11-03-2026

7101CMD303003250022 MD

PHYSICS

1) A uniform rod of length ℓ and mass m is hung from two strings of equal length from a ceiling as

[Link] in the two strings are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of length L = m is whirling in a circular

path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum tension in the string to the minimum
tension in the string is 4 and if g is taken to be 10 m/sec2, the speed of the stone at the highest point
of the circle is

(1) 20 m/sec
(2)
(3)
(4) 10 m / sec

3) The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by :

Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and and denote unit vectors along x- and y- directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?

(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter

Acceleration vectors is along
(2)

(3)
Magnitude of acceleration vector is where v is the velocity of particle.
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second.

4) A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking angle 45°. What will be the maximum safe speed of
a car having mass 2000 kg, if the coefficient of friction between tyre and road is 0.5 ?
(1) 172 m/s
(2) 124 m/s
(3) 99 m/s
(4) 86 m/s

5)

A pendulum bob swings along a circular path on a smooth inclined plane as shown in figure, where
m = 3 kg, ℓ = 0.75 m, θ = 37°. At the lowest point of the circle the tension in the string is 274 [Link]
speed of the bob at the lowest point is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 9.2 ms–1

(2) 9 ms–1
(3) 6.5 ms–1
(4) 8 ms–1

6) An aluminium rod with Young’s modulus Y = 7.0 × l010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain of 0.04%.
The energy per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit is:

(1) 5600
(2) 8400
(3) 2800
(4) 11200

7) A mercury drop of radius 10–3 m is broken into 125 equal size droplets. Surface tension of mercury
is 0.45 Nm–1. The gain in surface energy is :

(1) 2.26 × 10–5 J

(2) 28 × 10–5 J
(3) 17.5 × 10–5 J
(4) 5 × 10–5 J

8) A spherical ball of radius 4 cm and mass 0.2 kg is dropped in a tank filled with glycerin. It attains
terminal velocity after some time. If the terminal velocity is 2 m/s, what is the viscous force on the
ball ? (Viscosity of glycerin = 1.2 Pas)

(1) 2.0 N
(2) 1.81 N
(3) 1.2 N
(4) 0.6 N
9) A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side floats at the interface between oil and water with its
lower surface horizontal and 4 cm below the interface. The density of oil is 0.6 gcm–3. The mass of

block is

(1) 706 g
(2) 607 g
(3) 760 g
(4) 670 g

10) Velocity of liquid entering is 10 m/sec then what will be height difference between vertical

limbs?

(1) 15 cm
(2) 15 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 60 m

11) If a ball is projected from the centre of the earth along a tunnel made along the diameter, the
speed needed to escape earths gravitational field is v1. If the same ball is projected from surface of

earth, the speed needed to escape earth's gravitational field is v2. What is ratio

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is direction. (K is a constant). Taking
the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance x is

(1) K/x
(2) K/2x
(3) K/x2
(4) K/2x2

13) A spherical hole is made in a lead sphere of radius R, such that its surface touches the outside
surface of lead sphere and passes through the centre. What is the shift in the centre of mass of lead

sphere due to the following?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) R

14) A person whose mass is 100 kg travels from Earth to Mars in a spaceship. Neglect all other
objects in sky and take acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth and Mars as 10 m/s2
and 4 m/s2 respectively. Identify from the below figures, the curve that fits best for the weight of the

passenger as a function of time.

(1) (c)
(2) (a)
(3) (d)
(4) (b)

15) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : The escape velocities of planet A and B are same. But A and B are of unequal mass.
Reason R : The product of their mass and radius must be same, M1R1 = M2R2
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

16) Two particle are projected from position 'A' and 'B' separated by a distance of 80 m on horizontal
ground. If both the particle collides in mid air. Select the correct statement [Both particles are

projected simultaneously]

(1) They will collide if angle of projection for 'A' is 37°.

(2) Particle will collide at a point on the line AB.
(3) Particle will collide after 1 sec of projection
(4) They will collide if angle of projection for 'A' is 53°

17) The paths of three projectiles are shown in the figure. Which projectile spends the most time in

air ?

(1) Projectile A
(2) Projectile B
(3) Projectile C
(4) All three projectiles spend the same amount of time in the air.

18) A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point C standing from A. He
swims with a speed of 5 km/hr, at angle w.r.t. the river. If AB = BC = 400 m. Then

(1) The value of is 53°

(2) Time taken by the man is 4 min
(3) Time taken by the man is 8 min
(4) The value of is 45°
19) At t = 0 second a particle ¡s at point A and moves along the shown path (ABCDE) with uniform

speed . Both the straight segments AB and DE are along the diameter BD of
semicircle BCD of radius R = 1 metre. Then the instant of time at which the instantaneous velocity of
the particle is along the direction of average velocity from t = 0 second to that instant is also

(1)

(2) 1 sec.

(3)
.
(4) 1.5 sec.

20) A particle has an initial velocity of and an acceleration of . Its speed after 10 s is
:

(1) 10 units
(2)
(3) 7 units
(4) 8.5 units

21) Three blocks A, B and C of the masses 4kg, 2kg and 1kg respectively, are in contact on a
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14N is applied on the 4kg block. then the contact force

between A and B is:

(1) 2 N
(2) 6 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 18 N

22) There are two inclined surface of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination 45° with the
horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as
much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic
friction (µk) between the object and the rough surface is close to :

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.40
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.75
23) Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively

(1)

(2) g, g

(3)

(4)

24) Consider a block and trolley system as shown in figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration of the system in ms−2 is (Consider that
the string is massless and unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and frictionless):

(1) 1.2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

25) A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. If the room temperature rises by 10°C, and the
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal of the rod is 2 × 10–6 per °C, the period of the pendulum
will have percentage increase of

(1) –2 × 10–3
(2) –1 × 10–3
(3) 2 × 10–3
(4) 1 × 10–3

26) Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r are placed as shown in figure.
Consider an axis XX' which is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third shell.
Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX' axis is :-

(1) 3 mr2

(2)

(3) 4 mr2

(4)

27) A particle is making simple harmonic motion along the X-axis. If at a distances x1 and x2 from the
mean position the velocities of the particle are v1 and v2 respectively. The time period of its
oscillation is given as:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically
in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :

(1)

(2) f

(3)

(4) 2f
29) The time period of small oscillation of mass m:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Two masses are executing SHM under influence of a vertical spring as shown with an amplitude
of 2 cm and angular frequency of 5 rad/s. When the extension of spring is maximum, suddenly the
string breaks and 3 kg mass falls off. What is the maximum velocity of the 1 kg mass (in cm/s) during

subsequent motion?

(1) 320
(2) 175
(3) 225
(4) 288

31) 2 kg of ice at -20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at 20°C in an insulating vessel having a
negligible heat capacity. Calculate the final mass of water remaining in the container. It is given that
the specific heats of water and ice are 1 kcal/kg/°C and 0.5kcal/kg/°C while the latent heat of fusion
of ice is 80 kcal/kg:

(1) 7 kg
(2) 6 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 2 kg

32) Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as
shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C

respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be:

(1) 45°C
(2) 60°С
(3) 30°C
(4) 20°C

33) The following are the P-V diagrams for cyclic processes for a gas

In which of the above graph heat is absorbed?

