25-05-2026

6901CMD303346MJ2602 MD

PHYSICS

1) If we observe the single slit Fraunhofer diffraction with wavelength and slit width e, the width
of the central maxima is . On decreasing the slit width for the same

(1) increases
(2) remains unchanged
(3) decreases
(4) increases or decreases depending on the intensity of light

2) An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of third harmonic of
the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than fundamental frequency of open pipe, then the
fundamental frequency of open pipe is

(1) 480 Hz
(2) 300 Hz
(3) 240 Hz
(4) 200 Hz

3) Assertion : The universal gravitational constant is same as acceleration due to gravity.

Reason : Gravitational constant and acceleration due to gravity have same dimensional formula.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
(2)
explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.

4) Two similar thin convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other
such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the two lenses is filled
with glycerin (which has the same refractive index as that of glass) then the equivalent
length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

5) A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces double
of the other. Find the radii if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5

(1) 100 cm, 50 cm

(2) 25 cm, 50 cm
(3) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm
(4) 50 cm, 100 cm

6)

Two similar sonometer wires given fundamental frequencies of 500 Hz. These have same tensions.
By what amount the tension be increased in one wire so that the two wires produce 5 beats/sec

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 3%
(4) 4%

7) A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes
between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is
replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the
same positions of the bridges. The value of M is

(1) 25 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 12.5 kg
(4) 1/25 kg

8) In order to double the frequency of the fundamental note emitted by a stretched string, the length

is reduced to th of the original length and the tension is changed. The factor by which the tension
is to be changed, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The 4th overtone of a closed organ pipe is same as that of 3rd overtone of an open pipe. The ratio
of the length of the closed pipe to the length of the open pipe is :

(1) 8 : 9
(2) 9 : 7
(3) 9 : 8
(4) 7 : 9

10) In one metre long open pipe what is the harmonic of resonance obtained with a tuning fork of
frequency 480 Hz (v = 320 m/s)

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth

11) The length of two open organ pipes are and respectively. Neglecting end correction,
the frequency of beats between them will be approximately

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 1. They are producing interference. The ratio of
maximum and minimum intensities will be

(1) 10 : 8
(2) 9 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

13) A thin mica sheet of thickness m and refractive index is introduced in the
path of the wave coming from the upper slit. The wavelength of the wave used is 5000 . The central
bright maximum will shift

(1) 2 fringes upward

(2) 2 fringes downward
(3) 10 fringes upward
(4) None of these

14) A prism of refractive index has a refracting angle of 60o. At what angle a ray must be incident
on it so that it suffers a minimum deviation

(1) 45o
(2) 60o
(3) 90o
(4) 180o

15) Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a distance four times the wavelength of the
source. The sources lie along y axis whereas a detector moves along + x axis. Leaving the origin and
far off points the number of points where maxima are observed is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

16) The path difference between two interfering waves of equal intensities at a point on the screen

is . The ratio of intensity at this point and that at the central fringe will be

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 2

17) The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas, at 300 K is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Equation of a progressive wave is given by

The distance is expressed in cm and time in second. What will be the minimum distance between two
particles having the phase difference

(1) 4 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 12.5 cm

19) A wave equation which gives the displacement along the Y direction is given by the equation y =
104 sin(60t + 2x), where x and y are in metres and t is time in seconds. This represents a wave

(1) Travelling with a velocity of 30 m/sec in the negative X direction

(2) Of wavelength metre
(3) Of frequency 30/π Hz
(4) All of the above

20) Two sound waves (expressed in CGS units) given by and

interfere. The resultant amplitude at a place where phase difference is

will be

(1) 0.7 cm
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.5 cm
(4)
cm

21) Two tuning forks when sounded together produced 4 beats/sec. The frequency of one fork is 256.
The number of beats heard increases when the fork of frequency 256 is loaded with wax. The
frequency of the other fork is

(1) 504
(2) 520
(3) 260
(4) 252

22) A string vibrates according to the equation , where x and y are in cm

and t in sec. The distance between two adjacent nodes is

(1) 3 cm
(2) 4.5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

23) Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A
on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered
surface. Refractive index of the material of prism is

(1) 2 sin A
(2) 2 cos A

(3)
cos A
(4) tan A

24) If mass of a satellite is doubled and time period remain constant the ratio of orbit in the two
cases will be

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) None of these

25) In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance x1 from the focus and the image
is formed at a distance x2 from the focus. The focal length of the mirror would be

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

26) How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled
when viewed from the top of the container (given that )

(1) 8.0 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
(3) 12.0 cm
(4) None of the above

27) If represents refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then the
product is equal to

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A transparent cube of 15 cm edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent depth when viewed
through one face is 6 cm and when viewed through the opposite face is 4 cm. Then the refractive
index of the material of the cube is

(1) 2.0
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.6
(4) 1.5

29) In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence 45o deg at the top surface, what is the minimum

refractive index needed for total internal reflection at vertical face.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A lens of refractive index n is put in a liquid of refractive index n' of focal length of lens in air is
f, its focal length in liquid will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The distance between an object and the screen is 100 cm. A lens produces an image on the
screen when placed at either of the positions 40 cm apart. The power of the lens is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Assuming the earth to have a constant density, point out which of the following curves show the
variation of acceleration due to gravity from the centre of earth to the points far away from the
surface of earth

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

33) A plane mirror makes an angle of 30o with horizontal. If a vertical ray strikes the mirror, find the
angle between mirror and reflected ray

(1) 30o
(2) 45o
(3) 60o
(4) 90o

34) The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively. If
the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45, then the length of the tube is

(1) 30 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 12 cm

35) Column - I shows some vector equations. Match column I with the value of angle
between and given in column II.

Column I Column II

(a) (p) zero

(b) (q)

(c) (r)

(d) and A + B = C (s)

(1) (a) → r, s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → p

(2) (a) → s; (b) → q; (c) → r; (d) → p
(3) (a) → r, s; (b) → p; (c) → p; (d) → q
(4) (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → q; (d) → p

36) If , then the value of is

(1)

(2)

(3) (A + B)

(4)

37) If the angle between the vectors and is , the value of the product is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) zero

38) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector , then the value of is

(1) -1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

39) Minimum number of vectors of unequal magnitudes which can give zero resultant are

(1) two
(2) three
(3) four
(4) more than four

40) In a Young's double slit experiment, a slab of thickness t1 = 1.2 mm and refractive index
is placed in front of upper slit and another slab of thickness t2 and refractive index
is placed in front of the lower slit. If the position of the central fringe remains unaltered, then the

thickness t is-

(1) 0.4 mm
(2) 0.8mm
(3) 1.2 mm
(4) 7 mm

41) In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at angle 30o
when light of wavelength 5000 is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at
an angle of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the bank of a lake. To what
height the image of the fish is raised.

