10-12-2025

7101CMD303003250012 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two identical wires of different materials have Young’s modulii of elasticity as 22 ×1010N/m2 and
11×1010N/m2 respectively. If these are stretched by equal loads then the ratio of extensions
produced in them will be

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

2) When a force is applied at one end of an elastic wire, it produces a strain E in the wire. If Y is the
Young's modulus of the material of the wire, the amount of energy stored per unit volume of the wire
is given by :-

(1) Y × E

(2)
(Y × E)
(3) Y × E2

(4)
(Y × E2)

3) A steel wire of cross-sectional area 3×10–6m2 can withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. Young's
modulus of steel is 2×1011 N/m2. The maximum mass the wire can hold is (Take g = 10m/s2):-

(1) 40kg
(2) 60kg
(3) 80kg
(4) 100kg

4) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in the figure. The breaking stress of the metal is (40/3π) × 106 N/m2. If g = 10 m/s2, then what

should be the minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 2 mm

5) Potential energy stored in the wire per unit volume is (A = stress, B = Young's Modulus):-

(1) A/2B
(2) 2.B/A2
(3) A2/2B
(4) B2/2A

6) The breaking stress for a wire of radius 'r' of given material is F N/m2. The breaking stress for the
wire of same material of radius '2r' is :

(1) F/4
(2) F/2
(3) F
(4) 2F

7) Which statement is correct :-

(1) steel is more elastic than rubber

(2)
the elastic potential energy stored in the wire is .
(3) the breaking stress of a wire depends on material of wire.
(4) All of these

8) The dimensions of four wires of the same material are given below. In which wire the increase in
length will be maximum when the same tension is applied:-

(1) Length 100 cm, Diameter 1 mm

(2) Length 200 cm, Diameter 2 mm
(3) Length 300 cm, Diameter 3 mm
(4) Length 50 cm, Diameter 0.5 mm

9) The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material and same length is shown in
the figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line :-

(1) OA
(2) OB
(3) OC
(4) OD

10) Value of Young's modules for a substance is 72 N/m2 . If in a system unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of
length is 0.1 m and that of time is 1 sec. Then value of Young's modulus in this system is :

(1) 710
(2) 72 × 10–2
(3) 72 × 10–1
(4) 72

11) A rod of length L, mass M, area A and young's modulus Y is elongated when body of mass 2M is
suspended from it. The elongation will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The density of water is 1.0 g/cm3. The density of the oil in the left column of the U-tube shown

below is :-

(1) 0.20 g/cm3

(2) 0.80 g/cm3
(3) 1.0 g/cm3
(4) 1.3 g/cm3

13) A bucket of water is pushed from left to right with increasing speed across a horizontal surface.
Consider the pressure at two points at the same level in the water :-

(1) It is the same

(2) It is higher at the point on the left
(3) It is higher at the point on the right
(4) At first it is higher at the point on the left but as the bucket speeds up it is lower there

14) A silver ingot weighing 2.6 kg is held by a string so as to be completely immered in a liquid of
relative density 0.8. The relative density of silver 10.4. The tension in the string (in kg-wt) is :

(1) 1.6
(2) 2.4
(3) 3.1
(4) 5.25

15) Figure shows capillary tube C dipped in a liquid that wets it the liquid rises to a point A. If we
blow air through the horizontal tube H. What will happen to the liquid column in the capillary tube ?

(1) level will rise above A

(2) level will fall below A
(3) level will remain at A
(4) It is difficult ot predict

16) A body floats with one-third of its volume outside water and 3/4 of its volume outside another
liquid. The density of another liquid is :-

(1)
g/cc

(2)
g/cc

(3)
g/cc

(4)
g/cc

17) Pressure at the bottom of tank of water is 3P, where P is atmospheric pressure. If the water is
drawn out it till the level of water is lowered by one fifth, then the pressure at the bottom of the tank
is :-

(1) 2P
(2) 13P/5
(3) 8P/5
(4) 4P/5

18) The fraction of a floating object of volume v0 and density d0 above the surface of a liquid of
denisty d will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) In a hydraulic press the small cylinder has a diameter of 'd1' cm, while the large piston has a
diameter of 'd2' cm. If a force 'F1' is applied to a small piston, the force on the large piston 'F2' is
given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much mass can be put on
the raft to make it just sink ?

(1) 120 kg
(2) 200 kg
(3) 40 kg
(4) 80 kg

21) A tank contains water on top of mercury as shown in fig. A cubical block of side 10cm is in
equilibrium inside the tank. The depth of the block inside mercury is (Relative density of the material

of block = 8.56, Relative density of mercury = 13.6) :-

(1) 6 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 7 cm
(4) 8 cm
22) In the given figure, if mass m is removed from the top of cubical block of edge length 10 cm the
block comes up by 3cm, then value of m will be:-

(1) 200 gm
(2) 300 gm
(3) 400 gm
(4) None

23) Water is flowing with velocity 4m/s in a cylinder of diameter 8cm, it is connected to a pipe with it
end tip of diameter 2cm, calculate the velocity of water at this free end :-

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 32 m/s
(4) 64 m/s

24) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4. Then, the
ratio of their volume is :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 27 : 8

25) A water tank resting on the floor has two small holes vertically one above the other. The holes
are h1 cm and h2 cm above the floor. How high does water stand in the tank if the jets from the holes
hits the floor at the same point ?

(1) (h1 + h2)

(2) (h2 – h1)

(3)

(4)
26) If given beaker is moving with acceleration, then :-

(1) θ = 45º
(2) H = 10m
(3) PA > PB
(4) All

27) Water is flowing through two horizontal pipes of different diameters which are connected
together. The diameters of the pipes are 3 cm and 6 cm respectively? In the first pipe the speed of
water is 4 m/sec. and the pressure is 2 × 104 N/m2. Calculate the pressure of water in the second
pipe.

(1) 2.75 × 104 pascal

(2) 5 × 104 pascal
(3) 7.50 × 104 pascal
(4) None of these

28) Water is moving with a speed of 5.0 m/s through a pipe will cross sectional area of 4.0 cm2. The
water gradually descends 10 m as the pipe increase in area to 8.0 cm2. If the pressure at the upper
level is 1.5 × 105 Pa, the pressure at lower level will be:-

(1) 2.8 × 105 Pa

(2) 2.6 × 105 Pa
(3) 2.4 × 105 Pa
(4) 2.1 × 105 Pa

29) A soap bubble is blown slowly at the end of a tube by a pump supplying air at a constant rate.
Which one of the following graphs represents the correct variation of the excess of pressure inside
the bubble with time ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with

glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is , then the viscous force
acting on the ball will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Mg
(4) 2Mg

31) A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What will happen to the
water level if the stones are unloaded into the water:

(1) Rise
(2) Fall
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Rise till half the number of stones are unloaded and then begin to fall

32) A square frame of side L is dipped in a soap solution. When it is taken out of the solution, a film
is formed on it. If the surface tension is T, then force acting on it is :
(1) 2TL
(2) 16 TL
(3) 4 TL
(4) 8 TL

33) When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes
. The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is

(1) MgL

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A pump is designed as a horizontal cylinder with a piston area A and an outlet orifice arranged
near the axis of the cylinder. Find the velocity of outflow of liquid from pump, if the piston moves
with a constant velocity under the action of a constant force F. The density of liquid is ρ (A >> Area

of orifice) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A forces F is applied along a rod of transverse sectional area A. The normal stress to a section

PQ inclined θ to transverse section is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulas of steel and brass wires in the fig. are a, b and
c respectively. then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The minimum horizontal acceleration of the container so that the pressure at point A of the

container becomes atmospheric is (the tank is of sufficient height)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A square slab of lead of side 50 cm and thickness 10 cm is subjected to a shearing force on
narrow face of magnitude 9 × 104 N. The lower edge is riveted to floor.