(1) For a and c

(2) For a, b and d
(3) For b and c
(4) For a, b and c

34) Cooling rate of a sphere of 600 K at external environment (200 K) is R. When the temperature of
sphere is reduced to 400 K then cooling rate of the sphere becomes :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

35) Find velocity of ring B(vB) at the instant shown. The string is taut and inextensible:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 m/s

36) A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003)g, radius (0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The
maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density is _____

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) The main scale of a vernier callipers reads in mm, 10 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 9
divisions of the main scale. When a cylinder is tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of
vernier scale lies slightly behind 3.2 cm and the fourth vernier division coincides with a main scale
division. The diameter of the cylinder is :

(1) 3.09 cm
(2) 3.14 cm
(3) 3.04 cm
(4) 3.03 cm

38) What is the reading of micrometer screw gauge shown in figure

(1) 3.30 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

39) Using the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, which of the following is correct ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is given by, where a and
b are positive constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atoms are in stable
equilibrium, when

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Acceleration of the lower block is :-

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) zero

42) Acceleration 'a' versus x and potential energy 'U' versus x graph of a particle moving along
x–axis is as shown in figure. Mass of the particle is 1kg and velocity at x = 0 is 4 m/s.

Column I Column II

(A) Kinetic energy at x = 8 m (p) 120J

(B) Work done by conservative forces from x = 0 to x = 8 m (q) 240 J

 (C) Total work done from x = 0 to x = 8 m (r) 128 J

(D) Work done by non-conservative forces from x = 0 to x = 8 m (s) 112 J

(t) –120 J
(1) I→R; II→Q; III→P; IV→T
(2) I→R; II→P; III→Q; IV→T
(3) I→R; II→Q; III→P; IV→S
(4) I→S; II→R; III→Q; IV→T

43) A tuning fork P is sounded with another tuning fork Q of frequency 500 Hz and 4 beats is
observed. Now P is slightly loaded and 100% increased beat frequency is observed. The original
frequency of P is

(1) 504 Hz
(2) 508 Hz
(3) 492 Hz
(4) 496 Hz

44) A tuning fork resonated with a sonometer wire of length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6N.
When the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second
with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is _________ Hz.

(1) 18 Hz
(2) 2 Hz
(3) 9 Hz
(4) 6 Hz

45) Calculate the work done for following F-d curves

(P) 30J

(A)

(Q) 40J

(B)
 (R) 45J

(C)

(D)
(1) (A-R) ; (B-Q) ; (C-P) ; (D-R)
(2) (A-R) ; (B-O) ; (C-R) ; (D-Q)
(3) (A-R) ; (B-P) ; (C-Q) ; (D-R)
(4) (A-P) ; (B-Q) ; (C-R) ; (D-P)

CHEMISTRY

1) (NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g)+CO2(g)+H2O(g)
The value of Kp for above equilibrium is 64. The equilibrium pressure of the system if only
(NH4)2CO3 is present initially

(1) 4 atm
(2) 8 atm
(3) 2 atm
(4) 6 atm

2)

Stability of the species B2, B2–, B2+ .

+ –
(1) B2 < B2 < B2
+ –
(2) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(3) B2 < B2 < B2
– +
(4) B2 < B2 < B2

3) Which of the following species are isotopic as well as isoelectronic

(1) 40Ca+2, 40Ar

(2) 39K+, 40K+
(3) 24Mg+2, 25Mg
(4) 23Na, 24Na+

4) Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural?

NO3–, CO32–, ClO3–, SO3, NO2–

– 2–
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO2
– 2–
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–
(4) SO3, ClO3

5) What will be the pH of a solution formed by mixing 40 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl with 10 cm3 of 0.45 M
NaOH :-

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 12

6) For the following gaseous equilibrium

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when temperature is :-

(1) 0°C
(2) 273 K
(3) 1 K
(4) 12.19 K

7)

Radius of 2nd orbit of He+ ion is

(1) 1.058 Å
(2) 2.13 Å
(3) 3.25 Å
(4) 0.529 Å

8) A buffer that is a mixture of acetic acid

(Ka = 2 × 10–5) and potassium acetate has pH = 5.18. The ratio in this buffer is approx
:-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 1 : 3
9) 8% by mass of NaOH has a density of 0.6 g/ml. Calculate its molarity? [MM of NaOH = 40 g
mol]

(1) 1.2 M
(2) 0.8 M
(3) 1.4 M
(4) 1.8 M

10)

Given that standard heat enthalpy of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are –17.9, 12.5, –24.8 K cal/mol.
The for is

(1) –55.2 Kcal

(2) –19.4 Kcal
(3) –30.2 Kcal
(4) 55.2 Kcal

11) Which of the following is not an intensive properties :-

(1) Molar volume

(2) Density
(3) Mass/volume
(4) Volume

12) For reactions involving only solids and liquids, which is true:-

(1) ΔH < ΔE
(2) ΔH = ΔE
(3) qp = qv
(4) both 2 & 3

13) q = –w is not true for:-

(1) Isothermal process

(2) Adiabatic
(3) Cyclic process
(4) None of these

14) The pH of a 10–7 M solution of HCl in water is:-

(1) 8
(2) –8
(3) between 7 and 8
(4) between 6 and 7
15) A system has internal energy equal to E1, 450 J of heat is taken out of it and 600 J of work is done
on it. The final energy of the system will be -

(1) (E1 + 150)

(2) (E1 + 1050)
(3) (E1 – 150)
(4) (E1 – 1050)

16) Which of the following does show the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The strength of bonds by 2s - 2s, 2p - 2p and 2p -2s overlapping has the order :-

(1) s - s > p - p > s - p

(2) s - s > p - s > p -p
(3) p - p > s - p > s - s
(4) p - p > s - s > p - s

18) Which compound of xenon is not possible

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF5
(4) XeF6

19) The shape of will be :-

(1) Square planar

(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(4) Distorted tetrahedral

20) BeF2 has zero dipole moment where as H2O has a dipole moment because :-

(1) Water is linear

(2) H2O is bent
(3) F is more electronegative than O
(4) Hydrogen bonding is present in H2O

21) Which of the following ion do not have bond order of 2.5?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) The minimum bond length will be observed in :-

(1) O2
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) If one mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally at 300 K until it's volume is
tripled, then change in entropy of gas is :-

(1) zero
(2) infinity

(3)

(4) R ln 3

24) For a gas having molar mass 'M', specific heat at constant pressure can be given as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

25) The metallic and non metallic elements which are liquid at room temperature respectively are :-

(1) Cs, Fr
(2) As, Fr
(3) Br, Hg
(4) Hg, Br

26) Correct order of decreasing first ionisation energy of Li, Be, B, C, N, O :-

(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O

(2) Li > Be > B > C > N > O
(3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N
(4) Li < Be > B < C > N < O

27) Successive ionisation energies of an element (X) are given below (in kcal) :-
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Which of the following set is correct ?

