24-05-2026

2031CMD303021250013 MD

PHYSICS

1) A charge +q of mass m is projected in uniform magnetic field with velocity

. Pitch of path of particle is P0. Now the same charge particle is projected in uniform magnetic field
with velocity . This time pitch of path is P2 then :-

(1) P2 = 2P0
(2) P2 = 4P0
(3) P2 = P0
(4) P2 = 8P0

2) A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into the

plane of the of the paper as shown. The loop will have a tendency to

(1) contract
(2) expand
(3) move towards + ve x-axis
(4) move towards-ve x-axis.

3) In the figure, the magnitude of force on the wire ABC in the given uniform magnetic field will be

(B = 2 tesla)

(1) 4(3 + 2π) N

(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N
4) A square loop carrying current i is placed in the plane of a long wire carrying current I, as shown

in figure. The magnetic force acting on the loop is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two insulated circular loop A and B radius 'a' carrying a current of 2I in the anti-clockwise
direction as shown in figure. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at the centre will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle have a charge 20 μC and mass 20 μg moves along a circle of radius 5 cm under the
action of a magnetic field B = 0.1 tesla. When the particle is at P, a uniform electric field is switched
on and it is found that the particle continues on the tangent with a uniform velocity. Find the electric

field.

(1) 2 V/m
(2) 1 V/m
(3) 0.5 V/m
(4) 5 V/m

7) Statement–1 : Work done in moving a charge with increasing velocity in a steady non–uniform
magnetic field may be zero.
and
Statement–2 : Magnetic force is always perpendicular to velocity of charged particle moving in a
magnetic field.

Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is a correct explanation for

(1)
Statement–1.
Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–1.
(3) Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is False.
(4) Statement–1 is False, Statement–2 is True.

8) Relative permitivity and relative permeability of a material are and , respectively. Which of
the following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing in negative z direction.
Branch PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F, force

on branch PQR is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A particle having mass m, charge q enters a cylinder region having uniform magnetic field B in
the inward direction as shown. If the particle is deviated by 60° as it emerges out of the field then
what is the time spent by it in the field.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) It depends on the speed of particle.

11) Nickel is ferromagnetic at room temperature. At a value of H field of 5 × 105 A/m, nickel
saturates. The magnetic field B is 1.25 T. What is the magnetisation vector of nickel sample ?

(1) 5 × 105 A/m

(2) +3.744 × 105 A/m
(3) 9.31 × 104 A/m
(4) 15 × 105 A/m

12) A positive charge particle having charge q and mass m has velocity in the magnetic

field at the origin. Its speed as the function of y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

13) An electron is projected from origin with velocity . A uniform magnetic field
of tesla is present. The path followed by electron is correctly shown in
(me = 9 × 10– 31kg)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The electromagnet of a cyclotron consists of two iron pole pieces, each surrounded by a large
wire coil. The coil has 200 turns and each turn is a concentric circular loop of radius R = 30 cm. The
relativity permeability of iron is 35 when B = 1.4T. The approximate value of current in wire to
create a total magnetic field of 1.4T at the center of current loops.

(1) 50 A
(2) 95 A
(3) 150 A
(4) 200 A

15) A proton and an alpha particle are separately projected in a region where a uniform magnetic
field exists. The initial velocities are perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. If both the
particles move around magnetic field in circles of equal radii, the ratio of momentum of proton to

alpha particle is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

16) Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angles to each other. The
wire AOB carries an electric current I1 and COD carries a current I2. The magnetic field on a point
lying at a distance d from O, in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the wires AOB and COD,
will be given by :–

(1)

(2)

(3) (I1 + I2)

(4)

17) A long horizontal wire P carries a current 50 A. It is rigidly fixed. Another line wire Q is placed
directly above and parallel to P. The weight of wire Q is 0.075 Nm–1 and carries a current of 25 A.
Find the position of wire Q from P so that the wire to remains suspended due to the magnetic
repulsion-

(1) 3.33 mm
(2) 33.3 mm
(3) 333 mm
(4) 0.333 mm

18) A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric

field and magnetic field . Its velocity at (x, 3, 0) is . The value of x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
19) An electron is moving along positive x-axis. A uniform electric field exists towards negative y-
axis. What should be the direction of magnetic field of suitable magnitude so that net force of
electron is zero

(1) positive z- axis

(2) negative z-axis
(3) positive y-axis
(4) negative y-axis

20) If magnetic field in space is 1T , electric field is 10 N/ C , no gravitational field is present and a
charged particle is released from rest from origin, it will

(1) not move at all

(2) move in circular path
(3) move in a helical path
(4) move on a straight line

21) If c = the velocity of light, which of the following is correct ?

(1) μ0ε0 = c
(2) μ0ε0 = c
2

(3)
με =
0 0

(4) 0 0
με =

22) Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving
in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles
are vA and vB respectively and the trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then

(1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

23) An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E = E0sin(kx – ωt), B = B0sin(kx
– ωt). Which of the following equations is true ?

(1) E0k = B0ω

(2) E0ω = B0k
(3) E0B0 = ωk
(4) None of these

24) In electromagnetic wave the phase difference between electric field and magnetic field is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3) π

(4)

25) A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ec
(4) E/c2

26) A particle of charge –16 × 10–18 C moving with velocity 10ms–1 along the x-axis enters in a region
where a magnetic field of induction B is along the y-axis and an electric field of magnitude 104 V/m is
along the negative z-axis. If the charged particle continues moving along the x-axis, the magnitude of
B is :-

(1) 10–3 Wb/m2

(2) 103 Wb/m2
(3) 105 Wb/m2
(4) 1016 Wb/m2

27) If EMW is propagating in +Z axis then & :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) An electromagnetic wave of 2 MHz passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with relative
permittivity and relative permeability then _________

(1) Wavelength becomes tripled and frequency remains unchanged

(2) Wavelength becomes tripled and frequency becomes one third
(3) Wavelength becomes one-third and frequency remains unchanged
(4) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
29) A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected across an AC source of voltage V. The displacement
current between the plates of the capacitor is given by Id = V0 ωc cosωt then applied voltage V is
given by :-

(1) V = V0 sinωt
(2) V = V0 cosωt
(3) V = V0 sin(2ωt)
(4) V = V0 cos(2ωt)

30) For an EM wave electric field intensity due to a bulb of 100 W at 3 m distance is E. The electric
field intensity produced by radiations coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance ?

(1)

(2) 2E

(3)

(4)

31)

For a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field at a point x and time t is B(x, t) = [1.2 × 10–7
sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]T.
The instantaneous electric field E corresponding to B is (Given, speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s)

(1)
E(x, t) = [–36 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]

(2)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (1 × 103 x + 0.5 × 1011t) ]

(3)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]

(4)
E(x, t) = [36 sin (1 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t) ]

32) Electric flux between plates of parallel plate capacitor varies as ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1. Then correct
graph for displacement current and time is as –

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
wave ?

(1) A stationary charge

(2) A charge less particle
(3) An accelerating charge
(4) A charge moving at constant velocity

34) The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) For electromagnetic waves, Maxwell generalised:-

(1) Gauss's law for electricity

(2) Gauss's law for magnetism
(3) Faraday's law
(4) Ampere's law

36) A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0 × 10–5 NA–1m–1 due
north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms–1,
the magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of aerial is :-

(1) 0.50 mV
(2) 0.15 mV
(3) 1 mV
(4) 0.75 mV

37) A 110 V, 60 W lamp is run from a 220 V AC mains using a capacitor in series with the lamp,
instead of a resistor then the voltage across the capacitor is about :–

(1) 110 V
(2) 190 V
(3) 220 V
(4) 311 V

38) The current (i) in a coil varies with time (t) as shown in Fig. :- The
variation of induced emf with time would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is :-

(1) 2 µV
(2) 2πµV
(3) πµV

(4)
µV

40) The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation : ϕ = 5t3 – 100t +
300 The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3s is :

(1) 10V
(2) 20V
(3) 35V
(4) 70V

41) Part of a circuit is shown. When current in circuit is 3A, rate of increase of current is 2 A/s. The
potential difference between points P and Q at this instant is :

(1) 9.6V
(2) 10.6V
(3) 17.6V
(4) 13.6V

42) The loops A and B, when both are moved (see figure) near a current carrying wire. Then

direction of induced current in A and B are

(1) No current, clockwise

(2) No current, anticlockwise
(3) Anticlockwise, clockwise
(4) Clockwise, anticlockwise

43) If an AC current is given by I = I0 + I1 sinωt then it rms value will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

(5) None of the above

44) The instantaneous values of current and potential difference in an alternating circuit are i = sin
ωt and E = 100 cos ωt respectively r.m.s. value of wattless current (in amp) in the circuit is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 100
(4) zero

45) In the following figure what is the final value of current in steady state the 10 ohm resistor when

the plug of key K is inserted ?

