.
Solution: Total microspores = 80
Each MMC gives = 4 microspores

Required MMCs =
Final Answer: 20

96) Explanation:

A. The vegetative nucleus plays a crucial role in controlling the growth of the pollen tube.
B. It regulates the direction and growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule, and its destruction
prevents further growth.

Final Answer: Growth of pollen tube is controlled by vegetative nucleus

97) NCERT XII, Pg # 28, Fig. 2.9

98) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28

 99) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 31

100) NCERT XII Pg # 29(E), 31(H)

101) NCERT-XII, PG-26

102) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 38,39, (H) Pg. # 41

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

104) NCERT XIIth Pg.#38

105) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 39(E), 41(H)

106) NCERT XII Pg # 38

107)

Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled parts A and B in the longitudinal section of a
maize grain.

Concept: Monocot Seed Structure

Solution: The diagram shows the maize grain (caryopsis):

[A] points to the large food storage region, the Endosperm.
[B] points to the single, shield-shaped cotyledon, the Scutellum.

Final Answer: option (3)

108) NCERT XII Pg. # 35

109)

Explain Question : The question asks to the final product of sexual reproduction.

Concept : This question is based on Seed - Structure.

Solution : The ultimate product of sexual reproduction in flowering plants, resulting from the
maturation of the ovule and the ovary, is the dispersal unit, the seed (enclosed in the fruit).

Final Answer : Option (3) Seed

110)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the event that occurs before pollination.
Concept : This question is based on Post-Pollination Events.

Solution : Post-pollination events include all processes from the time pollen lands on the
stigma to the maturation of the fruit/seed. The formation of the embryo sac
(megagametogenesis) occurs in the ovule before pollination.

Final Answer : option (4) Formation of embryo sac

111) Question Explanation : The question asks to identify the incorrect pairing among the
four options
Concept : This question is based on classes of algae
Solution : Rhodophyceae - Chlorophyll a & d, fucoxanthin - Missmatch
Fucoxanthin is not a characteristic pigment of Rhodophyceae; it is found in Phaeophyceae
(brown algae).
Final Answer : Option (3)

112)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the group of algae that belongs to the class
Rhodophyceae, commonly known as red algae
Concept : This question is based on Rhodophyceae - red algae
Explanation : “Members of Rhodophyceae (red algae) include Polysiphonia, Porphyra, and
Gelidium.”
Final answer : 2

113)

olution:

A. (a) In liverworts, mosses, and ferns gametophytes are free living

Correct. The gametophytes in liverworts, mosses, and ferns are indeed free-living,
meaning they exist independently from the sporophyte.

B. (b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

Correct. Gymnosperms like Pinus and some ferns are heterosporous, meaning they
produce two different kinds of spores: microspores (male) and megaspores (female).

C. (c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and Albugo is oogamous

Correct. In these organisms, sexual reproduction is oogamous, meaning the male gamete
(sperm) is smaller and motile, while the female gamete (egg) is larger and non-motile.

D. (d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

Incorrect. The sporophyte in liverworts is less elaborate than in mosses. Mosses have a
more complex and distinct sporophyte structure, including a stalk and capsule.

E. (e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious

 Correct. Both Pinus (a gymnosperm) and Marchantia (a liverwort) are dioecious,
meaning they have separate male and female individuals.

Based on this analysis, three statements are correct: (a), (b), and (c). Therefore, the correct
answer is:

4. Three.

114) NCERT XI Pg # 34Red Algae - Gelidium

115) NCERT XI Pg.# 18,19,20

116)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the false statement among the given options
about the characteristics of bryophytes, pteridophytes, and algae.
Concept : Characteristics of bryophytes, pteridophytes, and algae.
Explanation : Main plant body in bryophytes is sporophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is
gametophytic-Incorrect
Because in bryophytes, the dominant phase is gametophyte. The sporophyte is dependent on
the gametophyte. In pteridophytes, however, the sporophyte is the dominant, independent
phase."
Final answer : 3

117)

Explanation:
Red algae (Rhodophyta) store food in the form of Floridean starch, which is structurally similar
to amylopectin and glycogen.

118)

Fucus ; Air bladder

119)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify two plants, labeled (a) and (b), from a
provided image. Both plants are examples of pteridophytes.
Concept : This question is based on Pteridophytes
Explanation : Figure (a) shows a plant with a creeping rhizome and upright, branching stems
covered in small, scale-like leaves. This morphology is characteristic of Selaginella.
Figure (b) shows a plant with a distinctly segmented, jointed stem and whorls of leaves at each
node. This structure is unique to Equisetum.
Final answer : 3

120)
Explain Question : Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from.
Concept : This question is based on inheritance in biology refers to the transmission of
genetic information from one generation to the next through DNA.
This involves parents passing traits to their offspring via genes.
It is a fundamental concept in Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Explanation : (Parent to progeny) — correct definition of inheritance.
Final answer : 3

121)

Explanation:

An organism's genetic constitution, which refers to the specific alleles it has inherited, is
called its genotype. The genotype determines the genetic makeup of the organism.