(1) e– configuration ⇒ ns2 ; stable O.S. ⇒ +2; group No. ⇒ 12th

(2) e– configuration ⇒ ns1; stable O.S.⇒ +1; group No. ⇒ 1st
(3) e– configuration ⇒ ns2; stable O.S. ⇒ +2; group No. ⇒ 2nd
(4) e– configuration ⇒ ns2np1; stable O.S. ⇒ +3; group No. ⇒ 13th

28) Which of the following is most acidic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is :

(1) CH ≡ CH
(2) C6H6
(3) C2H6
(4) CH3OH

30) Most acidic is :-

(1) F3C – CH2 – CH2–OH

(2) NO2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(3) NC – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(4) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

31) Arrange the stability of these carbanion in decreasing order :-

(1) II > IV > I > III

(2) III > I > IV > II
(3) IV > II > I > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

32) Correct order of bond length (C–O) in following compound :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) d > a > b > c

(2) d > b > a > c
(3) d > b > c > d
(4) d > c > b > a

33) Which of the following is most basic ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with:

(1) H2Pd/C, BaSO4

(2) NaBH4
(3) Na/liq.NH3
(4) Sn - HCl

36) In the following reaction, the major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The compound that would produce Heptane-2, 6-dione on ozonolysis is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following reactions does not show the correct products of the reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39)

(1) CH3CH2CH=CH—CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH=CH2

(3)

(4)

40) Assertion (A) :- and are position isomers.

Reason (R) :- Both have different position of double bond as per IUPAC rules.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

41) Assertion :- is less stable than .

Reason :- The +I effect of the CH3 groups tends to stabilize the

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I: Two structural monochloro derivative are possible for n-butane.
Statement-II: Both derivative are positional isomer to each other.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

43) Assertion (A) : H2 molecule has one sigma bond.

Reason (R) : H2 molecule involves 2s - 2s overlapping.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only R is correct.
(3) Both A & R are correct.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect

44) Assertion (A) : has bent T-shape structure.

Reason (R) : It has two lone pair arrange at 180° angle.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) & (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

45) Assertion : The dipole moment of NH3 is more than dipole moment of NF3.
Reason : The lone pair e– on N atom contribute in bond moment in NH3 and oppose in bond moment
of NF3.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1)

In polyribosome formation :-

(1) Multiple ribosomes are associated with each other

(2) Multiple ribosomes are associated with cell membrane
(3) Multiple ribosomes are associated with same mRNA
(4) Multiple tRNA are associated with same ribosome

2) Statement - I :- Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S.

Statement - II :- 'S' stands for the sedimentation coefficient.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

3) Small bristle like projections on the surface of bacteria used for attachment are called :

(1) Fimbriae
(2) Flagella
(3) Capsule
(4) Glycocalyx

4) Glycosylation is mainly the function of :-

(1) RER
(2) SER
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Ribosome

5) Mitochondria are believed to be of symbiotic origin from bacteria because they have similarity
with bacteria in :-

(1) DNA
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Division method
(4) All of the above

6) Meiosis-I results in formation of ______ of cells with ________ of chromosomes in each cell as
compare to mother cell.

(1) Tetrad, half number

(2) Dyad, half number
(3) Tetrad, same number
(4) Dyad, double number

7) If a cell has 10 pg (pico gram) DNA in G1 stage, what will be the amount of DNA in each daughter
cell after meiosis-I ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 5 pg

8) In which one of the following stages, the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes becomes
distinct and clearly appears as tetrads.
(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

9) In oocytes of vertebrates ___________ can last for months or years.

(1) Zygotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

10) Which of the following represent a ‘Division” and “Order” respectively.

(1) Insecta and Poaceae

(2) Angiospermae and poales
(3) Mammalia and Musca
(4) Sapindales and aestivum

11)

Both the words in a biological name when handwritten are underlined or printed in italics to indicate
:-

(1) They are endangered

(2) They are living
(3) Their Latin origin
(4) Now they are extinct

12) Which of the following are edible mushroom?

(1) Morel
(2) Truffles
(3) Agaricus
(4) All of the above

13) Spores of slime mould :-

(1) Have chitinous cell wall

(2) Have cellulosic cell wall
(3) Formed during favourable condition
(4) Highly susceptible to unfavourable condition

14) Which of the following statements are true about chrysophytes ?

(a) They are found in fresh water as well as in marine enviroments
(b) They are microscopic and float passively in water current.
(c) This group includes diatoms and desmides
(d) They are mostly saprophytic

(1) a, c & d
(2) a, b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) Only c & d

15) Which fungus does not consist a long, slender thread like structure called hyphae ?

(1) Yeast
(2) Mushroom
(3) Toadstool
(4) Puffball

16)

Which fungi is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Neurospora
(3) Yeast
(4) Claviceps

17) Assertion : Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason : Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Majority of pteridophyte are ?

(1) Homosporous
(2) Heterosporous
(3) Anisosporous
(4) Isogamous

19) Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B, C and D) :-
 A B C D

(1) Porphyra Laminaria Selaginella Chara

(2) Laminaria Equisetum Salvinia Sphagnum

(3) Marchantia Fucus Chara Laminaria

(4) Salvinia Sphagnum Equisetum Laminaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) "Carrageenin" is obtained from :-

(1) Chondrus (Red Algae)

(2) Laminaria
(3) Gelidium
(4) Macrocystis

21) Protonema formed in the life cycle of :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchanita
(3) Funaria
(4) Lily

22) Choose the incorrect statement:

The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity

(1)
and wind.
In Pinus male and female cones borne on the same tree but in Cycas male cones and
(2)
megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is carried by air.
(4) In gymnosperms male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.

23) Which one of the following PGR is obtained from fungus :-

(1) Ethylene
(2) CK
(3) ABA
(4) GA

24) Removal of shoot tips (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds. It is related to
the removal of effect of which plant hormone?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Gibberellic acid

25) The volatile substance causing ripening of unripened bananas?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin
(4) Terpenes

26) Which of the following zone has root hairs ?

(1) Zone of elongation

(2) Zone of meristematic activity
(3) Zone of maturation
(4) Zone of Initiation

27) Select the wrong match:-

(1) Marginal -Pea

(2) Free central-Primrose
(3) Basal-Marigold
(4) Axile placentation-Argemone

28) Fibrous root system is mostly found in :-

(1) Monocot plants

(2) Dicot plants
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Bryophytes

29) In which of the following plant a leaf blade is incised upto petiole dividing it to many leaflets ?

(1) Neem
(2) Silk cotton
(3) Pea
(4) Cat's nail

30) The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in :-

(1) Protein
(2) Starch
(3) Lipid
(4) Auxins
31) Which tissue provides mechanical support to the young dicot stem and petiole of a leaf ?

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Sclerenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Phloem

32) All tissues except __(A)__ and __(B)__ constitute the ground tissue :-

(1) A = Epidermis, B = Hypodermis

(2) A = Hypodermis, B = Pericycle
(3) A = Endodermis, B = Pericycle
(4) A = Epidermis, B = Vascular bundles

33) Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :-

(1) Passage cell

(2) Idioblast cell
(3) Subsidiary cell
(4) Bulliform cell

34) Read the following statements :-

(A) It has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large number of scattered vascular bundles and a large
parenchymatous ground tissue
(B) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
(C) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones
(D) Phloem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities are present with in the vascular
bundles
Above statements are related to :-

(1) Dicot root

(2) Monocot root
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Monocot stem

35) All are true about glycolysis except :

(1) Oxygen independent pathway

(2) It produces two pyruvic acid molecule from each molecule of 3-PGAL
(3) It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell
(4) It can operate by using both glucose and fructose

36) How many of the following respiratory reactions occur in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell ?
(a) PGAL → 1, 3 bis PGA
(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(d) PEP → Pyruvate
(e) F 1, 6 di phosphate → DHAP + 3PGAL

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
(4) (a) and (e) only

37) First action spectrum of photosynthesis was given by :-

(1) J-Priestley
(2) T.W. Engelmann
(3) Von Neil
(4) Von Sachs

38) Stroma lamellae lacks all except

(1) PS II
(2) NADP reductase
(3) PS I
(4) Water splitting complex

39) In the electron transport chain during terminal oxidation, the cytochrome, which donates
electrons to O2 is

(1) Cytochrome-b
(2) Cyto-C
(3) Cyto-a3
(4) Cyto.-f

40) When tripalmitin is used as a substrate in respiration, the R.Q. is

(1) > 1
(2) 1.0
(3) 0.9
(4) 0.7

41) Pyruvate (pyruvic) dehydrogenase is used in converting

(1) pyruvate to glucose

(2) glucose to pyruvate
(3) pyruvic acid to lactic acid
(4) pyruvate to acetyl coA

42) The first CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is

(1) PEP
(2) RuDP
(3) PGA
(4) OAA

43) Assertion: NADPH2 is synthesized on the outer surface of thylakoid membrane.