(1) (2/20) A
(2) (2/30) A
(3) (2/10) A
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) Among NH3, PH3, AsH3 and SbH3 which one is a stronger reducing agent ?

(1) NH3
(2) PH3
(3) AsH3
(4) SbH3

2) Which of the following orders regarding thermal stability of hydrides MH3 of group 15 is correct ?

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3

(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(3) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3
(4) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3

3) SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives :

(1) Silica
(2) Silicic acid
(3) Silicone
(4) Silicate

4) SnCl2 acts as reducing agent because:

(1) SnCl2 can accept electrons readily

(2) Sn2+ is more stable than Sn4+
(3) Sn4+ is more stable than Sn2+
(4) Sn2+ can be easily converted to metallic tin

5) The correct order of Lewis acid character for halides of Boron is

(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3

(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 > BF3
(4) All have equal strength

6) Total number of terminal 'H' in B2H6

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6

7) Repeating unit of organosilicon polymers is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

8) Which is correct order

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 (basic property)

(2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (reducing property)
(3) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (bond angle)
(4) None of these
9)

The correct order of atomic radii of boron family is

(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(4) B > Ga > In > Al > Tl

10) Correct increasing order of number of π bonds in the following is:-

I. H2S2O7 II. H2SO3 III. H2SO4

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, I
(3) II, I, III
(4) I, III, II

11) What is the formula for carbon suboxide?

(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) C2O4
(4) C3O2

12) H3BO3 is :

(1) Monobasic and weak Lewis acid

(2) Monobasic and weak bronsted acid
(3) Monobasic acid and strong Lewis acid
(4) Tribasic acid and weak bronsted acid

13) The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in weak alkaline medium is :

–
(1) IO3
(2) I2
(3) IO–
–
(4) IO4

14) Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it, This is due to the formation of
:

–2
(1) CrO4
(2) CrSO4
(3) Cr2(SO3)3
(4) Cr2(SO4)3
15) Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation states?

(1) V
(2) Cr
(3) Mn
(4) Fe

16) Which of the following pair of ions has same value of spin only magnetic moment?

(1) Co+3, Fe+2

(2) Sc+2, Zn+2
(3) Cu+, Cu+2
(4) Ti+2, V+2

17) is more stable than because :-

(1) IP2 is less than IP1

(2) 3d9 is more symmetric than 3d10
(3) ΔHhydration of Cu is greater than ΔHhydration of Cu
+2 +

(4) ΔHhydration of Cu is greater than ΔHhydration of Cu

+ +2

18) The most acidic oxide of manganese is

(1) Mn3O4
(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) Mn2O7

19) Which of the following species act as an oxidising agent ?

(1) Eu2+
(2) Yb2+
(3) Ce3+
(4) Tb4+

20) Which among the given cation is diamagnetic in nature ?

(1) Mn2+
(2) Zn2+
(3) Cr3+
(4) Fe3+

21)

The most characteristic oxidation state of lanthanides is :-

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +1

22) The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic number 78) is:

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d9 6s1

(2) [Kr] 4f14 5d10
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d8 6s2

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
(3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(4) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.

24) Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic

number. Which one of them is expected to have the highest value?

(1) Cr(Z = 24)

(2) Sc(Z = 21)
(3) Fe(Z = 26)
(4) Mn(Z = 25)

25) All Cu(II) halides are known except -

(1) Bromide
(2) Iodide
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

26)

The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless :-

[Atomic n : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25]

(1) Fe2+
(2) Mn2+
(3) Ti3+
(4) Sc3+

27) A solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] would contains number of ions :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

28) When 1 mole of the following complex is treated with excess of aqueous AgNO3 solution , 3
moles of AgCl was precipitated out.
The correct formula of the complex is

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

29) The IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]NO3 is :-

(1) Tetraamminedichloridochromium(III) nitrate

(2) Tetraaminedichloridochromium(III) nitrate
(3) Dichloridotetraamminechromium(III) nitrate
(4) Tetraaminodichloridochromium(II) nitrate

30) Which of the following order is correct spectrochemical series of ligands ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) How many isomers are possible for [Co(en)2Cl2] ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 1

32) What type of geometry and magnetic nature is present in a complex

(1) Square planar, diamagnetic

(2) Square planar, Paramagnetic
(3) Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
33) Arrange following complex ions in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy (Δ0)

I. II. III.

(1) I < II < III

(2) II < I < III
(3) III < II < I
(4) I < III < II

34) Arrange the following in order of decreasing number of unpaired electrons :-

I. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ II. [Cr(NH3)6]+3
III. [Ni(NH3)6]+2 IV. [FeF6]–3

(1) IV, I, II, III

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) III, II, I, IV
(4) II, III, I, IV

35) Spin only magnetic moment for [MnBr4]2– is:- (in BM)

(1) 2.92
(2) 3.92
(3) 4.92
(4) 5.90

36) Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is:-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

37) Complex which represents maximum crystal field stablisation energy :-

3–
(1) [Co(CN)6]
4–
(2) [Co(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

38) Which among the following is incorrectly marked?

(1) [Pt(en)2Cl2] : Optical isomerism

(2) [Co(en)2(NO2)Cl]Br : Linkage isomerism
(3) [Cr(CN)2(NH3)4]Cl2 : Geometrical isomerism
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 : Hydrated Isomerism
39) [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4] and [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] are related as :-

(1) Ionisation isomers

(2) Coordination isomers
(3) Linkage isomers
(4) Identical

40) Select the correct order for the wavelength of absorption for the given complexes -

3– 3+ 3+ 3–
(1) [CrCl6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(CN)6]
3– 3– 3+ 3+
(2) [Cr(CN)6] = [CrCl6] = [Cr(NH3)6] = [Cr(H2O)6]
3– 3+ 3+ 3–
(3) [Cr(CN)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [CrCl6]
3– 3+ 3– 3+
(4) [Cr(CN)6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [CrCl6] [Cr(NH3)6]

41)
Salt X is :-

(1) NH4NO3
(2) NH4Cl
(3) KNO3
(4) Ba(NO3)2

42) Blue lake test is given by -

(1) Fe3+
(2) Al3+
(3) CuSO4.5H2O
(4) Cr3+

43) An ion gives red precipitate on addition of DMG ion is.

(1) Cu+2
(2) Fe+2
(3) Ni+2
(4) Co+2

44) Match the List-I with List-II

 List-I List-II
(Cation) (Group reagent)

A. Pb+2, Cu+2 i. H2S + HCl

B. Al+3, Fe+3 ii. (NH4)2CO3 + NH4Cl

C. Co+2, Ni+2 iii. NH4OH + NH4Cl

D. Ba+2, Ca+2 iv. H2S + NH4OH

Correct match is.

(1) A–iv; B–ii; C–iii; D–i
(2) A–i; B–iii; C–iv; D–ii
(3) A–iii; B–i; C–iv; D–ii
(4) A–i; B–iii; C–ii; D–iv

45) Reddish brown (chocolate) ppt. are formed with :

+2 –4
(1) Cu and [Fe(CN)6]
+2 –2
(2) Ba and SO4
(3) Pb+2 and I–1
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY

1)

Match the scientist with their specific contribution to DNA research:

Scientist Contribution

Proposed Double Helix model based on X-

A. Friedrich Meischer i
ray diffraction data.

Identified DNA as an acidic substance

B. Erwin Chargaff ii
'Nuclein'.

C. Watson and Crick iii Ratios between A:T and G:C are constant.

Observed transformation in Streptococcus

D. Frederick Griffith iv
pneumoniae.
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

2)

Match the codon with its amino acid/function:

 Codon Amino Acid/Function

Methionine /
A. UUU i.
Initiator

B. AUG ii. Phenylalanine

C. UAA iii. Stop codon

D. GGG iv. Glycine

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

3) In the Lac Operon, what is the function of the product encoded by the y gene?

(1) Codes for the repressor protein.

(2) Codes for beta-galactosidase (hydrolysis of lactose).
(3) Codes for permease (increases permeability to beta-galactosides).
(4) Codes for transacetylase.

4) Match the component of the Lac Operon with its description:

Component Description

A. i gene i. Binding site for RNA polymerase.

B. z gene ii. Codes for the repressor protein.

C. Promoter iii. Codes for beta-galactosidase.

D. Inducer iv. Lactose or allolactose.

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

5) Which of the following is not a salient features of the Double helix structure of DNA :

It is made of two polynucleotide chain, where the back bone is constituted by sugar – phosphate
(1)
and the bases project inside.
(2) The two chains have parallel polarity.
(3) The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond forming base pair.
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right handed fashion.