The correct answer is option 4 : Genotype

122)

Question Explanation: The question asks where the two alleles of the same gene are located.

Concept: Chromosomal basis of alleles.

Solution:
Alleles are alternative forms of the same gene.
They always occupy the same locus on two homologous chromosomes, one inherited from each
parent.
Thus, they are never on non-homologous chromosomes.

Final Answer: Option (2) — two homologous chromosomes

123)

different forms of a gene

NCERT Pg no. 72

124)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E), 25(H)

125)

Explain Question: Question is asking about ,how many cells of nucellus in Capsella are
responsible to form megaspore mother cell

Concept: Megasporogenesis

Solution: Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the
micropylar region of the nucellus.
Final answer: 4

126) Explaining the Question : Question asking about the select correct statements
regarding the structure of flower and stamen.
Concept : Flower is a fascinating organ of angiosperms
Solution :
(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological marvels and the site of sexual
reproduction. -correct
(B) Anthers are attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen. Incorrect.
Correct is : The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the thalamus or the petal
of the flower.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non essential parts of flower. Incorrect.
Correct is - Androecium and gynoecium are the essential parts/ reproductive part/whorls of
flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species.-correct

127)

Question Explanation: Question is asking about the what is the common structure or type of
female gametophyte found in most angiosperms

Concept: Female gametophyte

Solution:

In a mature embryo sac three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute
the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central cell has two
polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled

Final answer: 2

128)

Question Explanation: The substance that is absent in the structure of the germ pore.

Concept: Pollen Wall Structure

Solution: Germ pores are apertures in the exine where the highly resistant sporopollenin is
absent. The intine is present, composed of pectocellulose (pectin and cellulose).

Final Answer: Sporopollenin

129)
Question Explanation :
The question describes a specific type of pollination and asks for its correct biological term.

Concept:
This question is based on pollination.

Solution:
"When the pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the
same the plant, the pollination is called geitonogamy."

Final answer : 3

130)

Question Explanation:
Identifying the source of Parthenium.

Concept:
Invasive species.

Solution:
Parthenium was accidentally introduced to India as a contaminant with imported wheat from
the USA in the 1950s.

Final Answer: Option 3-Wheat

131)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 21,25,35 (E), 22,27,37(H)

132)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 23 (2.2.1)

133) NCERT XII Page No. # E-23, H-24

134) NCERT XI Pg # 32

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg#10

136) NCERT-XI Pg. # 119

137) NCERT Pg # 50/51

138)

Explain Question : Identify W, X, Y and Z in the menstrual cycle graph.

Concept : This question is based on menstrual cycle
Solution :

Final answer : 3. 3

139)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 116

140)

Oogonia

141)

All of the above

142) Pg. No. 116 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

143)

If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

144)

Explain Question : to identify A and B and their respective functions

Concept : This question is based on embryonic development.

Solution :
A – Trophoblast, whose function is to Attach to the endometrium
B – Inner cell mass, which will Differentiated as embryo

Final Answer : option (1)

 145) Question Explanation :
To identify the correct sequence of spermatogenesis

Concept:
Spermatogenesis

Solution :
correct sequence of spermatogenesis
Spermatogonia → Primary Spermatocyte → Secondary Spermatocytes → Spermatid →
Spermatozoa.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 35
Question Explanation: Parturition is the process by ?
Concept : Parturition
Solution : Parturition is indued by a complex Neuro endocrine mechanism.
Final Answer : option (4). Neuro-endocrine mechanism

147)

Cause strong uterine contraction during parturition

148)

Sertoli cells

149)

Both (1) and (2)

150) NCERT XI Pg. 116

151) Explain Question : Identify hormones secreted only during pregnancy in females.
Concept : Hormones of pregnancy
Solution :The correct answer option is (1).

A. hPL (human placental lactogen): Produced by placenta → only during pregnancy

B. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin): Produced by trophoblast after implantation → only
during pregnancy

Progesterone: Normally produced by corpus luteum, also by placenta → not exclusive to pregnancy.
Androgen: Present in both sexes, not pregnancy-specific.
FSH: Secreted in non-pregnant women (for follicular growth), suppressed in pregnancy.
LH: Present normally, not pregnancy-specific.
So, only hPL (a) and hCG (e) are exclusive to pregnancy.
Final answer : option (1) a,e

152)

Question Explanation: The question asks which layer of the uterine wall shows cyclic
changes during the menstrual cycle.