How much upper edge is displaced if shear modulus of lead is 5.6 ×

9
10 Pa?

(1) 1.6 × 10–4 m

(2) 1.2 × 10–4 m
(3) 2.2 × 10–4 m
(4) 1.8 × 10–3 m

39) An incompressible liquid flows in horizontal plane in streamline flow as shown in the figure. The

speed v of the liquid in branch 2 of the tube is

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 5 m/s

(3)

(4)

40) A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve separating the two identical ends. Initially,
the valve is in a tightly closed position.

End 1 has a hemispherical soap bubble of radius r. End 2 has sub–hemispherical soap bubble as
shown in figure. Just after opening the valve,

(1) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in the volume of the soap bubbles.
(2) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 decreases.
(3) No change occurs
(4) Air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 increases.

41) A vertical communicating tube contains a liquid of density ρ and surface tension T. If it moves
with a horizontal acceleration “a”, pressure at ‘A’ is equal to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The maximum stress that can be applied to the material of a wire employed to suspend an

elevator is × 108 N/m2. If the mass of the elevator is 900 kg and it moves up with an acceleration
of 2.2 m/s2 then calculate the minimum radius of the wire.

(1) 6 mm
(2) 9 mm
(3) 3 mm
(4) 7 mm

43) A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free surface
of water in a container. Taking
g = 10 m/s2 density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is :-

(1) 100 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm
(4) 0.5 cm

44) Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities ρ1
and ρ2(ρ1= 8ρ2) and have radii of 1mm and 2mm, respectively. They are made to fall vertically (from
rest) in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals η and whose density is 0.1 ρ2. The
ratio of their terminal velocities would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A barometer is constructed using a liquid (density = 760 kg/m3). What would be the height of the
liquid column, when a mercury barometer reads 76 cm ?
(density of mercury = 13600 kg/m3)

(1) 1.36 m
(2) 13.6 m
(3) 136 m
(4) 0.76 m

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following compound have 4 carbon atom in the parent chain?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match the following List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Benzene (1) Heterocyclic

(B) Pyridine (2) Alicyclic

(C) Cycloalkane (3) Aliphatic

(D) Alkane (4) Aromatic

The correct match is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) A primary amine has amino group (–NH2) attached to :-

(1) A primary carbon atom only

(2) A secondary carbon atom only
(3) A tertiary carbon atom only
(4) A primary, secondary or tertiary carbon atom
4) Statement-I: is tertiary alcohol.

Statement-II: is tertiary amine.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

5)

Which of the following is heterocyclic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 & 2 both

6)

Which of the following pair represents members of same homologous series

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) How many minimum carbons required for Chain isomerism and Position isomerism in alkanes ?

(1) 4, 5
(2) 3, 5
(3) 4, 6
(4) 4, 4

8) CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism :-

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

9)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The third member of the homologous series of aliphatic aldehydes has the structure :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO
(2) CH3(CH2)2CHO
(3) CH3COCH2CH3
(4) CH3COCH3

11) Which one is not correct for a homologous series ?

(1) All members have a general formula

(2) All members have same chemical properties
(3) All members have same physical properties
(4) All members have same functional group
12) Molar mass (g mol–1) of next homologous member of C5H12 is

(1) 80
(2) 86
(3) 72
(4) 90

13) Which is correct IUPAC name :-

(1) 2-Oxobutane
(2) 1-Methoxyprop-2-ene
(3) 3-Ethylpentane
(4) 3-Methyl propanesulphonic acid

14) Common name of CH3COOH is :-

(1) Formic acid

(2) Acetic acid
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Formaldehyde

15) Which one of the following IUPAC name is correct ?

(1) 2-Methyl-3-ethyl pentane

(2) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl pentane
(3) 3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane
(4) 3-Methyl-2-ethyl pentane

16) The I.U.P.A.C name of the compound having structure is

(1) 3-Methyl-2-ethyl but-1-ene

(2) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
(3) 3-Ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
(4) Ethyl isopropyl ethene

17) IUPAC name of,

is

(1) 4-Butylhepta-1,4-dien-6-yne
(2) 5-Butylhepta-2,5-dien-1-yne
(3) 3-Butyl hepta-1,4-dien-6-yne
(4) 4-Butylhepta-1,6-dien-4-yne
18)
The amine I and II, III are respectively :-

(1) 3°, 2° and 1°

(2) 1°, 2° and 3°
(3) 2°, 2° and 3°
(4) 1°, 3° and 2°

19) The number of functional groups present in the following compounds is :

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 8

20) Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21) What is the number of tertiary carbon atoms present in cubane C8H8 ?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

22)

Number of carbon in parent carbon chain of following structure?

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

23) The suffix of the principal (Main) functional group & the prefixes for the other groups are

(1) –oic acid, hydroxy, Oxo, Chloro, Methyl

(2) –oic acid, hydroxy, formyl, methyl, Chloro
(3) –One, hydroxy, Oxo, Chloro, Methyl
(4) –One, Hydroxy, formyl, methyl, Chloro

24) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

(1) 1-Cyclobutyl-2-propanol
(2) 1-(2-Hydroxypropyl)-Cyclobutane
(3) 2-Heptanol
(4) 1-methyl-2-cyclobutyl ethanol

25)

The IUPAC name of the compound CH2 = CH – CH(CH3)2 is

(1) 1, 1-Dimethylprop-2-ene
(2) 3-Methylbut-1-ene
(3) 2-Vinyl propane
(4) None of these

26)

What is IUPAC name of following compound :-

(1) 1, 2, 3, Trimethyl propane

(2) 3-Ethyl pentane
(3) 3-Methyl hexane
(4) 3-Methyl pentane

27)

The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 4,5-Dimethyl-4-octene
(2) 4,5-Dimethyl-5-octene
(3) 3,4-Dimethyl-5-octene
(4) 2,3-Dipropyl-2-butene

28) IUPAC name will be

(1) Hex-5-en-1-yne
(2) Hex-1-en-5-yne
(3) Hex-6-en-1-yne
(4) Hex-1-en-6-yne

29)

What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

(1) 3,5-diethyl-2-methyl-4-propyloct-5-enoic acid

(2) 4,6-diethyl-7-methyl-5-propyloct-3-enoic acid
(3) 2-methyl-3,5-diethyl-4-propyloct-5-enoic acid
(4) 3-5-diethyl-2-methyl-4-propyloct-6-enoic acid

30) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
(2) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
(3) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
(4) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

31) Correct IUPAC name of compound is :

(1) 3-Ethenyl butanoic acid

(2) 3-Ethynyl butanoic acid
(3) 3-Methyl but-4-enoic acid
(4) 3-Methyl pent-4-enoic acid

32)

The IUPAC name of the structure is :