6) Assertion (A): The Human Genome Project (HGP) aimed to identify and sequence all the genes
present in human DNA.
Reason (R): DNA fingerprinting uses polymorphic DNA sequences to identify individuals.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

7) Consider the following statements regarding the findings of HGP:

(A) The average gene consists of 30,000 bases.
(B) Chromosome 1 has the most genes (2968).
(C) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. Which are correct?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B, and C

8) Assertion (A): A mutation in the promoter region of the lac operon can prevent transcription of lac
structural genes even when lactose is present.
Reason (R): The promoter is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

9) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Genetic material chemically and structurally must be unstable.
Statement II : Genetic material should be able to generate its replica.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

10) The biochemical nature of transformation material of bacteria in Griffith's experiment was
identified by :-

(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase.

(2) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
(3) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin.
(4) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty.

11) Read the following statements and choose the correct :-

(a) No amino acid is coded by more than one codon.
(b) Codon is read in m-RNA in continuous fashion.
(c) Three codons function as stop codon.
(d) The initiator codon AUG codes for metheionine.
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are wrong
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are wrong
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are wrong
(4) (a) is wrong

12) Match the column-I with Column-II with respect to mutation :-

Column-I Column-II
Loss or gain of a
(A) Frame-shift (i)
segment of DNA
Replacement of
Chromosomal Nitrogen base
(B) (ii)
aberrations by another
nitrogen base
Increase the set
(C) Substitution (iii)
of chromosomes
Deletions or
insertions of
(D) Euploidy (iv)
nitrogen base
pairs of DNA
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

13) Match List I with List II

List I List II
Frederick
A. I. Genetic code
Griffith
Francois
Semi-conservative
Jacob &
B. II. mode of DNA
Jacque
replication
Monod
Har Gobind
C. III. Transformation
Khorana
Meselson &
D. IV. Lac operon
Stahl

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(3) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(4) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III

14) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in [Link]?
(1) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3' → 5'
(2) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' → 3' direction.
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5' → 3' as well as 3' → 5'
(3)
direction
(4) None of these

15) Compared to RNA, DNA is

(1) Structurally stable, highly reactive and resist mutations

(2) Structurally stable, less reactive and provide no scope for mutations
(3) Structurally unstable, less reactive and provide scope for mutations
(4) Structurally stable, less reactive and provide scope for mutations

16) The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C.

Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

(2) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(3) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone
(4) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

17) Match Column I (number of nucleotides in genome) with Column II (organism) and choose the
correct option given below.

Column - I Column - II

I. 5386 nucleotides A. E. coli

II. 48502 bp B. Human

III. 4.6 × 106 bp C. Bacteriophage λ

IV. 3.3 × 109 bp D. ∅ X 174 bacteriophage

(1) I - C, II - D, III - A, IV - B
(2) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B
(3) I - D, II - C, III - B, IV - A
(4) I - D, II - A, III - C, IV - B

18) What kind of chemical bonds are found between Nitrogen base and pentose sugar of the DNA
double helix?

(1) Hydrogen bond

(2) Phosphate
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) N - glycosidic bond

19) In the transformation experiment conducted by Griffith, when the mixture of heat killed S strain
Pneumococcus and live R strain Pneumococcus was injected to mice, the mice died. What should be
the most appropriate reason behind this?

(1) R strain bacteria were transformed into S strain

(2) S strain bacteria became alive
(3) S strain bacteria were transformed in R strain
(4) DNA of died S strain bacteria started to synthesize toxic proteins

20)

Match the columns :

Column I Column II
A. Capping i. Addition of poly A tail
B. Tailing ii. Removal of introns
C. Splicing iii. Addition of methyl guanosine
D. hnRNA iv. Primary transcript
(1) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

21) The given figure represents the process of transcription in bacteria :-

Select the option which correctly labels a, b and c.

(1) a–DNA, b–RNA, c–Promoter

(2) a–RNA, b–RNA polymerase, c–Rho factor
(3) a–RNA, b–RNA polymerase, c–Sigma factor
(4) a–DNA, b–DNA polymerase, c–RNA

22) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nucleosomes are the repeating units of structure in nucleus called as chromatin, which
when viewed under an electron microscope, appear as a 'beads-on-string' structure.
Statement II: Euchromatin is transcriptionally inactive, whereas heterochromatin is active and stains
dark under a microscope.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

23) Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of

the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

24) Pick out the correct statements :

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(c) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

25) Phenotype of F1 did not resemble either of two parents, this condition is true for :-

(1) Dominance
(2) Co-dominance
(3) Multiple alleles
(4) Incomplete dominance

26) Identify the correct set of statements:

(a) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a problem of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin while the latter is a problem of synthesising too few globin molecules.
(b) Alpha Thalassemia is observed due to mutation or deletion of one or more of the four genes
(c) Alpha Thalassemia is controlled by two genes HBA1 and HBA2 present on chromosome 16 and 11
respectively.
(d) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a qualitative problem while the
latter is a quantitative problem of haemoglobin synthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A , B , C, D - all are correct.

(2) B only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A and D only

27) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A single gene product may produce more than one phenotype
Statement II: Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for. It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype from this product that we choose to examine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

28) White eye and yellow body genes in Drosophila were

(1) Very tightly linked and showed higher recombination of 37.2 percent
(2) loosely linked and showed higher recombination of 37.2 percent
(3) Very tightly linked and showed very low recombination of 1.3 percent
(4) loosely linked and showed very low recombination of 1.3 percent

29) Select the incorrect match from the following.

i) Colourblindness – X Linked recessive
ii) Sickle cell anaemia – X Linked recessive
iii) Haemophilia – X linked recessive
iv) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant
v ) Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive
vi) Klinefelter’s syndrome – Y linked.

(1) ii, iii, iv

(2) i, ii, iv
(3) ii, iv, vi
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

30) Which of the following have equal number of chromosomes

(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome, Down’s syndrome
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome, Cri – du – chat syndrome
(4) Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome

31) Mendel published his work in 1865 but it remained unrecognised till 1900. Which of the
following reason was not responsible for it.

(1) Communication was not easy

 His concept of genes (factors) as stable and discrete unit was not accepted by his
(2)
comtemporaries as an explanation for apparently continuous variations.
(3) Use of mathematics to explain biological phenomenon
(4) Use of emasculation technique

32)

Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given:

Column I Column II

A. Rr × Rr 1. 1:1

B. Rr × rr 2. 3:1

C. RrYy × RrYy 3. 1:1:1:1

D. RrYy × rryy 4. 9:3:3:1

(1) A = 2, B = 4, C = 3, D = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 4
(3) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, D = 1
(4) A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 3

33) The total number of progeny obtained through dihybrid cross of Mendel is 1280 in F2 generation.
How many are recombinants ?

(1) 240
(2) 360
(3) 480
(4) 720

34) A cross is made between AaBB × AABb genotype individuals, then find out the correct option of
probabilities of following offsprings

A B C D
AABB AaBB AaBb aabb

(1) 1/4 1/4 1/4 0

(2) 1/8 1/8 4/16 0/16

(3) 1/16 2/16 2/8 1/16

(4) 2/8 2/8 4/8 0/16

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Match the following columns w.r.t probabilities of F2 progeny of Mendelian dihybrid cross and
identify the correct match
 Column - I Column - II

a. Parental phenotypes i. 1/16

b. Recombinant phenotypes ii. 10/16

Parental dominant
c. iii. 9/16
phenotype

Parental recessive
d. iv. 6/16
phenotype
(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
(3) a – iv, b –iii, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv

36) A plant with pure round but impure yellow seeds was crossed with a plant with impure round
and green seeds. 200 offsprings were produced. Find number of progeny with green seeds.

(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 150
(4) 200

37) In humans ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene-I. Select the correct statement from
following :

(1) The alleles IA and IB produce a same kind of sugar

(2) Humans are diploid organism, each person possesses three allele of gene-I
(3) Allele IA and IB are incompletely dominant over allele i
(4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes are formed in case of ABO blood group

38) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a
single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAC, Val

(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) GTA, GAG, Val
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

39) In a couple, blood group of husband is 'AB' and that of wife is 'O'. What is the probability that
their child will be having blood group 'O'?

(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%

40) Select out the incorrect conclusion :-

(1) All the statements of column A are true for chromosome

(2) All the statements of column B are always true for chromosome
(3) All these statements of column A are always true for Gene
(4) All the statements of column B are always true for Gene

41) What will be the phenotypic ratio if a trihybrid plant is self crossed when first two gene are
completely linked :-
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 3 : 1

42) Which of the following characters of Drosophila is suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male flies are larger than female flies
Select the correct option :-

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) d and e
(4) c and e

43) Select the correct statement for a genetic disorder the colour blindness.
I. A Recessive X-linked disorder.
II. Either red or green cone of eye in affected
III. Occurs in about 8% of males and 0.4% of females.
IV. Easy to discriminate between red and green colour.

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) I and II

44) A normal woman, whose father had colour blindness, married a normal man. What is the chance
of occurrence of colour blindness in the progeny?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 75%

45) In this given pedigree what is the mode of inheritance

(1) Autosomal dominant

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked dominant
(4) X-linked recessive
46) Choose the incorrect match :–

(1) Ori-responsible for controlling the copy number of linked DNA

(2) Rop–Codes for the protein involved in replication of plasmid.
(3) Hind III –Restriction site on pBR322
(4) Sal I – Selectable marker on plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.

47) Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Bam HI restriction site is present in tetracycline resistant part of pBR-322

Separated DNA fragments can be visualised under UV light only after staining the DNA with a
(2)
compound known as ethidium bromide
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is considered as natural genetic engineer
(4) In the gel electrophoresis DNA fragments resolve according to base sequence

48) Assertion :- Recombinant colonies will produce blue colour in the medium having X-gal
compound.
Reason :- The 'gal gene' of vector undergone insertional inactivation in recombinant colonies.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

49) Read the following statements (a-d) carefully

a. In PCR, thermosensitive enzyme DNA polymerase is used for amplification of DNA
b. For isolation of DNA from plant cell cellulase enzyme is used.
c. Restriction enzyme breaks the phosphate sugar back bone in DNA
d. In pBR322, ampRgene contains Restriction site for two enzyme BamHI and Sal - I
How many of the above statements are correct -

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

50) Match the following correct option :

(A) α-antitrypsin (i) Molecular diagonosis

(B) Rosie cow (ii) Mice

(C) Polio vaccine (iii) Alpha lactalbumin

(D) P.C.R. (iv) Emphysema

(E) Super bug (v) Pseudomonas putida

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)

51) With regard to ADA deficiency, choose the correct options.

(a) ADA deficiency is caused due to the addition of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
(b) ADA deficiency can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given
to the patient by injection.
(c) In ADA deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes.
(d) If the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic
stages, it could be a temporary cure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

52) Assertion : In ELISA, infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigen or by
detecting the antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
Reason : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

53) Read the following statement and select the incorrect one -
I. Disarmed Agrobacterium is used to deliver desirable gene in to plant cell.
II. In EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name of species.
III. Gene therapy is a part of modern biotechnology.
IV. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule so it can easily pass through cell membrane.

(1) I and II
(2) II and IV
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) I and III

54) Which one of the following statement is not true regarding restriction endonuclease enzyme?

(1) Restriction endonuclease are part of bacterial defence system that protect bacteria from viruses
Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzyme were discovered
(2)
from that strain of virus
(3) Restriction endonuclease break the sugar-phosphate backbone of both strands of DNA
Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the
(4)
DNA

55) Assertion :- PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Reason :- PCR is being used to detect mutation in genes in suspected cancer patients.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) More the efficiency of mineral usage by plant earlier is the exhaustion of soil fertility
(2) Cloning refers to the expression of foreign gene in heterologous host
Sticky end producing restriction enzyme cuts the DNA strand a little away from centre of
(3)
palindrome site.
(4) Extraction of DNA fragments from gel piece is called spooling.

57) Select the correct match :

Insertional Differentiate recombinants

(1) -
inactivation from non recombinants

Recombinant Any protein encoding gene is expressed in

(2) -
protein a homologous host.

A series of process which start from raw

Down stream
(3) - material and to completion of biosynthetic
processing
product

Introduction of the identified DNA into the

(4) Cloning -
host.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) First recombinant DNA was made by linking __A__ with a __B__ of __C__. Choose the option
which correctly fill the blanks A, B and C.

A B C

Antibiotic
Salmonella
(1) resistant Plasmid
typhimurium
gene

Antibiotic
Escherichia
(2) resistant Plasmid
coli
gene

Antibiotic
Chromosomal Salmonella
(3) sensitive
DNA typhimurium
gene
 Antibiotic
Chromosomal Escherichia
(4) sensitive
DNA coli
gene
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Following is a diagrammatic representation of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set of the

names labelled P, Q, R and S.

P Q R S

Free
(1) Proinsulin B-Peptide A-Peptide
C Peptide

(2) Proinsulin A-Peptide B-Peptide Insulin

Free
(3) Proinsulin A-Peptide B-Peptide
C Peptide

(4) Proinsulin B-Peptide A-Peptide Insulin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Statement-I :- The construction of first r-DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene
encoding antibiotics resistance with a native plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciences.
Statement-II :- Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished r-DNA in 1972 by isolating the
antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for
production of vitamine A.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
61) During the process of isolation of DNA for recombinant DNA technology, purified DNA ultimately
precipitates out after the addition of :

(1) Ethidium bromide

(2) Chilled Ethanol
(3) Gel Electrophoresis
(4) Elution

62) Which of the following pairs of restriction enzymes have restriction site within rop and amp
genes respectively in pBR322 plasmid?

(1) Pvu II, Pvu I

(2) Pst I, Pvu I
(3) HInd III, EcoR I
(4) Cla I, Pst I

63) A circular plasmid was taken and subjected to restriction digestion with multiple restriction
enzymes.
The resultant mixture was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. Observe the figure given below

and choose the incorrect statement

(1) Possibly, completely digested sample is in lane 4

(2) Largest DNA fragment is closest to the wells
(3) Undigested DNA sample is in lane 2
(4) Smallest DNA fragment is closest to anode

64) Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps I and II.
(1) EcoRI and DNA ligase
(2) Hind II and DNA ligase
(3) EcoR I and Hind II
(4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease

65) A functional ADA cDNA can be introduced into cells of the patients receiving gene therapy by
using vector constituted by —

(1) [Link]
(2) Reovirus
(3) Retrovirus
(4) Agrobacterium

66) In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is called -

(1) Elution
(2) Origin of replication
(3) Competency
(4) Transformation

67) Statement I : In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have very few, preferably
single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
Statement II : Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several
fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

68) Read the following statement and choose correct option :-

I. Recombinant DNA technology is used to improve crop plants by increasing their productivity, by
making them more nutritious and by developing disease resistance
II. Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm infestation
III. Bacillus thuringiensis is not harmed by self Cry protein because of its occurrence as protoxin
(inactive)
IV. Protoxin Cry protein is changed into active Cry protein in the stomach of insects due to acidic pH
in stomach

(1) All are correct

(2) I and IV are correct
(3) Only IV is false
(4) All are false

69)

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding recombinant insulin?

(a) In mammals, excluding human insulin is synthesized as pro-hormone.
(b) The C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(c) In 1972, Eli Lilly an American company produced insulin.
(d) Chain A and B are linked by disulphide bridge.
(e) Chains A and B were produced together in plasmid of E. coli.

(1) a, c and d
(2) a, c and e
(3) a, b and e
(4) c, d and e

70) Which of the following is not an incorrect statement ?

In India GEAC will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and safety of
(1)
introducing GM-organism for public services.
Golden rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 varieties of golden rice are grown
(2)
in India.
The Indian Parliament did not do any amendment in the Indian Patent Bill that explain
(3)
biotechnological issues.
(4) In 1897 a cow, Rosie was developed which produced milk rich in vit B12.

71) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Each restriction endonuclease functions by ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of the so called
(2)
molecular scissors
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with the
(3)
enzyme Restriction endonuclease
(4) Gel electrophoresis can also be used for checking the progress of restriction digestion.

72)

Which of the following gene encodes for protein controlling growth of corn borer?
(1) cry I Ac
(2) cry II Ac
(3) cry I Ab
(4) cry II Ab

73) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II
(A) Bt cotton (i) Vitamin-A enriched
(B) RNA i (ii) Oil eating bug
(C) Golden Rice (iii) Insect resistance plant
Pseudomonas Nematode resistance
(D) (iv)
putida plant
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

74) Select the incorrect statement :-

Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign gene)
(1)
are known as transgenic animals.
Transgenic animals can not be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are
(2)
regulated.
Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes contribute
(3)
to the developement of disease.
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
(4)
used on humans.

75) Assertion: Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improve its nutritional quality by increasing
vitamin-B12
Reason: LAB, when present in human stomach, check disease causing microbes.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct

76)

(i) Penicillium notatum yield penicillin.

(ii) Full potential of penicillin is studied by chain and florey.
(iii) Penicillin was used to treat wounded soldiers in world war III.

(1) T T T
(2) F T F
(3) T T F
(4) F T T

77) Statement-I : Glomus absorbs sodium from soil and also provide resistant to root born
pathogens.
Statement-II : Baculoviruses are pathogens which kills insect, arthropodes, mammals and fishes.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Both statements are incorrect
(4)

78) Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for :-

(1) Species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal applications.

(2) Species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal applications.
(3) Species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
(4) Species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal applications.

79) The given figure shows the sewage treatment with few steps are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4. In
which of the following options, correct word for all the four numbers (1,2,3 and 4) are indicated.

(1) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic

(2) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – Low, 4 – Anaerobic
(3) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 –Low, 4 – Aerobic
(4) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic

80) Functioning of statin is based on

(1) Competitive inhibition

(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Allosteric inhibition
(4) Negative feed back inhibition

81) Consider the following statements.

I. Yeast used in making bread and beverages is a prokaryotic fungus.
II. Streptokinase is produced by Streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot
buster.
III. Lipases are added in detergent for removing only stains from laundry.
IV. Pectinases are used in clearing fruit juices.
Which of the statement given above are correct?

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) III and IV

82) Consider the following statements about Bt.

I. The bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used to control butterfly catterpillers.
II. Fresh spores of Bt are mixed with water and sprayed on plants such as brassicas and fruit trees.
III. Insect larvae, after eating these are killed by the toxin released in their gut.
IV. Bt toxin genes have been introduced into plants to provide resistance to insect pests.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

83) Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column I Column II

a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma

b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium

c. statins (iii) Aspergillus

d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(ii)

84) Match different organisms in column-I with their uses in column-II and select the correct answer
from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
Lactobacilus
(A) (i) Formation of dough
acidophilus
Saccharomyces
(B) (ii) Single cell proteins
cerevisiae
Propionibacterium
(C) (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
sharmanii
(D) Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

85)

High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that

(1) Water is pure

(2) Water is highly polluted
(3) Water is less polluted
(4) Consumption of inorganic matter in the water is higher by the microbes

86) Which of the following option is incorrect?

A. Streptokinase-Clot buster
B. Pectinase -Clarification of juice
C. Cyclosporin-A -Blood-cholesterol lowering agent
D. Statins -Immunosuppressive agent

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B only
(4) C and D only

87) Read the following statements and state true (T) or false (F).
A. Conventional farming is a holistic approach that seek to develop an understanding of the webs
of interaction between the myriad of organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora.
B: The use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce the dependence on toxic chemicals
and pesticides.
C. Baculoviruses are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with water and
sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as Brassicas and fruit trees.
D. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems

(1) A(T), B(T), C(T), D(T)

(2) A(T), B(T), C(F), D(T)
(3) A(F), B(T), C(F), D(T)
(4) A(F), B(T), C(T), D(T)

88) Read following statements regarding biofertilisers

A. In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser.
B. Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
[Link] bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into inorganic forms, which is used by the plant as
nutrient.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A is incorrect
(3) Only C is incorrect
(4) Both A and C are incorrect

89) Identify the labels (i to iv) in a typical biogas plant and select the correct option:
 (I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) Digester Dung and water Sludge Gas collector

(2) Gas holder Slurry Digester Sludge

(3) Gas holder Sludge Digester Slurry

(4) Digester Methane gas Dung and water Sludge

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. Find out the correct
sequence.
a. Fragmentation of DNA
b. Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale
c. Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
d. Extraction of the desired product
e. Isolation of DNA
f. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
g. Transferring the recombinaut DNA into the host

(1) e → a → f → c → b → d
(2) e → f → a → g → b → d
(3) a → e → c → g → d → b
(4) e → a → f → c → b → d
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 1 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Pitch = (Component of along )

⇒ P2 = P0

2)

Net force on a current carrying loop in uniform magnetic field is zero. Hence the loop can’t
translate. So, options (c) and (d) are wrong.

From Fleming's left hand rule we can see that if magnetic field is perpendicular to paper
inwards and current in the loop is clockwise (as shown) the magnetic force on each
element of the loop is radially outwards so, the loops will have a tendency to expand.

3) Question Explanation:
Calculate the net magnetic force acting on a multi-segment wire in a uniform magnetic field.
Concept:
Magnetic Force on a Current-Carrying Wire. Solution:
The total magnetic force on any wire in a uniform magnetic field depends only on the current,
the field strength, and the vector displacement between the start and end points of the wire
. Identify Start and End Points: The wire begins at point A and ends at point C.
Determine Displacement Vector : The horizontal segment AB is . The vertical distance
between B and C is . The net displacement magnitude is . Calculate
Force: Current (I) = . Magnetic Field (B) = . Since the wire is in the plane and the field
is perpendicular (into the page), . . Final Answer:
Option (2)

4) Hint : Force = iℓB

F1 =

F2 =
 ∴ Fnet =

5) Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

6) , E = VB

= 0.5 V/m

7)

Statement–1 is False, Statement–2 is True.

8) Question Explanation: The question asks to find valid values of ∈r and μr for a diamagnetic
material.
Concept: Magnetic properties of matter and Dielectrics.
Solution:

Diamagnetism: .
Since is negative, .
Permittivity: for all matter.
and .

Final Answer: Option (2)

9) Length PS = {r = radius of circular part of loop}

FPS = iℓB =
length PQR = 2 r
FPQR =

10) For complex circular motion

Since it is deflection by 60°

 =

11)

= = 5 × 105 A/m.

12)

Along y

Net speed =

13) Explaining : To predict the path of electron in a uniform magnetic field.

Concept : This question is based on force on moving charge in magnetic field is .

Solution : Clearly, angle between and is 90°. So, motion is circular.
=

=
Final Answer : (3)

14)

i = 95.5
.

15) r = ⇒ P = qBr
P ∝ q (B, r → same)

16)

Ans.
17) FB = weight

ℓ = (0.075) ℓ

= 0.075
⇒ r = 3.33 mm

18) By the work energy theorem,

Change in kinetic energy = work done by all the forces.

so

19)

20)
Initially particle will start moving along . Which is parallel is . since therefore

is zero always.

21) μ ε =
0 0

22)
rA > rB

So
mAvB > mBvB

23) Concept:
Properties of electromagnetic waves.

Calculation:
For an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum, the relationship between the magnitudes of the
electric field Eo, the magnetic field Bo the wave number k, and angular frequency ω is given by
Eo = cBo
c is the speed of light in vacuum
 ω = ck

c=

Final Answer: The correct option is (1).

24)

Explain Question:
To find the phase difference between the electric field vector and magnetic field vectors in an
elector magnetic wave.

Concept:
Electron magnetic wave and phase difference.

Solution:
In vacuum and are always in phase for EM waves. and so oscillate together not
altemately.

Final answer: option (1)

25)

Question Explanation:
Momentum on reflection.

Concept:
Radiation Pressure.

Solution:
When radiation of energy E strikes a surface, it carries momentum . For a perfectly
reflecting surface, the radiation bounces back with the same momentum but in the opposite
direction.
The change in momentum (momentum transferred) is:

Final Answer: Option (2)

26) Explain Question:

A charged particle moves through perpendicular electric and magnetic fields and continues
undeflected along the x-axis, so the electric and magnetic forces must balance each other.

Concept:
Motion of charge in electric and magnetic field.

Solution:
When a charge particle move in electric field such that velocity Electric field and magnetic
field all are perpendicular to each other and charge remain undeviated than

⇒ qE = qVB ⇒ B =

⇒B=
B = 103 wb/m2

Final answer: Option (2)

27) Explaining : To find the direction of and in an EMW.

Concept : This question is based on direction of propagation of EMW is along × .
Solution : For propagation in +Z direction × must be along direction
Final Answer : (3)

28)

29) 1. Explain Question: Given displacement current in a capacitor, find the time-dependent
form of applied AC voltage.

2. Concept: Displacement current in a capacitor is proportional to the time derivative of

voltage.
3. Solution: Displacement current is given by:

We are given:
Id = V0ωCcos(ωt)
To find voltage V, integrate Id :

So, the applied voltage is:

V=V0sin⁡(ωt)
answer: 1

30) Question Explanation: Compare electric field intensities for two bulbs of different power
at same distance.
Concept: Intensity I ∝ P and I ∝ E2 ⇒ E ∝

Formula:
Calculation:
Final Answer: Option (3)

31)
E0 = B0C = 1.2 × 10–7 × 3 × 108

= 36

E = 36sin (0.5 × 103 × 1.5 × 1011t)

32) Explaining : To predict the correct graph for displacement current.

Concept : This question is based on Displacement current, .

Solution : ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1
displacement current = id

=ε
0

id = ε0(4t - 3)
graph will be straight line with positive slope and negative y-intercept.
Final Answer : (3)

33)

Explain the Question : The question asks which physical situation can generate a
propagating electromagnetic wave.
Concept : This question is based on electromagnetic waves
Solution : A stationary charge produces only an electric field.
A charge moving with constant velocity produces steady electric and magnetic fields but no
radiation.
A chargeless particle cannot produce electromagnetic waves.
An accelerating charge emits electromagnetic radiation.
Final Answer : (3)

34) Question Explanation: The question asks to find the direction of propagation (velocity) of
an electromagnetic wave in relation to the electric field (E) and magnetic field (B).

Concept: Basic of electromagnetic wave

Solution:
The velocity (direction of propagation) of an electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to both the
electric and magnetic fields.
The velocity of the wave is:
Final Answer : Option (2)

35)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which law maxwell modified to explain EM waves.
Concept:
Dispalcement current, Ampere's law
Solution:
Maxwell introducing the displacement current to amperes' circuital law; this is essential to
complete the symmetry among the laws of electromagnetism.

Final Answer: Option (​4)

36) e = Bvℓsinθ
= 5.0 × 10–5 × 1.50 × 2 × sin 90° = 15 × 10–5
= 0.15 × 10–3 V = 0.15 mV

37)

VR2 + VC2 = V2 ⇒ VC =

38) Explain Question:

Determine the correct graph for induced emf versus time based on the provided current
versus time graph.

Concept:

Induced emf is proportional to the negative rate of change of current,

Solution:

Current i increases linearly, so is a positive constant.

Induced emf e = –L(positive constant) = negative constant.

Current i is constant, so
Induced emf e = 0.
Current i decreases linearly, so is a negative constant.
Induced emf e = –L(negative constant) = positive constant.

Current i is constant at zero, so e = 0.

Matching these intervals, the graph shows a negative constant block, then zero, then a positive
constant block.

Final Answer: Option (2)

39) Explanation:
1. Problem Explanation:
A circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 0.005 T. The radius of the loop is
shrinking at 1 mm/s. We need to find the induced EMF when the radius is 2 cm.

[Link]:
Faraday's Law

[Link]:
The induced EMF is given by Faraday's Law:

where magnetic flux,

Φ = BA = Bπr2

[Link]:
Differentiating both sides:

e = B.
Since A = πr2,

so,

Given:
• B = 0.025T
• r = 2 cm = 0.02 m

• = –1 mm/s = -0.0001 m/s

Substituting values :
e = 0.025 × 2π × 0.02 × 0.01
e= π × 10–6 V = πμV

4. Correct Answer:
Option 3: π μV

40) Question Explanation : To find induced emf in coil after 3Sec if ϕ = 5t3 100t + 300
–
Concept: Induced EMF

Solution:
ϕ = 5t3 – 100t + 300

E(at t = 3s) = – [15(3)2 – 100]

= –35 Volt
Magnitude of emf at t = 3s
= 35 V

Final answer: Option (3)

41) Explain Question:

To Find Potential difference between 'P' and 'Q' as given data

Concept:
KVL including Inductor.

Solution:
I = 3A

vP – 3 × 2 + 3 – 3 × 1 – 0.8 × 2 – 3 × 2 = vQ
vP – vQ = 13.6 V

Final answer: Option (4)

42) Explain the Question : To find direction of induced current in A and B as given figure.
Concept : This question is based on Lenz's law.
Solution : In 'A' velocity parallel to wire so change in flux zero so no EMI will be observed.
In 'B' loop is moving away from wire so flux is decreasing so current will flow such that
magnetic field should be in inward to plane.
Final Answer : (1)

43)

44) r.m.s. value of wattless current =

0
In this question i = 1A and So r.m.s. value of wattless current =

45) Question Explanation: Find final (steady state) current after the key is inserted.
Concept: In steady state: Inductor behaves as short circuit
Solution:
 When key is closed, behaviour of L behave as short circuit.
Current in 10Ω = zero
Final Answer : Option(4)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Correct answer option number (4).

47)

Correct answer option number (1).

48) SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives Silicic acid Si(OH)4.

49) SnCl2 acts as reducing agent because Sn4+ is more stable than Sn2+.

50)

Correct answer option number (2).

51)

Question Explanation – The question asks for the total number of terminal hydrogen atoms
in diborane (B2H6).

Concept – Structure of Diborane.

"Terminal" means at the end.

In B2H6, there are four hydrogen atoms directly bonded to a single boron atom, and these are
the terminal hydrogens.

Final Answer : (2)

52)
Correct answer option number (3).

53)

Explain Question:
Identity which given order is correct for group-15 hydrides.

Concept:
Basicity, Reducing Nature, Bond Angle

Solution:
• NH3< PH3 <AsH3 (Basic property) – Incorrect; basicity decreases down the group (NH3 >
PH3 > AsH3).
• NH 3> PH3 <AsH3 (reducing property) – Incorrect; basicity nature increases down the group
(NH3 < PH3 < AsH3).
• NH3< PH3 <AsH3 (bond angle) – incorrect: bond angle decreases down the group (NH3 >
PH3 > AsH3)
• None of this –– Correct because all three given orders are wrong.

Final Answers: Option (4)

54)

Theory based.

55)
(I) (II) (III)

56) Explaining : What is formula for carbon suboxide?

Concept : This question is based on structure based.
Solution : O=C=C=C=O
Final Answer : (4)

57) Explaining : About basic acid acidic behaviour.

Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Weak monobasic lewis acid, nota protonic acid.
Final Answer : (1)

58) 2MnO4– + H2O + I– →2MnO2 + 2OH– + IO3–

59) Acidified K2Cr2O7 (oxidising agent)

 60) Oxidation state of d-block elements
(ns)e–1s + (n – 1)d unpaired e–1s
Mn = 4s2 3d5
= 2 + 5 ⇒ +2 —→ +7
(+2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7)

61)

Explain Question : Identify a pair which have same magnetic moment

Concept : This question is based on Magnetic moment

Solution : Co3+ & Fe2+ have (d6) same no. of unpaired e⊝ (4 unpaired e⊝), Same magnetic
momoment
{ n = no. of unpaired e⊝ (s)

Final Answer : option (1)

62) NCERT Pg. # 219

63) Question Explanation: Identifying the most acidic oxide of Manganese.

Concept: Acidic Nature of Oxides and Oxidation State.
Solution: The acidity of a metal oxide increases as the oxidation state of the metal
increases.

A. Mn3​O4​: Mn+8/3 (Mixed oxide)

B. MnO2​: Mn+4 (Amphoteric)
C. Mn2​O3​: Mn+3 (Amphoteric/Basic)
D. Mn2​O7​:Mn+7 (Most Acidic, it is a liquid and the anhydride of HMnO4​). Final Answer: Mn2
O7​.

64)

Explaining the Question : Identify the species which acts as an oxidising agent.

Concept: Oxidising agent .

Solution :

An oxidising agent is easily reduced.

Eu²⁺ and Yb²⁺ are stable +2 ions and readily oxidise to +3 state, so they act as reducing
 agents.

Ce³⁺ can be oxidised to Ce⁴⁺, so it also behaves as a reducing agent.

Tb⁴⁺ is in high oxidation state and can easily reduce to Tb³⁺, therefore it acts as an oxidising
agent.

Final Answer : Option (4)

65) Question Explanation: Identifying the diamagnetic cation.

Concept: Diamagnetism and Electronic Configuration.
Solution: A diamagnetic cation has no unpaired d−electrons (d10 or d0).

A. Mn2+(d5):n=5.
B. Zn2+(d10):n=0.
C. Cr3+(d3):n=3.
D. Fe3+(d5):n=5. Final Answer: Zn2+

66) Question Explanation: Identify the most common oxidation state shown by lanthanoids.
Concept: Lanthanide oxidation state
Solution: Lanthanoids exhibit +2, +3, +4 oxidation states, but +3 is most stable due to
removal of two 6s and one 5d electron, leaving a stable 4f configuration.
Final Answer: Option (2).

67) 78Pt = [Xe] 4f14 5d9 6s1

(Exceptional electronic configuration).

68)
0 0 0
Statement (I) is true, Ce+4 has noble gas electronic configuration. as Ce+4 = [Xe] 4f 5d 6s .
Statement (II) is also true due to high reduction potential for Ce4+/Ce3+ (+1.74V), and stability
of Ce3+, Ce4+ acts as strong oxidizing agent.

69)

Mn :- [Ar]3d54s2
Mn+2 :- [Ar]3d5
Mn+3 :- [Ar]3d4

70)

Question Explanation : Identify which Cu(II) halide cannot exist due to redox instability.
Concept : This question is based on Cu2+ oxidizes iodide to iodine, preventing stable CuI2
formation.
Solution : Cu(II) iodide is not known because Cu2+ is a strong oxidizing ion and oxidizes I– to
I2. During this reaction, Cu2+ itself gets reduced to Cu+, forming Cu2I2 instead of CuI2. Hence,
CuI2 cannot exist as a stable compound.
Final Answer : 2

71) Question Explanation: Identify which ion forms a colorless aqueous solution.
Concept: Color and Electronic Configuration in d-block Ions.
Solution:
Fe2+ (d6), Mn2+ (d6), Ti3+ (d1) → all have unpaired electrons → coloured.
0
Sc3+ has d configuration → no d–d transition → colourless.
Final Answer: Option (4)

72)

Asking for : Number of ions furnished by complex K4​[Fe(CN)6​] in solution

Concept : Ionic compounds dissociate into their constituent ions in solution.

Solution:
Complex salts dissociate into simple cations and complex anions.

K4​[Fe(CN)6​] is a complex salt.

In aqueous solution, it dissociates into four potassium ions (4K+) and one complex ion
hexacyanoferrate(II) ion ([Fe(CN)6​]4−).

Therefore, the total number of ions present in the solution is 4 + 1 = 5.

Answer : Option : 4

73)

Question Explanation: Identify complex releasing three chloride ions with AgNO₃ treatment.

Concept :

Outer-sphere Cl⁻ → gives AgCl precipitate

Inner-sphere Cl⁻ (coordinated) → does not precipitate with AgNO₃

Solution :

[Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ → 3 Cl⁻ outside → 3 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ → 2 Cl⁻ outside → 2 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl → 1 Cl⁻ outside → 1 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃] → 0 Cl⁻ outside → 0 mol AgCl

Only the first complex produces 3 moles of AgCl.

Final Answer: Option (1)

74)

Page-242, NCERT-XII, Part-I

75)

Question Explanation: We need to arrange ligands based on increasing crystal field splitting
strength.

Concept: Crystal field theory

Solution:
Spectrochemical series (weak → strong field): Cl⁻ < F⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < NO₂⁻ < CN⁻
Matching with given options → option (1)

Final Answer: Option (1)

76) It shows geometrical isomerism. One form is trans, the other form cis shows optical
isomerism also and exists in d-and l-form. So, total stereoisomers are 3.

77)
As is a weak field ligand, therefore outer hybridization takes place and has
tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic character.

78)

Stronger the ligand, higher will be the splitting Ligand strength order is Cl– < NH3 < CN–

79)

Question Explanation:
The question is asking about arranging the complexes in decreasing numbers of unpaired
electrons.

Concept:
Unpaired electrons depend on d-count, ligand field.

Solution:
Let's find unpaired electrons in each complex:
I. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ Fe2+ → d6, H2O weak field → high spin → 4unpaired electrons
II. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ Cr3+ → d3, NH3 strong field → 3 unpaired electrons
III. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ Ni2+ → d8, NH3 strong field → 2 unpaired electrons
IV. [FeF6]3– Fe3+ → d5, F- weak field → high spin → 5 unpaired electrons
​Now arrange in decreasing (highest → lowest):
IV (5) > I (4) > II (3) > III (2)
 Final Answer: Option(1)

80) NCERT XIIth Pg # 250, Example Q. 7

81) Explain Question:

The question is asking about the coordination number of in the complex [Ni(C2O4)3]4–.

Concept:
Coordination number equals ligating atom count.

Solution:
Each oxalate (C2O42–) is a bidentate ligand, meaning it through two donor atoms.
There are 3 oxalate ligands, each bonating 2 bonds → total coordination number = 3 × 2 = 6

Final Answer: Option (2)

82)

Explain Question: Find complex with greatest CFSE value.

Concept: CFSE increases with higher oxidation state, strong-field ligands, and octahedral low-
spin geometry.
Solution:
[Co(CN)6]3– → Co3+, strong -field (CN), octahedral low-spin → maximum CFSE.
[Co(CN)6]4– → Co2+, strong -field, octahedral → lower CFSE than Co3+.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+→ Fe3+, weak -field (H2O) → lower CFSE.
[Co(H2O)6]2+→ Co2+, weak -field → minimum CFSE.
Final answer: Option (1)

83)

Explanation:
The question asks you to identify which coordination complex is incorrectly matched with its
type of isomerism. You need to analyze each complex and the isomerism associated with it to
find the mismatch.

Concept: (Isomerism & Coordination complexes) 4. [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ......Hydrated

Isomerism, incorrectly marked because

A. Hydrated isomerism involves water molecules as ligands or outside the coordination sphere.
B. [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 contains only ammonia and chloride ligands, with no water present.

Final Answer: Option (4)

84) Explanation :
The question asks to identify the type of isomerism exhibited by the two given coordination
compounds.
Concept :
Isomerism

Solution :
[Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4] and [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] are coordination isomers. This type of isomerism
occurs when ligands are exchanged between the cationic and anionic complex ions of a
coordination compound, resulting in different coordination entities.

85) Explanation :
The question asks you to select the correct order for the wavelength of absorption of visible
light for the given chromium(III) coordination complexes.

Concept :
Crystal Field Theory (CFT).

Solution :
The wavelength of absorption is inversely proportional to Δ0. The spectrochemical series is Cl–
< H2O < NH3 < CN–, indicating increasing Δ0.
Therefore, the order of decreasing Δ0 (increasing wavelength) is :
[CrCl6]3– > [Cr(H2O)6]3+ > [Cr(NH3)6]3+ > [Cr(CN)6]3–

86)

Explain Question: Identify salt giving brown ring and NH₃ gas

Concept: This question is based on Brown ring test

Solution : Brown ring test confirms NO₃⁻ ion. With NaOH and heat, NH₄⁺ salt gives NH₃ gas.
Only NH₄NO₃ contains both NH₄⁺ (gives NH₃) and NO₃⁻ (brown ring test).

Final Answer: Option (1)

87)

Question Explanation :
Question is asking about the colour that does not gie blue lake test.

Concept :
This question is based on Blue lake test.

Solution :

Blue lake test is given by Al+3. It is based on adsorption principle where blue litmus solution is
absorbed by a electrons aluminium hydroxide precipitate, creating a coloured "lake" that floats
on the solution.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : Al3+
 88)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the ion that gives red precipitate on addition of DMG.
Concept:-
Colour of precipitate, Colour of solution, general reaction
Solution :- The ion that gives a red precipitate on addition of dimethylglyoxime (DMG) is
Ni2+ (nickel(II)).
Final Answer :- 3

89)

A–i; B–iii; C–iv; D–ii

90)

Question Explanation :
Question asking about ions that form Reddish Brown ppt.

Concept :
This question is based on Colour of compounds, precipitate.

Solution :

When Cu+2 ions react with potassium ferrocyanide [K4[Fe(CN)6]] a chocolate brown precipitate
of Cu2[Fe(CN)6] (cupnic ferrocyanide) is formed so answer will be Cu+2 and [Fe(CN)6]–4

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Cu+2 and [Fe(CN)6]–4

BIOLOGY

91) Solution: Meischer identified Nuclein. Chargaff proposed the base ratios. Watson and
Crick proposed the Double Helix. Griffith observed transformation.
Final Answer : (1)

92) Solution: UUU codes for Phenylalanine. AUG codes for Methionine/Start. UAA is a Stop
codon. GGG codes for Glycine.
Final Answer : (1)

93) Solution: The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to
\beta-galactosides.
Final Answer : (3)

94) Solution: i gene codes for repressor. z gene codes for beta-gal. Promoter is binding site.
Lactose is inducer.
Final Answer : (1)

95)

Correct answer option number (2).

96)

Question Explanation: The question asks whether the objectives of HGP and the principle
of DNA fingerprinting are correct and if one explains the other.

Concept: Genome sequencing and polymorphism

Solution: HGP aimed to sequence the entire human genome and identify all genes. DNA
fingerprinting uses polymorphic DNA regions like VNTRs for individual identification. Both
statements are correct but independent concepts.

Final Answer: Option [Link] A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

97) Concept: Statistics of HGP.

Solution: (A) is incorrect because the average gene consists of 3,000 bases (not 30,000). (B)
and (C) are correct.

Correct Answer: B and C

98)

Question Explanation: The question asks how mutation in the promoter region can affect the
functioning of the lac operon.

Concept: Lac operon and Mutation

Solution:
The promoter is the binding site for RNA polymerase. If a mutation alters this region, RNA
polymerase cannot bind effectively, so transcription of lac genes does not occur even when
lactose is available.

Final Answer: Option [Link] A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

99)

Correct answer option number (2).

100)

Correct answer option number (4).

101)

Correct answer option number (4).

102)

Correct answer option number (2).

103)

Correct answer option number (2).

104)

Correct answer option number (2).

105)

Correct answer option number (4).

106)

Correct answer option number (1).

107)

Correct answer option number (2).

108)

Correct answer option number (4).

109)

Correct answer option number (1).

110) Capping = methyl guanosine addition,

Tailing = poly A addition,
Splicing = removal of introns,
hnRNA = primary transcript

111) This shows termination of transcription which requires Rho factor.

112)
Question Explanation: Structure and types of chromatin.

Concept: Euchromatin and Heterochromatin

Solution: Statement I is correct; nucleosomes are the repeating units of chromatin and
appear like 'beads-on-string' under an electron microscope. Statement II is false; Euchromatin
is transcriptionally active and loosely packed, while heterochromatin is inactive and densely
packed.

Final Answer: 4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

114)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct statements about genetic
disorders.

Concept: Human genetics – Mendelian disorders.

Solution:

A. (a) Haemophilia → sex-linked recessive → Correct

B. (b) Phenylketonuria → autosomal recessive → Correct

C. (c) Sickle cell anaemia → autosomal recessive (not X-linked) → Incorrect

Final Answer: Option (1)

115)

Explain Question: Thye question asks that which of the given options is not proposed by
Mendel.

Concept: Incomplete Dominance.

Solution: Mendel did not propose incomplete Dominance.

So, the correct answer is: 2.

Final answer: Option 2

116) NCERT 12th Class : 4.8.2 Mendelian Disorders

 117) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-4) [Link] Co-dominance

118) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-4) 4.3.3 Linkage and Recombination

119)

Correct answer option number (3).

120)

Correct answer option number (2).

121)

Correct answer option number (4).

122)

Explanation:

A. A (Rr × Rr): This is a monohybrid cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
B. B (Rr × rr): This is a monohybrid test cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1.
C. C (RrYy × RrYy): This is a dihybrid cross, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.
D. D (RrYy × rryy): This is a dihybrid test cross involving heterozygous and homozygous
recessive individuals, and the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1:1:1.

So, the correct combination is A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 3.

123)

Correct answer option number (3).

124)

Question explanation: The question asks to find probabilities of different genotypes from the
cross AaBB × AABb.

Concept: Dihybrid cross

Solution:
Parent gametes:
AaBB → AB, aB
AABb → AB, Ab

Possible offspring:
AABB = 1/4
AaBB = 1/4
AABb = 1/4
AaBb = 1/4

No possibility of aabb. Matching with given options, correct pattern corresponds to option 1.

Final answer: 1 (Option 1)

125)

Correct answer option number (2).

126)

Correct answer option number (1).

127)

Correct answer option number (4).

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 74 (2022 edition) Figure 4.15

129)

Correct answer option number (4).

130)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 82, Table 5.3

131)

Correct answer option number (1).

132)

NCERT Pg. No. 83

133)

Correct answer option number (3).

134)

Correct answer option number (1).

135)

Correct answer option number (2).

136)

NCERT Pg. No. 169

137)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement related to
biotechnology tools and techniques.

Concept: The question is based on biotechnology

Solution: The incorrect statement is Option 4

A. Option 1: Correct → Bam HI restriction site is indeed present in the tetracycline

resistance region of pBR322.

B. Option 2: Correct → DNA fragments can be visualized under UV light after staining
with ethidium bromide.

C. Option 3: Correct → Agrobacterium tumefaciens is considered a natural genetic

engineer because it transfers T-DNA into plant cells.

D. Option 4: Incorrect → In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments resolve according to size

(length of fragments), not base sequence.

Final Answer: Option 4

138)

Assertion is false but reason is true.

139)

Explaining the Question: This question asks how many statements (a–d) about DNA
technology, enzymes and plasmid pBR322 are correct.

Concept: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

Solution: b. For isolation of DNA from plant cell cellulose enzymes are used.
True – Cellulase breaks cellulose cell wall.

c. The restriction enzyme breaks the phosphate sugar backbone in DNA.

 True – Restriction endonucleases cut the phosphodiester bonds..

Final Answer: Option 2

140) Question Explanation: Asking to match the correct option.

Concept: Transgenic
Soluion: Animals / Emphysema

(A) α-antitrypsin (iv) Emphysema

(B) Rosie cow (iii) Alpha lactalbumin

(C) Polio vaccine (ii) Mice

(D) P.C.R. (i) Molecular diagonosis

(E) Super bug (v) Pseudomonas putida

Final Answer: Option (1)

141) NCERT Pg.# 182

142)

Correct answer option number (1).

143) NCERT XII Pg # 195, 200

144) NCERT Pg. # 195, 196

145) Explaining : Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

146)

Correct answer option number (3).

147)

Question Explanation: The question is asking which one of the given pairs correctly matches
the term with its description.

Concept: Insertional inactivation and identification of recombinants

Solution: In insertional inactivation, when a gene is inserted into a selectable marker site,
that marker loses its function. This helps differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants,
which matches the given description correctly.

Final Answer: 1

148) The first recombinant DNA was created by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer by linking
an antibiotic-resistant gene to a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium. This marked the
beginning of genetic engineering.

149)

NCERT XII Pg # 182, Fig. 10.3

150)

Correct answer option number (2).

Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

151) NCERT Pg.#201

152) Ncert page 169.

153)

Correct answer option number (3).

154) Ncert Page 166.

155)

Correct answer option (3).

156) Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

157) Solution : Both statements are correct.

Final Answer : (1)

158)

Question Explanation: We must evaluate each statement about rDNA technology and Bt
toxins, then select the correct option.

Concept: Application of Biotechnology in agriculture.

Solution:

A. rDNA technology helps improve crops by increasing yield, nutrition, and disease
resistance - TRUE

B. Bt cotton protects against bollworm due to Bt toxin production - TRUE

C. Bacillus thuringiensis produces Cry toxin as protoxin, so it does not harm the bacterium -
TRUE

D. Protoxin becomes active in alkaline pH(MIDGUT), not acidic pH(STOMACH) — FALSE

Final answer: Option 3

159)

Explanation :-The question asks to identify the in correct statement (s) regarding recombinant
insulin.

Concept : - This question is based on :- Genetically engineering insulin.

Solution:-
Statement (A) is incorrect because, In mammals, including Human, not excluding human
insulin is synthesized as a pro- hormone
Statement (C) is incorrect because, in 1983 not in 1972, eli lily an American company
produced insulin.
Statement (E) is incorrect because chains A as were separately produced not together in
plasmid of e coli

Answer :- a, c and e

160)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statement about biotechnology and
regulations is correct.

Concept: Ethical Issues

Solution:

A. Correct → GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) → Approves GM research &

release in India

B. Incorrect → Golden rice is rich in Vitamin A, NOT known for aroma/flavour .

 C. Incorrect → Indian Patent Bill → Was amended to include biotechnology issues (2005).

D. Incorrect → Rosie produced human α-lactalbumin enriched milk, not vitamin B12.

Final answer: Option 1

161)

Question Explanation: We must find the incorrect statement about tools used in
recombinant DNA technology.

Concept: Recombinant DNA technology

Solution: Statement 3 says that linking antibiotic-resistance gene with plasmid vector became
possible because of restriction endonuclease.

This is incorrect because cutting is done by restriction enzyme, but joining is done by DNA
ligase.

Final answer: Option 3

162)

Solution:
• Cry I Ab is a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) that encodes a protein toxic to the corn
borer.

Hence,
Correct option: (3) cry I Ab

163)

Correct answer option number (1).

164) Explanation :
The assertion asks to identify the incorrect statement about transgenic animals from the given
options.

Concept :
The concept based on transgenic animals.

Solution :
Statement-(2) is incorrect one because transgenic animals can be specifically designed to
allow the study of how genes are regulated.

Final Answer : (2)

165)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the role of lactic acid bacteria (LAB) in
improving the nutritional quality of food and their function in the human stomach.

Concept: Microbes in human welfare

Solution:

A. Assertion (A) is correct: LAB not only curdle milk but also improve its nutritional quality
by increasing vitamin B12 content.

B. Reason (R) is correct: LAB in the human stomach help inhibit disease-causing microbes,
promoting gut health.

C. However, the Reason (R) explains a different function of LAB (protection against
pathogens) and does not explain how LAB improve nutritional quality of milk.

Final answer: Option 2

166)

OLD NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

167)

Explain Question – The question asks us to check correctness of two statements: one about
Glomus (a mycorrhizal fungus) and the other about Baculoviruses.

Concept – Mycorrhiza (Glomus) and Biological control agents (Baculoviruses)

Solution –

Statement I: Incorrect. Glomus (an arbuscular mycorrhizal fungus) helps in absorption of

phosphorus (not sodium) and provides resistance to root-borne pathogens.

Statement II: Incorrect. Baculoviruses are pathogens specific to insects and arthropods only,
especially useful in biological pest control. They do not infect mammals or fishes.

Final answer – Option 4

168)

OLD NCERT-XII, Pg. # 187

169)
Correct answer option number (2).

170) Ncert Pg No: 153, Edition-2022

171)

Ncert Pg No: 153, Edition-2022

172) Ncert Pg No: 157, Edition-2022

173) Ncert Pg No:

174)

Correct answer option number (2).

175)

Correct answer option number (2).

176) NCERT P. No. 183

177)

Organic farming is a holistic approach. Bt spores are available in sachets.

178) NCERT Pg # 158

179)

NCERT XII pg- 186

180)

Correct answer option number (4).