Reason: Flow of H+ from thylakoid lumen to stroma results in breakdown of proton gradient.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

44) Oxygenase activity is

(1) Shown by RuBisCO in C3 plants

(2) Shown by PEPcase in C4 plants
(3) Shown by RuBisCO in C4 plants
(4) Shown by PEPcase in C3 plants

45) Which of the following is not concerned with non-cyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) Photolysis of water

(2) Evolution of O2
(3) Reduction of NAD+
(4) Formation of ATP

46) Complete the analogy and select the correct option.

Dentalium : Tusk shell :: Chaetopleura: ______

(1) Apple snail

(2) Chiton
(3) Squid
(4) Devil fish

47) Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given below
:-
(1) a–3–R, b–1–S, c–2–Q
(2) a–2–R, b–3–S, c–1–Q
(3) a–3–S, b–1–Q, c–2–R
(4) a–1–R, b–2–S, c–3–Q

48) Directions : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of

reason. Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion :- All triploblastic animals are coelomates.
Reason :- All coelomate animals show metamerism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

49) Chordae tendinae are found in :-

(1) Ventricles of heart

(2) Atria of heart
(3) Joints of legs
(4) Ventricles of brain

50) Hormones secreted by kidney and gastro intestinal tract are-

A) Erythropoietin
B) Cortisol
C) Secretin
D) Thyroxine
E) Gastrin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) B and D
(2) A, C and E
(3) A, C, D and E
(4) B, C and D

51) Formed elements of blood are formed in :-

(1) Lymph nodes

(2) Liver
(3) Spleen
(4) Red bone marrow

52) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by :-

(1) Administering Rh-antigen to mother

(2) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to mother after delivery of second child
(3) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to baby
(4) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to mother after delivery of first child

53) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, ie., resting, the axonal membrane is
comparatively more permeable for :

(1) K+ ions
(2) Na+ ions
(3) Ca2+ ions
(4) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

54) Given below is a figure of the mouth parts of cockroach labelled A,B and C :

Identify correct one :-

(1) A is mandible
(2) B is hypopharynx; acting as tongue
(3) C is upper lip known as labrum
(4) A is lower lip known as labium

55) Number of ommatidium in both eyes of cockroach is :

(1) 2000
(2) 3000
(3) 4000
(4) 5000

56)

Match the following column and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Special venous connection between

(a) Sinus venosus (i)
kidneys and lower parts of body

Special venous connection between

(b) Renal portal system (ii)
liver and intestine

Triangular structure which receives

(c) Conus arteriosus (iii)
blood from major veins

Hepatic portal
(d) (iv) Ventricles opens into sac like structure
system
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

57) Given below is a female reproductive system of frog labelled as A, B, C and D

Find out the incorrect one :-

(1) In male frog labelled C act as urinogenital duct

(2) In female frog labelled C and A open separately in the cloaca
(3) Labelled D is urinary bladder which is present ventral to rectum
(4) Labelled B is functionally opening in kidney directly.

58) How many of the following are absent in frog :- Hepatic portal system, Bidder's canal, 4
Chambered heart, Omnivorous nature, Ureotelic, direct development

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 7

59) With regard to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect

(1) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

(2) The substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site
(3) The non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that binding the substrate
Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(4)
malonate

60) Insulin shows which type of configuration of protein ?

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary

61) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.
Statement-A: Cnidarians have a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening, mouth
on hypostome.
Statement-B: Adamsia is sessile and exhibits cylindrical form.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

62) Match the column A to B.

Column-A Column-B

(P) Uridine (i) Alkaline AA

(Q) Lecithin (ii) Aromatic AA

(R) Phenyl Alanine (iii) Nucleoside

(S) Lysine (iv) Phospholipid

(1) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i
(2) P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv
(3) P-i; Q-ii; R-iv; S-iii
(4) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-i

63)

Which of the following factors favour the formation of Oxyhaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) ↓, , Temperature , H⊕concentration

(2) , , Temperature , H⊕ concentration

(3) ↓, ↓,Temperature↓,H⊕ concentration↓

(4) , ↓, Temperature↓, H⊕ concentration↓

64) In the ventricular diastole, the .....(A)..... valve closes. This causes the second heart sound
.....(B)..... .
Choose the correct option for 'A' and 'B' :-

(1) A – Semilunar, B – Dub

(2) A – Mitral, B – Dub
(3) A – Bicuspid, B – Dub
(4) A – Tricuspid, B – Dub

65) Given structural formula is correctly identified along with its related function by which of the

following options?

(1) Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane

(2) Lecithin – A component of cell membrane
(3) Triglyceride – An energy source
(4) Cholesterol – A simple lipid.

66)
Given diagram depicts the circulation in :-

(1) Fishes
(2) Mammals
(3) Reptile
(4) Amphibian

67) Fill in the blanks :-

1. Based on the nature of ....a.... there are 20 amino acids.
2. Based on number of ....b....and ....c.... groups, there are acidic, basic and neutral amino acids.
3. The R group in serine is ....d.... .

(1) a–amino, b–R group, c–carboxyl, d–methyl

(2) a–carboxyl, b–amino, c–R group, d–Hydroxy methyl
(3) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–hydroxy methyl
(4) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–methyl

68) In the graphical representation of Michaelis-Menten kinetics X represents :-

(1)
Concentration of substrate at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(2)
Concentration of enzyme-substrate complex at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(3)
Concentration of product at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

(4)
Concentration of enzyme at which the rate of reaction is Vmax

69) Four statements (A-D) are given. How many statements are correct ?
(A) O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(B) Each haemoglobin molecule can carry maximum of four molecules of O2.
(C) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2.
(D) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

70) Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.
Reason : Role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) The point A & B in the above diagram are located at :–

(1) 'A' at pulmonary vein level ; 'B' at tissue (systemic organ) level
(2) 'A' at tissue (systemic organ) level ; 'B' at the level of pulmonary vein
(3) 'A' in the pulmonary vein ; 'B' in the pulmorary artery
(4) More than one options are correct

72)

During stimulation of skeletal muscle calcium is immediately made available for binding to troponin
from :-

(1) Blood
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lymph
(4) Bone

73) Given below diagram is related with human skull. Look at the structure carefully and choose

correct option from given below :

(1) x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

(2) x-Foramen of magnum, y-Ear ossicle, z-Sella turcica
(3) x-Ear ossicle, y-Foramen of magnum, z-sella turica
(4) x-Sella turcica, y-Foramen of magnum, z-Ear ossicle

74) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
 (a) Heart failure (i) Pumping activity of heart decreases

Heart muscles damaged due to

(b) Heart attack (ii)
inadequate blood supply

(c) Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart stops beating

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

75) Match the column-I with column-II & select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Filaria worm (i) Wuchereria
(B) Wall lizard (ii) Chelone
(C) Sea pen (iii) Hemidactylus
(D) Turtle (iv) Pennatula
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(2) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i

76) Which of following statement is incorrect about given below diagram ?