(1) N-Formylaminoethane
(2) N-Ethylformylamine
(3) Ethylaminometanal
(4) N-Ethylmethanamide

33) IUPAC name of the given compound is:

(1) 1–Acetoxy acetic acid

(2) 2–Acetoxy ethanoic acid
(3) 2– Ethanoyloxy acetic acid
(4) 2– Ethanoyloxy ethanoic acid

34) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(2) 2-carboxy-5-formylecyclohexane
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal

35)

I.U.P.A.C. name of the compound

(1) Benzoic anhydride

(2) Cyclo hexane 1,2 di oic anhydride
(3) Hexane 1,2 di carboxylic anhydride
(4) Cyclo-hexane 1,2 di carboxyllic anhydride

36) The correct IUPAC name of the compound is :

(1) 2-Phenoxycarbonylbenzenecarboxylic acid

(2) Phenyl-2-carboxybenzenecarboxylate
(3) 2-Benzoyloxybenzenecarboxylic acid
(4) 2-Benzyloxycarbonylbenzenecarboxylic acid

37) Isomeric relationship between A and B compound is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Geometrical isomer

38) Total number of possible metamers for C5H12O are :-

(1) 6
(2) 14
(3) 8
(4) 5

39) Find out degree of unsaturation (D.U) in napthalene :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 7

40)
A and B are?

(1) Metamers
(2) Chain isomers
(3) Position isomers
(4) Functional group isomers

41) Total no. of ether formed by C4H10O {only structural isomer}

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

42) Minimum number of C required in Ketone to show position isomer & metamer respectively :-

(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 5
(3) 5, 6
(4) 5, 5

43) Total number of possible alcohols with atleast one cycle for C4H8O :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 5
44) Total number of structural isomers for C4H6Br2 containing cyclobutane Ring are :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

45)

Total number of cyclic structures possible with C4H6:

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

BIOLOGY

1) Reductional division in pteridophytes results in

(1) Prothallus is formed

(2) Gametes are formed
(3) spores are formed
(4) sex organs are formed

2) Observe the following figures and identify the labelled structures P, Q, R, and S:-

P Q R S

Gemma
(1) Archegonio- phore Antheridio- phore Seta
cup

Archegonio-
(2) Antheridio-phores Rhizoids Capsule
phore

Archegonio-
(3) Antheridio-phore Seta Leaves
phore

Gemma
(4) Archegonio-phore Antheridio-phore Capsule
cup
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Statement–1 :- Bryophytes are also called amphibians of plant kingdom. Statement–2 :-

Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for fertilization.

Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not the correct explanation

(1)
of Statement–1.
(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.
Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is the correct explanation of
(4)
Statement–1.

4) Pick up the wrongly match pair :-

(1) Marchantia - Liverwort

(2) Funaria - Moss
(3) Selaginella - Peat moss
(4) Dryopteris - Pteropsida

5) Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B, C and D) :-

A B C D

(1) Porphyra Laminaria Selaginella Chara

(2) Laminaria Equisetum Salvinia Sphagnum

(3) Marchantia Fucus Chara Laminaria

(4) Salvinia Sphagnum Equisetum Laminaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Double fertilization and presence of xylem vessels is the feature of :-

(1) Wolfia, Eucalyptus, Polytrichum.

(2) Wolfia, Eucalyptus, Cycas.
(3) Cycas, Polytrichum, Psilotum.
(4) Wheat, Rice, Gram

7)

Which of the following option indicate correct sequence of primitive to advance groups ?

(1) Pteridophyta → Bryophyta → Angiosperm → Gymnosperm

(2) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Cycadophyta → Coniferophyta
(3) Bryophyta → Algae → Angiosperm → Coniferales
(4) Algae → Bryophyta → Angiosperm → Coniferales

8) Read the following statements about pteridophytes :-

(i) The main plant body is sporophyte.
(ii) The sporophyte is differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves.
(iii) Their gametophyte lack vascular bundle.
(iv) Microphylls are found in Selaginella and macrophylls in the ferns.
(v) Strobili or cones are found in Selaginella and Equisetum.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

9)

Ploidy of Endosperm of Gymnosperm

(1) Triploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Tetraploid
(4) Diploid

10)

Which one is not a precursor requirement of seed habit?

The development of the zygotes into young embryos takes place within the female gametophytes
(1)
of Heterosporous organisms
(2) Heterospory
The female gametophytes in these plants are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable
(3)
periods.
(4) Monoecious Pteridophytes with Heterospory

11) Which of the following is diploid ?

(1) Prothallus of fern

(2) Endosperm in gymnosperms
(3) Protonema of mosses
(4) Spore mother cell

12) Which of the following pair is an example of heterosporous pteridophyte?

(1) Psilotum and Adiantum

(2) Salvinia and Selaginella
(3) Lycopodium and Dryopteris
(4) Azolla and Adiantum

13) Sex organ in mosses are present in :-

(1) Leafy stage

(2) Protonema stage
(3) Thallus stage
(4) Sporophyte stage

14) Antheridium and Archegonium are sex organs of :-

(1) Moss
(2) Mucor
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Puccinia

15) Which of the following forms dense mats on the soil and reduce impact of falling rain and
prevent soil erosion ?

(1) Funaria & Polytrichum

(2) Marchantia & Riccia
(3) Riccia & Polytrichum
(4) Marchantia & Funaria

16) Main plant body of moss is produced by germination of :-

(1) Spores
(2) Gemma cup
(3) Buds
(4) Protonema

17) Roots in some genera of gymnosperm have fungal association in the form of _____________.

(1) Mycobiont
(2) Lichen
(3) Phycobiont
(4) Mycorrhiza
18) "Gemmae" are multicellular green structures for vegetative propagation. These are found in
gemma cups present on -

(1) Prothallus of Salvinia

(2) Thallus of Marchantia
(3) Protonema of Funaria
(4) Prothallus of Fern

19) Alga rich in protein is

(1) Chlorella
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) Ulothrix

20) The life cycle of Bryophyta is haplo - diplontic type, it means that -

(1) Haploid generation is multicellular and diploid generation is single celled.

Haploid generation is dominant and multicellular, diploid generation is also multicellular but
(2)
comparatively less developed.
(3) Diploid generations are dominant.
(4) Haploid generation is highly reduced.

21) (A) Gametophyte consists of two stages i.e. protonema stage and leafy state.
(B) They are attached to soil through multicellular and branched rhizoids.
Above statements are correct for

(1) Sequoia
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Salvinia
(4) Marchantia

22) How many among the following are members rhodophyceae and phacophyceae respectively ?
Dictyota, Gelidium, Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Sorgassum, Ectocarpus, Porphyra.

(1) 5, 2
(2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 2
(4) 4, 3

23) Vascular cryptogamous plant is :-

(1) Thallophyta
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Pteridophyta
(4) Spermatophyta
24) The giant Redwood trees (Sequoia) is a/an ?

(1) Angiosperm
(2) Free Fern
(3) Pteridophyte
(4) Gymnosperms

25) What is the ploidy of rhizoid cells if capsule cells of moss are diploid ?

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

26) Isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Red algae
(3) Brown algae
(4) 1 and 3 both

27) In which of the following group there is no independent free living existance of gametophyte ?