(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 3.8 cm
(4) 3 cm

43) In a compound microscope magnification will be large, if the focal length of the eye piece is

(1) Large
(2) Smaller
(3) Equal to that of objective
(4) Less than that of objective

44) The change in potential energy, when a body of mass m is raised to a height n₨ from the earth's
surface is (R = Radius of earth)

(1)

(2) nmgR

(3)

(4)

45) The masses and radii of the earth and moon are M1, R1 and M2, R2 respectively. Their centres are
distance d apart. The minimum velocity with which a particle of mass m should be projected from a
point midway between their centres so that it escapes to infinity is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which statement about the composition of vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene
and toluene is correct ? Assume the temperature is constant at 25°C.
Vapour pressure data (25°C) :
Benzene 75 mm Hg
Toluene 22 mm Hg

(1) The vapour will contain higher percentage of benzene

(2) The vapour will contain higher percentage of toluene
(3) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene
(4) Not enough information is given to make a prediction

2) The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure will be

(1) 4.0 × 10–4

(2) 4.0 × 10–5
(3) 5.0 × 10–4
(4) 4.0 × 10–6

3) The mixture that forms minimum boiling azeotrope is

(1) Water + Nitric acid

(2) Water + Ethanol
(3) Chloroform + Acetone
(4) Acetone + Aniline

4) If the mole fraction of solute is 0.3 in an aqueous solution then molality of the solution is

(1) 30.8 m
(2) 23.8 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 2.8 m
5) Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point?

(1) 0.01 m CaCl2

(2) 0.05 m glucose
(3) 0.005 m MgCl2
(4) 0.005 m MgSO4

6) Select an incorrect statement among the following

(1) Solubility depends on the nature of solute and solvent

(2) Solubility of a gases in liquid increases with decreases of temperature
(3) Aquatic species are more comfortable in warm waters than in cold waters
(4) Higher the value of KH, the lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquid

7) A 5% (w/V) solution of sucrose is isotonic with 1% (w/V) solution of a substance A. The molar mass
of A is

(1) 68.4 g
(2) 112. 5 g
(3) 34.9 g
(4) 75.2 g

8) Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionised in 0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence ΔTb/ Kb is :

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.0175
(4) 0.02

9) On mixing 30mL of ethanol with 30mL of water, the total volume of solution is:

(1) < 60 mL
(2) > 60 mL
(3) = 60 mL
(4) Can't be predicted.

10) Match the following

Column-I(Solute, degree of Column-II(Van't Hoff

ionisation) factor)

(A) K2SO4: α=0.85 (p) 3.7

(B) SnCl2: α=0.7 (q) 4.0

(C) Al(NO3)3: α=0.9 (r) 2.7

(D) Fe2(SO4)3: α=0.75 (s) 2.4

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) In electrochemical corrosion of metals, the metal undergoing corrosion :

(1) acts as anode

(2) acts as cathode
(3) undergoes reduction
(4) None

12) Standard oxidation electrode potentials of four metals P, Q, R and S are +2.87, +3.05 –0.80 and
+0.25 volts respectively. The reducing power of these metals are :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) S > R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) None of these

13) Zn|Zn2+ (C1)||Zn2+ (C2)|Zn. for this cell ΔG is negative if :-

(1) C1 = C2
(2) C1 > C2
(3) C2 > C1
(4) None

14) The specific conductivity of N/10 KCl solution at 20°C is 0.012 Ω–1 cm–1 and the resistance of the
cell containing this solution at 20°C is 56Ω. The cell constant is

(1) 4.616 cm–1

(2) 0.672 cm–1
(3) 2.173 cm–1
(4) 3.324 cm–1

15) At infinite dilution, the molar conductivity in S cm2 mol–1 Units for various electrolytes is given as
HCl = 426, NaCl = 126, CH3COONa = 91. From these data, the calculated value of molar
conductivity at infinite dilution for CH3COOH will be :

(1) 391
(2) 335
(3) 300
(4) 217

16) The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is :-

(1) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(3) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
(4) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

17) Which of the following decreases on dilution of the electrolyte solution?

(1) Molar conductance

(2) Equivalent conductance
(3) Specific conductance
(4) Cell constant

18) One mole each of electrons pass through solution of AgNO3, CuSO4 and molten AlCl3, when
Ag,Cu and Al are deposited at cathode. The molar ratio of Ag,Cu and Al deposited are

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 6 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 3 : 6

19) Electrolytic conduction is due to the movement of :

(1) molecule
(2) atoms
(3) ions
(4) electrons

20) Statement-I: If dilution increases then specific conductance decreases

Statement-II: On dilution [Link] ions per unit volume decreases

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I correct, Statement-II incorrect
(4) Statement-I incorrect, Statement-II correct

21) Which of the following matching is not correct ?

(1)
cathodic reaction in dry cell
Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(ℓ) ;
(2)
overall reaction in mercury cell
Pb(s) + SO42–(aq.) → PbSO4(s) + 2e– ;
(3)
Anodic reaction in lead storage battery during charging
2H2(g) + 4OH–(aq.) → 4H2O(ℓ) + 4e– ;
(4)
Anodic reaction in fuel cell
22) Which of the following statements is true for fuel cells ?

(1) They are free from pollution

(2) They run till the reactants are active
(3) They are more efficient
(4) All of the above

23) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

24) The V–C distance in [V(CO)6] and [V(CO)6]– are respectively (in pm) :-

(1) 200,200
(2) 193,200
(3) 200,193
(4) 193,193

25) In the coordination compound [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (en = ethylenediamine), the coordination number
and oxidation number of the central atom are, respectively :-

(1) 4, +3
(2) 6, +2
(3) 4, +2
(4) 6, +3

26) The IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4 Cl2]NO3 is :-

(1) Tetraaminedichloridochromium nitrate

(2) Tetraamminedichloridochromium (III) nitrate
(3) Dichloridotetraamminechromium (III) nitrate
(4) Tetraaminodichloridochromium (II) nitrate

27) Which of the following complex follow sidgwick rule of EAN :

(Atomic number of Mo-42, Pt-78, Ag-47, Co-27)

(1) [Mo(trien)Cl2]Cl2
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(3) Na[Ag(CN)2]
(4) Na[Co(CO)4]

28) A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four ions per molecule in the solution.
The structure consists with the observation is :
(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(3) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2

29) Complex compound [Co(SCN)2(NH3)4]Cl does not exhibit :-

(1) Ionisation isomerism

(2) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Linkage isomerism
(4) Optical isomerism

30) Which of the following order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands ?