(1) The diagram shows maximally relaxed state

(2) H-zone disappear clearly
(3) Distance between two successive Z-lines will be short
(4) Thin filament slides over the thick filament

77) Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Select the option with the correct description of

structures labelled as A, B and C.

A-Its subunit masks the active binding site for myosin on the actin filaments in resting as well as
(1)
active state.
(2) B-Polymerised protein which is made up of many monomeric proteins called meromyosin
(3) C-Polymer of monomeric G-actins.
(4) B-It has two important parts-HMM and LMM.
78) During depolarisation of nerve :-

(1) Na+ VGC – Close, K+ VGC – open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ VGC – open
(3) K+ VGC – Close, Na+ VGC – open
(4) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ leak channel close

79) Match the column-I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

a Myelinated nerve fibre 1 Somatic neural system

b Unmyelinated nerve fibre 2 Autonomic neural system

3 Cranial nerves

4 Spinal nerves
(1) a-1, 2 ; b-3, 4
(2) a-3, 4 ; b-1, 2
(3) a-1, 3 ; b-2, 4
(4) a-2, 4 ; b-1, 3

80) Find out correct labellings a, b, c, d, e for following diagram? (i)

Sensory & motor signaling
(ii) Centre of respiration
(iii) Urge of eating
(iv) Intersensory association
(v) Convoluted surface

(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i), e-(v)

(2) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(v), d-(iv), e-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(v), d-(iii), e-(ii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(v), e-(i)

81) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Primary metabolites have identifiable function

(2) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance
(3) Secondary metabolites like drugs, spices, scent and pigments are useful to human welfare
(4) Secondary metabolites are not found in fungi, microbes and plants

82) Which of the following pairs of organisms are uricotelic ?

(1) Dog, Fish & Human
(2) Snake and monkey
(3) Crow and cockroach
(4) Angel fish and wall lizard

83) Refer the given figure of human urinary system and select the option that correctly identifies

the labelled parts A to E

(1) A-Superior vena cava, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urethra, E-Pelvis
(2) A-Inferior vena cava, B-Superior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urinary bladder, E-Cortex
(3) A-Ureter, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urinary bladder, E-Pelvis
(4) A-Dorsal aorta, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Superior vena cava, D-Urinary bladder, E-Cortex

84) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) During an enzymatic process, formation of enzyme substrate complex is an obligatory and
transient phenomenon.
(B) In catalytic cycle of an enzyme, binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape.
(C) Competitive inhibitors are used in the control of bacterial pathogens
(D) Prosthetic groups are distinguished from other cofactors in that they are tightly bound to the
apoenzyme
How many of the above statements are correct

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A and C
(3) Only A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

85) Which of the following chordate is not a vertebrate?

(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Salamander
(4) Bufo

86) Choose the mismatched part of nephron with their function :-

(1) Bowman's capsule → Glomerular filtration

(2) PCT → Reabsorption of Na+ and K+
(3) DCT → Reabsorption of glucose
(4) Loop of Henle → Urine concentration
87) Assertion (A) :- T wave represents the ventricular repolarization
Reason (R) :- The end of T wave marks the end of ventricular diastole.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

88) Observe following diagram and give answer –

How many hormones among following show this mechanism of action.
ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxine, ADH, GH, Mineralocorticoid, Insulin

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

89) A pregnant lady delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of :-

(1) Atrophy of thyrofollicular cells

(2) Atrophy of thyroparafollicular cells
(3) Atrophy of adrenal medulla
(4) Atrophy of adrenal cortex

90) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis ?
(B) Between carpals ?
(C) Between cranial bone ?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity ?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Elipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 4 1 4 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 1 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 4 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain Question:
Find the tensions in the two vertical strings supporting a uniform rod. A uniform rod of mass m
and length ℓ is held horizontally by two strings, with one string at a distance of ℓ/4 from one
end and the other at the end. The system is in a state of equilibrium.
Concept:
This question is based on equilibrium
Formula :

Solution:

T1 + T2 = Mg
Taking torque about A

&
Final Answer: (1)

2) Since the maximum tension TB in the string moving in the vertical circle is at the bottom and
minimum tension TT is at he top.

∴ TB = + mg and TT = – mg

∴ = or
or + gL = – 4gL but = + 4gL
∴ + 4gL + gL = – 4gL ⇒ = 9gL

∴ = 3 × g × L = 3 × 10 × or vT = 10 m/sec

3)
Now, x2 + y2 = 42, which is equation of circle of radius R.
So, the motion is uniform circular motion with speed.
4) Explain the Question : Find maximum safe speed on a 1000 m radius road banked at 45°,
for a 2000 kg car with tyre-road μ = 0.5
Concept : This question is based on at maximum speed friction acts down the slope ; resolve
vertical and radial force components.
Solution :
The maximum velocity for a banked road with friction is given by,

v2 = gr

⇒ v2 = 9.8 × 1000 ×
⇒ v =172 m/s
Final Answer : (1)

5) At the lowest point : TL = mg sin37°+ ⇒ 274 = 3 × 10 × ⇒ vL = 8 ms–1

6)

Strain

7) Initial surface energy = 0.45 × 4π (10–3)2

∴ 10–3 = 5Rnew

So, final surface energy = 0.45 × 125 ×

Increase in energy = 0.45 × 4 × (10–3)2

= 4 × 0.45 × 4π × 10–6
= 2.26 × 10–5 J

8) Stokes law:
F = 6πηrv = 6π × 1.2 × 0.04 × 2 = 1.81 N
9) Weight of block
= Weight of displaced oil + Weight of displaced water
⇒ mg = V2ρ0g + V2ρwg
⇒ m = (10 × 10 × 6) × 0.6 + (10 × 10 × 4) × 1 = 760 gm

10) From equation of continuity,

Using B.T

(P1–P2)=

11)

12)

K/2x2

13)
14)

(c)

15)

M1R2 = M2R1
Hence reason R is not correct.

16)
For collision uyA = uyB
50sin θ = sin 45

⇒
⇒ θ = 53°
Time to collide

17)

18)

19) The required condition is achieved when the particle is at P such that AP is tangent to
semi-circle.

Hence required time =

20)

21)

22)

⇒ ⇒

23) Tension in spring before cutting the strip,

After cutting the strip,

Acceleration of block A,

Acceleration of block B,
24)

25) Fractional change in period

% Change

26)

27) Correct Answer: (4)

28)

For open pipe f =

When half of its length is dipped in water, Now it is COP.

f′ =

29)

30)

320

31)

6 kg

32)

60°С
33)

For a, b and c

34) R1 ∝ (600)4 – (200)4

R2 ∝ (400)4 – (200)4

35) 1 m/s

36) Density

37) Correct answer is B

38) Correct answer is A

39) Correct answer is A

40)

41) correct answer is 2.5 m/s2

42) From a.t. graph, area of a – t graph = change in velocity

Hence V at t = 8, = 16
Wconserivative force = –ΔP.E. = 240 J
Total work done = ΔK.E.
Wconservative + Wnon-conservative = ΔK.E.
 43)

496 Hz

44) Frequency of tuning fork

For T = 6N and L = 1m

... (i)
For T = 54N and L = 1m

... (ii)

, Given f2 – f1 = 12
∴ f1 = 6 Hz

45)

(A-R) ; (B-P) ; (C-Q) ; (D-R)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation:
Given:
Asked: Equilibrium pressure of system
Concept:
This Question is based on Equilibrium constant (Kp)
Solution:

(NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)

2p p p
2
Kp = (2p) p.p = 64 atm
p = 2 atm
ptotal = 2p + p + p = 8 atm
Final Answer: Option: 2

47)

B2+ < B2 < B2–

48)
 Explain the question: Identify the pair that is both isotopic (same element) and isoelectronic
(same electron count).