Concept: Uterus

Solution: The uterine wall has three layers, out of which the endometrium (inner glandular
layer) undergoes cyclic thickening, breakdown, and shedding during the menstrual cycle.

Final answer: Option 1

153)

Question Explanation: Identify which junction-function or location match is wrong.

Concept: Cell junctions
Solution:

A. Option 1: Correct. Tight junctions stop substances from leaking.

B. Option 2: Correct. Adhering junctions help cells stick/cement together.

C. Option 3: Correct. Gap junctions allow communication.

D. Option 4: Incorrect. Gap junctions are not typically found in the epithelium of air sacs.

Final answer: Option 4

154) NCERT Pg. # 212 (E), 231 (H)

155)

New NCERT XII Pg. # 29,30

156)

NCERT XII Pg. 51, Fig 3.9 at Pg 50

157)

Question Explanation : The question asks about the structure and location of the epididymis.
 Concept : Male reproductive system-ACESSORY DUCT

Solution :
The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that connects the vasa efferentia from the testis to the
vas deferens, where sperm mature and are stored.

Final Answer : Both (2) & (3)

158)

Option (3) is correct

159)

Explain Question: Identify the correct anatomical labels A–D in the diagram of a human fetus
within the uterus.
Concept: This question is based on extra embryonic membranes
Solution: The correct answer is Option 2.
The correct label is as follows:

A. A: Umbilical cord – connects fetus to placenta, allowing nutrient and gas exchange.
B. B: Yolk sac – provides early nourishment before placental circulation is established.
C. C: Placental villi – finger-like projections that facilitate maternal-fetal exchange.
D. D: Plug of mucus in cervix – seals the cervical canal during pregnancy to protect against
infection.

Final Answer: 2

160)

Option (3) is correct

161)

26th day
162)

Explain Question : to identify the parts labelling as A,B,C and D in given diagram

Concept : female reproductive system

Explanation :

A- Ovary

B-Infundibulum

C -Ampulla

D-Fundus

Final answer : 3

163)

Prostate gland

164) NCERT XII Pg # 31 (E), 33 (H)

165)

C–A–B–D–E

166)

Teratozoospermia

167)

Statements (a), (c) and (d)

168)

Trophoblast

169) Question Explain : The question asks to evaluate two statements about Leydig cells and
their location in the testis.
Concept : Histology of seminiferous tubules
Solution : The correct option is 3.

The assertion is correct; Leydig cells are indeed also known as interstitial cells.

The Reason is also correct they are located in the interstitial spaces outside seminiferous
 tubules.

The reason is the correct explanation of assertion because they are found in the interstitial
spaces, which are the regions of connective tissue located outside the seminiferous tubules.

Final answer : Option (3)

170)

Spermiogenesis

171) Question Explanation: The question asks the reason for corpus luteum degeneration if
fertilisation does not occur.
Concept: The question is based on the hormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle
Solution: The correct answer is option 4 because:

A. Corpus luteum is maintained by LH secretion from the anterior pituitary.

B. If fertilisation does not occur, there is no hCG signal from the embryo.
C. As a result, LH levels decrease, leading to degeneration of the corpus luteum.
D. This causes a fall in progesterone and estrogen, triggering menstruation.

Final Answer: Option 4

172)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

173)

a, b, c

174)

Explain Question : to match the columns correctly

Concept : human reproduction

Explanation :

(A)Sertoli cells match with (b) Some factors and (iii) Help in the process of spermiogenesis

(B) Leydig cells match with (c) Testosterone and (i) Promote Spermatogenesis

(C)Trophoblast matches with (a) H.C.G. and (iv) Maintain the corpus luteum

(D)Ovary matches with (d) Progesterone and (ii) Maintenance of the endometrium

A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-a-iv, D-d-ii

Final answer : 1
 175) NCERT, Pg. 51, 53, 54
Relaxin relax pubic symphysis so birth canal become wide during parturition.

176) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)

177)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 102

178)

The correct answer is Option 4: Prolactin.

Explanation:

A. Prolactin is the primary hormone responsible for initiating and maintaining milk
production in mammals after childbirth (postpartum).

B. It stimulates the development of the mammary glands during pregnancy and promotes
milk synthesis after delivery.

C. While estrogen and progesterone also play a role in preparing the breasts for lactation,
prolactin is the key hormone for milk production itself.

D. Oxytocin is involved in the let-down reflex, which is the process of milk ejection from the
breasts in response to suckling.

179)

Question Explanation: Identify whether Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.

Concept: Frog

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Statement-1: Incorrect — Forelimbs of frog do not have webbed digits; webbing is present in
hind limbs.
B. Statement-2: Incorrect — Webbing helps in swimming, but it is present in hind limbs, not
forelimbs, so the statement is wrong.

Final Answer: Option 1

180)

23rd day