– – 2– – –
(1) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– 2– – – –
(2) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
2– – – – –
(3) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – 2–
(4) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4

31) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

3– 3+
(1) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are paramagnetic complexes.
3– 3+
(2) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are high spin complexes.
3– 3+
(3) [CoF6] is octahedral while [Co(NH3)6] has a pentagonal pyramid shape.
3– 3+
(4) [CoF6] is outer orbital complex while [Co(NH3)6] is inner orbital complex.

32) Which of the following complex species DO NOT involve d2sp3 hybridisation :-

3–
(1) [CoF6]
3+
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]

33) Total number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

34) Value of CFSE for d6 electronic configuration for octahedral complex forming low spin complex
will be (CFSE = crystal field stabilisation energy):-

(1) –2.4 Δo + 2P
(2) –2 Δo + P
(3) –2.4 Δo + P
(4) –2.4 Δo + 6P

35) The wavelength of light absorbed is highest in

3–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(2) [Fe(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(NO2)6]
3–
(4) [FeCl6]

36) Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation of hardness
(A) (i) Cis-platin
of water

(B) Test of Ni+2 (ii) EDTA

(C) Electroplating (iii) Dimethylglyoxime

Potassium
(D) Treatment of cancer (iv)
dicyanoargentate (I)
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

37) Which of the following is an oxidising agent?

(1) [Mn2(CO)10]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Mn(CO)5]
(4) [Fe2(CO)9]

38) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table ?

(1) Z=23, Z=31

(2) Z=65, Z=66
(3) Z=52, Z=87
(4) Z=58, Z=46

39) Element with maximum electron gain enthalpy:-

(1) F
(2) O
(3) Ne
(4) N

40) Maximum I.P. in a period is of :-

(1) Alkali Metals

(2) Inert gases
(3) Halogens
(4) Normal element

41) The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be :

(1) Na
(2) Si
(3) F
(4) Ca

42)

Which of the following pair of elements have almost similar atomic radii?

(1) Sc, Y
(2) Zr, Hf
(3) Ni, Pd
(4) Li, Na

43) The electronic configuration of four elements are given below. Arrange these elements in the
correct order of their electron affinity :-
(i) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4
(ii) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(iii) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2, 3p4
(iv) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5

(1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

(2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)

44) Correct order of ionic radii is :-

(1) S–2 > Cℓ– > K+ > Ca+2

(2) K+ > S–2 > Cℓ– > Ca+2
(3) Ca+2 > S–2 > Cℓ– > K+
(4) Cℓ– > S–2 > K+ > Ca+2

45)
Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

BOTANY

1)

__A__ performed an elegant experiment with an __B__ plant to show that in bright sun-light, small
bubble, were formed around the __C__ parts.

(I) A-Ingenhousz B-Aquatic C-Green

(II) A-Ingenhousz B-Terrestrial C-Green
(III) A-Priestly B-Aquatic C-Green
(IV) A-Priestly B-Aquatic C-Non-green
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

2) The number of carboxylation in C4 cycle is/are-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

3) Assertion: Calvin cycle is referred as C3 pathway.

Reason: In Calvin cycle the first product of CO2 fixation is a C3 acid (PGA).

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

4) Which of the following is correct about photorespiration?

(1) Wasteful process

(2) ATP is utilized
(3) Release of CO2
(4) All of these
5) Which of the following cycle shows oxaloacetic acid as the first stable product?

(1) Calvin cycle

(2) Hatch and Slack cycle
(3) C2 cycle
(4) C3 cycle

6) Kranz type of anatomy is found in

(1) C2 plants
(2) C3 plants
(3) C4 plants
(4) All monocots

7) Identify the pigments A, B and C in the given graph showing absorption spectrum of these

pigments.

A B C

(1) Chlorophyll-a Carotenoids Chlorophyll-b

(2) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a

(3) Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids

(4) Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which among the following is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis?

(1) Light
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) Temperature
(4) Water

9) Statement I : C4 Plant also show CO2 fixation by Calvin cycle.

Statement II : Mesophyll cells in C4 plants show- Calvin cycle CO2 fixation.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

10) Enzyme, which can catalyse both carboxylation and oxygenation of RuBP in the chloroplast, is
not found in which of the following cells ?

(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants

(2) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(3) Mesophyll cells of CAM plants
(4) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants

11) Give diagram is of ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Find out the correct statement :-

(A) A is a transmembrane protein which carries out active transport

of protons across the thylakoid membrane
(B) NADP-reductase enzyme is concerned with D and is located on the stromal side of thylakoid
membrane
(C) Water spliting complex is associated with C and D which is found in granal thylakoid as well as
stromal thylakoid

(1) All are correct

(2) Only A is correct
(3) Only B is correct
(4) A and C are correct

12) In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur because :-

(1) Their mesophyll cells are rich in RuBisCO enzyme but lack PEPcase
(2) They have mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the working place of RuBisCO
(3) They have large number of chloroplasts in their bundle sheath cells
(4) Oxalocetate is the first stable product of the dark reaction

13) How many additional ATP are used during synthesis of two molecules of hexose sugar in maize
than tomato ?

(1) 12
(2) 36
(3) 24
(4) 8
14) Half leaf experiment proves that

(1) light is essential for photosynthesis

(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O2 releases during photosynthesis
(4) chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis

15) Who used prism, white light, green alga, Cladophora and aerobic bacteria and plotted the action
spectra for photosynthesis?

(1) Sachs
(2) Arnon
(3) Arnold
(4) Englemann

16) Studies by which of the following scientists showed that the green substance in plants is located
in special bodies within plant cells?

(1) T.W. Engelmann

(2) Julius Von Sachs
(3) Cornelius Van Niel
(4) Joseph Priestley

17) Which of the following is not special about C4 plants?