Concept: Isotopes (Same Z ) & Isoelectronic (Same ).

Solution:

A. Isotopes: Must be the same element. Options 2, 3, 4 satisfy this.

B. Isoelectronic: Since isotopes have the same atomic number (Z), they must have the same
charge to have the same number of electrons charge).
C. Check Option 2: Both are Potassium ions ( K+). Both have 18 electrons ( ). Matches.

Final Answer: Option .

49)

Explain Question: Identify species with same electrons and similar structure.
Concept: Isoelectronic & isostructural
Solution: NO3– and CO32– both have 24 valence electrons and trigonal planar geometry,
making them isoelectronic and isostructural. Other pairs differ in electron count or geometry.

Final Answer: Option (1)

50)

Question Explanation : Find the pH after mixing a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base
(NaOH).

Concept : This question is based on acid–base neutralization

Solution :

Given:

A. HCl: 0.1 M, 40 cm3 (0.040 L)

B. NaOH: 0.45 M, 10 cm3 (0.010 L)

Steps:

A. Moles of HCl: 0.1 × 0.040 = 0.004 mol

 B. Moles of NaOH: 0.45 × 0.010 = 0.0045 mol

C. Excess OH⁻: 0.0045 − 0.004 = 0.0005 mol

D. Total volume: 40 + 10 = 50 cm3 = 0.050 L

E. Final [OH⁻] = 0.0005 / 0.050 = 0.01 M

F. pOH: −log10(0.01) = 2

G. pH: 14 − 2 = 12

Final Answer : Option (4)

51)

12.19 K

52)

1.058 Å

53) pH = pKa + log

5.18 = (5 – log 2) + log

5.18 – 4.7 = 0.48 = log 3 = log

∴ =3:1

54)

55) Question Explanation :

Calculate the standard enthalpy change (ΔH) for the reaction CH4 + C2H4 → C3H8 using the

provided standard heat enthalpies .

Concept : Hess's Law Application:
Solution :
 Reaction: CH4 + C2H4 → C3H8

Final Answer : option (2)

56) Question Explanation : Identify the property among the given options that is not an
intensive property (i.e., it is an extensive property).

Concept :
Intensive Property and Extensive Property

Solution :
1. Molar volume: Volume per mole (V/n). This is a ratio of two extensive properties, making it
an intensive property.
2. Density: Mass/Volume (m/V). This is a ratio of two extensive properties, making it an
intensive property.
3. Mass/volume: This is the definition of Density (Option 2), which is an intensive property.
4. Volume: The total space occupied by the system. This value directly scales with the amount
of substance. This is an extensive property.

Final Answer : Option (4)

57) Question explanation : Relation between ΔH and ΔE for reactions involving only solids
and liquids, is to be found.

Concept: ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT

Solution:

A. Δng for reactions involving only solids and liquids = 0

B. Relation between ΔH and ΔE in a chemical reaction:

ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
∴ Δng = 0, ΔH = ΔE
ΔH = Heat at constant pressure (qp)
ΔE = Heat at constant volume (qv)

Final Answer: option (4)

58)

Question Explanation: We need to identify the process for which the relation q = −w is not
true.

Concept: From first law of thermodynamics: ΔU = q + w

So, q = −w only when ΔU = 0.

Solution:

A. Isothermal process (ideal gas): ΔU = 0 → q = −w (true)

B. Adiabatic process: q = 0 → q ≠ −w (false)

C. Cyclic process: ΔU = 0 → q = −w (true)

Final Answer: Option (2)

59)

Explain the Question : We need to find pH of a very dilute acidic solution like 10–7 M HCl.
Concept : This question is based on pH of very dilute solution.
Solution :
For very dilute solution :
[H+]total = [H+]acid +
[H+]total = 10–7 + 10–7 = 2 × 10–7
pH = – log [H+] = –log (2 × 10–7)
pH = 7 – 0.3 = 6.7 (between 6 and 7)
Final Answer: Option (4)

60)

E2 = E1 – 450 + 600
E2 = E1 + 150

61) Question Explanation :

This question asks for the P-V graph representing the reversible isothermal expansion of an
ideal gas.
Concept :
reversible isothermal process.
Solution :
For an ideal gas undergoing a reversible isothermal process, PV is constant.
Expansion indicates an increase in volume, so the process must be shown moving from a
smaller to a larger volume, which is from left to right on the graph.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

62)

p-p>s-p>s-s

63)

XeF5

64)

Distorted tetrahedral

65)

H2O is bent

66)

67)

68)

R ln 3

69)

70) Explain Question: Identify the metallic and non-metallic elements liquid at room
temperature.
Concept: General facts about periodic table.
Solution: Mercury (Hg) is the only common metal that is liquid at room temperature. Bromine
(Br) is the only non-metal that is liquid at room temperature.
Final Answer: 4

71)
Li < B < Be < C < O < N

72)

e– configuration ⇒ ns2; stable O.S. ⇒ +2; group No. ⇒ 2nd

73)

74)

CH3OH

75)

F3C – CH2 – CH2–OH

76)

II > IV > I > III

77)

d>a>b>c

78) Localised e– pair most basic than delocalised

79)
80)

81)

82)

83) Only addition of HBr gives anti-Markonikoff product in presence of peroxide. Presence of
peroxide does not make any difference reaction with HCl.
 84)

85) &
are position isomers.

86)

The +I effect of the CH3 groups tends to destabilise the

87)

Explain Question: Evaluate whether n-butane's monochloro derivatives are structural and positional
isomers.

Concept: Isomerism.

Solution: Statement I is correct: replacing a hydrogen on carbon-1 gives 1-chlorobutane, while

carbon-2 gives 2-chlorobutane.

Statement II is correct: they differ only in the position of the chlorine atom on the chain.

Final Answer: Option (4)

88) H2 involves 1s - 1s overlapping.

 89)

The lone pairs are at equatorial position (120° angle).

90)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation : The question asks about what happens during polyribosome
(polysome) formation.
Concept: Polyribosomes
Solution : Multiple ribosomes are associated with the same mRNA → Correct. A polysome is a
cluster of ribosomes simultaneously translating a single mRNA strand.
Final Answer: Option (3)

92)

Question Explanation: The question gives two statements about ribosomes and asks whether
they are correct or incorrect.

Concept: ribosomes

Solution:

A. Statement I: In eukaryotes, ribosomes are 80S type (made of 60S large and 40S small
subunits).
B. Statement II: The "S" stands for Svedberg unit, which is a measure of sedimentation
coefficient, reflecting size, shape, and density.

Final Answer: 2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

93) Question Explanation :

The question is asking you to identify the structure on the bacterial surface that helps in
attachment to surfaces or host cells.