(1) Thallophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Gymnosperm

28) The common character of both angiosperm and gymnosperm is :-

(1) Formation of Fruit

(2) Formation of Seed
(3) Presence of archegonium
(4) Formation of triploid endosperm.

29) What will be the correct ploidy sequence in the mentioned below ?
(A) Protonemal cell of a moss
(B) Gymnospermic endosperm
(C) Leaf cell of a moss
(D) Prothallus cell of a fern
(E) Gemma cell in marchantia
Option -

(1) n, 3n, n, 2n, n

(2) n, n, n, n, n
(3) n, 2n, n, 2n, 2n
(4) n, 2n, n, n, 2n

30)

Select the correct match pair from the following :-

(1) Laminaria - Non-motile gametes

(2) Fucus - Floridean starch
(3) Gelidium - Agar-agar
(4) Chlorella - Algin

31) Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and select the correct statements : -
(A) Lack of true root, stem and leaves
(B) Main plant body is haploid
(C) Sex organs are unicellular and non-jacketed
(D) Fertilization produces embryo inside the water

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B & C

32) For Bryophytes, Select the incorrect statement in the following :-

(1) The plant Body of liverworts is thalloid & Isobilateral.

(2) Mosses have upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged leaves.
(3) Spores germinate to form gametophyte
(4) The zygote produces a sporophyte

33) In pteridophyte gametophyte (prothallus) prefers to grow in moist shady places because :

(1) In these conditions, it survive very well

(2) It represents the ancestory of bryophyte
(3) It need water for fertilization
(4) It is a aquatic structure

34) How many statements are correct regarding gymnosperms ?

(i) All gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(ii) Multicellular female gametophyte is not retained within megasporangium.
(iii) Male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.
(iv) Female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three
35) What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella and Spirullina ?

(1) They all are photosynthetic

(2) They all have eukaryotic cell organization
(3) They all are single celled
(4) They all either used as food or food supplements

36) The group bryophyta includes :-

(1) Liverworts and ferns

(2) Liverworts and club moss
(3) Moss and ferns
(4) Liverworts and moss

37) Thick cuticle and sunken stomata in needle-like leaves are characteristic feature of :-

(1) Dryopteris
(2) Marchantia
(3) Pinus
(4) Adiantum

38) Read the following statements. Find out how many statements are correct ?
(A) As the producers algae are of paramount importance.
(B) Male sex organ of Chara is known as nucule and female sex organ is known as globule.
(C) Cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose, pectin, galactans and mannans.
(D) In Volvox the colony is called coenobium.
(E) On the basis of pigments, red algae are similar to blue green algae.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

39) First terrestrial plant possess vascular tissue and grown as ornamentals is :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Mosses
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

40) Dicotyledons and monocotyledons are two _______ of angiosperm

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Division
41) Assertion (A) : Gymnosperms do not produce fruit.
Reason (R) : Ovules of gymnosperms are enclosed within the ovaries.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true but R is false
(4) If A is false but R is true

42) Which of the following sequence is correct with respect to the structure present in Gymnosperm

(1) Strobili–Sporophylls→Sporangia→Spores
(2) Strobili–Sporangia→Sporophylls→Spores
(3) Sporophylls–Strobili→Sporangia→Spores
(4) Spores–Sporangia→Strobili→Cones

43) What is the male gametophyte in Gymnosperm.

(1) Pollen-grain
(2) Microspore
(3) Ovule
(4) Megaspore

44) Life cycle of polysiphonia and volvox respectively are :-

(1) Diplontic, Haplontic

(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(3) Haplontic, Diplontic
(4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

45) Assertion :- Adiantum is walking fern.

Reason :- Leaf tip show vegetative reproduction.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

46) Manubrium is part of :-

(1) Scapula
(2) Clavicle
(3) Sternum
(4) Humerus

47) Number of floating ribs in human are :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

48) Match the following bones with their appropriate joints :-

A B

Cartilagenous
a Knee joint (i)
joint

b Intervertebral disc (ii) Fibrous joint

c Cranial bones (iii) Hinge joint

d Radius and ulna (iv) Pivot joint

(1) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(2) a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii
(3) a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv
(4) a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv

49) Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause :-

(1) Tetany - rapid spasm in muscle due to high Ca2+ level in body fluids
(2) Muscular dystrophy - Auto immune disorder
(3) Myosthenia gravis - genetic disorder
(4) Osteoporosis - age related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass

50) Identify a, b, c?

a. Cervical c. Lumbar
(1) b. Coccyx
vertebrae vertebrae

a. Cervical c. Lumbar
(2) b. Sacrum
vertebrae vertebrae

a. Cervical b. Intervertebral c. Lumbar

(3)
vertebrae disc vertebrae
 a. Lumbar
(4) b. Sacrum c. Coccyx
vertebrae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Gout happens due to accumulation of _____ in joints :-

(1) glucose crystals

(2) uric acid crystals
(3) urea crystals
(4) ammonia crystals

52) Given below diagram is related with human skull. Look at the structure carefully and choose

correct option from given below :

(1) x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

(2) x-Foramen of magnum, y-Ear ossicle, z-Sella turcica
(3) x-Ear ossicle, y-Foramen of magnum, z-sella turica
(4) x-Sella turcica, y-Foramen of magnum, z-Ear ossicle
53) In given diagram A,B,C and D respectively represents :-

(1) Radius, Ulna, Scapula, Clavicle

(2) Ulna, Radius, Scapula, Clavicle
(3) Radius, Ulna, Clavicle, Scapula
(4) Ulna, Radius, Clavicle, Scapula

54) How many bones are included in cranium :

Maxilla, Mandible, Sphenoid, Nasal, Ethmoid bone, Lacrimal, Inferior turbinal, Occipital bone :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

55) Human ribs are bicephalic because :-

(1) It has 2 articulation surfaces on its dorsal end

(2) It has 2 articulation surfaces on its ventral end
(3) It has 2 heads, one on dorsal and other on ventral end
(4) It has 2 costal cartilages

56)

Osteoporosis, an age–related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to :-

(1) Decreased level of estrogen

(2) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints.
(3) Immune disorder affecting neuro–muscular junction leading to fatigue.
(4) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+.

57)

Find out correct match from the following table.

Column I Column II Column III

Uric acid
(i) Gout Small joints
grannule

Inflammation
(ii) Osteoarthritis Articular cartilage
of joint

In female decrease Inflammation

level of estrogen of joint and
(iii) Osteoporosis
is a common Age related
cause disorder
(1) (iii) only
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

58) Which of the following skull bone provide protection to the pituitary gland ?

(1) Zygomatic
(2) Sphenoid
(3) Parietal
(4) Lacrymal

59) The unpaired facial bone is :-

(1) Lacrimal
(2) Vomer
(3) Nasal
(4) Palatine

60) Which is not correct match :-

(1) Between cranial bones → Fibrous joint

(2) Between atlas and axis vertebrae → Pivot joint
(3) Between radius and ulna → Condylar joint
(4) Between Head of femur and Acetabular notch of hipbone → Ball and socket joint

61) Which of the following bones are classified as flat bones :-

(a) Scapula (b) Clavicle (c) Sternum
(d) Ribs (e) Tarsals (f) Skull
(g) Carpals.