(1) Responsiveness to high light intensities

(2) Lack of photorespiration
(3) Greater productivity
(4) Tolerate low temperature

18) Which of the following statements are correct regarding synthesis of ATP in chloroplast during
photosynthesis ?
(A) Splitting of water in stroma helps in creation of proton gradient
(B) Cytochrome complex helps in the release of protons in the lumen of thylakoid by accepting
electrons from hydrogen carrier.
(C) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma through the F0 of the ATP synthease is
coupled with ATP synthesis.
(D) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH+H+ is also a cause for creation of proton gradient.

(1) All statements are correct

(2) C and D
(3) A and B
(4) B, C and D

19) Law of limiting factors was proposed by ?

(1) R. Hill
(2) Blackman
(3) Benda
(4) Calvin

20) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is

catalysed by:

(1) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Aldolase
(3) Hexokinase
(4) Enolase

21) Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires:

(1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Cobalt
(4) Magnesium

22) Which of the following pair is incorrect—

(1) RQ of Fats-Less than 1

(2) RQ of Carbohydrates-Equal to 1
(3) RQ of Proteins-More than 1
(4) RQ of Tripalmitin-0.7

23) Read the following four statements (A-D) regarding EMP pathway :-
(A) Four redox equivalents are removed from each molecule of glucose
(B) It occurs in all living organisms
(C) Phosphorylated form of glucose gets phosphorylated again before converting into fructose-6-
phosphate
(D) First ATP is synthesised during conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

24) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column I Column II

Inner mitochondrial
(A) TCA cycle (i)
membrane

(B) F0-F1 Particle (ii) Hans A. Krebs

 End product Oxidative
(C) (iii)
of glycolysis decarboxylation

Pyruvate
(D) (iv) Pyruvic acid
dehydrogenase
(1) A–ii ; B–i ; C–iv ; D–iii
(2) A–i ; B–ii ; C–iv ; D–iii
(3) A–ii ; B–iii ; C–iv ; D–i
(4) A–iii ; B–ii ; C–i ; D–iv

25)

Match the following respiratory substrate with their RQ.

(A) Tripalmitin (i) Undefined (or) infinity

(B) Glucose (ii) 4

(C) Oxalic acid (iii) 1

(D) Anaerobic respiration (iv) 0.7

(1) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(ii)
(2) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
(3) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii)
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)

26)

In the given diagram for respiratory process inside mitochondria, correctly identify 'A', 'B' and 'C'

(1) A=ATP, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

(2) A=ATP, B=Fumaric acid, C=CO2
(3) A=CO2, B=Fumaric acid, C=CoA
(4) A=CO2, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2
27) How many statements are correct with reference to cellular respiration ?
(A) Breakdown of complex molecules to yield energy takes place in chloroplast.
(B) Breakdown of C–C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation occur within the cells.
(C) Organic acids cannot be used as respiratory substances in plant.
(D) Energy released in a series of slow step wise enzymatic reaction.

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1

28) Common pathway of aerobic and anaerobic respiration is :-

(1) C3 cycle
(2) Glycolysis
(3) TCA cycle
(4) ETS

29) Number of ATP synthesized by substrate level phosphorylation from one molecule of glucose in
glycolysis :–

(1) 6 ATP
(2) 8 ATP
(3) 10 ATP
(4) 4 ATP

30) FADH2 (complex II) that is generated during oxidation of …………… in the citric acid cycle.

(1) Succinate
(2) Oxaloacetate
(3) Oxalosuccinate
(4) Fumerate

31) How many ATP molecules will be produced in aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 38
(4) 34
32)
Major Pathway of Anaerobic respiration Identify A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) NAD+ Ethanol Lactic acid

(2) Ethanol NAD+ Lactic acid

(3) Lactic acid Ehtanol NAD

(4) NAD Lactic acid Ethanol

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Go through the comparision of different process given below and choose the correct option:

I. Condensation 1st step of Kreb's cycle

II. Decarboxylation 2 times in TCA cycle

III. Phosphorylation Initiation of TCA cycle

IV. Isomerisation 1st step of EMP pathway

(1) I and II are correct
(2) Only I is correct
(3) II and IV are correct
(4) I and III are correct

34) Assertion :- Lactic acid is formed during aerobic respiration.

Reason :- Lactic acid fermentation occurs in mitochondria.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
35) State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements.
a. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 10%.
b. In fermentation, less than seven percent of the energy in glucose is released.
c. NADH+H+ is reoxidised to NAD+ in lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation.
d. Pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid by heterofermentative lactic acid bacteria

(1) a(T), b(T), c(F), d(F)

(2) a(F), b(T), c(F), d(F)
(3) a(F), b(F), c(T), d(F)
(4) a(F), b(T), c(T), d(F)

36)

Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

(A) NADH dehydrogenase (1) Complex IV

(B) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Complex III

(C) Cytochrome aa3 (3) Complex I

(D) ATP synthase (4) Complex V

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

37) Which one of the following options give the correct number of NADH2 formed during different
processes (A, B, C) of aerobic respiration ?

A
B C
Complete
EMP One citric
oxidation of one
Pathway acid cycle
pyruvic acid

(1) Four Two Three

(2) Five Two Four

(3) One Three Two

(4) Three Zero Four

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Match the following Column-I with Column-II

 Column-I Column-II

a. Mucor i. Basidiomycetes

b. Claviceps ii. Phycomycetes

c. Mushroom iii. Deuteromycetes

d. Trichoderma iv. Ascomycetes

(1) (a - iii), (b - ii), (c - i), (d - iv)
(2) (a - ii), (b - iv), (c - i), (d - iii)
(3) (a - iii), (b - ii), (c - iv), (d - i)
(4) (a - ii), (b - iv), (c - iii), (d - i)

39)
Which of the following structures are not related with above diagram?
(i) Stiff cellulose plates
(ii) Two equal sized flagella
(iii) Two overlapping shells
(iv) Proteinaceous pellicle

(1) i & ii
(2) ii, iii & iv
(3) iii & iv
(4) All of the above

40) Viroid are similar to TMV in having :-

(1) DNA
(2) Capsomere
(3) Envelope
(4) RNA

41) Silica is found in cell wall of

(1) Diatoms
(2) Fresh water protozoans
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Gonyaulax

42) Assertion (A) :- Chlamydomas is a protist according to whittekar.