Concept :
Eubacteria.

Solution :
The correct answer is 1. Fimbriae
Explanation :
Fimbriae are small, bristle-like projections that help bacteria attach to surfaces or host tissues.

Final Answer :
Option (1)
94)

Golgi complex

95)

All of the above

96)

Question explanation
The question is asking about the number and chromosome content of cells formed after
meiosis-I.

Concept
Meiosis.

Solution
Meiosis-I is a reductional division producing two haploid daughter cells called dyads, each
with half the number of chromosomes compared to the mother cell.
Final answer
Option 2

97) Question explanation

The question is asking about the DNA content in daughter cells after meiosis-I if the parent
cell has 10 pg DNA in G1.

Concept
Meiosis.

Solution
During S-phase, DNA doubles to 20 pg before meiosis-I. Meiosis-I is reductional, so each
daughter cell receives half the chromosome number but each chromosome still has two
chromatids. Therefore, each daughter cell will have 10 pg DNA.
Final answer
Option 1

98)

Pachytene

99)

Diplotene

100)
 Angiospermae and poales

101)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 7

102)

Explain Question: Question is asking about which are edible mushroom.

Concept: : Class-Basidiomycetes

Solution :

Agaricus — is an edible type of mushrooms.

Final answer: 3

103)

Explain Question : The question asks which statement correctly describes the spores of slime
moulds.

Concept : Biological Classification – Slime Moulds (Myxomycetes).

Solution : slime mould spores:

A. Have a cellulose cell wall

B. Are resistant to adverse conditions (NOT susceptible)

C. Are formed during unfavourable conditions, not favourable ones.

Final answer : Option 2

104)

Question Explanation: Question asks about identifying the true statements regarding
chrysophytes based on their habitat, nature, and members.

Concept: Chrysophyta
Solution: (A)Chrysophytes occur in fresh water and marine water → True
(B)They are microscopic and float passively (phytoplankton) → True
(C)Chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids (NCERT includes desmids under golden algae)
→ True
(D)They are mostly photosynthetic, not saprophytic → so this is False

Final answer: a, b & c

105) NCERT Pg. # 22

106)

NCERT PG-24

107) NCERT Page No. 34

108) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

109)

Explain Question : Question asking about identified given diagram

Concept : This question is based on Algae, bryophyta, and Pteridophyta

Solution :

Given diagrams A,B,C and D are-

A- Laminaria, B-Equisetum, C-Salvinia, D-Sphagnum

Final Answer : option (2)

110)

Chondrus (Red Algae)

111) NCERT-XI Pg # 36

112)
Explain Question : The question asks to find the incorrect statement about gymnosperms.

Concept : Gymnosperms - general characters and life cycle

Solution :
The incorrect statement is: 4.
In gymnosperms male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.
(Gametophyte is not independent in gymnosperms)

Final answer : option (4)

113)
Explain Question – The question asks which plant growth regulator (PGR) is obtained from a
fungus.

Concept – Plant Growth Regulators– Gibberellins (GA)

Solution – Gibberellins (GA) were first discovered in a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi, which
caused the "foolish seedling" disease in rice. This led to the identification of GA as a growth-
promoting hormone.

Final Answer – Option 4

114)

Explain Question: The question asks that removal of shoot tips (decapitation) usually results
in the growth of lateral buds is related to the removal effect of which PGR.

Concept: Auxin ( PGR)

Solution: The removal of shoot tips (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds
is related to the removal effect of Auxin.

So, the correct answer is: 2. Auxin.

Final answer: Option 2

115)

Ethylene

116) NCERT XI (H) Pg.# 67

117) NCERT Pg. # 75(E), (H)-Pg-75

118) NCERT-XI Pg # 66
119) NCERT XI Pg # 71

120)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 77

121)

Collenchyma

122) NCERT XI,Pg. # 89, Para - 6.2.2

123)

Subsidiary cell

124) NCERT Pg. # 93

125) NCERT Pg. # 229

126)

(a), (d) and (e) only

127)

T.W. Engelmann

128)

PS I

129)

Cyto-a3

130)

0.7

131)
 pyruvate to acetyl coA

132)

PEP

133) NCERT-XI, Page # 141

134)

Shown by RuBisCO in C3 plants

135)

Reduction of NAD+

136) Question Explanation: Complete the analogy based on animal classification.

Concept: Mollusca

Solution: Dentalium is commonly known as a tusk shell, and Chaetopleura is commonly

known as a chiton. Both are molluscs.

Final Answer: 2

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 51,52,54

138)

Question Explanation: Determine if all triploblastic animals are coelomates and whether
coelomates always show metamerism.
Concept: Basis of classification - coelom and segmentation
Solution: The correct answer is option 4: (Both A and R false)

A. Assertion (A) → False. Not all triploblastic animals are coelomates. Some are
acoelomates (flatworms) or pseudocoelomates (roundworms).

B. Reason (R) → False. Not all coelomates show metamerism; only certain groups like
annelids, arthropods, and chordates are metameric.

Final answer: Option (4)

139)
 Explain Question: Where are chordae tendineae found in the human heart?

Concept: structure of the human heart

Solution: Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords present in the ventricles of the heart that
connect the papillary muscles to the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and bicuspid). They
prevent valve inversion during ventricular contraction.

Final Answer: Ventricles of heart

140)

Question Explanation: The question asks which hormones are secreted by the kidney and
gastrointestinal tract (GIT).

Concept: Hormones and their sites of secretion

Solution:

A. Kidney:

A. Erythropoietin (A)

B. Gastrointestinal tract:

A. Secretin (C)

B. Gastrin (E)

C. Cortisol (B) → Adrenal cortex

D. Thyroxine (D) → Thyroid

So the correct set is: A, C, E

Final Answer: Option 2

141)

Explain Question : Formed Elements of Blood are formed in ?

Concept : This question is based on Blood

Solution : Formed elements of Blood are formed in Red Bone marrow.

Final Answer : option (4)

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 281

143)

Question explanation:
The question is asking about the ion permeability of a neuron's axonal membrane during its
resting (non-conducting) state.

Concept:
Generation and conduction of nerve impulse.

Solution:
At resting state, the neuron's axonal membrane is more permeable to potassium (K⁺) ions
than sodium (Na⁺) ions due to the presence of more K⁺ leak channels. This differential
permeability helps maintain the negative resting membrane potential.

Final answer: 1

144) NCERT XI, Pg. # 112

145)

4000

146)

NCERT-XI, Page # 113

147) NCERT Pg # 118, 119

148) Solution : Absent structures in frog are

(1) Bidder's canal
(2) 4 Chambered heart
(3) Omnivorous nature
(4) Direct development

149)

NCERT based

150)

Quaternary

151)
Explain Question: Evaluate correctness of statements about cnidarians.
Concept: This question based on Cnidaria
Solution: The correct answer is option 1.
Statement-A: True — Cnidarians possess a central gastrovascular cavity with a single
opening (mouth) located on a hypostome.
Statement-B: True — Adamsia (sea anemone) is sessile and has a cylindrical body form.
Final answer: 1

152) NCERT-XI Pg. # 145

153)

Explain Question: Identify the conditions in the lungs that favor oxyhemoglobin formation.

Concept: Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve

Solution: The correct answer is Option 4.