(1) (a), (b), (e), (g)

(2) (b), (e), (c), (a)
(3) (a), (c), (d), (f)
(4) (e), (d), (a), (f)

62) Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has
certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are :-

(1) Tibia and tarsals

(2) Femur and fibula
(3) Fibula and phalanges
(4) Tarsals and femur

63)

How many of following statement are incorrect?

(A) Zygomatic is also called as cheek bone
(B) Ethmoid houses the pineal gland.
(C) Sacrum is formed by fusion of four vertebrae

(D) Femur, tibia and fibula participate in formation of knee joint

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

64) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

65) Long neck of Giraffe or camel due to:-

(1) More number of cervical vertebra

(2) More length of cervical vertebra
(3) Presence of pads between cervical vertebra
(4) Presence of extra bony plates

66) Assertion :- In vertebral column, each vertebrae has central hollow portion through which
spinal cord passes.
Reason :- Joint between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column is cartilaginous joint.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

67) Assertion :- The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis.
Reason :- Pubic symphysis consist of immovable fibrous connective tissue.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

68) Statement I :- Bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute the appendicular
skeleton.
Statement II :- Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

69) Assertion : Human has dicondylic skull.

Reason : Skull articulates with superior region of the vertebral column with the help of two occipital
condyles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Macrophages of brain are :-

(1) Dust cell

(2) Kuffer cell
(3) Monocytes
(4) Microglial cell

71) Which type of neuron found in the retina of eye and cerebral cortex, respectively :-

(1) Multipolar neuron and Bipolar neuron

(2) Unipolar neuron and Multipolar neuron
(3) Bipolar neuron and Multipolar neuron
(4) Pseudounipolar and Multipolar

72) Consider the following "transverse section" of axon. Here x, y & z are:-

x y z

(1) Nissl's bodies Neurilemma Schwann cell

(2) Neurofibrils Neurilemma oligodendrocyte

(3) Neurofibrils Axolemma Schwann cell

(4) Neurotransmitter Axolemma oligodendrocyte

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

73) Mark the option with all the correct statements regarding "resting stage" of neuron :-
(a) Axon membrane is more permeable for potassium ions (K+)
(b) Axonal membrane is nearly impermeable for sodium ions (Na+)
(c) Axon membrane is permeable for negatively charged protein.
(d) The fluid outside of axon contain a low concentration of Na+ than inside
(e) The fluid inside axon contain high concentration of K+ than outside

(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, d, e

74) Nissl's granules are absent in :-

(1) Nuclei
(2) Axon
(3) Ganglia
(4) Dendrites

75) An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the
outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed, because

(1) More potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(2) Hore sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(3) All potassium ions leave the axon
(4) All sodium ions enter the axon

76) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

a-Axon, b-Cell body, c-Myelin sheath,

(1) d-Dendrite, e-Node of Ranvier,
f-Schwan cell
a-Dendrites, b-Axon, c-Schwan cell,
(2) d-Cell body, e-Myelin sheath,
f-Node of Ranvier
a-Dendrites, b-Cell body, c-Schwan cell,
(3) d-Axon, e-Myelin sheath,
f-Node of Ranvier
a-Dendrites, b-Cell body,
(4) c-Myelin sheath, d-Axon,
e-Schwan cell, f-Node of Ranvier

77) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(1) Electrical synapse – Rare in our system
(2) Presynaptic membrane + Synaptic cleft + Post synaptic membrane = Synapse
(3) Electrical synapse – Neurotransmitters stored in vesicles at axon terminal
(4) Receptors – On post synaptic membrane

78) A student of MED Enthusiast Phase while returning home from his/her regular classes
encountered a neuron on the roadside and found schwann cells around it. He/she made the following
conclusions. Which one is correct ?

(1) Neuron belongs to PNS but nothing is certain about its myelination.
(2) Neuron is myelinated belongs to PNS
(3) Neuron is non-myelinated and belongs to PNS
(4) Neuron is myelinated belongs to CNS

79) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon and is commonly not found in?

(1) Autonomus neural system

(2) Central neural system
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) 1 & 3 both

80) A short period during which a nerve is unable to conduct nerve impulse is called :-

(1) Synaptic delay

(2) Refractory period
(3) Resting potential
(4) Critical period

81) The potential difference between outside and inside of a nerve before excitation is known as :-

(1) Resting potential

(2) Action potential
(3) Spike potential
(4) Reaction potential

82) The figure below show three steps X, Y, Z of conduction of Nerve Impulse. Select the option that
gives correct identification together with what represent:-

‘X’
 ‘Y’

‘Z’

X- It show that stimulus is applied at site A thus-leads to rapid influx of Na+ followed by reversal
(1)
of polarity
Y-Ionic gradient across the resting membrane maintained by active transportation of ion by
(2) sodium potassium pump as result outer surface of axonal mambrane possesses positive charge
while inner surface becomes negatively charged there fore called polarized state at site A.
Z- The current flow in inner surface from site A to B & outer surface flows from site B to A to
(3) complete circuit of current flow hence polarity is reversed & action potential is generated at site
‘B’.
(4) Z- Show axonal membrane of neuron is polarised state at site-A is responsible for excitability

83) In the following diagram where the Na+ voltage gate become close & K+ voltage opens :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

84) Statement-I : A nerve impulse is transmitted from one nephron to another through junctions
called synapses.
Statement-II : A synapse is formed by the membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic
neuron, which may or may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect while statement II is correct.
(3) Both the statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.

85) Assertion (A) : Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across
electrical synapses.
Reason (R) : At electrical synapes, the membranes of pre-and post-synaptic neurons are in very
close proximity
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

86) Statement-I : Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse
conduction along a single axon.
Statement-II : Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a
chemical synapse.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect while statement II is correct.
(3) Both the statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.

87) Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.

Reason: Neurons are found abundantly throughout the body.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, assertion is incorrect explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

88) Assertion : All the organs in our body work in a synchronised function.
Reason : Neural and endocrine systems jointly coordinate and integrate all the activities of organs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

89) Assertion : Neuronal membranes get depolarised at the site where threshold stimulus is
applied.
Reason : Depolarisation of membrane is caused due to opening of leaky Na+ ion channels.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

90) Which of the following option is correct for generation and conduction of nerve impulse ?

(1) Polarisation – Na+ - K+ pump closed

(2) Depolarisation – K+ V.G.C. closed
(3) Repolarisation – Passive diffusion stops
(4) Hyperpolarisation – Na+ V.G.C. open
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 (3) 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

ΔL =

ΔL ∝

2) Explain :
find the energy stored per unit volume in terms of Young's modulus Y and strain
Concept : The energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire is related to the stress and
strain, which are connected by Young's modulus.

Formula : Energy stored per unit volume = x stress x strain

Young's modulus (Y) = stress => stress = Y x strain

Calculation : Energy stored per unit volume = x Y x stress x strain

Energy stored per unit volume = x Y x (strain)2 = x Y x E2

Ans (4)

(Y × E2)

3)

Stress = Y × strain

m×10=2×1011×10–3×3×10–6
m = 60 kg

4)

1 mm

5) Energy per unit volume =

6) Breaking stress is the property of material.

7) 1. Explaination the question:
The question asks which statement is correct regarding the elasticity of materials, elastic
potential energy, and breaking stress of a wire.

2. Concept:
Elasticity, Elastic potential energy and breaking stress

Solution:
Elasticity: A measure of how a material deforms under stress and returns to its original shape
after the stress is removed.
Elastic Potential Energy: The energy stored in a material due to deformation.
Breaking Stress: The stress at which a material fails or breaks.

Analysis of statements:
Statement 1: Steel is more elastic than rubber because steel has a higher Young's modulus,
meaning it resists deformation better than rubber. Statement 2: The formula for elastic

potential energy stored in a wire is correct: .

Statement 3: The breaking stress depends on the material of the wire, as each material has a
different breaking point. Thus, all statements are correct.
Thus, all statements are correct. (3)

8)

ΔL =

9)

F=

slope =

10)

Y = M1L–1T–2
n1u1 = n2u2
72[kg]1[m]–1[sec]–2 = n2[10 kg] [0.1 m]–1 [s]–2
11)

Δℓ = (Δℓ)external + (Δℓ)own weight

12)

Using Pascal's law

Patm + ρoil g(10) = Patm + ρwg(8)

ρoil = ρw = 0.8 g/cm3

13)

It is higher at the point on the left

14) T + Fb = mg
T = mg – Fb
T = (ρS – ρl)Vg

T = (10.4 – 0.8) ×

[∵ V = ]
T = 2.4 (Kg-wt)

15)

Concept: This problem involves the principles of fluid dynamics, specifically the Venturi effect
(a manifestation of Bernoulli's principle) and the concept of pressure.
• Venturi Effect: When a fluid flows through pipe (or in this case, across the open end of the
capillary tube), the fluid's speed increases, and its pressure decreases.
• Pressure and Capillary Action: The liquid rises in the capillary tube due to the pressure
difference. The pressure at the liquid surface in the container is atmospheric pressure. The
pressure at the top of the liquid column in the capillary tube is also atmospheric pressure
(when there's no airflow). The liquid rises until the pressure due to the liquid column's weight
balances this pressure difference.
Reasoning and Explanation
When air is blown through H across the top of the capillary tube, the air flow creates a region
of lower pressure at the top of the capillary tube due to the Venturi effect. This is similar to
how air flows faster and pressure is lower over the curved top of an airplane wing, generating
lift.
The pressure at the liquid surface in the container remains at atmospheric pressure. Now, the
pressure at the top of the liquid column in the capillary tube is lower than atmospheric
pressure. This increased pressure difference forces the liquid to rise higher in the capillary
tube.
Final Answer:[Link] level will rise above A.
Question Level: Medium

16)

W = Th
Case-1 :

σ = density of body
Case-2 :

17) 3P = P + ρgh

h= ..... (1)

P1 = P + ρg
from equation (1)

P1 = P + ρg

P1 =

18)
 19)

20)

80 kg

21) Fw + FHg = Mg
ρwgVw + ρHggVHg = ρBVBg
Vw = 10 × 10 × (10 – x)
= displace volume of water
VHg = 10 × 10 × (x)
= displaced volume of mercury

22)

m = ρwV
= 1 × (10×10×3)
= 300 gm

23)

A1V1 = A2V2

24)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Two raindrops fall with terminal velocity in the ratio of 9 : 4. We need to determine the ratio of
their volume. considering how terminal velocity depends on the size of the raindrops.

Key Concept:

Terminal Velocity and Volume Relation:

For a spherical object falling through a fluid, terminal velocity is proportional to the square
root of its radius. Since volume depends on the cube of radius, we find volume ratio.

Formula:

A. Terminal velocity relation with radius:

 = vf ∝ r2

A. Volume relation with radius:

v= = v ∝ r3

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Given:

Ratio of volume

Conclusion:

Hence, option (4) is correct.

25) H – h2 = h1
H = h 1 + h2

26)
PA = Patm + ρgH ...(1)
PA = PB + ρa(AB) ...(2)
As PB = Patm ⇒ ρgH=ρa(AB)
a = 10 m/s2 = g
so H = (AB)= 10 m
so tanθ = H/10 = 1
⇒ θ = 45°, by eq(2)
PA > PB

27)
A1v1 = A2ν2
⇒ ν2 = 1 m/s
According to Bernoulli theorem

P1 + = P2 +

9 × 104 + × 103 × (4)2 = P2 + × 103 × (1)2

P2 = 2.75 × 104 Pa

28)

A1ν1 = A2ν2
4 × 5 = 8 × ν2

ν2 = m/s

P1 + ρgh1 + ρν12 = P2 + ρgh2 + rν12

1.5 × 105 + 103 × 10 × 10 + × 103 × 52 = P2 + 0 + × 103 ×

1.5 × 105 + 105 + 103 = P2

2.5 × 105 + 25 × × 103 = P2

P2 ≃ 2.6 × 105 Pa

29) Excess pressure inside soap bubble of radius

as 'r' increases with time, ΔP also decreases with time.

30) Mass = M
Density of ball = d

Density of glycerine =

FB = VS ρℓ g = g
Fg = Mg = V d g
For constant velocity Fnet = 0
FB = FV = Mg
FV = Mg – FB = Vdg –

= Mg

31)
P(1) = Patm
PA + 0.5 ρLg = Patm ... (1)
Also P(2) = Patm
PB + 1.75 ρLg = Patm .. (2)
(1) - (2) ⇒ PA – PB – 1.25 ρLg = 0
PA – PB = 1.25 ρLg = 1.25 × 10–2 × (1.2 × 103) × 10
= 1.5 × 104 N/m2

32)

8 TL

33) In stretching a wire, the work done against internal restoring force is stored an elastic
potential energy in wire and given by

× Force (F) × Elongation (l)

34)
35)
x cos θ = A

x=

N.S. = =

36)

37)

tanθ =

⇒a=

38)
[A = 50 × 10 = 500 cm2]
= 1.6 × 10–4 m

39)

40) Excess pressure inside a bubble is

r1 < r2
So, (P1 > P2)

41)
 Explaining the Question :-
A U tube is accelerating with constant value 'a' towards right. Find the pressure at point 'A'
Concept:-
This question is based on Pressure increases with depth and decreases as move to surface
tension of liquid
Solution :-
In left lemp of tube

0
P –

42) 6 mm

43)

P = P0 + rgZ0 .........(i)

0
Also, P = P + .........(ii)
From (i) & (ii)

0
rgZ =

0
∴ Z =
= 10–2 m = 1 cm

44)

= =

45) 76 cm × ρHg × g = h × ρL × g

CHEMISTRY

46)
47) Conceptual

48)

A primary, secondary or tertiary carbon atom

49)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

50)

51)

52)

4, 6

53)

Functional

54)

55)
So, 3rd member of aliphatic aldehyde homologous series

56) A. Question Explanation:

We need to identify the statement that is not true for a homologous series.

B. Given Data:
The options are:
1. All members have a general formula.
2. All members have the same chemical properties.
3. All members have the same physical properties.
4. All members have the same functional group.

C. Concept:
A homologous series is a group of organic compounds that have the same functional group and
similar chemical properties. They differ from each other by a -CH2- unit.

D. Answer Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:

1. All members have a general formula: This is true. Homologous series have a general
formula that represents the structure of all members.
2. All members have the same chemical properties: This is also true. The functional group
determines the chemical properties, and all members have the same functional group.
3. All members have the same physical properties: This is not true. As the molecular
weight increases down a homologous series, the physical properties like boiling point, melting
point, and density change.
4. All members have the same functional group: This is true. The functional group is the
characteristic group that defines the series.

E. Final Answer:

The incorrect statement is option 3

57)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-II, Page No.341

58)

3-Ethylpentane

59)

Acetic acid

60)

3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane

61)

2-Ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
62)

3-Butylhepta-1,4-ene-6-yne

63)

1°, 2° and 3°

64) Question Explanation : Find out the number of functional groups present in the
following compound.
Concept : Identification of functional group.
Solution :

Number of functional group = 6

Final Answer : Option (3)

65)

66)

67)

Explain Question : Find out the number of carbon in parent carbon chain of the given
structure.

Concept : IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.

Solution : PCC is the longest continuous carbon chain including PFG, MB and SUBs.
Number of carbon in PCC = 6

Final Answer : Option (3)

68) Question Explanation : Identify the suffix of the principal (Main) functional group & the
prefixes for the other groups.

Concept : IUPAC naming of functional group containing compounds.

Solution:

Final Answer : Option (1)

69)

Explain Question: IUPAC name of the given compound.

Concept: IUPAC naming of functional group containing compounds.

Solution:

1-Cyclobutyl-2-propanol
Final answer: Option (1)

70)

3-Methylbut-1-ene

71)

3-Methyl pentane

72)

4,5-Dimethyl-4-octene
73)

Hex-1-en-5-yne

74)

3,5-diethyl-2-methyl-4-propyloct-5-enoic acid

75)

Explain the question : The correct IUPAC name of given compound is.
Concept: This question is based on IUPAC naming of functional group containing compounds.
Solution:

1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
Final Answer: 4

76) Explanation:
Question asking about correct IUPAC name of given compound ?

Concept:
IUPAC nomenclature

Solution:

Carboxylic acid (–COOH) will PFG, so we will write the suffix 'oci acid'
PCC contains 5C, we will use word Root 'Pent' Numbering will start from the carbon of PFG.
Double bond get position 4, use suffix '4 - ene' Methyl present as subs at position 3 .
so the IUPAC name of compound is .
3 - methyl pent - 4- enoic acid.

Correct option: (4) 3-Methyl pent-4-enoic acid

77)

Explain Question : IUPAC name of given compound is.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC naming of functional group containing compound.
Explanation :
N-Ethylmethanamide
Final answer : 4

78)

2– Ethanoyloxy ethanoic acid

79)
4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid

80)

Cyclo-hexane 1,2 di carboxyllic anhydride

81) 2-Phenoxycarbonylbenzenecarboxylic acid

82)

Chain isomer

83)

84)

85) Explain Question:

Relation between given compounds.

Concept:
This question is based on Structural isomerism.

Solution:
 Final answer : 4

86)

87)

5, 5

88)

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

spores are formed

92) Explain Question :The question has provided an image showing three figures of
bryophytes, with different parts labeled as P, Q, R, and S. The task is to correctly identify these
labeled structures.
Concept : This question is based on bryophytes (mosses and liverworts).
Explanation :
P : Archegoniophore
Q : Gemma cup
R : Antheridiophore
S : Capsule.
Final answer : 4
93) Question Explanation : The question provides two statements about bryophytes and asks
you to evaluate whether they are true or false, and whether Statement-2 correctly explains
Statement-1.
Concept:
This question is based on Bryophytes.

Solution: Statement-1: Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom - True
Statement-2: Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for fertilization - True
Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom because these plants can live in
soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. They usually occur in damp, humid
and shaded localities.
Final answer: 4. Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct
explanation of Statement-1

94)

Explain Question : Question asking to select incorrect match about bryophytes and
pteridophytes

Concept : This question is based on Bryophytes and pteridophytes

Solution : 1 Marchantia - Liverwort -correct match

2 Funaria - Moss -correct match

3 Selaginella - Peat moss-Wrong match

Species of Sphagnum, a moss, provide peat that have long been used as fuel so
Sphagnum is called Peat moss
4 Dryopteris - Pteropsida -correct match

Final Answer : option (3)

95)

Explain Question : Question asking about identified given diagram

Concept : This question is based on Algae, bryophyta, and Pteridophyta

Solution :
Given diagrams A,B,C and D are-

A- Laminaria, B-Equisetum, C-Salvinia, D-Sphagnum

Final Answer : option (2)

96)

Wheat, Rice, Gram

97)

Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Cycadophyta → Coniferophyta

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30, 32

99) Explanation:
Ploidy of endosperm in gymnosperms is haploid, not diploid or triploid.
Correct answer: 2
Haploid

100)

Explain Question : Question asking about precursor requirement of seed habit

Concept : This question is based on Pteridophytes -hetrospory

Solution : Option 4 is not related to a precursor requirement of seed habit

Final Answer : option (4)

101)

Spore mother cell

102) NCERT Pg. # 38

103) NCERT XI Pg. # 36, 3.2.2

104) NCERT Pg. # 35; para-3.2

105) NCERT XIth Pg # 35

106)

Buds

107)

Mycorrhiza

108)

Thallus of Marchantia

109) Chlorella

110)

Haploid generation is dominant and multicellular, diploid generation is also multicellular but
comparatively less developed.

111) Polytrichum is a moss and is attached to soil through multicellular and branched rhizoids.

112)

NCERT XI Pg.# 33,34

Rhodophyceae – Gelidium, Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Porphyra.
Phaeophyceae – Dictyota,Sargassum, Ectocarpus

113)

Pteridophyta

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 38

115) NCERT [Link]. (E), (H) 34

116) NCERT Pg. # 32, 33; para-3.1.1, 3.1.2

117) NCERT (XI), Pg. # 39, Para-02

118)

Formation of Seed
119)

XI New NCERT Page No. 32

120)

NCERT-XI Pg.25-28

121)

A&B

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 43

123)

It need water for fertilization

124) NCERT-XI, Pg # 39, para 3.4

125) Explain Question : The question asks for a common characteristic shared by four
different organisms: Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella, and Spirullina
Concept : This question is based on algae, fungi, and cyanobacteria
Explanation : They all are either used as food or food supplements: - correct.
Porphyra is used as nori, Agaricus is a common mushroom, and both Chlorella and Spirulina
are widely sold as nutritional supplements.
Final answer : 4

126)

Liverworts and moss

127) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 38, 3.4

128) (B) is wrong because in Chara M.S.O. is globule and F.S.O. is nuclule, remaining A, C, D,
and E are correct.

129) NCERT Pg. # 36, 3.3

130)

Class

131)
If A is true but R is false

132)

Strobili–Sporophylls→Sporangia→Spores

133) Ncert Page 39.

134) Explain Question :The question asks us to identify the type of life cycle for two specific
algae: Polysiphonia and Volvox.
Concept : This question is based on types of life cycles in classes of algae
Explanation : The life cycle of Polysiphonia is Haplodiplontic, and the life cycle of Volvox is
Haplontic.
Final answer :4

135)

136)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify which bone the manubrium is a part of.

Concept : human axial skeleton

Solution: The manubrium is the upper broad part of the sternum

Final Answer: Sternum

137) Module 8 Pg. # 138

138)

Question Explanation: Matches bones with their joint types.

Concept: Types of joints.
Solution: The knee joint is a hinge joint, allowing movement in one plane. The intervertebral
discs are cartilaginous joints, permitting limited movement. The cranial bones form fibrous
joints (sutures), which are immovable. The joint between the radius and ulna is a pivot joint,
allowing rotation.
Final Answer: Option (3)

139) Explain Question:

Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause
Explain Question : Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause
Concept : This question is based on muscular and skeletal disorders.
Explanation :Tetany → caused by low Ca²⁺, not high Muscular dystrophy → genetic disorder,
not autoimmune Myasthenia gravis → autoimmune disorder, not genetic Osteoporosis → age-
related disorder with decreased bone mass
Final answer : 4: Osteoporosis – age related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass

140) Pg. # 310, Fig. 20.7

141)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the substance that accumulates in joints and
causes gout, a painful joint condition.

Concept : This question is based on Disorder of Skeletal system.

Solution : Gout happens due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Final Answer : option (2)

142)

Question Explanation: Which labeled skull structures match the correct anatomical names?

Concept: The question is based on human skull anatomy

Solution: The correct answer is option 1 – x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital
bone.

A. Sphenoid bone (x): Centrally located bone forming part of the cranial floor.

B. Temporal bone (y): Located on the sides of the skull, near the ears.

C. Occipital bone (z): Forms the back and base of the skull.

Final answer: x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

143)

Radius, Ulna, Scapula, Clavicle

144)

The correct answer is: 2. 3 cranial bones.

Cranial bones in the list: are only 3 (Sphenoid bone, Ethmoid bone, Occipital bone)

145)
It has 2 articulation surfaces on its dorsal end

146)

NCERT XI Pg # 227

147)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

148)

Sphenoid

149)

Vomer

150)

Between radius and ulna → condylar joint

151) NCERT Pg. # 310,311

152) Module-8 Pg # 157, NCERT XIth Pg # 311

153)

Three

154)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

● Assertion (A): "Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased

chances of fractures."
This statement is correct. Osteoporosis is a condition where bone density decreases, leading
to weakened bones and a higher risk of fractures.

● Reason (R): "Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen."

This statement is incorrect. Estrogen deficiency, rather than excess estrogen, is one of the
key factors that contribute to osteoporosis, especially in postmenopausal women. Estrogen
helps maintain bone density, and its decrease after menopause is a major factor in the
development of osteoporosis.
Thus, Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect. Therefore, the answer is Option 2.

155) The long neck of a giraffe or camel is due to more length of cervical vertebra.
Both giraffes and camels have the same number of cervical vertebrae as humans (7). However,
their cervical vertebrae are significantly elongated, contributing to their long necks.

156)

Question Explanation: Does the reason correctly explain why vertebrae have a central
hollow portion for spinal cord passage?

Concept: The question is based on vertebral column.

Solution:

A. Assertion is true: Each vertebra has a central hollow portion called the vertebral
foramen, which together form the vertebral canal housing the spinal cord.

B. Reason is also true: The joints between adjacent vertebrae are cartilaginous, allowing
limited movement and shock absorption.

C. However, the reason does not explain the presence of the hollow portion; that structure
exists to protect and accommodate the spinal cord, not because of the joint type.

Final answer:
Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

157)

Assertion is true but the reason is false.

158) NCERT XI Pg # 310, 311

159) NCERT Pg. No. # 309(E), 310(H)

160)

Question Explanation : Brain immune macrophages

Concept: Nervous system : Neuroglia

Solution:
Microglia are the resident macrophages of the brain and spinal cord. They are part of the
immune system of the central nervous system (CNS).
 Final answer: Option (4)

161)

Bipolar neuron and Multipolar neuron

162)

(3)

163)

a, b, e

164) Question Explanation: Nissl bodies are in cell body & dendrites

Concept: Neuron structure – Nissl bodies

Solution:
Nissl's granules are stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) found in the cell bodies and
dendrites of neurons. They are responsible for protein synthesis, which is essential for
neuronal function.
Axons are the long, slender projections of neurons that transmit signals away from the cell
body. They lack Nissl's granules as they are primarily involved in signal conduction and do not
actively synthesize proteins. Therefore, among the given options, only the axon is devoid of
Nissl's granules.

Final answer: Option (2)

165)

Correct Answer: Option 2 (More sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions
leaving it)

Explanation:

A. Resting Potential:

A. The inside of the neuron is negative, and the outside is positive due to the Na⁺/K⁺
pump and potassium leak channels.

B. Potassium leak channels allow some K⁺ to continuously leak out, maintaining the
resting membrane potential.

B. Depolarization (Action Potential Initiation):

 A. When a stimulus reaches threshold, voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, allowing a
massive influx of Na⁺ into the axon.

B. Potassium leak channels remain open, but their effect is minimal compared to the
rapid Na⁺ influx.

C. This reverses the membrane potential, making the inside positive and the outside
negative.

C. Why Option 2 is Correct?

A. Although potassium leak channels allow K⁺ to leave, this is a slow passive process.

B. The Na⁺ influx during depolarization is much greater than the K⁺ efflux through
leak channels.

C. This reversal of charges leads to action potential generation.

Conclusion:

Since an action potential is triggered by a greater influx of Na⁺ than K⁺ efflux, the
correct answer is Option 2.

166)

NCERT XI Page No. 232

167)

Electrical synapse – Neurotransmitters stored in vesicles at axon terminal

168)

Neuron belongs to PNS but nothing is certain about its myelination.

169) The correct Answer is :

Option (2) Central neural system

Explanation : In the central nervous system (CNS), unmyelinated nerve fibers are not
enclosed by Schwann cells. Instead, in the CNS, oligodendrocytes are responsible for
myelination and unmylinated fibers reamains exposed.

170) Question Explanation: Nerve's inability to fire.

 Concept: Refractory period

Solution:

A. Refractory period is a short period immediately following an action potential during which a
nerve cell cannot generate another action potential. This ensures that the nerve impulse
travels in one direction and prevents it from moving backward.

Final Answer: Option (2)

171) Question Explanation: Nerve potential before excitation.

Concept: Resting potential

Solution:

A. Resting potential refers to the stable, negative electrical charge inside a neuron when it is
not being stimulated or transmitting a signal.
B. It is a result of the difference in ion concentrations (mainly sodium and potassium) across the
neuronal membrane.

Final Answer: Option (1)

172)

NCERT Page no. 318

173) Problem statement : Asking About :

Diagramme

Concept :
Generation and conduction of nerve impulse.

Solution / Explanation :
At point 'C', voltage gated Na+ channel close and K+ voltage opens to make neuron again in
resting stage.

174) NCERT Pg. # 234

175)

Question Explanation: Determine whether electrical current can flow directly between
neurons and why.

Concept: Synapses.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1

A. Assertion (A) → True: In electrical synapses, ions flow directly from one neuron to
another through gap junctions, allowing rapid transmission.
 B. Reason (R) → True and Correct Explanation: At electrical synapses, the pre- and
post-synaptic membranes are extremely close, connected by gap junctions, enabling
direct current flow.

Final answer: Option (1)

176) NCERT Pg. # 319(E), 319 (H)

177)

Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

178)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

179)

NCERT Pg. No. 233

180) Polarisation → Na+ – K+ pump operating

Repolarisation → Passive diffusion continue
Hyperpolarisation → Na+ V.G.C. closed