Reason (R) :- Chlamydomonas is a unicellular eukaryotic algae.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

43) Assertion (A) :- Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.

Reason (R) :- Mycoplasma are facultative anaerobes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

44) Identify 'A' in the figure given below and to which process it is related ?

(1) Holdfast - Nitrogen fixation

(2) Heterocyst - Nitrogen fixation
(3) Heterocyst - Production of methane
(4) Pyrenoids - Storage bodies

45) Assertion : In two-kingdom classification system bacteria, blue-green algae & fungi were all
placed under plant kingdom.
Reason : Bacteria blue-green algae & fungi all these organisms had cell wall in their cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

ZOOLOGY

1) Match the following column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

A. Duct of glands I. Ciliated epithelium

B. Wall of blood vessels II. Simple cuboidal epithelium

 Simple squamous
C. Inner lining of stomach III.
epithelium

D. Fallopian tube IV. Simple columnar epithelium

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

2) Compound epithelium is not found in :-

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) PCT of nephron
(4) Inner lining of duct of salivary gland

3)

Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Tendons are dense regular connective tissue.
Statement-II :- Adipose tissue is dense irregular connective tissue.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I & statement-II are true

4) Given below is a list of some secretory substances :

Mucus, Hormone, Enzymes, Saliva, Milk, Oil and Earwax
How many of the above substances are secreted by exocrine gland ?

(1) 7
(2) 1
(3) 6
(4) 5

5) Read the following (A-D) statements.

A. It is made of more than one layer (multi-layered) of cells.
B. It has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
C. Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stress
D. It covers the dry surface of the skin and the moist surface of buccal cavity.
How many of the above statements are correct for compound epithelium :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

6) Assertion: Endocrine glands release their secretions directly in the fluid bathing them.
Reason: Endocrine glands do not have ducts.

(1) Assertion is true and Reason is false

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is false and Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

7) Cilia and microvilli are associated with the

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Nervous tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

8) Histamine is secreted by

(1) Mast cells

(2) Fibroblast
(3) Histiocytes
(4) Melanocytes

9) Identify A to D in the given figure.

A: Collagen fibres, B: Macrophage,

(1)
C: Mast cell, D: Fibroblast
A: Macrophage, B: Fibroblast,
(2)
C: Mast cell, D: Collagen fibres
A: Mast cell, B: Collagen fibres,
(3)
C: Macrophage, D: Fibroblast
A: Fibroblast, B: Mast cell,
(4)
C: Collagen fibres, D: Macrophage

10)

Match the following with respect to leukocytes

 Column-I Column-II

A Neutrophils I Antibody production

B Lymphocytes II Phagocytosis

C Basophils III Histamine secretion

D Eosinophils IV Allergic response

(1) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II

11) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) At tissue level pO2 = 40 mm Hg pCO2 = 45 mm Hg

In pulmonary
(ii) pO2 = 95 mm Hg pCO2 = 50 mm Hg
vein

In systemic
(iii) pO2 = 40 mm Hg pCO2 = 40 mm Hg
artery

(iv) In alveoli pO2 = 104 mm Hg pCO2 = 40 mm Hg

(1) Both (i) and (ii)
(2) Both (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Both (i) and (iv)

12) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(A) High concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
(B) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma
(C) Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(D) 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and B
(3) C and D
(4) A, B and C

13) The diagram below represents the conduction system of the human heart.

Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D. A – Pacemaker region

B – Node located at the lower part of right atrium
C – Conducting bundle passing through interventricular septum
D – Terminal conducting fibres in ventricular walls
Choose the correct option:

(1) A–SAN, B–AVN, C–AV bundle, D–Purkinje fibres

(2) A–AVN, B–SAN, C–Purkinje fibres, D–AV bundle
(3) A–Purkinje fibres, B–SAN, C–AV bundle, D–AVN
(4) A–SAN, B–Purkinje fibres, C–AVN, D–AV bundle

14) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

(1) (i) incorrect, (ii) incorrect, (iii) incorrect,(iv) correct

(2) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(3) (i) correct, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(4) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect, (iii) correct, (iv) incorrect

15)

(i) Increased intrapulmonary pressure

(ii) Decreased thoracic cavity volume
(iii) Contraction of Diaphragm and EICM
(iv) Increased thoracic cavity volume
(v) Relaxation of diaphragm and EICM

How much of the above events are related with initiation of normal inspiration
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

16)

Consider the following statements regarding neural regulation of cardiac activity:

(A) Sympathetic neural signals increase the rate of heartbeat.
(B) Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the rate of heartbeat.
(C) Adrenal medullary hormones may increase cardiac output.
(D) Cardiac activity is entirely controlled by the central nervous system.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Study the following diagram and choose the option that correctly identifies the parts labelled A,

B, C and D :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Assertion : Lymph is considered an important carrier of nutrients such as fats absorbed from
the intestine.
Reason : Fats absorbed in the intestine are transported through lymphatic vessels called lacteals
present in intestinal villi.
Choose the correct answer:

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

19) Statement-I :- The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a
spirometer.
Statement-II :- Intercostal muscles are present between the ribs.

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

20)

In a physiological investigation, the fluid portion of blood was separated after removal of clotting
factors.
This fluid would be identified as:
(1) Plasma
(2) Serum
(3) Lymph
(4) Interstitial fluid

21)

During tissue metabolism, a fluid derived from blood plasma accumulates in intercellular spaces
and later returns to major veins through lymphatic vessels.
This fluid is best described as:

(1) Haemolymph
(2) Interstitial fluid
(3) Serum
(4) Bile

22)

During vertebrate evolution, certain animals possess a three-chambered heart where mixing of
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs in a single ventricle.
Which group best represents this condition?

(1) Fishes
(2) Amphibians
(3) Birds
(4) Mammals

23) A person with blood group AB can receive blood from:

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only AB
(3) A, B, AB and O
(4) Only O

24) During cardiac physiology studies, a researcher noted that the electrical impulse generated in
the pacemaker region is transmitted to the ventricles through a specialised conducting pathway.
Which structure carries the impulse from the atrioventricular node to the ventricular musculature?

(1) Purkinje fibres

(2) Bundle of His
(3) Sino-atrial node
(4) Chordae tendinae

25) In the given statements choose the incorrect one :

(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-tight chamber

(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity
(3) The thoracic chamber is formed ventrally by the vertebral column.
The thoracic chamber is formed laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped
(4)
diaphragm.

26)

In an experiment on circulatory dynamics, blood from the digestive tract was observed to first pass
through the liver before entering systemic circulation.
Which vascular system explains this observation?

(1) Coronary circulation

(2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Pulmonary circulation
(4) Renal portal system

27) Every 2000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around _________ml of oxygen to the tissue under
normal physiological condition-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 10 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 50 ml

28) A Rh⁻ woman carrying a Rh+ foetus may develop antibodies against Rh antigen. This condition is
known as:

(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis

(2) Haemophilia
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Polycythemia

29) Neural signal from which centre can reduce the duration of inspiration is:

(1) Chemosensitive area

(2) Respiratory rhythm centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery

30) Role of which of the following chemical/gas is quite insignificant in the regulation of respiratory
rhythm ?

(1) CO2
+
(2) O2 and H concentration
+
(3) CO2 and H concentration
(4) O2

31) One molecule of haemoglobin carries :-

(1) One molecule of O2
(2) Two molecules of O2
(3) Three molecules of O2
(4) Four molecules of O2

32) A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration.
This quantity of air taken in is

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Tidal volume
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity

33) Most of the carbon dioxide (CO2) in blood is transported as:

(1) Dissolved CO2 in plasma

(2) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Bicarbonate ions in plasma
(4) Carbonic acid

34) Higher number of RBCs in the blood of a mountain dweller in comparison to a person residing in
plains can be explained by :

(1) Lack of pollutants in higher mountainous regions

Less pO2 in atmospheric air on mountains requiring more RBCs to supply the required amount
(2)
of O2 to tissues
(3) Better nutrition intake of mountain dwellers
(4) Enhanced erythropoiesis in mountain dwellers due to high exposure to UV rays

35) Coronary Artery Disease [CAD], often referred to as

(1) Arteriosclerosis
(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Hypertension

36) During ventricular systole, which of the following events occurs?

(1) Opening of atrioventricular valves

(2) Closure of semilunar valves
(3) Opening of semilunar valves
(4) Blood enters atria

37) How many characteristic feature given below are related to pleura.
(I) Single layered
(II) Fluid contained in it reduces the friction on the lung surface
(III) Its outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall
(IV) Its inner layer is in contact with lungs.

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) II, III and IV

38) Statement-I : Platelets are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.
Statement-II : Platelets release several substances that participate in the coagulation (clotting) of
blood.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct option:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

39)

The valve present between the right atrium and right ventricle is:

(1) Bicuspid valve

(2) Tricuspid valve
(3) Semilunar valve
(4) Mitral valve

40) The QRS complex of an electrocardiogram represents:

(1) Atrial depolarisation

(2) Ventricular depolarisation
(3) Atrial repolarisation
(4) Ventricular relaxation

41) Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding trachea ?

(1) It usually lies posterior to oesophagus

(2) It splits into right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs
(3) Opening to trachea is covered by epiglottis during swallowing
(4) Tracheal rings are 'C' shaped

42) Blood becomes oxygenated because gas flow from ________pO2 to _________ pO2, which is an
example of _________ ?

(1) Low, High, Diffusion

(2) High, Low, Osmosis
(3) High, Low, Diffusion
(4) Low, High, Facilitated diffusion

43) . What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)?

(1) CO2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases

(2) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases.
(3) RBCs count increases
(4) RBCs count decreases.

44) All the following structures are lined by incomplete cartilaginous rings to prevent from
collapsing during inspiration, except :-

(1) Respiratory bronchiole

(2) Primary bronchi
(3) Initial bronchiole
(4) Secondary bronchi

45) Assertion : Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory
rhythm to suit the demand of body tissues.
Reason : A specialized centre present in medulla region of brain called respiratory rhythmic centre
is primarily responsible for this regulation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 3 1 1 4 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 2 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 4 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 2 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe =

Frequency of third harmonic of closed pipe =

Hz.

3) The universal gravitational constant G is totally different from g.

The constant G is scalar and posses the dimensions [M-1 L3 T-2].

0
g is a vector and has got the dimensions [M LT-2].
It is not a universal constant.

4)

and

5)

cm and cm

6) To produce 5 beats/sec. Frequency of one wire should be increase up to 505 Hz. i.e.
increment of 1% in basic frequency.

or
percentage change in Tension = 2(1%) = 2%
7) The frequency of vibration of a string
Also number of loops = Number of antinodes.
Hence, with 5 antinodes and hanging mass of 9 kg.

We have p = 5 and T = 9g
With 3 antinodes and hanging mass M

We have p = 3 and T = Mg

8)

9) 9 : 8

10) In case of open pipe, where N = order of harmonics = order of mode of vibration

(Here v = 330 m/s)

11) and

No. of beats =

12)

13) Shift
i.e., 2 fringes upwards.

14)
15) From

Here S1P is the path difference = for maximum intensity.

or

Then

Number of points for maxima become 3.

16) By using

17) Velocity of sound in gas

18) By using
19) On comparing the given equation with
, it is clear that wave is travelling in negative x-direction.
It's amplitude a = 10 m and = 60, k = 2. Hence frequency

and

20) Resultant amplitude

21) Suppose two tuning forks are named A and B with frequencies n_{A} = 256Hz (known), n .
= ? (unknown), and beat frequency x = 4 bps.

Frequency of unknown tuning fork may be or

nB = 256 + 4 = 260Hz or = 256 - 4 = 252Hz
It is given that on sounding waxed fork A (fork of frequency 256 Hz) and fork B, number of
beats (beat frequency) increases. It means that with decrease in frequency of A, the difference
in new frequency of A and the frequency of B has increased. This is possible only when the
frequency of A while decreasing is moving away from the frequency of B.
This is possible only if n = 260Hz

22) , comparing with equation

, distance between two adjacent nodes = cm

23)

and

24) Mass of satellite does not affects on orbital radius

25) Given and

The focal length

On solving, we get or

26) To see the container half-filled from top, water should be filled up to height x so that
bottom of the container should appear to be raised upto height (21-x).
As shown in figure apparent depth h' = (21 - x)
Real depth h = x

27)

28) When viewed from face (1)

.... (i)
Now when viewed from face (2)

.... (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii)

29)
At point A, by Snell's law

... (i)

At point B, for total internal reflection

From figure,

.... (ii)

Now

30) and

31) (Focal length by displacement method)

32) (if r < R) and (if r > R )

33)

34) By using

35)

(a) → r, s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → p

36) We are given that .

Using the definitions of the magnitude of the cross product and the dot

product . we can write

Assuming A and B are non-zero and , we can simplify this to find the angle between
the vectors:

The magnitude of the sum of two vectors is given by the formula:

Substitute the value of into the formula:

since ;

This can be written in the form presented in the options as

37) The vector product (cross product) results in a vector that is perpendicular to both
and . The scalar product (dot product) of two perpendicular vectors is always zero.

Alternatively, the scalar triple product is the volume of the parallelepiped

formed by the three vectors. If the angle between and is O, the vectors are parallel and
thus coplanar. The volume of a parallelepiped with coplanar vectors is zero.

38) The first vector is A = .

The second vector is B = , which can be rewritten in standard form as B = -
.
Two vectors are perpendicular if their dot product is zero.
A.B=0

The dot product is calculated by multiplying the corresponding components and summing the
results:

-8 + 12 + 8 = 0
4+8 =0
Subtract 4 from both sides and divide by 8:

39) For a zero resultant with two vectors, they must be equal in magnitude and opposite in
direction. The question specifies unequal magnitudes, so two vectors cannot work.

40) Central fringe at same position.

path difference
 Now

41) For first minima,

First secondary maxima will be at

42)

Apparent rise =

cm

43) For a compound microscope

44)

45) Gravitational potential at mid point

Now,
[m = mass of particle]
So, for projecting particle from mid point to infinity
KE = |PE|

CHEMISTRY

46) A : Benzene B : Toluene

47) = 0.8 × 5 = 4 atm = KH.

48) The solution which show a large positive deviation from Raoult's law form minimum boiling
azeotrope at a specific composition.

49)

= 23.80 m
Where = mole fraction of solute
= mole fraction of solvent
= molecular mass of solvent

50) Higher the effective molality of solute, minimum will be freezing point of solution.

51) As at lower temperature, O2 is more dissolved ir water than that at higher temperature, so
aquatic species are more comfortable in cold wates.

52) For isotonic solutions :

53)

54) Ethanol + water forms positively deviated solution.

55) Conceptual

56) Metal acts as anode

57)

Reducing power α SOP

SRP Q > P > S > R

58) (C1)

If C2 > C1 Ecell is positive & ΔG is negative.

59)

K = G × G* Here G* is cell constant

= 0.012 × 56 = 0.672

60) = CH3COONa + HCl – NaCl.

91 + 426 – 126
= 391

61)

Ionic MOBILITY

62) Which of the following decreases on dilution of the electrolyte solution?

63) Deposited equivalent will be same

1eq. Ag = 1 mol Ag
1 eq. Cu = 1/2 mol Cu
1 eq. Al = 1/3 mol Al

64) Conceptual

65) For a given concentration cell

For a max emf [H+]LHS should be min and that is for NH4OH(aq)

66) NCERT-XII, Pg#89,90

67)

These are characteristics of fuel cells.

68)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand among the given options.

Concept:
This question is based on Bidentate Ligands, Symmetry in Ligands.
 Solution:
An unsymmetrical bidentate ligand has two different donor atoms;

(1) Glycinato

(2) Ethylenediamine

(3) Aqua H2O monodentate.

(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

Final Answer: Option (1)

69) As per synergic bonding.

70) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(en) = ethylene diamine have two donor site
(en) = 4donor sites
Cl2 = 2 donor sites
6 donor sites (so, six coordination number).
71)
3C 4e- Bond

72)

Question explanation : Determining which complex among options follows Sidgwick EAN
rule strictly.
Concept: This question is based on EAN equals noble gas electrons
Solution :EAN = Z − oxidation state + electrons donated by ligands.
For Na[Co(CO)₄]: Z(Co)=27, complex charge = −1 → Co oxidation state = −1. 4 CO → 8
electrons. EAN = 27 − (−1) + 8 = 36 = Kr → follows EAN. Other options give EAN ≠ nearest
noble gas.
Final answer: (Option 4)

73) Answer-Option (3)

Explanation - The question asks for the platinum complex that dissociates into four ions in
solution.
Concept- [Pt(NH3)5CI]CI3
The coordination sphere contains [Pt(NH3)5,CI]3+, and 3CI– are outside.
In solution:
[Pt(NH3)5 CI]CI3 → [Pt(NH3),CI]3+ + 3C–
Total ions = 4

74)

Explain Question: Identify isomerism not shown by complex.

Concept: Types of isomerism in coordination compounds.

Solution:
• [Co(SCN)₂(NH₃)₄]Cl shows ionisation isomerism because Cl⁻ can exchange inside/outside
coordination sphere.
• SCN⁻ is ambidentate → shows linkage isomerism (S- or N-bonding).
• Octahedral complexes with different ligands can show geometrical isomerism.
• Optical isomerism requires chiral arrangement, but this complex has symmetry plane → not
optically active.

Final Answer: Option (4)

75) Explain Question:

Identify the correct order of spectrochemical series of lignds
Concept: This question based on spectrochemical series.
Solution:
Spectrochemical series order -
Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–
Final Answer (1) Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–

76) Question Explanation: The question is asking about the correct classification of cobalt
(III) complexes based on ligand type and orbital usage.
Concept: hybridisation, Ligand field.
Solution: Both complexes contain Co³⁺ (d⁶). [CoF₆]³⁻ has weak-field F⁻, giving a high-spin,
sp³d² (outer-orbital) and paramagnetic complex. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ has strong-field NH₃, giving a
low-spin, d²sp³ (inner-orbital) and diamagnetic complex. Thus statement (4) is correct.
Final Answer: Option (4)

77)

F- is a weak field ligand.

78) Question Explanation: Asking about total isomers of [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl.

Concept: Geometrical and optical isomerism.

Solution: [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ is octahedral. It shows cis and trans forms. Cis form is optically active
giving two enantiomers, while trans form is optically inactive, giving one isomer. Total = 3.

[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
[M(AA)2a2] type

Final Answer: Option (1)

79)

Question Explanation: Asking about CFSE of d6 octahedral low-spin complex.

Concept: For octahedral low-spin complex, CFSE = (–0.4 t2g electrons + 0.6 × eg electrons)
Δ0 + pairing energy correction.
Solution:
0
• d6 low-spin (strong-field ligand) → all 6 electrons occupy t2g6 , eg
• CFSE = (– 0.4 × 6 + 0.6 × 0) Δ0 + pairing correction P = – 2.4 Δ0 + 2P
Final Answer: Option(1)
 80)

Explain Question: Asking about determining the complex with highest absorbed light
wavelength.

Concept: Ligand field strength (Δ) energy of absorption (E) 1/λ

Ligand field strength ∝ Eabs ∝

Solution:
Arrange ligands by field strength (strong → weak): CN– > NH3 > NO2– > Cl–
Weakest ligand → smallest Δ → largest λ absorbed.
[FeCl6]3– has Cl– (weak-field) → highest wavelength of absorption.

Final answer: Option (4)

81)

A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

82) Question Explanation: We are asked to identify which given metal carbonyl complex
acts as an oxidising agent.

Concept:

A. Oxidising agents are species that can accept electrons (i.e., they are in a lower oxidation state
and can be reduced further).
B. Stability of metal carbonyls depends on the 18-electron rule. Complexes that are electron-
deficient tend to act as oxidising agents.

Solution:
[Mn2(CO)10] : Stable dimer, follows 18-electron rule not oxidising. 10
[Fe(CO)5] : Stable 18-electron complex not oxidising.
[Mn(CO)5] : 17-electron species, electron-deficient strong oxidising agent.
[Fe2(CO)9] : Stable dimer, not oxidising.

Final Answer : Option (3)

83) Explaining the Question :- Identify the pair of elements present in the same period and
group.
Concept:- This question is based on Periodic table Group and period.

Solution :- Elements with atomic numbers 65 (Terbium) and 66 (Dysprosium) are both
lanthanides. all lanthanides belong to period 6 and are placed in group 3 of the periodic table.

Final Answer :- 2

84) Explain Question: Which element releases the maximum energy when it gains an
electron?
 Concept: This question is based on Electron Gain Enthalpy.
Solution: Fluorine has a very high effective nuclear charge and a strong tendency to accept
one electron to achieve a stable, noble gas configuration, resulting in a large release of
energy.
E.A order - F > O > N > Ne
Final Answer: option(1)

85)

Explain Question : Identify the group of elements with the highest ionization potential in any
period.

Concept : This question is based on ionization Potential.

Solution : Ionization potential increases across a period. Inert gases have stable, full electron
shells, requiring the most energy to remove an electron, thus having the maximum I.P.

Final Answer : Option (2)

86)

There is huge jump (more than 16 eV) between 4th and 5th IP
∴ element has 4 valence e– i.e. Si

87)

Zr & Hf have almost similar atomic radii due to lanthanoid contraction.

88) ⇒ Cl > F > S > O

89) For isoelectronic

Anion > Neutral > Cation

90)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Pg. No. 134

92)

NCERT Pg. No. 146

93)

NCERT Pg. No. 143

94)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

95)

NCERT Pg. No. 145

96)

NCERT Pg. No. 145

97)

NCERT Pg. No. 137

98)

NCERT Pg. No. 150

99)

NCERT Pg. No. 145, 146

100)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

101)

NCERT Pg. No. 141

102)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

103)
NCERT Pg. No. 146

104)

NCERT Pg. No. 134

105)

NCERT Pg. No. 135

106)

NCERT Pg. No. 135

107)

NCERT Pg. No. 145

108)

NCERT Pg. No. 141

109)

NCERT Pg. No. 149

110)

NCERT Pg. No. 156

111)

NCERT Pg. No. 158

112)

NCERT Pg. No. 164

113) NCERT Pg. No. 156

114)

NCERT Pg. No. 156 - 161

115)

NCERT Pg. No. 164

116)

NCERT Pg. No. 159

117) NCERT Pg. No. 154

118)

NCERT Pg. No. 155

119)

NCERT Pg. No. 156

120)

NCERT Pg. No. 159

121)

NCERT Pg. No. 161

122)

NCERT Pg. No. 154

123) NCERT Pg. No. 156 - 159

124) NCERT Pg. No. 157

125)

NCERT Pg. No. 157

126) NCERT Pg. No. 160

127)

NCERT Pg. No. 156 - 159

 128)

NCERT Pg. No. 16 - 18

130) NCERT Pg. No. 20, 21

131)

NCERT Pg. No. 14

132)

NCERT Pg. No. 12

133)

NCERT Pg. No. 14

134)

NCERT Pg. No. 13

135) NCERT Pg. No. 10

ZOOLOGY

136)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 101 - 102

137)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 102

138) Old NCERT Pg. No. 103 - 104

139) Old NCERT Pg. No. 102

140)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 102

141)
Old NCERT Pg. No. 102

142)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 101

143)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 103

144)

Old NCERT Pg. No. 103, Fig 7.4

145) NCERT Pg. No. 195

146) NCERT Pg. No. 187, Table 14.1

147)

NCERT Pg. No. 189

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 199 (2026 Reprint)

149)

NCERT Pg. No. 187

150)

NCERT Pg. No. 185 - 186

151)

NCERT Pg. No. 202

152)

NCERT Pg. No. 187

153) NCERT Pg. No. 197 (2026 Reprint)

154) NCERT Pg. No. 186

155)

NCERT Pg. No. 194

156)

NCERT Pg. No. 197

157)

NCERT Pg. No. 197

158)

NCERT Pg. No. 199

159)

NCERT Pg. No. 199

160)

NCERT Pg. No. 184 - 185

161)

NCERT Pg. No. 201

162)

NCERT Pg. No. 189

163)

NCERT Pg. No. 200 (Rh blood group system)

164)

NCERT Pg. No. 191

165) NCERT Pg. No. 191

166) NCERT Pg. No. 189

167)

NCERT Pg. No. 187

168)

NCERT Pg. No. 189

169)

NCERT Pg. No. 190

170) NCERT Pg. No. 203

171) NCERT Pg. No. 202 (Cardiac cycle)

172)

NCERT Pg. No. 184

173) NCERT Pg. No. 195 (2026 Reprint)

174)

NCERT Pg. No. 201 (Structure of heart)

175)

NCERT Pg. No. 203 (Electrocardiogram)

176)

NCERT Pg. No. 184

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 188

178)

NCERT Pg. No. 189

179) NCERT Pg. No. 184

180) NCERT Pg. No. 191