Oxyhemoglobin forms more readily under conditions present in the lungs:

A. High O₂ pressure (Pₒ₂ ↑)

B. Low CO₂ pressure (Pco₂ ↓)

C. Low temperature

D. Low H⁺ concentration (pH slightly higher)

These conditions shift the O₂-Hb dissociation curve to the left, promoting oxygen binding.

Final answer: Option (4)

154)

Explain Question: To identify which valve closes during ventricular diastole causing the
second heart sound, and name that sound.
Concept: This question is based on heart sound ,STRUCTURE OF Heart
Solution:
During ventricular diastole, the (A)semilunar valves close to prevent backflow of blood into the
ventricles. This closure produces the second heart sound, known as (B) Dub.
Final answer: 1

155)

Question Explanation: The question asks which of the following is represented by the given
structural formula.
Concept: This question is based on Conjugated and Derived lipids
Solution: The given structural formula represents: Cholesterol and it is the component of
animal cell membrane.
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane
Final answer: 1.

156)

Fishes

157)

Conceptual.

158)

NCERT Pg. # 116

159)

Question Explanation –
The question asks how many of the four given statements about oxygen transport and
hemoglobin are correct.

Concept –
Oxygen transport in blood

Solution –

A. (A) Correct: O₂ binds reversibly with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin.

B. (B) Correct: Each hemoglobin molecule can carry up to 4 O₂ molecules.

C. (C) Correct: Oxygen binding depends on partial pressure of O₂ (pO₂).

D. (D) Correct: About 97% of O₂ is transported bound to RBC hemoglobin.

All four statements are correct.

Final Answer – Option 2

160)
Question Explanation: Are the assertion and reason statements about regulation of
breathing correct, and does the reason explain the assertion?

Concept: The question is based on the regulation of respiratory rhythm.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. Assertion: Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm
centre → True (it regulates the rate and pattern of breathing).

B. Reason: Role of oxygen in regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant

→ True (CO₂ and H⁺ play the major role).

C. Why R does not explain A: The pneumotaxic centre moderates breathing by neural
control, whereas the insignificant role of oxygen relates to chemical regulation of
respiration; So, the reason does not explain the assertion.

Final answer: Option 2

161)

Explain Question : This question asking about the point A & B in the above diagram are
located at
Concept : This question is based on O2–Hb dissociation curve
Explanation :

Final answer : 2

162)

Question explanation: Identify the source from which calcium is immediately released
during skeletal muscle stimulation.
Concept: skeletal Muscle

Solution:

A. During muscle stimulation, Ca²⁺ ions are rapidly released to initiate contraction.

B. This calcium is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibers.

C. Released Ca²⁺ binds to troponin, allowing actin–myosin interaction.

Final answer: Option 2

163)

Question Explanation: Which labeled skull structures match the correct anatomical names?

Concept: The question is based on human skull anatomy

Solution: The correct answer is option 1 – x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital
bone.

A. Sphenoid bone (x): Centrally located bone forming part of the cranial floor.

B. Temporal bone (y): Located on the sides of the skull, near the ears.

C. Occipital bone (z): Forms the back and base of the skull.

Final answer: x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

164)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii

165)

A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii

166)

NCERT - Pg. # 308

167)

Explain Question : The question is asking to identify the correct description of the labelled
parts A, B, and C in a diagram of the actin.

Concept : This question is based on Structure of contractile proteins.

Solution :
C – Actin filament is made of F-actin (filamentous actin), which is a polymer of monomeric G-
actins (globular actin). This makes option 3 correct.

Final Answer : option (3)

168)

Question Explanation: The question asks what happens during depolarisation of a nerve
fibre.

Concept: Nerve conduction

Solution: During depolarisation, voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, Voltage-gated K⁺ channels

remain closed, Na⁺–K⁺ pump is not involved directly/closed during depolarisation. So, Option 3
is correct among given options.

Final answer: Option 3

169)

Question explanation: Match myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres with the
correct parts of the nervous system.

Concept: Nervous system – nerve fibre types

Solution: The correct answer is Option 2.

A. Myelinated fibres mainly occur in cranial and spinal nerves → (a → 3, 4).

B. Unmyelinated fibres are common in somatic and autonomic neural systems → (b

→ 1, 2).

Final answer: Option 2

170)

Explain Question: Find out correct labellings a, b, c, d, e for following diagram

Concept: CNS

Solution:

(i) Sensory & motor signaling → Thalamus ( e )

(ii) Centre of respiration → Medulla oblongata (b )

(iii) Urge of eating → Hypothalamus (a )

(iv) Intersensory association → Association areas of cerebral cortex (c )

(v) Convoluted surface → Cerebellum (d )

Final answer: 4
 171)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 108

172)

Question Explanation: Identify which pair of organisms excrete nitrogenous waste primarily
as uric acid.

Concept: The question is based on types of nitrogenous waste

Solution:The correct answer is option 3.

A. Crow and cockroach are uricotelic, meaning they excrete uric acid to conserve water; others
are either ureotelic or ammonotelic.

Final answer: Option 3

173)

Class XI Ncert page 206.

174) Explain Question:

How many statements are correct?

Concept:

Biomolecules

Solution:

All four statements are correct:

A True → ES complex formation is obligatory.

B True → Induced-fit model alters enzyme shape.

C True → Competitive inhibitors (e.g., sulfa drugs) control bacteria.

D True → Prosthetic groups are tightly bound cofactors.

Final answer:

Option 4

175) Question Explanation: Identify a non-vertebrate chordate.

Concept: Classification of Phylum Chordata.

Solution: Chordates include three subphyla: Urochordata, Cephalochordata, and Vertebrata.

 Vertebrata are characterized by having a vertebral column (backbone). Branchiostoma
belongs to Cephalochordata, which are chordates but lack a vertebral column, hence they
are not vertebrates. Petromyzon (a lamprey), Salamander, and Bufo (a toad) are all members
of Vertebrata.

Final Answer: Branchiostoma

176)

Question Explanation:
The question is asking which nephron part is mismatched with its function.

Concept
URINE FORMATION.

Solution
DCT is not the major site for glucose reabsorption; glucose reabsorption occurs in PCT.

Final answer Option 3

177) The correct answer is Option 3: (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. Explanation:
Assertion (A): T wave represents the ventricular repolarization.

A. This statement is true. The T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) indeed represents the
ventricular repolarization phase. During this phase, the ventricles of the heart are recovering
from their contraction and are returning to their resting state.

Reason (R): The end of the T wave marks the end of ventricular diastole.

A. This statement is incorrect. The end of the T wave marks the end of the entire cardiac cycle,
including both systole and diastole. Diastole begins after the T wave and continues until the
start of the next P wave.

178) Question Explanation :

The question is asking about how many of the listed hormones act through the steroid
hormone mechanism.

Concept :
This question is based on Mechanism of hormone action.

Solution :
Steroid hormone mechanism involves lipid-soluble hormones (like steroid and thyroid
hormones) that pass through the cell membrane and bind to intracellular receptors.
There are only 2 hormones : Thyroxine and Mineralocorticoid.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

179)
Question explanation:
The question is asking about the cause behind developmental issues in a newborn like stunted
growth, mental retardation, low IQ, and abnormal skin.

Concept:
thyroid gland.

Solution:
These symptoms indicate a condition called congenital hypothyroidism or cretinism, often
resulting from the mother's thyroid hormone deficiency during pregnancy. This is usually due
to atrophy or underfunctioning of the thyrofollicular cells in the thyroid gland.

Final answer: 1

180)

Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket